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Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Kerala PSC KAS MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Kerala PSC KAS Mock Test Series 2024 - Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 for Kerala PSC KAS 2024 is part of Kerala PSC KAS Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Kerala PSC KAS exam syllabus.The Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 MCQs are made for Kerala PSC KAS 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 below.
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Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Which of the following can be said to be the characteristic feature of a capitalist economy?

  1. There is private ownership of the means of production.

  2. Production takes place for selling the output in the market as well as saving it for personal requirements of the owner in future.

  3. Sale and purchase of labour services at a price is known as the wage rate.

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 1
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • A capitalist economy can be defined as an economy in which most of the economic activities have the following characteristics:

  • Statement 1 is correct. There is private ownership of means of production in a capitalist economy.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The produce is not saved for personal needs of the owner in future. Production takes place for selling the output in the market.

  • Statement 3 is correct. There is sale and purchase of labour services at a price, which is called the wage rate.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Who was recently appointed as the Eminent Jurist and Distinguished Professor at K.R. Mangalam University?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

U.U. Lalit, the former Chief Justice of India, has taken on the role of Eminent Jurist and Distinguished Professor at K.R. Mangalam University. His extensive legal experience and contributions to the judiciary enhance the academic prestige of the university.

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Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

What significant geological feature was uncovered by Israeli scientists near Cyprus?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

The Eratosthenes Canyon, which dates back 5.5 million years, was uncovered by Israeli scientists. This underwater canyon measures 10 km in width and 500 m in depth, providing insights into ancient geological events and the history of the Mediterranean Sea.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

What award did Ishwari Prasad Namboodiri receive recently?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Ishwari Prasad Namboodiri was honored with the Shankar Smriti Award, which recognizes significant contributions in various fields. Awards like these help in promoting cultural and social values within society.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

On which date is the International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female Genital Mutilation observed?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

The International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female Genital Mutilation is observed on February 6 each year. This day aims to raise awareness and advocate for the eradication of this harmful practice, promoting gender equality and women's rights globally.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

What major event will Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan inaugurate on February 7, 2024?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

Dharmendra Pradhan is set to inaugurate the ULLAS Mela at the National Bal Bhavan. This event focuses on showcasing various educational initiatives under the Nav Bharat Saksharta Karyakram, aiming to enhance literacy and learning among youth.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

Which company was awarded the Best Green Bond - Corporate Award at The Asset Triple A Awards for Sustainable Finance 2024?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

REC Limited earned the Best Green Bond - Corporate Award for its issuance of $750 million Green Bonds. This recognition highlights the company's commitment to sustainable finance and environmental responsibility, particularly following its significant issuance linked to green initiatives.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Who became the first woman judge appointed to the Kerala High Court in India?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Anna Chandy made history as the first woman judge appointed to the Kerala High Court. This milestone represents a significant advancement in gender representation within the Indian judiciary, encouraging more women to pursue careers in law.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

What is the main objective of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Bill, 2024?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Bill, 2024 aims to strengthen the existing regulatory framework of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It is part of ongoing efforts to enhance pollution control measures and protect water resources in India.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Which astronaut became the first person to hit a golf ball on the Moon?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Alan Shepard made history as the first person to hit a golf ball on the Moon during the Apollo 14 mission in 1971. This iconic moment highlights the human spirit of exploration and the unique experiences astronauts have during their missions.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

What significant historical event occurred on February 6, 1819?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

Sir Thomas Stamford Raffles discovered Singapore on February 6, 1819. This event marked the beginning of Singapore's transformation into a significant trade hub and its eventual development into a modern nation-state.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

What record did cosmonaut Oleg Kononenko set recently?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Oleg Kononenko set a world record for the most time spent in space, surpassing 878 days. This remarkable achievement underscores the advancements in human space exploration and the endurance required for long-duration missions.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Which fusion band won the Grammy for Best Global Music Album in 2024?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

The fusion band Shakti won the Grammy for Best Global Music Album for their work "This Moment." The group's unique blend of Indian classical music with jazz and world music elements showcases the rich diversity and cultural fusion in contemporary music.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

What significant award did Dr. Bina Modi receive in 2023?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Dr. Bina Modi was honored as the 'Outstanding Business Woman of the Year 2023' by the Indo-American Chamber of Commerce. This award recognizes her leadership and contributions to sustainable business practices, highlighting women's empowerment in the business sector.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with respect to Managed Floating Exchange Rate:

1. In this exchange rate system, the central banks intervene to buy and sell foreign currencies in an attempt to moderate exchange rate movements.

2. It is also called the 'dirty floating' system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 15
  • Managed Floating Exchange Rate: Without any formal international agreement, the world has moved on to what can be best described as a managed floating exchange rate system. India is having this type of exchange rate system. This system is also known as 'dirty floating'. It is a mixture of a flexible exchange rate system (the floating part) and a fixed rate system (the managed part).
  • In this hybrid exchange rate system, the exchange rate is basically determined in the foreign exchange market through the operation of market forces. Market forces mean the selling and buying activities by various individuals and institutions. So far, the managed floating exchange rate system is similar to the flexible exchange rate system. But during extreme fluctuations, the central bank under a managed floating exchange rate system (like the RBI) intervenes in the foreign exchange market. The objective of this intervention is to minimize the fluctuation in the exchange rate of the rupee. Since, the exchange rate is basically determined by market forces, the upward and downward movements in the value of the rupee are appreciation and depreciation. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is correct.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

With reference to the economy, what does the term de minimis refer to?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 16
  • Under the WTO Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), domestic agri-subsidies are classified into three categories; green, blue and amber. Under WTO principles, "amber box" subsidies create trade distortions because they encourage excessive production through farm subsidies to fertilizers, seeds, electricity, and irrigation.
  • They are also called as Aggregate Measure of Support. As per the WTO norms, the AMS can be given up to 10 % of a country’s agricultural GDP (at 1986-88 prices) in the case of developing countries. On the other hand, the limit is 5% for a developed economy. This limit is called the de minimis level of support. It is thus minimal amounts of domestic support that are allowed even though they distort trade — up to 5% of the value of production for developed countries, 10% for developing countries.
  • Hence option (b) is the correct answer. 
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Which of the following statements best explains the term ‘high-powered money’?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 17
  • One of the core functions of the Central bank is to issue the currency of the country. This currency issued by the central bank can be held by the public or by commercial banks and is called the ‘high- powered money’ or ‘reserve money’ or ‘monetary base’ as it acts as a basis for credit creation.
  • High high-powered money is also defined as the total liability of the monetary authority of the country (RBI). It consists of currency (notes and coins in circulation with the public and vault cash of commercial banks) and deposits held by the Government of India and commercial banks with RBI. If a member of the public produces a currency note to RBI the latter must pay her value equal to the figure printed on the note. Similarly, the deposits are also refundable by RBI on demand from deposit-holders. These items are claims that the general public, government, or banks have on RBI and hence are considered to be the liability of RBI. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
  • High-powered money is the base for the expansion of Bank deposits and the creation of a money supply. The supply of money varies directly with changes in the monetary base and inversely with the currency and reserve ratios.
  • The amount of money that banks generate with deposits by the public is called a Money Multiplier. 
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Which of the following statements best describes WTO's MFN (Most Favoured Nation) principle?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 18
  • Most-favoured-nation (MFN): Under the WTO agreements, countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners. Grant someone a special favour (such as a lower customs duty rate for one of their products) and you have to do the same for all other WTO members.
  • A most-favored-nation (MFN) clause requires a country to provide any concessions, privileges, or immunities granted to one nation in a trade agreement to all other World Trade Organization member countries. Although its name implies favoritism toward another nation, it denotes the equal treatment of all countries. Hence option (b) is the correct answer
  • Equal treatment of imported and locally produced goods after foreign goods enter the domestic market is a clause under WTO's another principle known as National Treatment: Treating foreigners and locals equally. 
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

With reference to Bharat NCAP (New Car Assessment Program), consider the following statements:

1. It will allocate Star Ratings ranging from 0 to 4.

2. It is only applicable to cars that are produced in the country and not the imported models.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Both the statements are not correct. About Bharat NCAP(New Car Assessment Program):

  • It is a new car safety assessment programme which proposes a mechanism of awarding ‘Star Ratings’ to automobiles based upon their performance in crash tests. Features:
  • The proposed Bharat NCAP evaluation will allocate Star Ratings ranging from 1 to 5.
  • Vehicles for this program will be tested at facilities equipped with the necessary infrastructure, such as testing agencies.
  • It will be applicable to locally produced and imported motor vehicles of category M1 with a gross vehicle weight less than 3.5 tonnes.
  • In addition to the driver’s seat, M1 category motor vehicles are utilized for carriage of passengers, comprising 8 seats in addition to the driver’s seat 
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

If the equilibrium Rupee-Dollar exchange rate was Rs.65 and now it has become Rs.70 per dollar, then the Rupee has?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 20
Changes in the price of foreign exchange under flexible exchange rates are referred to as currency depreciation or appreciation. For instance, if the equilibrium Rupee-Dollar exchange rate was Rs.65 and now it has become Rs.70 per dollar, then the Rupee has depreciated against the dollar.

By contrast a currency appreciates when it becomes more expensive in terms of foreign currency. Thus statement 1 is correct.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

  1. The amount of domestic currency required to buy one unit of foreign currency is known as ‘nominal exchange rate’.

  2. The ratio of foreign to domestic prices measured in the same currency is defined as ‘real exchange rate’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 21
The price of one currency in terms of the other is known as the exchange rate. The price of foreign currency in terms of domestic currency is called bilateral ‘nominal exchange rate’. Bilateral in the sense that they are exchange rates for one currency against another and they are nominal because they quote the exchange rate in money terms i.e so many rupees per dollar or per pound.

Therefore, statement 1 is correct. If one plans to travel to Britain and wants to know how expensive British goods are relative to goods at home, the measure that captures this is the ‘real exchange rate’-the ratio of foreign to domestic prices measured in the same currency. Thus statement 2 is also correct. If the ‘real exchange rate’ is equal to one the currencies are at ‘purchasing power parity’. This means that goods cost the same in two countries when measured in the same currency.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Consider the following statements:

  1. Flows are defined at a particular point of time.

  2. Stocks are defined over a period of time.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 22
Option (d) is the correct answer. Concepts like income, output or profits are concepts that make sense only when a period of time is specified. You only earn profit or income over a period of time. These are called flows because they occur over a period of time.

Thus, flows are defined over a period of time. Therefore statement 1 is incorrect. In contrast, capital goods or consumer durables once produced do not wear out or get consumed in a delineated time period. These are called Stocks. Stocks are thus defined at a particular point of time. However, changes in stock over a period of time are called flows. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

With reference to ‘Giffen goods’, consider the following statements:

  1. They are goods for which demand increases as the price increases.

  2. They do not have readily available substitutes.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 23
Option (c) is the correct answer.

A Giffen good is a product for which demand increases as the price increases and falls when the price decreases. A Giffen good has an upward-sloping demand curve, which is contrary to the fundamental law of demand, which states that the quantity demanded for a product falls as the price increases, resulting in a downward slope for the demand curve. Generally speaking, Giffen goods are typically inferior products that do not have readily available substitutes.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Consider the following statements with respect to ‘economic agents’:

  1. Economic agents are only individuals who make economic decisions.

  2. Producers of goods and services who decide what and how much to produce cannot be categorised as economic agents.

  3. Government entities and banks can also be economic agents.

Which of the statements given above is/are not Correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 24
Option (a) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. By economic units or economic agents are those individuals or institutions, which take economic decisions. They can be consumers who decide what and how much to consume.

  • Statement 2 is also incorrect. They may be producers of goods and services who decide what and how much to produce.

  • Statement 3 is correct. Economic agents/units may be entities like the government, corporations, banks which also make different economic decisions like how much to spend, what interest rate to charge on the credits, how much to tax, etc.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

With reference to the Lassa fever, consider the following statements:

  1. Lassa fever is one of the hemorrhagic fever viruses.
  2. Like the Ebola virus, Lassa fever is contagious from person to person.
  3. Lassa virus is typically transmitted by the urine or feces of Mastomys rats to humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Lassa fever:

  • Lassa fever is one of the hemorrhagic fever viruses like Ebola virus, Marburg virus, and others. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It is caused by the Lassa virus, a member of the arenavirus family of viruses.
  • Unlike the Ebola virus, Lassa fever is not as contagious from person to person, nor as deadly. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Lassa virus is typically transmitted by the urine or feces of Mastomys rats to humans. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Health workers may be infected by direct contact with blood, body fluids, urine, or stool of a patient with Lassa fever.
  • Lassa fever occurs primarily in West Africa in areas where these rodents live.

Blueprint Priority Diseases of WHO: Worldwide, the number of potential pathogens is very large, while the resources for disease research and development (R&D) is limited. To ensure efforts under WHO‘s R&D Blueprint are focused and productive, a list of diseases and pathogens are prioritized for R&D in public health emergency contexts. A WHO tool distinguishes which diseases pose the greatest public health risk due to their epidemic potential and/or whether there is no or insufficient counter-measures. At present, the priority diseases are

  • COVID-19
  • Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
  • Ebola virus disease and Marburg virus disease
  • Lassa fever
  • Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus (MERS-CoV) and Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
  • Nipah and henipaviral diseases
  • Rift Valley fever
  • Zika―
  • Disease X‖: Disease X represents the knowledge that a serious international epidemic could be caused by a pathogen currently unknown to cause human disease. The R&D Blueprint explicitly seeks to enable early cross-cutting R&D preparedness that is also relevant for an unknown ―Disease X‖.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

The p-Block Elements comprise those belonging to Group 13 to 18 and these together with the s-Block Elements are called the Representative Elements or Main Group Elements.
At the end of each period in a periodic table is a noble gas element with a closed valence shell. All the orbitals in the valence shell of the noble gases are completely filled by electrons and it is very difficult to alter this stable arrangement by the addition or removal of electrons. The noble gases thus exhibit very low chemical reactivity.
Noble gases have uses that are derived from their other chemical properties. The very low boiling points and melting points of the noble gases make them useful in the study of matter at extremely low temperatures. Therefore often used for specific industrial processes.

  • The low solubility of helium in fluids leads to its admixture with oxygen for breathing by deep-sea divers: because helium does not dissolve in the blood, it does not form bubbles upon decompression (as nitrogen does, leading to the condition known as decompression sickness, or the bends).
  • Xenon has been used as an anesthetic; although it is costly, it is non-flammable and readily eliminated from the body.
  • Radon is highly radioactive; its only uses have been those that exploit this property (e.g., radiation therapy). (Oganesson is also radioactive, but, since only a few atoms of this element have thus far been observed, its physical and chemical properties cannot be documented.).
  • Krypton is used in fluorescent bulbs, flashbulbs, and lasers. Lamps filled with krypton are used at some airports as approach lights since their light can penetrate dense fog unusually well.
  • Neon is also used as fog lights. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

  1. Chloroplasts are green-colored plastids, which comprise pigments called chlorophyll.
  2. Chloroplasts are found in all green plants and algae.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Chloroplasts: They are green-colored plastids, which comprise green-colored pigments within the plant
cell and are called chlorophyll. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Chloroplast is an organelle that contains the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll that captures sunlight and
converts it into useful energy, thereby, releasing oxygen from water.
Chloroplasts are found in all green plants and algae. They are the food producers of plants. These are found in the guard cells located in the leaves of the plants. They contain a high concentration of chlorophyll that traps sunlight. This cell organelle is not present in animal cells. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Chloroplast has its own DNA and can reproduce independently, from the rest of the cell. They also produce amino acids and lipids required for the production of chloroplast membrane.
Functions of Chloroplast: Following are the important chloroplast function:

  • The most important function of the chloroplast is to synthesize food by the process of photosynthesis.
  • Absorbs light energy and converts it into chemical energy.
  • Chloroplast has a structure called chlorophyll which functions by trapping the solar energy and used for the synthesis of food in all green plants.
  • Produces NADPH and molecular oxygen (O2) by photolysis of water.
  • Produces ATP – Adenosine triphosphate by the process of photosynthesis.
  • The carbon dioxide (CO2) obtained from the air is used to generate carbon and sugar during the Calvin Cycle or dark reaction of photosynthesis.
  • Where does the photosynthesis process occur in the plant cell?
  • In all green plants, photosynthesis takes place within the thylakoid membrane of the Chloroplast.
     
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

 With reference to  Fuel Cells, consider the following statements: 

  1. A fuel cell uses the chemical energy of hydrogen or other fuels to cleanly and efficiently produce electricity. 
  2. They can provide power for systems as large as a utility power station but not for small systems such as laptops/computers.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Statement 1 is correct: A fuel cell uses the chemical energy of hydrogen or other fuels to cleanly  and efficiently produce electricity. 
Statement 2 is not correct: They can provide power for systems as large as a utility power station  and as small as a laptop computer.

Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

With reference to the Liability Convention, consider the following statements:

  1. It came into force in 1972 and deals only with damage caused by space objects to other space assets.
  2. The Convention makes the launching country “absolutely liable” to pay compensation for  any damage caused by its space object.
  3. The provision of the Convention has resulted in compensation payment only once to the U.S.A by Canada.

How many statements given above are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Convention on International Liability for Damage Caused by Space Objects

  1. This convention is one of the several international agreements that complement the Outer Space Treaty, the overarching framework guiding the behaviour of countries in space.
  2. The Liability Convention came into force in 1972 and deals mainly with damage caused by space objects to other space assets, but it also applies to damage caused by falling objects on earth. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  3. The Convention makes the launching country “absolutely liable” to pay compensation for any  damage caused by its space object on the earth or to a flight in air. Hence, Statement 2 is  correct.

 The country where the junk falls can stake a claim for compensation if it has been damaged by the falling object.
 The amount of compensation is to be decided “in accordance with international law and  the principles of justice and equity”.

  • This provision of the Convention has resulted in compensation payment only once so far — when Canada sought damages from the then Soviet Union, for a satellite with radioactive substance that fell into an uninhabited region in its northern territory in 1978. The Soviet Union is reported to have paid 3 million Canadian dollars. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Consider the following statements with reference to the intermolecular interactions between the different states of matter:

  1. Intermolecular forces tend to keep the molecules of different states of matter together.
  2. Thermal energy of the molecules tends to keep the molecules of different states of matter apart.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Kerala PSC KAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Intermolecular forces tend to keep the molecules together but the thermal energy of the molecules tends to keep them apart. Three states of matter are the result of a balance between intermolecular forces and the thermal energy of the molecules. Hence the correct option is (c)
When molecular interactions are very weak, molecules do not cling together to make liquid or solid unless thermal energy is reduced by lowering the temperature.
Gases do not liquify on compression-only, although molecules come very close to each other and intermolecular forces operate to the maximum. However, when the thermal energy of molecules is reduced by lowering the temperature; the gases can be very easily liquified.

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