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Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - KTET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Kerala SET Mock Test Series 2024 - Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography)

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) for KTET 2024 is part of Kerala SET Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) questions and answers have been prepared according to the KTET exam syllabus.The Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) MCQs are made for KTET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) below.
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Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 1

How many satellites in orbit are required for the functioning for the NavIC system and provide accurate real-time positioning service?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 1

For the NavIC system to provide real-time position and timing, three IRNSS satellites are in the geostationary orbits and the other four satellites are in geosynchronous orbits with required inclination.

Thus, the Correct answer is A.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 2

Consider the following States:

1. Karnataka

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Goa

4. Rajasthan 

Which of the above are the major maize-producing states?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 2

The correct answer is Option 4.

  • In India, maize is grown in Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Gujarat.​

Key PointsMaize

  • In India, maize is the third most important food crop after rice and wheat.
  • Maize in India contributes nearly 9% of the national food basket.
  • In addition to staple food for human beings and quality feed for animals,
  • It serves as a basic raw material ingredient in industrial products, including-
    • starch, oil, protein, alcoholic beverages, food sweeteners, pharmaceutical, cosmetic, film, textile, gum, package and paper industries, etc.
  • The predominant maize-growing states that contribute more than 80 % of the total maize production are:
    •  Andhra Pradesh (20.9 %), Karnataka (16.5 %), Rajasthan (9.9 %), Maharashtra (9.1 %), Bihar (8.9 %), Uttar Pradesh (6.1 %), Madhya Pradesh (5.7 %), Himachal Pradesh (4.4 %).
  •  Apart from these states, maize is also grown in Jammu and Kashmir, and North-Eastern states.
  • Hence, maize has emerged as an essential crop in non-traditional regions.
  • State like Andhra Pradesh which ranks 5th in the area (0.79 m ha) has recorded the highest production (4.14 mt) and productivity (5.26 t/ha ) in the country.

Additional InformationRequirement for maize production:

  • It is a Kharif crop.
  • Irrigation facilities, usage of fertilizers, and usage of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seed contributed to the massive increase in maize production in India.
  • Maize grows well in temperatures ranging from 21°C to 27°C.
  • It grows well in old alluvial soil.
  • maize is a warm-weather crop
  • it cannot survive freezing
  • Therefore, the best soils for maize growth should have a sufficient ability to hold water and efficient drainage.
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Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 3

Assertion (A): In southern hemisphere, westerlies are stronger with very high velocity of winds than in the northem hemisphere.

Reason (R): In southern hemisphere, there is vast expanse of ocean and therefore westerlies attain terrific speed.

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 3

The correct reason is Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

  • The westerlies are steadier and stronger in the southern hemisphere because they face minimal land interference as compared to the northern hemisphere.
    • Land interference causes obstruction in the flow of wind in the northern hemisphere, thus slowing the westerlies.
    • Hence (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • The prevailing wind in a region of the Earth's surface is a surface wind that blows predominantly from a particular direction.
    • The dominant winds are the trends in direction of the wind with the highest speed over a particular point on the Earth's surface.

  • Hence, option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Westerlies
    • The westerlies are the winds blowing from the subtropical high-pressure belts towards the sub-polar low-pressure belts.
    • They blow from south­west to north-east in the northern hemisphere and north-west to south-east in the southern hemisphere.
    • The westerlies of the southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent due to the vast expanse of water, while those of the northern hemisphere are irregular because of uneven relief of vast land masses.
    • The westerlies are best developed between 40° and 65°S latitudes.
      • These latitudes are often called Roaring Forties, Furious Fifties, and Shrieking Sixties – dreaded terms for sailors.
    • The poleward boundary of the westerlies is highly fluctuating. There are many seasonal and short-term fluctuations. These winds produce wet spells and variability in weather.
  • Polar easterlies
    • The Polar easterlies are dry, cold prevailing winds blowing from north-east to south-west direction in Northern Hemisphere and south-east to the north-west in Southern Hemisphere.
    • They blow from the polar high-pressure areas of the sub-polar lows.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 4
Which one of the following is NOT a current of the Atlantic Ocean?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 4

The correct answer is Agulhas Current.

 Key Points

  • Agulhas current is a warm current flows south along east Coast of Africa in Southwest Indian ocean.
  • Benguela current is a cold current flows along the coast of South Africa, Namibia, and Angola. 
  • Brazilian current is a warm current flows along the east coast of Brazil, Uruguay and Argentina.
  • Canaries current is a cold current present between Fram strait and cape farewell in North Atlantic ocean.

Additional Information

  • Ocean current is a massive movement of ocean water that is caused and influenced by various forces.
  • Forces responsible for the ocean currents are wind, gravity, Coriolis force, heating by solar energy, water density and temperature of the water.
  • Mainly, ocean currents are classified into two types. they are cold currents and warm currents
    • Cold currents bring cold water into warm water areas usually found on the west coast of the continents.
    • Warm currents bring warm water into cold water areas usually found on the east coast of continents. 
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 5
______ is an equatorial belt of low atmospheric pressure where the trade winds converge.
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 5

The correct answer is Doldrums.

  • Doldrums is an equatorial belt of low atmospheric pressure where the trade winds converge.

Key Points

Moraine

  • Moraines are distinct ridges or mounds of debris that are directly laid down by a moving glacier. This material is usually soil and rock.
  • Moraines only show up in places that have, or used to have glaciers.
  • Glaciers are extremely large, moving rivers of ice.
  • Glaciers shape the landscape in a process called glaciation.
  • Glaciation can affect the land, rocks, and water in an area for thousands of years. That is why moraines are often very old.

La Nina

  • La Nina is a climate pattern that describes the cooling of surface ocean waters along the tropical west coast of South America.
  • La Nina is the counterpart of El Nino.
  • La Lina means Little Girl in Spanish.
  • La Lina occurs at irregular intervals of about two to seven years.
  • La Niña is caused by a build-up of cooler-than-normal waters in the tropical Pacific, the area of the Pacific Ocean between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
  • Unusually strong, eastward-moving trade winds and ocean currents bring this cold water to the surface, a process known as upwelling.

El Nino

  • El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
  • El Nino means Christ child or Littel Boy in Spanish
  • During the time of El Nino, the trade winds weaken and warm water pushed back east towards the coast of Latin American countries.
  • El Nino can affect our weather significantly and trade winds.
  • El Nino has a strong effect on marine life off the Pacific coast.

Additional Information

  • Atmospheric Pressure belts are seasonally identical horizontal pressure variations created in the earth's atmosphere just above the earth's surface due to seasonal and spatial variation of energy received by the earth at different places.
  • There are seven pressure belts on the earth's surface. They are the Equatorial Low, the two Subtropical highs, the two Subpolar lows, and the two Polar highs. Except for the Equatorial low, the others form matching pairs in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.

Equatorial Low-Pressure Belts

  • It is located on either side of the North and South of the Equator in a zone extending from 0o to 5o.
  • It is thermally induced because of the intense heating of the ground by the vertical rays of the sun.
  • It represents the zone convergence of North-East and South-East trade winds. This convergence zone is characterized by light and feeble winds and because of the frequent calm conditions, this belt is also called a belt of calm or doldrums.

Subtropical High-Pressure Belts

  • It extends between 30o to 35o both the hemisphere
  • It is not thermally induced but dynamically induced as it owes its origin to the rotation of the earth and sinking and settling down of winds.
  • Here the zone convergence of winds at a higher altitude above this zone results in the subsidence of air from higher altitudes and this wind results in high pressure. This zone of high pressure is also called the Horse latitude.
  • The permanent winds blowing from the Sub-Polar High-Pressure to Sub-Polar Low-Pressure in both the hemisphere are called Westerlies.

Sub-Polar Low-Pressure Belts

  • It extends between 60o and 65o in both the hemisphere.
  • The low-pressure belt does not thermally induce because there is low temperature throughout the year and as such there should have been a high-pressure belt instead of low pressure.
  • Pressure gradient, rotation of the earth and Coriolis force, centrifugal action of wind are the factor that controls the air motion.
  • This region is marked by violent storms in winter.

Polar High-Pressure Belts

  • Polar high pressure is very small in area and extends between 70o to 90oin both the hemisphere.
  • The temperatures are always extremely low.
  • The Polar regions experience very cold climatic conditions due to the rays of the sun is extremely slanting.
  • These regions of Polar high-pressure belts are known as the Polar Highs.
  • These regions are characterized by permanent IceCaps.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 6
Match List I with List II:-
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 6

Stream length ratio= Rl= Lu/Lu+i, where, Lu is the mean length of the streams or basins of order u; the suffix u+1 denotes the same for the next higher order.

Bifurcation Ratio, Rb= Nu/Nu+i, where Nu is the number of the streams or basin of order u; the suffix u+1 denotes the same for the next higher order.

Elongation ratio(Re)= P/π L

Where, P= basin perimeter, L is maximum basin length.

Drainage Texture may be defined as the total number of streams segments of all order in a basin per perimeter of the basin.

Thus, the Correct answer is d.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 7
Which of the following is not influenced by human activities?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 7

Impact of humans on the Environment:

  • Groundwater systems have considerably depleted due to human activities, including groundwater abstraction, reservoir construction, the indiscriminate exploitation of groundwater, changes in land use and intervention in natural flow patterns.
  • Mangroves have been subjected to unsustainable human activities such as deforestation led by increasing demand for land which has resulted in continued reduction in their numbers.
  • Wetlands have been deteriorating due to the effects of human activities such as alteration of the physical, chemical and biological components of wetland ecosystems, dam construction, discharge of industrial wastes and municipal sewage. These activities contribute to changes in the flood regime of wetlands and the input and cycling of nutrients.
  • Several species are at a greater risk of going extinct than before because of the destruction of their habitats by humans, hunting, changes in land use and land cover, species introduction or removals, etc.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 8

Consider the following -

1. Methane

2. Nitrous Oxide

3. Halons

Which of the above is/are responsible for depletion of stratospheric ozone?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 8

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

  • Ozone layer depletion the reduction of the amount of ozone in the stratosphere.
    • It occurs when chlorine and bromine atoms come into contact with ozone in the stratosphere, they destroy ozone molecules.
    • Ozone-depleting substances (ODS), which include chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and hydrofluorocarbons (HCFCs), were once used widely in refrigerants, insulating foams, solvents, and other applications.
    • Other chemicals that damage the ozone layer include methyl bromide (used as a pesticide), halons (used in fire extinguishers), and methyl chloroform (used as a solvent in industrial processes). 
  • Methane can react with other gases to form water vapor, which then breaks down into other chemicals that destroy ozone.
  •  Nitrous Oxide affect Ozone depletion.
    • The compound reacts with high-energy oxygen atoms to produce a deadlier compound, nitric oxide (NO). This then goes on to destroy ozone, a molecule made up of three oxygen atoms.
  • Halons are ozone depleting substances whose production and consumption is controlled under the Montreal Protocol.
    • All halons contain bromine which is 40-100 times more effective at destroying ozone than chlorine.

Additional Information

  • Stratosphere
    •  It is the second layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere.
    • It extends up to 50 km of height.
    • This layer provides some advantages for flight because it is above stormy weather and has steady, strong, horizontal winds.
    • The ozone layer is found in this layer. The ozone layer absorbs UV rays and safeguards the Earth from harmful radiation.
    • Stratopause separates stratosphere and mesosphere.​ 
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 9
Consider the following statements about ecological factors:-

i. Light and temperature are direct ecological factors.

ii. Indirect factors include soil structure, altitude, wind and slope.

iii. Edaphic factors and biotic factors can be included in physical factors.

Choose the correct option from below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 9

 The environment is an amalgamation of various features called factors. These are the product of forces and process of nature and are universal and inherent all over the earth. These factors are classified into two groups direct factors and indirect factors. The direct factors are light, temperature, soil air, water etc. and indirect factors include soil structure, soil organisms, altitude, wind, slope, etc.

Thus, the correct answer is D.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 10

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Choose the correct options from the following:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 10

Universal Geography is the work of Elisee Recule published in the year 1894

La reform Sociale is the work by Le play published in the year 1864

Du serment decisoir is the work by Paul de Rousiers published in the year 1878

Histoire de France is the work of Edmond demolins published in the year 1879

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 11
A passive sensor uses:
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 11

Explanation:

There are two types of sensors in remote sensing:

1) Passive remote sensing (Sensor):

  • It depends on a natural source to provide energy for data collection. Sun is the most commonly used source of energy for passive remote sensing.
  • However, passive remote sensing can be done in absence of the Sun. In this case, the target material itself is the source of energy, and the sensor records primarily emitted radiation.
  • Examples: Return bram vidicon, Electro-optical scanner, and Electro-optical radiometer use light as the primary source.

2) Active remote sensing (Sensor):

  • It uses a man-made source of energy. In this case, humans can manipulate the nature of source energy (wavelength, power, duration).
  • Examples: Radar
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 12
Which one of the following instrument is used for determination of degree of stability or instability of an air parcel?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 12

 Radiosondes are balloons which fly at different levels to sense different weather phenomena, like stability and unstability of weather. Thus, radiosondes with help of radio waves measure the various weather formations.

Thus, the Correct answer is B.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 13

Which of the following states is sole producer of agate, chalk, and perlite in India?

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 13

Gujarat is the sole producer of agate, chalk, and perlite and is leading producer of fluorite (concentrate), fireclay, silica sand, lignite, laterite, petroleum and natural gas and bauxite in the country. State is the sole holder of country’s resources of perlite, 66% of fluorite, 28% of diatomite, 18% of bentonite and 12% of wollastonite. [Ministry of Mines]

So, the correct option is C.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 14
Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion(A)- According to Anthony Giddens human agency and social structure are not two separate concepts.

Reason(R)- Structure is a continuous process which is carried out in a flow.

Select the correct answer from options given below:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 14

Structuration theory was majorly propounded by Giddens and Bourdieu. According to Giddens human agency and social structure are not two separate concepts or constructs, but these are together produced by social action and interaction. He states it as an outcome of a continuous process or flow of process.

Thus, the Correct answer is A.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 15
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the Core Periphery Model as given by Friedman ?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 15

Important Points

The conventional core-periphery model of development tries to represent the emergence of a regional urban system in four major stages which goes on par with the development of regional transport systems. From an initial process that favors the setting of spatial inequalities, these are eventually reduced and a functionally integrated urban system emerges.

Stage 1 (Pre-industrial): Localized Economics

  • The pre-industrial (agricultural) society, with localized economies and a small-scale settlement structure.
  • Each settlement is fairly isolated, activities are dispersed and mobility is low.
  • There are limited differences between spatial entities in terms of levels of economic development.

Stage 2 (Transitional): Core-periphery

  • The concentration of the economy in the core city begins as a result of innovation, capital accumulation, and industrial growth.
  • The specific reasons behind this concentration are often not too clear, location (better access) being a significant factor, but the fact remains that a dominant center emerges within an urban system to become its growth pole.
  • Trade and mobility increase, but within a pattern dominated by the core even if the overall mobility remained low.
  • Among the numerous examples of such a phase are the early industrialization of Great Britain in the late 18th century or the beginning of the colonial incorporation of Latin America, Africa, or Asia.

Stage 3 (Industrial): dispersion of economic activity

  • Through a process of economic growth and diffusion, other growth centers emerge.
  • The main reasons for deconcentration are increasing input costs (mainly labor and land) in the core area.
  • This diffusion is linked with increased interactions between elements of the urban system and the construction of transport infrastructures.

Stage 4 (Post-industrial): spatial integration

  • The urban system becomes fully integrated and spatial inequalities are reduced significantly.
  • The distribution of economic activities creates a specialization and a division of labor linked with intense flows along high-capacity transport corridors.
  • The factors that have favored spatial inequalities in the previous phases of development have structured dominant poles of the urban system and favored the setting of a large commercial gateway, usually a world city.

Hence, the correct sequence is Localized economies, core-periphery, dispersion of economic activity, spatial integration

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 16
Whose stream ordering technique is most often considered in drainage basin studies?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 16

The stream order method by Strahler is the most common technique used in various applications. Here, the small permanent streams are called 1st order streams. Two 1st order streams join to form a larger order, second order stream; two 2nd order streams join to form a 3rd order and so on.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 17
According to World Human Development Index-2013, the rank of India was
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 17

India ranked 135 on Human Development Index in 2013.

Key Points

  • The HDI was created to shift conversations about development progress away from GDP and toward a metric that really counts on the lives of individuals.
  • The Human Development Index (HDI) was developed by the Human Development Report Office (HDRO) in 1990 to offer a straightforward indicator of human progress.
  • The HDI is based on the freedom of individuals to lead the lives they choose and has become well-known for its straightforward yet thorough formula that evaluates a population's average longevity, education, and income.

Additional Information

  • A long and healthy life, access to information, and a reasonable level of living are the three fundamental elements of human development that the HDI measures in summary form over time.
  • Life expectancy is a measure of a long and healthy life.
  • Access to learning and knowledge is measured by expected years of schooling for children of school-entry age, which is the total number of years of schooling a child of school-entry age can expect to receive if current patterns of age-specific enrolment rates remain constant throughout the year. The knowledge level is determined by mean years of schooling among the adult population, which is the average number of years of schooling received in a lifetime by people aged 25 years and older.
  • Gross National Income (GNI) per capita expressed in constant 2017 foreign dollars converted using purchasing power parity (PPP) conversion rates is a measure of standard of life.

Thus we know that India ranked 135 on Human Development Index in 2013.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 18

Match the concepts (List - I) with their proponents (List - II) selecting correct answer from the codes given below :

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 18

The correct answer is (a) - (2), (b) - (3), (c) - (1), (d) - (4)

Key Points

  • Heartland theory was given by British political geographer H J Mackinder in the year 1904. "The Geographical Pivot of History" is an article submitted by Halford John Mackinder in 1904 to the Royal Geographical Society that advances his heartland theory. In this article, Mackinder extended the scope of geopolitical analysis to encompass the entire globe.
  • Heartland theory believed that whoever controls the heartland( Siberia and part of central Asia) will control the world islands whereas rimland theory believed that whoever controls the rimland (Inner marginal crescent) comprised Europe, North Africa, West Asia, India, South East Asia, and part of China will control the world islands
  • Spykeman propounded the Rimland theory in opposition to the Heartland theory of Mackinder. Spykman proposed a theory that countered Mackinder's Heartland Theory. According to his rimland theory, the coastal areas or littorals of Eurasia are key to controlling the World Island, not the Heartland. As per Spykman, landlocked states usually faced security challenges from their immediate neighbors.
  • The ideology of Nazism Party workers and also Adolf Hitler was Lebensraum which meant that the living space or territory area extended to enable the material resources and the power of the German Nation and also established the new territory for their people settlement.
  • The term Lebensraum was coined by the German geographer, Friedrich Ratzel (1844-1904). During the last two decades of the 19th century, Ratzel developed a theory according to which the development of all species, including humans, is primarily determined by their adaptation to geographic circumstances.
  • Geopolitics, analysis of the geographic influences on power relationships in international relations.
  • The word geopolitics was originally coined by the Swedish political scientist Rudolf Kjellén about the turn of the 20th century, and its use spread throughout Europe in the period between World Wars I and II (1918–39) and came into worldwide use during the latter.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 19
Read the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below.

(a) Ratzel applied organic theory to biogeography.

(b) Humboldt was of the opinion that life of people living in islands, plains and mountains was similar.

(c) Kant described the impact of environment in late 18th century.

(d) Darwin’s theory of origin of species is dependent on the idea that the nature changes with time.

Code:

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 19

Ratzel developed the concept of Lebensraum (living space). In that he applied the concepts of organic theory to Political Geography. Humboldt travelled extensively through the world and noted that the mode of life was different in different places, such as coastal plains differed from islands, river basins or mountainous regions. Immanuel Kant, in 18th century concluded from his research that environment had a huge impact on human lifestyle. Charles Darwin, in his book Origin of species claimed that things in nature change with time.

Thus, the correct answer is D.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 20
The mean of five numbers is 18. If one number is removed the mean is 16. The number removed is
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 20

Concept use:

Mean = Sum of Observation/Total Number of Observation

Calculations:

The mean of five numbers is 18

∴ Sum of Observation = 5 × 18 = 90

If one number is removed the mean is 16.

∴ Total number of Observation = 4

∴ Sum of new Observation = 4 × 16 = 64

Sum of new Observation - Sum of Observation = 90 - 64 = 26 (The Number removed from the data)

Hence, The Correct Answer is 26.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 21
Who propounded the concept of paradigm?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 21

There have been various evolutionary phases in geography. It passed from descriptive and teleological phase to the quantitative radical and dialectical materialism stage. There was a shift of approaches that were conventionally used to a set of new ways of approaches. This was called paradigm which was for the first time propounded by Thomas Kuhn in 1962.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 22

The cadastral maps, topographical maps and the city plans come under the category of

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 22

Topographic maps are based on topographical surveys. Performed at large scales, these surveys are called topographical in the old sense of topography, showing a variety of elevations and landforms. This is in contrast to older cadastral surveys, which primarily show property and governmental boundaries.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 23
The empirical relationship among the three measures of central tendencies is
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 23

Concept

The relationship between mean, median and mode is called empirical relationship. It is defines as :

Mean - Mode = 3(Mean - Median)

Calculation

Mean - Mode = 3(Mean - Median)

⇒ Mean - Mode = 3 Mean - 3 Median

⇒ 3 Median - Mode = 3 Mean - Mean

⇒ 3 Median = 2 Mean + Mode

∴ 3 Median = Mode + 2 Mean

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 24
Who provided a framework for analyzing the geography of political concepts?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 24

Richard Hartshorne, an American Geographer who specialized in economic and political geography, attempted to provide a new framework for analyzing the geography of political areas and the modern state in the 1950s as the sub discipline was becoming narrowly systematic. Hartshorne had a lot of contributions to this field such as "Political Geography in the Modern World", "The Politico-Geographic Pattern of the World".

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 25
Which of the following is not a component of human-made environment?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 25

The environment is the air, water, and land in or on which people, animals, and plants live. Environment is our basic life support system. It provides the air we breathe, the water we drink, the food we eat and the land where we live. 

  • It is a combination of natural and human-made phenomena. While the natural environment refers to both biotic and abiotic conditions existing on the earth.
  • Land, water, air, plants and animals comprise the natural environment.
  • The term built environment, or built world, refers to the human-made surroundings that provide the setting for human activity, ranging in scale from buildings to parks.
  • It has been defined as "the human-made space in which people live, work, and recreate on a day-to-day basis." Settlement, agriculture, and transport are human-made environments but the land is not.

Hence, it is clear that land is not a component of a human-made environment.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 26
Which spacecraft was used for the launch of Mangalyan (Mars Orbiter Mission) of India?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 26

The Mars Orbiter Mission probe lifted off from the First Launch Pad at Satish Dhawan Space Centre (Sriharikota Range SHAR), Andhra Pradesh, using a Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) rocket C25 at 09:08 UTC on 5 November 2013. The launch window was approximately 20 days long and started on 28 October 2013.

Important Points

'Mangalyan' MOM:

  • Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), the maiden interplanetary mission of ISRO, launched on November 5, 2013, by PSLV-C25 got inserted into Martian orbit on September 24, 2014, in its first attempt. 
  • Mangalyan success makes India only the fourth entity to put spacecraft in Mars orbit after the United States, the Soviet Union, and the European Space Agency.
  • India is the first Asian country to successfully place a spacecraft in orbit around Mars and the first country anywhere to do so in the first attempt.
  • Mangalyaan was India's first interplanetary mission. The indigenously-built space probe has been in the Martian orbit since September 24, 2014.
  • The mission made India the first Asian country, and the fourth in the world after Roscosmos, NASA, and the European Space Agency, to get to the planet.
  • China referred to India's successful Mangalyaan as the "Pride of Asia".

Hence, the correct answer is PSLV C-25.

Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 27
Which of the following waves is used in the process of remote sensing?
Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 27

Explanation :

The waves used in common TV remote control are Infrared Rays.

  • Infrared (IR), sometimes called infrared light, is electromagnetic radiation (EMR) with wavelengths longer than those of visible light. 
  • Infrared Rays are Electromagnetic waves.
  • It is therefore invisible to the human eye.
  • IR is generally understood to encompass wavelengths from the nominal red edge of the visible spectrum around 700 nanometers (frequency 430 THz) to 1 millimeter (300 GHz) (although the longer IR wavelengths are often designated rather as terahertz radiation).
  • Black-Body Radiation from objects near room temperature is almost all at infrared wavelengths.
  • As a form of electromagnetic radiation, IR propagates energy and momentum, with properties corresponding to both those of a wave and of a particle, the photon

Additional Information

  •  An X-ray, or X-radiation, is a penetrating form of high-energy electromagnetic radiation. Most X-rays have a wavelength ranging from 10 picometers to 10 nanometers, corresponding to frequencies in the range 30 petahertz to 30 exahertz and energies in the range 124 eV to 124 keV.
  • Ultraviolet (UV) is a form of electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength from 10 (with a corresponding frequency around 30 PHz) to 400 nm (750 THz), shorter than that of visible light, but longer than X-rays. UV radiation is present in sunlight and constitutes about 10% of the total electromagnetic radiation output from the Sun. It is also produced by electric arcs and specialized lights, such as mercury-vapour lamps, tanning lamps, and black lights.
  • A Gamma-ray, or gamma radiation, is a penetrating form of electromagnetic radiation arising from the radioactive decay of atomic nuclei. It consists of the shortest wavelength electromagnetic waves and so imparts the highest photon energy.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 28

Which of the following pairs of "Ocean- Maximum Deepest Point" is correct?

1. Pacific Ocean - Mariana Trench

2. Indian Ocean - Sunda Trench

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 28

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

Mariana Trench:

  • The Mariana Trench is located in the western Pacific Ocean and has the deepest natural trench in the world.
  • It is a crescent-shaped trough in the Earth's crust averaging about 2,550 km long and 69 km wide.
  • The maximum known depth is 10,994 meters at the southern end of a small slot-shaped valley on its floor known as the Challenger Deep.

Sunda Trench:

  • The Sunda Trench, earlier known as and sometimes still indicated as the Java Trench, is an oceanic trench located in the Indian Ocean near Sumatra.
  • It is located in the Indian Ocean.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 29

Read the following statements and state which of them are true?

Spykman's Rimland Theory was a variant of Mackinder's Heartland Model. Both the models emphasised on

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 29

The correct answer is the Role of the value of location in determining the political destiny of the world.

Key Points

  • Mackinder’s theory is a spatial analysis of the geopolitics in terms of its location, accessibility, and natural resource base. His theory has laid down the principle of geographical causation of history which means that the pulsations in human history have been caused by geographical conditions.
  • Mackinder interpreted history as essentially a struggle between Land & Sea Power and presented his paper “The Geographical Pivot of History” to elucidate his formula of Geographical Causation in World History.
  • For him, whoever could gain control of ‘World Island’ would be in an almost unstoppable position to dominate the entire globe. In his opinion, the heartland having Agricultural resources could conquer Europe, the Middle East & Far East.
  • The world power seemed to be centralized around the Heartland which he said had all the resources and natural defense by the physiographic factors. It is invincible and represents the supremacy of Land Power which political destiny of the world.
  • According to Mackinder -“Who rules East Europe commands the Heartland?” “Who rules Heartland commands the World-Island?” “Who rules the World-Island commands the World?”.
  • In 1944, Spykman as the point of critic or antithetic to the Heartland Theory presented his work titled “The Rimland Theory” in his book – “The Geography of Peace”. He gave a different interpretation of the relative importance of Heartland (Land Power) vis-a-vis the surrounding Inner and Outer Crescent
  • According to Spykman Sea Power has faster movement, and greater accessibility while Land can be inaccessible due to hills, rivers, deserts, etc. Sea Powers has more than 2/3rd the population of the world and is thus full of human & technological resources. Most of the population is located in Coastal areas.
  • Spykman considered geographical features as important determinants in foreign policy because of their emphasis on spatial variations.
  • In medieval human history and the pre-modern era, Naval Power had supremacy over Land power as they had Navigation Technology, Ships, etc. e.g. British, French, Germany, Portuguese, Spanish, and Italy were all sea powers and the whole world became a colonial house of these countries.
Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 30

Process of chemical weathering is represented by-

Detailed Solution for Kerala SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 4 (Geography) - Question 30

Chemical weathering is the weakening and subsequent disintegration of rock by chemical reactions. These reactions include oxidation, hydrolysis, and carbonation. These processes either form or destroy minerals, thus altering the nature of the rock's mineral composition

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