# Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 3

## 200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering | Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 3

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Attempt Mock Test: SSC JE Civil Engineering (CE)- 3 | 200 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for SSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study Mock Test Series of SSC JE Civil Engineering for SSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

### If the code word of 'DOG' is 'BCMNEF,’ then find the code of 'CAT'?

Solution: (BC→D)

(MN→O)

(EF→G)

Same as

AB(→)C

YZ(→)A

RS⁡(→)⊤

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 2

### Which numbered space in the Figure given below represents 'Doctors.’ Who are Players as well as Artists? Solution: Only 7 represents 'Doctor,’ who is also a player and artist.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 3

### Raju ranks 10th from the top, and Ravi ranks 24th from the bottom; if there are 3 students between, how many students are there in the class?

Solution: Raju holds the position from the top = 10 Sun retains place below = 24 And between = 3 Then the total number of students = 10 + 3 + 24 = 37.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 4

If L = +, M = -, N = X, P = ÷ then 5 N 5 P 5 L 5 M 5 =?

Solution: (5×5÷55−5=5)

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 5

Four diagrams of dice are represented below. Which of these dice shape represents the diagram given below. Solution:

(2⇒3)

(1⇒5)

(4⇒6)

So 2,4,1 are shown simultaneously and 3,5,6 in front of each other.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 6

Find at what time between 8 and 9 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but not together:

Solution: At 8 o'clock, the hour hand is at 8 and the min. hand is at 12, i.e., the two hands are 20 min. spaces apart To be in the same straight line but not together, they will be 30 min. spaces apart. So, the min. hand will have to gain (30−20)=10 min. spaces over the hour hand Now, 55 min. are gained in 60 min 10 min. will be gained in (60/55 ×10) mine 10(10/11) min

∴ The hand will be in the same line but not together at 10(10/11) min. past 8

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 7

In a certain code, if Mode is written as Node, Fun is written as Gun, and Bat is written as Cat, then what is the code for ‘Ring’?

Solution: Instead of the first letter of the word, the next in the alphabet series is written, i.e., Mode becomes Node (as the letter 'N' comes after the letter 'M')

Therefore, 'Ring' become 'Sing' (as letter 'S' comes after letter 'R') .

QUESTION: 8

which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order?

2. Universe

3. Tirupati

4. World

5. India

Solution: Tirupati → Andhra Pradesh → India → World → Universe

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 9

which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words in ascending order?

1. Police

2. Punishment

3. Crime

4. Judge

5. Judgement

Solution: Crime →Police→Judge →Judgement→ Punishment

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following words, in terms of the alphabet, will be the fourth in the dictionary?

Solution: 1. EFFLORESCENT

2. ENSURE

3. ENTREAT

4. ENTRY

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 11

If 4 ×6 ×9× 1 = 4196, 2 ×3 ×7 × 2 =2273 then 1 × 4 ×8 9 = ?

Solution: The number and the final number of each other is changing in each number.

4 × 6 × 9 × 1 = 4196,

2 × 3 × 7 × 2 =2273

1 × 4 × 8 × 9 = 1984

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 12

Choose the set from the given options, which is similar to the given set.

Given set: 4, 9, 18

Solution: +5 and +9

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 13

S is richer than R whereas A is richer than P. B is as rich as R. C is richer than S. the, which of the following statements is true.

Solution: C > S > R=B > A > P

B is poorer than S

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 14

In the following series, how many 9 are there, which are not preceded by 7, not followed by 5?

7, 9, 5, 5, 9, 7, 7, 9, 5, 5, 5, 7, 9, 5, 5, 7, 7, 9, 5, 7

Solution: 7, 9, 5, 5, 9, 7, 7, 9, 5, 5, 5, 7, 9, 5, 5, 7, 7, 9, 5, 7

There is only one such number after 5 and before 7.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 15

Direction: In the following questions below are given some statements followed by some given conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

Statements:

I. Some weather is rain.

II. Some summers are weather.

Conclusions:

I. Some summers are rain.

II. Some weather are summers.

Solution: Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 16

Direction: In the following questions below are given some statements followed by some given conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

Statements:

Malpractices in the examination are the major cause of decline in education standards.

Conclusions:

I. To improve the standard of education, control on malpractices is necessary.

II. These days, malpractices are happening in all the examinations.

Solution: I. To improve the standard of education, control on malpractices is necessary.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 17

Group the given figures in three classes using each figure only once. Solution: Given in the diagram above

There is a similarity in 1,2,6 that in these diagrams, the half-circle is cut into another chart.

There is an equality in 3,5,7 that is in the second diagram in these diagram chakras.

There is a similarity in 4,8,9 that the rectangular second diagram is cut in these diagrams.

So, the answer is 1,2,6 / 3,5,7 / 4,8,9

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 18

If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the following answer figures will be the correct reflection of the question figure.?

Question Figure:  Solution: Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 19

Which of the following word can't be made from the word 'PHARMACEUTICAL.'

Solution: 'PHARMACEUTICAL'

Only one 'I' in this word is not made serious by this CRITICAL word

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 20

Select the figure which is different from the rest of the 3 images. Solution: Option C is different from any other three. Because the part of the circle between the shaded part and the two-part is empty in this part. No other part is only one part empty.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 21

Which answer figure will complete the question figure?

Question Figure:  Solution: Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 22

Sathi is older than Renu. Geeth is younger than Renu, Priya is older than Sathi. Who is the oldest of them?

Solution: Priya> Sati> Renu> Git, Therefore, Priya is the eldest.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 23

Ram is standing facing North-West; first, he turns in the 45° clockwise direction and again in 135° the same direction, then he turns in the 90°anti-clockwise direction and again in the 180o same direction. Find in which direction is ram facing now?

Solution: the 4th turn is the endpoint which shows that he is facing in the south-west direction.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 24

The figure X given on the left-hand side in each question is folded to form a box. Choose from amongst the alternatives (A), (B), (C),(D) the boxes that are similar to the box formed. Solution: It is clear from the question figure that-

c and e are opposite to each other.

b and d are opposite to each other.

a and f are opposite to each other.

Since the opposite faces cannot be on adjacent sides, all these conditions are satisfied in Figure (D).

QUESTION: 25

E is the sister of B; A is the father of C, B is the son of C. How is A related to E.

Solution: Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 26

Fact 1: Jessica has four children

Fact 2: Two children have blue eyes, and two children are brown eyes.

Fact 3: The child has half girls

If the first three statements are true, then which of the following statements should be?

I. At least one girl has blue eyes

II. Two children are boys

III. Boys have brown eyes

Solution: Since half of the four children are girls, there will be two boys. It is not clear whether children have blue or brown eyes.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 27

Fact 1: Bridges are in all cap

Fact 2: There are black hats and blue hats.

Fact 3: Baseball caps the facts of the first three statements are true, then which of the following statements should be?

I. All the caps are bris

II. Some baseball caps are blue

III. There is no brush in baseball caps

Solution: All baseball caps are bris since baseball caps are caps (facts 3), and all hats have bruis (Fact 1). It comes out of statement III- but it does not follow all the caps; in a category that has a cap, which is not a baseball cap, there is a Bris (a description I). Details II can not be confirmed, either because it is possible, given the information that all baseball cap is black.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 28

A word is represented by the only set of members given in any one of the alternatives. The set of numbers given in the alternatives is represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two matrices given below. The column and row of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 3, and those of Matrix-II are numbered from 4 to 7. A letter from the matrices can be represented first by its row and then by its column. e.g., 'A' can be represented by 01, 12, 23, etc., and 'T' can be represented by 02, 10, 23, etc. Identify the set for the word 'LAMB.’ Solution: L - 46, 54, 67, 75

A - 00, 12, 21, 32

M - 01, 13, 22, 30

B - 45, 57, 66, 74

Thus, the word LAMB is represented by the set of numbers 75, 21, 13, 45

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 29

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. B is fourth to the right of H and second to the left of A. F is fourth to the left of A and third to the right of C. G is third to the right of K. E is second to the left of D. Then who is second to the left of K?

Solution: D is the second to the left of K

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 30

Which one set of letters, when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series, shall complete it?

m_m_am_a_mam

Solution: mam/mam/mam/mam

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 31

Which one set of letters, when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series, shall complete it?

a_ba_b_b_a_babb

Solution: abb/abb/abb/abb/abb

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 32

In a certain code language, '783' means 'Mangoes are good,’ '657' means 'eat good food,' and '938' means 'Mangoes are ripe,’ then which digit means 'ripe' in that language code?

Solution: The code for 'ripe' is 9.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 33

One application was received by the clerk in the afternoon of one week.

The next day he sent him to the senior clerk's table, which was on holiday that day.

The next day the senior clerk of the evening gave the application to the desk officer.

The Desk Officer had disposed of the application on the same day i.e., on Friday.

Which application was received by the incoming clerk?

Solution: The desk officer received the application on Friday. The application was forwarded to the table of the senior clerk on Thursday. So, the application was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday.

Hence the correct option is (C).

QUESTION: 34

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Gun : Soldier : : Camera : ?

Solution: Guns are related to soldiers. Similarly, The camera belongs to the photographer.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 35

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

RTVP : 19 : : NXLJ: ?

Solution: RTVP =18+20+22+16

=18+20+22+16=76

76/4=19

NXLJ=14+24+12+10

=38+22=60

(=60/4=15)

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 36

DirectionIn each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

130 : 68 : : 350 : ?

Solution:

(130/2=653=68)

(350/2=1753=178)

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 37

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

0.01 : 0.0001 : : 0.05 : ?

Solution: ((0.01)2=0.0001)

((0.05)2=0.0025)

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 38

Direction: Select the related word/letters/ number from the given alternatives.

Branch : Plant :: Limb : ?

Solution: Since the plant has branches, similarly, the animal has limbs.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 39

Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

Fish: School::?

Solution: A group of fish is a school; A group of wolves is packed.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 40

Select the odd word/letter/number from the given alternatives.

Solution: Except Fun fair, all other are exhibitions where display of items occur.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 41

Select the odd letters/word/number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution: Therefore, SV is the odd pair.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 42

Select the odd number/letter/number pair from the given.

Solution: 104- 17=87

114-19=95

144-24=120

132-22=110

All except for 87 are divisible by 5

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 43

Select the odd number/letter/number pair from the given.

Solution: Except for 'Body-Soul' in all other pairs, the second word is the antonyms of the first word.

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 44

Select the odd number/letter/number pair from the given.

Solution: In all other options except option C, only one vowel

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 45

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series. Solution: In the first figure

10-7 = 3

11-8 = 3

12-9 = 3

= 3 + 3 + 3 = 9

Similarly

In other figures:

15-12 = 3

17-14 = 3

16-13 = 3

= 3 + 3 + 3 = 9

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 46

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series. Solution: 72=49

92=81

52=25

Hence the correct answer is option B.

QUESTION: 47

Direction : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

11, 14, 14, 17, 17, 20, 20,?,?

Solution: It is a simple extra series with repetition.

It adds 3 in each number to reach the next number,

Which is repeated before 3 is added again.

Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 48

Direction: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

ZW3, UR6, PM10, KH15, ?

Solution: Hence the correct answer is option A.

QUESTION: 49

Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

5, 6, 14, 45, 184, ?

Solution:

5×1+1=6

6×2+2=14

14×3+3=45

45×4+4=184

184×5+5=925

Hence, the correct option is (a).

QUESTION: 50

Which diagram represents the relationship between Female, Mother, and Doctor? Solution: All related to each other, And mother is the only female, And the doctor can be a female or a man or a mother.

Hence the correct answer is option C.

QUESTION: 51

Solution:
• The Iqta system was a practice of Tax farming that Iltutmish introduced in the Delhi Sultanate.

• It was a grant of revenue from the territory in lieu of salary.

QUESTION: 52

“ Megalith” literally means ____?

Solution:
• Megalith literally means a huge stone.

• This culture is called Megalithic Culture.

• From this age, big stones have been found, sculptured, or chipped into different shapes.

• The dead were buried with distinctive pots,which are known as Black and Red Ware.

QUESTION: 53

The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called

Solution: The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called Smelting.

Smelting is the process of applying heat to ore to melt out a base metal. It is a form of extractive metallurgy. It is used to extract many metals from their ores, including silver, iron, copper, and other base metals.

QUESTION: 54

In which year Annapurna Yojana stated?

Solution: The Annapurna Scheme has been launched with effect from 1st April 2000. It aims at providing food security to meet the requirement of those senior citizens who, though eligible, have remained uncovered under the National Old Age Pension Scheme(NOAPS).
QUESTION: 55

Which strait connects the Arctic and the Pacific Ocean?

Solution: Bering Strait connects the Arctic and the Pacific Oceans. It is located between Russia and the United States.

Important Strait and its Location

1. Palk Strait Between India and Sri Lanka

2. Duncan Passage South Andaman and Little Andaman

3. Ten Degree Channel Little Andaman and Nicobar

4. The English Channel Between England and France

5. Florida Strait Between Cuba and the USA

6. Berring Strait Between Russia and USA

7. Bass Strait Between Australia and Tasmania

8. Strait of Gibraltar Between Spain and Morocco

9. Strait of Malaca Between Malaysia and Sumatra (It also connects the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean)

10. Barents Strait Between Scandinavian countries and the Arctic Ocean

QUESTION: 56

By what name has the NITI commission launched the global mobility Hackathon to crowdsource solutions for the purpose of future mobility in India?

Solution: The NITI Aayog launched a global mobility hackathon, "Move Hack," to crowdsource future mobility solutions for India. Move Hack is focused on 10 themes and structured over three legs: online, followed by Singapore leg, and the finals in New Delhi.
QUESTION: 57

Karikala was a Chola King during which of the following period?

Solution: Karikala was a Chola king who ruled in southern India during the Sangam period. He is recognised as the greatest of the Early Cholas. Though there is a disagreement between scholars on the dating of his reign, the most widely accepted date is 190 CE, which has been arrived at through the Gajabahu synchronism.
QUESTION: 58

Neutrophils and lymphocytes originate form

Solution:
• Neutrophils and lymphocytes orginate from the bone marrow.

• B-lymphocytes, which originate in the bone marrow, produce antibodies to fight off infection. The antibody attaches to the microbe, tagging it as "foreign.” Infection-fighting cells called neutrophils can now recognize the microbe, engulf and digest it.

QUESTION: 59

Which one of the following statements relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?

Solution:
• The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.

• The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature; that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. So, the Governments cannot be compelled to implement them.

• Although the Constitution in Article 37 itself says that these principles are fundamental in the country’s governance and it shall be the State’s duty to apply these principles in making laws.

• These principles reflect the ideology of socialism, Gandhian, and liberalism.

QUESTION: 60

Who was the founder of Bhartiya Jan Sangh?

Solution: Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was the founder of Bhartiya Jana Sangh. The Bharatiya Jana Sangh, commonly known as the Jan Sangh, was an Indian nationalist political party that existed from 1951 to 1977 and was the political arm of Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), a Hindu right-wing organisation.

In 1977, it merged with several other left, centre, and right parties opposed to the rule of the Indian National Congress and formed the Janata Party.

QUESTION: 61

In addition to hydrogen, the other abundant element present on Sun’s surface is

Solution: Hydrogen is converted into helium gas

A more important point related to solar System

Smallest Planet: Mercury

• Nearest Planet to Sun: Mercury

• Farthest Planet from Sun: Neptune

• Closest Planet to Earth: Venus

• Brightest Planet: Venus

• Brightest star after Sun: Sirius

• The planet with maximum satellites: Jupiter

• Coldest Planet: Neptune

• Hottest Planet: Venus

• Heaviest Planet: Jupiter

• Red Planet: Mars

• Biggest Satellite: Ganymede

• Smallest Satellite : Deimos

QUESTION: 62

How many ways are there to lose citizenship in the Indian Constitution?

Solution:
• Three modes are given to lose citizenship in the Indian Constitution. These are:-

1) Renunciation

2) Termination

3) Deprivation

• The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes 5 ways to acquire Citizenship of India. These ways are :

1) By birth

2) By decent

3) By registration

4) By naturalization

5) By incorporation

QUESTION: 63

The alignment of the beginning and the end of lines is referred to as

Solution: Text can be aligned with one or both edges (or insets) of the text frame. Text is said to be justified when it is aligned with both edges. We co justified text in a paragraph, including the last line.
QUESTION: 64

Small drops of a liquid are spherical in shape because

Solution:
• Small drops of a liquid are spherical because the surface energy is minimum for the spherical shape. It is due to surface tension.

• The inward forces on the surface molecules of the liquid droplet tend to cause the surface to volume ratio as small as possible.

Hence, option D is correct.

QUESTION: 65

Who was the author of Gita Govinda?

Solution: Gita Govinda is the story of dark Land Krishna and fair gopis.
QUESTION: 66

The highest concentration of urea is found in

Solution:
• The highest concentration of urea is found in the Hepatic vein.

• The hepatic veins are the veins that drain de-oxygenated blood from the liver into the inferior vena cava.

• There are usually three upper hepatic veins draining from the left, middle, and right parts of the liver. These are larger than the group of lower hepatic veins that can number from six to twenty.

QUESTION: 67

An Arab traveller Al-Masudi visited India during the reign of

Solution: Indra-III, one of the Greatest Rashtrakuta rulers, was visited by Al-Masudi (an Arab traveler).

Hence, option B is correct.

QUESTION: 68

The fuse in an electric circuit is connected in

Solution:
• A fuse wire is a safety wire connected in series with the live wire; in case of any large current supply or malfunctioning in the electric connections, it melts and breaks the electric circuit.

• It is always in series with the load no matter where it’s located. Many loads have an integral fuse that protects the appliance load.

• Usually, there is a fuse (or, more common these days, a circuit breaker) in the distribution box. This is intended to protect both the wiring and the appliance load.

QUESTION: 69

When was Bhartiya Mahila Vishwavidyalaya established for women’s welfare?

Solution: D.K. Karvey established Bhartiya Mahila Vishwavidyalaya in 1906 in Bombay.
• Dr. Dhondo Keshav Karve, popularly known as Maharishi Karve, was a social reformer in India in the field of women's welfare.

• Karve continued the pioneering work in promoting widows' education.

QUESTION: 70

What are the normal values of partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood?

Solution: Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in blood indicates the effectiveness of ventilation in the lungs' alveoli.
• The normal values are 35-45mmHg

• It is a good indicator of respiratory function.

• It reflects the amount of acid in the blood.

QUESTION: 71

The United States has marked India as the STA-1 country. What is the full form of STA-1?

Solution: Strategic Trade Authorization -1 (STA) allows licensing in connection with exports from US government authorities, through which certain items can be exported under the prescribed conditions without a transaction-specific license. The United States made India easy to export control for the sale of high technology products by incorporating it into the STA-1 country list, giving it equal access to NATO partners - Australia, Japan, and South Korea.
QUESTION: 72

Who gave the Gandhian Plan of 1944 for the economic development of India?

Solution: Shriman Narayan Aggarwal put Gandhian Plan forward in 1944, who was the principal of Wardha Commercial College.
QUESTION: 73

Which of the following terms is used for the tax revenue in the inflationary period?

Solution:
• In the inflationary period, the increase in tax revenue is known as buoyancy.

• When the government fails to check inflation, it raises income tax and corporate tax. Such a tax is called buoyancy.

QUESTION: 74

When was Prime Minister Narender Modi calls for the end of the “husbands of women sarpanches” or “sarpanch pati” practice?

Solution: Prime Minister Narendra Modi on24 April 2015 called for an end to the practice of “husbands of women sarpanches” or “sarpanch pati” exercising undue influence on the work of their wives elected to power.
QUESTION: 75

The Mansabdari system was introduced by which of the following emperor?

Solution: Mughal emperor Akbar introduced the Mansabdari System as new administrative machinery and revenue system. The term mansab literally means position, status, or rank, but in the context of the structure of the Mughal administration, it indicated the rank of mansabdar-that is, the holder of mansab- in the official hierarchy.
QUESTION: 76

Manas National Park is in which state?

Solution:
• Manas National Park is located in Assam.

• It is a UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve, and a biosphere reserve. It is well known for wild water buffalo.

QUESTION: 77

On which river, Tata Hydel scheme started?

Solution: On Bhima River, the Tata Hydel scheme started. The Tata Power Company Limited is an Indian electric utility company based in Mumbai, Maharashtra, India, and is part of the Tata Group. Tata Power has been ranked 3rd in 2017 Responsible Business Rankings developed by IIM Udaipur. Tata Power became the first Indian company to ship over 1 GW solar modules in February 2017.
QUESTION: 78

All forms of ROM are also known as ____________.

Solution:
• All forms of ROM are also known as Firmware.

• Data stored in ROM can only be modified slowly, with difficulty, or not at all, so it is mainly used to store firmware (software that is closely tied to specific hardware and unlikely to need frequent updates) or application software in plug-in cartridges.

QUESTION: 79

Which of the following states has launched ‘horn not ok’ awareness campaign and ‘Shaur Nahin’ mobile application?

Solution: The Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh, Jai Ram Thakur, has launched ‘horn not ok’ awareness campaign and ‘Shaur Nahin’ mobile application in Shimla.

The campaign’s objective is to spread awareness of unnecessary blowing horn as it creates unnecessary noise pollution and is harmful to health.

QUESTION: 80

Which of these are called long-haired stars?

Solution:
• Comets are popularly known as long-haired stars.

• They are small icy bodies that revolve around the Sun.

• They glow with the light of the Sun as they come close to it.

• Halley's Comet appears regularly every 76 years.

• It was last seen in 1986.

• It is believed that more than 700 comets have so far been observed.

QUESTION: 81

An object which absorbs all colours and reflects none appears:

Solution:
• An object which absorbs all colours and reflects none appears black.

• A black body is an idealized physical body that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation, regardless of frequency or angle of incidence.

QUESTION: 82

Science dealing with the study of soil is called

Solution:
• Pedology is the study of soils in their natural environment.

• Pomology is the science of fruit-growing.

• Ecology is the branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.

• Pedagogy is the method and practice of teaching, especially as an academic subject or theoretical concept.

QUESTION: 83

Recently, the Home Minister of India inaugurated the campus of NSG Regional Hub at_____.

Solution: The inauguration of the National Security Guard (NSG) Regional Hub campus was in Kolkata. This is termed as an important step in the direction of giving adequate facilities to the brave NSG jawans, which are important for them to function unhindered in ensuring the security of the Nation.
QUESTION: 84

The optical phenomenon that is primarily responsible for the observation of rainbow on a rainy day is

Solution:
• A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower. It is caused by the dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets present in the atmosphere.

• A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun. The water droplets act like small prisms.

• They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrops.

QUESTION: 85

Heavy metals got their names because compared to other atoms, they have

Solution:
• Heavy metals got their names because compared to other atoms, they have higher densities.

• Examples of heavy metals include gallium, thallium, and hafnium.

QUESTION: 86

A transformer works with

Solution: An alternating current (AC) in one winding creates a time-varying magnetic flux in the core, which induces a voltage in the other windings. Transformers are used to convert between high and low voltages, change impedance, and provide electrical isolation between circuits.
QUESTION: 87

The chemical(s) most commonly used for cloud seeding or 'artificial rainmaking’ is/are

Solution:
• Cloud seeding, a form of weather modification, attempts to change the amount or type of precipitation that falls from clouds by dispersing substances into the air that serve as cloud condensation or ice nuclei, which alter the microphysical processes within the cloud.

• The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding include

• a) silver iodide b) potassium iodide c) dry ice (solid carbon dioxide).

QUESTION: 88

'Entomology' is the science that studies

Solution:
• 'Entomology' is the science that studies Insects.

• Entomology is a taxon-based category; any form of scientific study focusing on insect-related inquiries.

• Entomology developed rapidly in the 19th and 20th centuries and was studied by large numbers of people.

QUESTION: 89

How many Rajya Sabha members, the President of India, can nominate?

Solution:
• Article 80 of the Indian Constitution lays down the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha as 250, out of which the President nominates 12 members, and 238 are representatives of the States and Union Territories.

• 12 members nominated by the president have expertise in subjects like literature, science, art, and social service.

QUESTION: 90

A NOT gate / Invertor can be implemented by:

Solution: A standard Inverter or Logic NOT Gate is usually made up of transistor switching circuits that do not switch from one state to the next instantly; there will always be some delay in the switching action.

Also, as a transistor is a basic current amplifier, it can also operate in a linear mode, and any small variation to its input level will cause a variation to its output level or may even switch “ON” and “OFF” several times if there is any noise present in the circuit. One way to overcome these problems is to use a Schmitt Inverter or Hex Inverter.

QUESTION: 91

In which country the Canterbury grassland most commonly found?

Solution:
• Canterbury grasslands are found in New Zealand,

• Other grasslands such as Prairies, Pampas, and Veldts are found in North America, South America, and South Africa.

QUESTION: 92

The chemical used as a 'fixer' in photography is

Solution: Popular salts are sodium thiosulfate—commonly called hypo—and ammonium thiosulfate—commonly used in modern rapid fixer formulae. Fixation involves these chemical reactions (X = halide, typically Br−): AgX + 2 S2O32− → [Ag(S2O3)2]3− + X.
QUESTION: 93

Which among the following theories is called the Iron Law of Wages?

Solution:
• Wage Fund Theory is called the Iron Law of Wages.

• It was developed by J.S.Mill.

• Accorourers. Wage is determined by the amount of wages fund and the total number of labours employed by him, the employers set apart a certain amount of capital to pay wages for labours.

• The iron law of wages is a proposed law of economics that asserts that real wages always tend, in the long run, toward the minimum wage necessary to sustain the life of the worker.

• The theory was first named by Ferdinand Lassalle in the mid-nineteenth century.

QUESTION: 94

Microeconomics deals with

Solution:
• Microeconomics deals with the decision-making of a single economic variable like a demand.

• Microeconomics is generally considered for the individual economics agents like household and business firms.

QUESTION: 95

What are the main functions of the spleen?

Solution: The main functions of the spleen are:
• to produce immune cells to fight antigens

• to remove particulate matter and aged blood cells, mainly erythrocytes

• to produce blood cells during fetal life

The spleen synthesizes antibodies in its white pulp and removes antibody-coated bacteria and antibody-coated blood cells through blood and lymph node circulation.

QUESTION: 96

The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as

Solution:
• The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as transcription.

• In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA. This necessitates defining the boundaries that would demarcate the region and the DNA strand that would be transcribed.

QUESTION: 97

Consumer gets maximum satisfaction at the point where

Solution:
• As per the law of diminishing marginal utility, the utility of each successive unit goes on diminishing as more and more units of a commodity are consumed.

• A rational consumer will consume the commodity up to a point where the marginal utility of the final unit of the commodity is equal to the marginal utility of money (in terms of price) paid for it. In this way, the consumer will get the maximum satisfaction and will be in equilibrium.

QUESTION: 98

'Misch Metal' is widely used in the manufacture of which of the following

Solution:
• Mischmetal (Mischmetal - "mixed metal") is an alloy of rare earth elements.

• A typical composition includes approximately 50% cerium and 25% lanthanum, with small amounts of neodymium and praseodymium.

• It is widely used in the manufacture of Cigarette lighters.

QUESTION: 99

Who was the ruler of the sultanate dynasty?

Solution: Nasir ud din Mahmud, Nasir ud din Firuz Shah was the eighth sultan of the Mamluk Sultanate (Slave dynasty).
QUESTION: 100

The total membership of the constituent assembly was ____?

Solution:
• The total membership of the constituent assembly was 389.

• 292 members were representatives of British States, 93 members were representatives of Princely States & 4 were from the Chief Commissioner Provinces of Delhi, Ajmer Merwara, Coorg & British Baluchistan.

• The Chairman of the Drafting Committee was Dr. BR Ambedkar.

QUESTION: 101

The modular ratio M is given by:

Solution: The modular ratio m has the value

(m=280/3σcbc)

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 102

The relation between E (Modulus of elasticity) and G (Shear modulus) is given by:

Solution: The relation between modulus of elasticity and modulus of rigidity is E=2G(1 + μ)

where μ = Poisson’s Ratio

Hence, the correct option is (B).

QUESTION: 103

A mild steel wire is 10 mm in diameter and 1 mm long. If a wire is subjected to an axial tensile load of 10 kN, find the extension in the rod. (Take E = 200 x 109)

Solution: (Elongation =PL/AE)

(=100×100×1/A×200×109(m))

(A=π/4(d2)=π/4×(10×10−3)2m2)

(=7.85×10−5m2)

( Elongation =10×1000×1/7.85×10−5×200×109)

(=6.369×10−4m)(=0.64nm)

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 104

Pick the wrongly written assumption taken in the analysis of riveted joints-

Solution: Assumption in Riveted connection

1. Friction between the plates is neglected.

2. Initial tensile stress in the rivet is neglected.

3. The plates are rigid.

4. The rivet fills the hole completely.

5. Deformation of the plates under the load is neglected.

6. Shearing deformation in the rivet is assumed proportional to the shearing stress.

7. Shearing stress in the rivet is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the rivet crossing section.

8. Unit shearing stress in all the joint rivets is uniform.

9. Tensile stress concentration due to rivet holes in the plates is neglected.

10. Bearing stress between rivets and plates is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the nominal contact surface between the rivets and plates.

11. Bending of rivets is neglected.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 105

The characteristic strength of concrete is defined as that strength below which not more than —— of the test results are expected to fall-

Solution: The characteristic strength is defined as the material below which not more than 5 percent of the test results are expected to fall.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 106

The heaviest I-section for the same depth is-

Solution: ISHB is the heaviest I-section for the same depth.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 107

Permissible compressive strength of M200 concrete grade is-

Solution: Permissible compressive strength of M200 concrete grade is 200 kg/cm2

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 108

Moment of inertia is a concept application in the case of :

Solution: The moment of inertia is a physical property that combines the mass and distribution of the particles around the rotation axis.

Hence the option A is correct.

QUESTION: 109

Minimum thickness of load-bearing RCC wall should be-

Solution: The minimum thickness of walls shall be 100 mm.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 110

Snowcrete is one of the patent forms of-

Solution: Snowcrete is one of the patent forms of waterproof cement paint.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 111

A riveted joint can fail in-

Solution: A riveted joint may fail in the following ways

1. Tension failure in the plates

2. Shearing failure across one or more planes and shearing failure of the rivet

3. Bring failure between the plates and the rivets.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 112

For a continuous floor slab supported on beam, the ratio of the end span of length and intermediate span length is-

Solution: For a continuous floor slab supported on a beam, the ratio of the end span of length and intermediate span length is 0.9.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 113

A railway curve of 1350 m radius is to be set out to connect two tangents. If the design speed is 110 kmph and the rate of change of acceleration is 0.3 m/s3, the shift of the circular curve will be nearly

Solution: Length of transition curve, L=v3/cR=(0.278×110)3/(0.3×1350)=70.61m

Shift of curve, S=L2/24R=0.154m

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 114

The ratio between stress and strain is called as-

Solution: The ratio of normal stress to normal strain up to the elastic limit is called the modulus of elasticity

(E=Normal stress/Normal strain=σ/ε)

Hence the option A is correct.

QUESTION: 115

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 116

A reinforced concrete beam, supported on columns at ends, has a clear span of 5m and 0.5m, effective depth. It carries a total uniformly distribution lad 100 kN/m. The design shear force for the beam is:

Solution: For a UDL applied on a simply supported beam

Shear force = (ωL/2)

here L = 5m

S.F. = (100×5/2 =250kN)

The effective depth of the beam is 0.5m, hence critical depth for shear occurs at a distance of 0.5 m from the face of the column

Therefore, design shear force

= 250 – 100 × 0.5 = 200 kN

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 117

A 100 m tape is suspended between the ends under a pull of 200 N. If the weight of the tape is 30 N, the correct distance between the tape ends will be nearly

Solution: Csag=−Iw2/24P2

Csagg=−100×302/24×2002

CSag=0.09

Correct distance =100−0.09=99.9m

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 118

Partial safety factors for concrete and steel respectively may be taken as-

Solution: Partial safety factor for concrete = 1.5

Partial safety factor for steel = 1.15

Hence the option A is correct.

QUESTION: 119

If d and n are the effective depth and depth of neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced beam, the lever arm of the beam is-

Solution: Lever arm of the beam (LA) (=(d−(n/3)))

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 120

The construction of optical square is based on the principle of optical-

Solution: The construction of optical squares is based on double optical reflection.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 121

Characteristic strength of concrete is measured at-

Solution: In the designation of concrete mix M refer to the mix and the number to the specified compressive strength of 150 mm size cube at 28 days, expressed in (N/mm2).

Hence the option B is correct,

QUESTION: 122

Minimum thickness of main steel members, not exposed to the weather is-

Solution: Where steelwork is directly exposed to weather, the steel is directly exposed to weather and is fully accessible for cleaning and repainting. The thickness shall be not less than 6 mm.

The steel is directly exposed to weather and is not accessible for cleaning and repainting. The thickness shall be not less than 8 mm. These provisions do not apply to the web of Indian standard rolled steel joists and channels to packings.

Steelwork not Directly Exposed to Weather. The thickness of steel in main members not directly exposed to weather shall be not less than 6 mm.

The thickness of steel in secondary members not directly exposed to weather shall be not less than 4-5 mm.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 123

Disinfection of drinking water is done to remove-

Solution: Distribution of drinking water is done to remove bacteria.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 124

The % of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about.

Solution: The bleaching powder is a white powder, and it contains about 30 to 35 percent of available chlorine.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 125

To the calculated area of cover plates of build-up beam, an allowance for rivet hole to be added is-

Solution: To the calculated area of cover plates of a build-up beam, an allowance for rivet holes to be added is 13%

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 126

Pozzolans are rich in-

Solution: Puzzolanas are rich in silica and alumina and contain only a small quantity of alkalis.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 127

The pH value of fresh sewage is usually-

Solution: The pH value of fresh sewage is usually slightly more than water supplied to the community. Most soaps, detergents, cleaners, laundry agents, and bleach are alkaline in nature. The common range of pH of fresh sewage ranges from More than 7.
QUESTION: 128

A sand deposit has a porosity of ⅓, and its specific gravity is 2.5. The critical hydraulic gradient to cause sand building in the stratum will be-

Solution:

ic = (G - 1)(1 - n)

= (2.5 - 1) x(1 - 1/3) = 1

Hence the option A is correct.

QUESTION: 129

If a uniform bar is supported at one end in a vertical direction and loaded at the bottom end by a load equal to the weight of the bar, the strain by a load equal to the weight of the bar, the strain energy as compared to that due to self-weight will be-

Solution: Strain energy (U)(=½(WΔ))

Now, axil deformation due to load W is given by (Δ1=WL/AE)axial deformation due to self-weight W is given by (Δ2=WL/2AE)

(NowΔ1=2Δ2)(and U∞Δ)

Hence strain energy due to load W is given by (U1=(1/2)WΔ1)

(U1=2U2)

Hence strain energy as compared to that due to self-weight will be double.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 130

The minimum diameter of an opening of a manhole should be-

Solution: The minimum diameter of an opening of a manhole should be 520 cm.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 131

For a number of columns constructed in a row, the type of foundation provided is

Solution: For a number of columns constructed in a row, the type of foundation provided is strip footing.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 132

A pre-cast pile generally used is-

Solution: Present concrete piles are commonly manufactured in squares and ranging from about 250. mm to about 450 mm.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 133

Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using-

Solution: Shrinkage can be reduced by using the maximum practical amount of aggregate in the mixture. The lowest water-to-cement ratio is important to avoid this type of shrinkage.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 134

Effective throat thickness (t) and size of weld (S) are connected as-

Solution: Effective throat thickness (t) and size of the weld (S) are connected as t = kS.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 135

Strain energy stored in a solid is given as:

Solution: Strain energy stored in a solid

(U=½ × stress × strain × volume )

(=0.5×σ×ε× volume)

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 136

The purpose of lateral ties in short concrete columns is-

Solution: The purpose of lateral ties in short concrete columns is to avoid buckling of longitudinal bars.

Hence the option A is correct.

QUESTION: 137

(EI(d3y/dx3)=shear) for a beam represent:

Solution:

(EI(dy/dx)=slope)

(EI(d2y/dx2)=moment)

(EI(d3y/dx3)=shear)

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 138

A simply supported beam is considered as a deep beam if the ratio of effective span to overall depth is less than-

Solution: A beam is considered as a deep beam when the ratio of effective span to overall depth is <2.0 for simply supported members. The beam theories, which are based on assumptions, are useful in case of those problems where the thickness of beams is moderate.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 139

Which of the following statements with reference to an isogonic line are correct in magnetic declination?

(1) It is drawn through the points of the same declination

(2) It does not form a complete great circle

(3) It radiates from the north and south magnetic regions and follows irregular paths

Solution: ISOGONIC lines are lines joining the point of the same magnetic declination; they radiate from poles & follow an irregular pattern.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 140

ISI has specified the full strength the full strength of concrete after-

Solution: ISI has specified per 50 kg cement.

It has a gain of strength beyond 28 days.

The quantum of increase depends on the grade and type of cement curing and environmental conditions. The design should be based on 28 days characteristic strength of concrete unless there is evidence to justify a higher strength for is a piece of evidence to justify a higher strength for a particular due to age.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 141

For the deflection of the simply supported beam to be within permissible limits, the ratio of its span to effective depth should not exceed-

Solution: Basic values of span to effective depth ratios * For spans up to 10 m

- Cantilever 7

- Simply supported 20

- Continuous 26

* For spans above 10 m, the values may be multiplied by 10/span in meters, except for the cantilever, columns in which case deflection calculations should be made.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 142

Section modulus for a rectangular section is given as-

Solution: Let rectangular section of width b and depth d then.

Section modulus, (Z=1/Ymax)

where (I=bd3/12)&(ymax=d/2)

Now

(Z=(bd3/12)/(d/2)=bd2/6)

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 143

The limit to Poisson’s ratio is-

Solution: Limiting values of Poisson’s ratio are 0 and 0.5

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 144

If the LMT is 8h12m165 AM at 3845′ W longitude, the GMT will be

Solution: 1 degree =4 minute time difference

Difference in longitude

∴3845′W=38.75

∴ Time difference =38.75×4=155 minutes

∵ GMT will be at east

∴ time will be 155 minutes ahead.

∴8hr12 minutes 16sec+155 minutes =10hr47 minutes 16secAM

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 145

Euler’s formula is valid for-

Solution: Euler’s formula is valid for long columns only.

It has been shown that Euler's formula is valid for a long column having an l/k ratio greater than a certain value for a particular material. Euler's formula does not give a reliable result for short columns, and the length of the column intermediate between very long to short.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 146

The shrinkage of concrete-

Solution: The shrinkage of concrete is proportional to water content in the mix. It is also proportional to cement concrete and increases with the concrete age.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 147

A beam simply supported at both the ends of length ‘L’ carries two equal unlike couple ‘M’ at two ends if the flexure rigidity EI is constant. Then the central deflection of the beam is given by-

Solution: A beam simply supported at both ends carried two equal, unlike couples at both ends.

The slope at both ends will be equal

AB)

(ML/2EI)

Deflection will be maximum at the center

(△max=△center)(=ML2/8EI)

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 148

According to IS 800 – 1962 the permissible bending stress in steel slab plate is-

Solution: According to IS 800 – 1962, the permissible bending stress in steel slab plate is 1890 (kg/cm2)

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 149

If the maximum bending moment of a simply supported slab is M kg-cm, the effective depth of the slab is-

Solution: The effective depth of the slab

(=√M/100Q)

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 150

Minimum pitch of rivets should not be less than how many times the gross diameter of the rivet?

Solution: The minimum pitch should not be less than 2.5 times the gross diameter of the river.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 151

According to IS : 456 – 2000, the maximum reinforcement in a column is:

Solution: As per IS-456 2000, the maximum reinforcement used in the column is 6%.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 152

Solution: IS 875-1964: Code of practice for Structural Safety of Buildings; Loading Standards.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 153

The type of weld used to connect two plates at a lap joint is called-

Solution: Lap welding joints are often used to combine two pieces with differing thicknesses. Also considered a fillet type, the weld can be made on one or both sides.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 154

In ordinary Portland cement, the first one react with water is-

Solution: Tricalcium aluminate

((C3A)=3CaO⋅Al2O3)

It contains 5-11% of cement.

it rapidly reacts with water

The high heat of hydration

Responsible for flash set

Hence the option A is correct.

QUESTION: 155

The flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is-

Solution: The flaky aggregate is elongated if its length is twice the mean size. The aggregate is said to be flaky when its least dimension is less than 3/5 th (or 60%) of its mean dimension. Elongated aggregate is said to be elongated when its length is greater than 180% of its mean dimension.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 156

A septic tank is:

Solution: A septic tank combines sedimentation, a sludge digestion tank, and a sludge storage tank.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 157

Bernoulli’s equation represents total energy per unit of a certain quantity. That quantity is:

Solution: Bernoulli's equation represents total energy per unit of weight.

(P/w=V2/2g(z)=C)

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 158

According to IS : 456-2000, the maximum reinforcement in a column is-

Solution: Cross-sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement shall be not less than 0.8% and not more than 6% of the cross-sectional area of the column.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 159

When slenderness ratio in column lies between 32 to 120, it is known as-

Solution: The columns with their lengths varying from 8 times their diameter to 30 times their respective diameters or their slenderness ratio lying between 32 and 120 are classified under the medium column.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 160

The bending equation is written as:

Solution: Bending equation

(M/I=σb/Y=E/R)

Hence the option A is correct.

QUESTION: 161

Permanent hardness of water can be removed by-

Solution: Permanent hardness of water can be removed by the Zeolite process.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 162

According to IS 456 - 1978, the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edge is kept less than-

Solution: In reinforced concrete footing, the thickness at the edge shall not be less than 150 mm for footings on soils, noir less than 300 mm above the tops of piles for footing on piles.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 163

The limiting length of an offset does not depend upon-

Solution: Offsets are the lateral distance of an object or ground feature measured from a survey line. The limiting length of an offset depends upon the accuracy of the work method of setting out perpendiculars, Scale of plotting, etc. It does not depend upon the Indefinite feature to be surveyed.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 164

The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab is-

Solution: The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab is the half-width of the panel.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 165

Bulking of sand is-

Solution: Bulking: The increase in the volume of a given mass of fine aggregate caused by the presence of water is known as bulking.

The extent of bulking depends upon the percentage of moisture present in sand and its fineness. Bulking of sand is more in fine sand. Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 166

The minimum grade of reinforced concrete in seawater as per IS 456: 2000 is :

Solution:

As per IS 456:2000, if the RCC structure is in the exposure of seawater spray, then the minimum grade of concrete to be used is M35, and if the structure is submerged or fully merged in seawater, then the minimum grade of concrete will be M40. If it expose in seawater, then the minimumgrade of reinforced concrete is M30

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 167

For a beam, the term M/EI is-

Solution: M = bending moment. EI = flexural rigidity. ρ = radius of curvature.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 168

Stalactites and stalagmites are features of

Solution: Stalactite and stalagmite, elongated forms of various minerals deposited from solution by slowly dripping water.

A stalactite hangs like an icicle from the ceiling or sides of a cavern. A stalagmite appears like an inverted stalactite, rising from the floor of a cavern.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 169

The length of the straight portion of a bar beyond the end of the hook should be at least-

Solution: The length of the straight portion of a bar beyond the end of the hook curve should be at least four times the diameter.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 170

The % of elongation of the piece under tension indicates its:

Solution: Ductility is a solid material’s ability to deform under tensile stress; this is often characterized by the material’s ability to be stretched into a wire.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 171

Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of different size should not be less than-

Solution: Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of different sizes should not be less than one thicker bar diameter.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 172

The effective span of the simply supported slab is-

Solution: The effective span of a simply supported slab is the distance between the centre of the bearing and the clear distance between the inner face of the wall, thicker bar diameter plus twice the thickness of the wall

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 173

The value of ultimate creep coefficient for concrete-

Solution: The value of the ultimate creep coefficient for concrete decreases with loading age.

7 days 2.2

28 days 1.6

1 year 1.1

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 174

What should be multiplied with permissible bearing stress to find out the strength of rivet in bearing?

Solution: Strength of rivet in bearing (σb⋅d⋅t)

This is applicable for a single riveted joint. If, however, there are n rows of rivets per pitch length, we have the strength of rivet in bearing (=(p−d)tσb) And the strength of rivet in shearing (=n⋅(π/4)d2σs) for single shear (=2n.(π/4)d2σs) for double shear

Hence the option A is correct.

QUESTION: 175

Addition cover thickness in reinforced cement concrete members totally immersed in seawater is-

Solution: For reinforced concrete members totally immersed in seawater, the cover shall be 40 mm more than that.

For reinforced concrete members, periodically immersed in seawater or subject to sea spray, the cover of concrete shall be 50 mm more than that.

For concrete of grade M 25 and above, the additional thickness of cover specified above may be reduced to half. In all such cases, the cover should not exceed 75 mm.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 176

The concrete mix which causes difficulty is obtaining a smooth finish is known to possess.

Solution:

The concrete mix that causes difficulty obtaining a smooth finish is known to possess hardness.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 177

The method of design of steel framework for greatest rigidity and economy in wight is known as-

Solution: The method of design of steel framework for greatest rigidity and economy in weight is known as fully rigid design.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 178

The operation of removing humps and hollows of the uniform concrete surface is known as-

Solution: The operation of removing humps and hollows of the uniform concrete surface is known as Screeding.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 179

A column is a compression member, the effective length of which exceeds three times its least lateral dimension. This is applicable to-

Solution: Column is a compression member, the effective length of which exceeds three times the least lateral dimension. Compression member whose length does not exceed three times their least lateral dimension is classified as a pedestal.

Hence the option A is correct.

QUESTION: 180

Maximum value of slenderness ratio of lacing flats in a steel column is-

Solution: The spacing of lacing bars should be such that the maximum slenderness ratio of a component of main members between two consecutive lacing connections is not greater than 50. It should not be greater than 0.7 times the most unfavorable slenderness ratio of the combined column.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 181

Water required grade bag of cement is-

Solution: Normal range for the amount of water used to mix each 50 kg bag of cement is between 20 liters and 30 liters.

Hence option (C) will be correct.

QUESTION: 182

If lines of action of forces in a system of force meet at a point, then these forces are called as:

Solution: A concurrent coplanar force system is a system of two or more forces whose lines of action ALL intersect at a common point.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 183

Bolts are most suitable to carry-

Solution: bolts are most suitable to carry axial tension.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 184

Consider the following statement: A simply supported beam is subjected to a couple somewhere in the span. It would produce.

1. A rectangular SF diagram

2. Parabolic BM diagrams

3. both + ve and –ve BMs

which are maximum at the point of application of a couple of these statements-

Solution: ∑Fy=0)

(RA⋅RB=0)

(∑MB=0)

(RAL−M=0)

(RA=M/L and RB=−(M/L))

Consider a section XX at a distance x from end B Shear force (SA−B=M/L)

Bending moment (Mx=Wx)

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 185

The combined correction for curvature and refraction for a distance of 3400 m will be nearly

Solution: CC=−0.0673d2

CC=−0.0673(3.4)2

CC=−0.77

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 186

The web plate is called unstiffened if the ratio of the depth and thickness is less than-

Solution: The web plate is called unstiffened if the ratio of the depth and thickness is less than 85.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 187

Slump test is used for-

Solution: Slump test, Compacting factor test, and Vee-Bee consistometer method are used to measure workability.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 188

Ductility of which of the following is the maximum?

Solution: Steel 0.25-1.5

Hence Ductility maximum in Wrought iron.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 189

The minimum grade of reinforced concrete in seawater per IS 456: 2000 is-

Solution: Concrete in Sea-water

Concrete in sea-water of exposed directly along the sea-coast shall be at least M20 grade in the case of plain concrete and M30 in case of reinforced concrete. The use of slag or pozzolana cement is advantageous under such conditions.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 190

The minimum headroom over a stair must be-

A problem is rarely solved without one section of stair passing beneath another or under a landing. In those cases, one must be certain that stairs will not bump his or her head. The minimum headroom of all parts of a stairway must not be less than 80 inches (203.2 cm). It is measured vertically from a tread nosing, floor surface, or landing. Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 191

The shear stress distribution over a beam of solid circular section is such that-

Solution: Maximum shear stress is 1.33 times to average shear stress for circular beam i.e. Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 192

For fixed support in a plane structure, the total number of reactions is:

Solution: Fixed support in a plane structure, the total number of reactions is three. Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 193

The minimum thickness of a reinforced concrete wall should be-

Solution: The minimum thickness of walls shall be 10 cm.

Hence the option B is correct.

QUESTION: 194

Water cement ratio is generally expressed volume of water required per-

Solution: Water cement ratio is generally expressed volume of water required per 50 kg cement.

Hence the option C is correct.

QUESTION: 195

Shear reinforcement is provided in the form of-

Solution: In practice, shear reinforcement is provided in three forms; stirrups, inclined bent-up bars, and a combination system of stirrups and bent-up bars. In reinforced concrete building construction, stirrups are most commonly used as shear reinforcement for their simplicity in fabrication and installation.

Hence the option D is correct.

QUESTION: 196

The characteristic strength of concrete in the actual structure is taken as: