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Mock Test for GRE - 1 - GRE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test GRE Mock Test Series 2024 - Mock Test for GRE - 1

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Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 1

Direction: For each sentence, choose one word for each set of blanks. Select the word or words that best fit(s) the meaning of the sentence as a whole

As a society grows and evolves, so too do its cultural norms. A piece of art or a musical performance that once was viewed as inordinately (i) _____________ may now be seen as utterly (ii) ___________

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 1

There are no obvious road signs here, so read the sentence carefully for clues to the blanks. The first sentence explains that cultural norms, or what a society views as acceptable, evolve over time. The two blanks describe two different views of the same piece of art, and each blank describes a different extreme, as indicated by “inordinately” (“exceeding limits”) and “utterly” (“to the highest degree”). Note that there’s no way to tell which way the views evolved; they may have gone from acceptable to unacceptable, or vice versa. You’ll have to consider both blanks to find words with the appropriate relationship. The only words that fit are (A) salacious, which means “morally offensive” or “indecent,” and (F) pedestrian, which in this context means “commonplace” or “mundane.” Taken together, they describe how a work of art can at one point be seen as shocking but later be seen as ordinary.

(B) adequate doesn’t fit with “inordinately.” It’s not possible to be extremely adequate—something either is or is not adequate. (C) trite means “boring” or “unoriginal.” This could potentially fit as one part of the comparison, but there’s no appropriately contrasting word for the second blank. (D) pensive means “thoughtful,” and (E) opulent means “lavish” or “luxurious”; neither of these fits into the context of art and cultural norms, and neither contrasts with a choice for the first blank.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 2

Direction: For each sentence, choose one word for each set of blanks. Select the word or words that best fit(s) the meaning of the sentence as a whole

Traditional recipes for beef brisket vary widely between cultures, but one (i) __________  the various preparations is a “low and slow” cooking technique: a long cooking time at a low temperature. This is not a matter of taste but a (ii)__________; the brisket is a working muscle and would otherwise be too tough to eat.

 

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 2

Each blank here is supported by several clues, so start with whichever one you feel more comfortable with. The first blank says something about recipes for beef brisket. The opening clause of the sentence indicates that these recipes “vary widely,” and the detour road sign “but” means the blank will be the opposite of that—a word to indicate what they have in common. Similarity would be a good prediction. (A) affinity, or “close resemblance,” is a perfect match, so it’s the right answer for the first blank. (B) variance means “difference,” so it’s the opposite of what you’re looking for. (C) substitution might be tempting because it’s a word often used in cooking; if you’re out of one ingredient, you’d substitute another. However, it doesn’t fit the context here, since the sentence is describing a technique different preparations share, not one that replaces another.

The second blank describes why the “low and slow” technique is used. The first clause says that it’s “not a matter of taste but . . . ,” a detour construction, so the missing word must contrast with the idea that the cooking method is simply a personal preference. After a semicolon, which functions as a straight-ahead road sign here, the sentence indicates that without this method, the meat would be “too tough” to eat. Since cooking food in a way that makes it inedible defeats the purpose, predict something like necessity. (D) prerequisite, or “something that is necessary,” matches this prediction, so it’s the correct answer. (E) predilection means “a liking for,” which would fit if the cooking method were just a matter of taste. (F) propinquity, which means “a closeness or similarity to,” does not fit the context.

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Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 3

The story of Milton Humason’s long career at Mount Wilson Observatory is a _________ one; from his humble beginnings as a janitor without a high school diploma, let alone a PhD, he went on to make several important cosmological discoveries alongside legendary astronomer Edwin Hubble. 

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 3

The blank in this sentence describes the Humason's career, which is described after the semicolon. He started as a janitor without a formal education and ended up working alongside a “legendary” scientist, so a good prediction would be something like remarkable. (C) singular means exactly that—in this context, “unusual” or “exceptional”—so it’s correct. (A) trivial means “unimportant.” This is incorrect as there’s no basis for saying the story of Humason's life is not important; if anything, the opposite is true. (B) succinct means “brief” or “concise.” There’s no indication that the story is short; indeed, it would be hard to tell the story of such a long and varied career in a concise manner. (D) quotidian, meaning “commonplace,” is the opposite of what’s needed. (E) ludicrous means “ridiculous” or “absurd,” which is much too negative to fit the sentence.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 4

Cooper believes that his latest novel presents a very charming story. Notwithstanding this appraisal, he feels this novel is a less _______ work than his more profound earlier novels.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 4

The first sentence presents a positive opinion Cooper has about his new novel: it is "charming." But “[n]otwithstanding” is a detour road sign that indicates Cooper feels his new novel compares poorly to his earlier novels. Specifically, those books were "more profound" than the latest work, in Cooper's estimation. Note the detour road sign "less" before the blank and predict a positive word with a somewhat similar meaning as profound. Insightful, (E), matches the prediction and is correct. Nothing in the text points to the new work being less innovative, (A), than the others, as a story that is not particularly "profound" might still be "inventive." If anything, the new book is more superficial than the earlier, "more profound" ones, so eliminate (B). Since the latest novel is described as having a “charming story,” it would not make sense to say it is less delightful, (C). There is no information in the text about how fanciful, (D), or "imaginary or whimsical," the new work is, so eliminate this choice as well.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 5

Direction: For each sentence, choose one word for each set of blanks. Select the word or words that best fit(s) the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The conclusion of a tour that had taken the singer to five continents over the course of a year invoked feelings of both (i) ________ and (ii) ________. Despite her disappointmentthat she would not be performing for her fans for a long time, she was (iii) ________ about the prospect of spending more time with her young children.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 5

Based on the first sentence alone, it is not possible to predict accurately for the first two blanks. The tour's end could lead to a variety of emotions. The second sentence, however, begins with a detour road sign, "[d]espite," and contrasts the singer's "disappointment" with what she felt about spending more time with her children. Predict that she was relieved or happy to see more of her family. Jubilant, (G), means “very happy” and is correct. Rueful, (H), means “regretful” and is the opposite of what you need. Apathetic, (I), means “lacking in care or interest.” This also runs counter to the prediction.

Now you know that she felt both "disappointment" and happiness. For the first two blanks, predict that one emotion is positive and the other is negative and find a pair of words that match this dual prediction. For the first blank, dolor, (A), means “sadness.” For the second blank, felicity, (F), means “happiness.” These two words work together to complete the sentence logically and are the correct answers. Complaisance, (B), means “eagerness to please others,” and lethargy, (C), means “sluggishness” or “drowsiness.” Listlessness, (D), is similar in meaning to lethargy, signifying “lacking energy or spirit.” Quiescence, (E), means “being at rest” or “in a state of inactivity.”

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 6

Direction: For each sentence, choose one word for each set of blanks. Select the word or words that best fit(s) the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Despite the team owner’s (i)  __________ comments following the team’s final game, many fans became (ii) __________ , exacerbating a situation that was already (iii) __________ for the coaching staff.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 6

Sometimes it is easier to start with the second or third blank. In the last part of the sentence, you have the key word “exacerbating,” which means “making worse.” The situation that the coaching staff is in, therefore, is bad and becoming worse. For the third blank, predict bad or risky. Parlous, (G), which means “dangerous,” provides the right meaning and is correct. Inconsequential, (H), means “insignificant,” and amenable, (I), means “agreeable.” Neither choice matches the prediction.

Working your way backward, consider the second blank, which describes the fans who are putting the coaches at risk. Angry is a good prediction, and highly incensed, (D), means "very upset." Less critical, (E), and more accepting, (F), are both contrary to the prediction and would not explain why the situation was being exacerbated.

The detour road sign "[d]espite" sets up a contrast between the team owner's comments and the fans' angry reaction. Predict that the coach made positive or diplomatic comments. Conciliatory, (B), means “appeasing” or “attempting to reconcile.” One who is conciliatory would try to make the fans less angry, making (B) correct. If the owner made unrepentant comments, as in (A), she would fail to express regret or take responsibility for the situation the fans are angry about, and such comments would be expected to make them more angry. Impudent, (C), meaning “rude” or “insulting,” is also the opposite of the prediction.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 7

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. 
The psychoactive herb salvia has garnered a great deal of attention for its use among adolescents. Thousands of online videos have sprung up of teenagers filming their hallucinogenic experiences. Most of this footage is uninspired: it shows the subjects losing focus for approximately seven to ten minutes, followed by enthusiastic claims regarding the transformative experience they underwent. These videos serve to compound parents’ fear of neurological damage with the more real horrors of compromised personal privacy, documentation of potentially illegal activities, and a seemingly open invitation to online predators.

Q. The author would most likely agree with which of the following sentences?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 7

In this Inference question, you are asked to identify the statement that follows from the author’s point of view as it’s expressed in the passage. The author offers two opinionated statements. He finds the video footage “uninspired” and states that it “serve(s) to compound” parental fears. One of those two statements will be paraphrased in the correct answer. The claim in (A) is not actually made in the passage. The author suggests that parents may fear possible neurological damage from salvia but suggests that the other “horrors” are “more real,” undermining this statement. Choices (B) and (C) both go beyond the scope of the passage; the author stops short of recommending solutions for the salvia problem. You can also dismiss choice (D) because, although the author does intimate that the videos are rather dull, there is no evidence that the author wants more detail about the experience.
Choice (E) matches your prediction. It is strongly suggested in the passage’s final sentence and therefore is the correct answer.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 8

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. 
The psychoactive herb salvia has garnered a great deal of attention for its use among adolescents. Thousands of online videos have sprung up of teenagers filming their hallucinogenic experiences. Most of this footage is uninspired: it shows the subjects losing focus for approximately seven to ten minutes, followed by enthusiastic claims regarding the transformative experience they underwent. These videos serve to compound parents’ fear of neurological damage with the more real horrors of compromised personal privacy, documentation of potentially illegal activities, and a seemingly open invitation to online predators.

Q. Which of the following statements is suggested by the passage?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 8

Here is another Inference question, this time with the potential for multiple correct answers. You can infer choice (A) because the text states that the “spaced out” part only lasts a few minutes but that the experience is intense enough that young people describe it in great detail. There is no evidence for choice (B); the author doesn’t opine on the psychological state of salvia users. Choice (C) is not suggested by the passage; “online predators,” not “drug pushers,” are cited as the threat, and salvia is not compared to other drugs.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 9

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. 
According to recent research, during the final days of planet formation but before planets had fully formed, planetesimals, which were itinerant objects as large as Pluto, may have collided with Earth, Mars, and the moon. It is hypothesized that they deposited siderophiles (elements such as gold, platinum, and palladium) into Earth’s crust.
Siderophiles are typically drawn to iron, which forms much of the inner core of Earth. Logically, during planet formation, most of these elements would have been drawn into the center of Earth; however, their abundance in Earth’s crust has long perplexed scientists. These collisions may also have caused Earth’s axis to tilt by 10 degrees and deposited water on the moon.

Q. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following best describes planetesimals?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 9

Though it is not explicitly stated in the passage, you can, from a few clues, determine that a planetesimal was (1) an object that moved—a sort of wandering body—since they are described as “itinerant,” and (2) an object that existed during “planet formation.” Choice (A) follows from those two inferences and is correct. There is no support for choice (B); the passage makes no mention of objects leaving or bouncing out of the galaxy. You can eliminate choice (C) because the passage tells you that components of the planetesimals (the siderophiles) remained in Earth’s crust aer impact but doesn’t say that whole planetesimals did so.
Choice (D) is beyond the scope of the passage, which doesn’t contain information about planetesimals’ magnetic characteristics. You can also cross off (E) because the passage doesn’t describe planetesimals as “rocks,” nor does it claim that they are always made up of (or necessarily even contain) siderophiles.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 10

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. 
Attempts to blame the mayor’s policies for the growing inequality of wages are misguided. The sharp growth in the gap in earnings between college and high school graduates in this city during the past decade resulted from overall technological trends that favored the skills of more educated workers. The mayor’s response to this problem cannot be criticized, as it would hardly be reasonable to expect her to attempt to slow the forces of technology.

Q. Which of the following, if true, casts the most serious doubt on the conclusion drawn in the last sentence in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 10

When asked to cast doubt on a conclusion, as you are here, first locate the author’s conclusion. Then, find an answer choice that contradicts it in some way. This question stem explicitly directs you to the last sentence of the passage, where the author is defending the mayor from criticism, asserting that the growing inequality of wages is beyond her control. Since the passage is saying, “This isn’t the mayor’s fault,” predict a correct answer that says, “No, this is the mayor’s fault.”
Choice (A) should stand out immediately as going against the passage. If the mayor could have initiated policies that would have educated those who are now earning less, then her policies—to be precise, her policy of inaction—is at least partially to blame for the problem of wage inequality. This is exactly the sort of additional evidence you want, and choice (A) is correct.
The wrong choices largely focus on misleading shifts in terminology from the passage. Choice (B) sidesteps the wage issue, as more employment of high school graduates would not necessarily raise their wages. Choice (C)’s logic requires that we assume “blue-collar” equals “less-educated,” which is too large a shift in terminology. Choice (D) only discusses taxes and avoids wages altogether. Choice (E) only mentions protection of “city workers,” again avoiding the education issue from the passage.

*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 11

Directions: Select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
The scientist has a reputation for writing on topics that are far beyond the understanding of most people, including other scientists, but her latest book is surprisingly not ________.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 11

The scientist is known for writing on topics that most people can't understand. The clause with the blank has three detour road signs, so untangle it carefully. “But” and "surprisingly" indicate a contrast between the scientist’s previous writings and her latest book, which must therefore be easier to understand. Be careful with the word “not” just before the blank: predict that the scientist’s latest book is not as hard to understand. Thus, you need two words that mean “hard to understand.” Recondite, (A), means “hard to understand,” as does abstruse, (C). Cogent, (B), means “convincing and well reasoned,” but a book that is cogent may or may not be difficult to understand. (D) clear is the opposite of the prediction, Erratic, (E), doesn’t match the prediction either; nothing in the context indicates that the scientist's work is "unpredictable."

*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 12

Directions: Select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.
As an analyst, Nizar had a reputation for working harmoniously with the rest of the staff. However, when he was promoted to management, he quickly developed a ________ relationship with his employees.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 12

The first sentence tells you that Nizar had a good working relationship with the staff when he was an analyst. “However” is a detour road sign, indicating that when Nizar was promoted, his relationship with the staff became the opposite of "harmonious." Contentious, (A), means “quarrelsome” or “argumentative” and matches the prediction, as does belligerent, (B), which means “hostile” or “antagonistic.” Audacious, (C), means “bold" or "daring,” which does not work in the blank. Courteous, (D), and deferential, (E), both mean “respectful,” and decorous. All three would align with a harmonious relationship rather than the one Nizar had after his promotion.

*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 13

Directions: Select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.

If medical researchers can determine precisely which symptoms are typical in people suffering from this disease, they may be able to identify those pharmaceutical interventions and alternative treatment modalities that are likely to _________ the effects of this condition.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 13

The word "if" sets up a straight-ahead relationship between the first clause and the second. Since researchers are trying to figure out what symptoms are associated with this disease, they are likely seeking to help people with the condition. They could do this either by finding out which treatments work and should be used or which treatments do not work and should be avoided. The neutral word "identify" doesn't tell you which meaning the author is conveying, so look for a pair of words that either both mean “lessen” or “ease” the bad results of the condition or mean “increase” or “make worse.” As it happens, (B) and (E) are a match with one of the predictions and with each other. (B) is correct because mitigate means to “make less severe,” and palliate, (E), means “to provide relief from.” Proscribe, (A), means to “banish” or “denounce.” While health care providers and their patients would undoubtedly like to “banish” symptoms of the disease, that is a legal remedy, not a medical one. Sully, (C), means to “make dirty or stain,” and supplant, (D), means to “take the place of.” Neither choice matches the predictions.

*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 14

Directions: Select the two answer choices that, when inserted into the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and yield complete sentences that are similar in meaning.

In popular culture, the field of archaeology is often depicted as a hunt for lost treasure, full of excitement and adventure. This is ________ by the reality of the profession; an archaeologist is more likely to spend hours painstakingly excavating artifacts at a dig site than to run through the jungle dodging arrows.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 14

The first sentence describes the fictional portrayal of archaeology; the second describes "the reality." The word in the blank will convey the relationship between the two. Fictional archaeology is said to be full of “excitement and adventure” and “dodging arrows,” while the real thing is full of "painstaking" (“meticulous or thorough”) work. Thus, a good prediction would be that reality contradicts the fictional view. (A) belied and (E) refuted both mean “disproved” or “showed to be false,” so they’re the correct answers. (B) belayed may sound similar to belied, but it has a different meaning; it can mean either “secured a rope” or “canceled an order.” (C) conveyed (“imparted” or “communicated”) is too neutral to fit. (D) corroborated the opposite of what’s needed, as each means “supported with evidence.”

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 15

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Jean Sibelius’s Symphony No. 8 has been the source of controversy and rumor for decades. A towering figure in his native Finland, the world-renowned composer worked on the piece for about a decade following the mid-1920s, but he destroyed the primary score around the end of the Second World War. Although Sibelius claimed periodically that he was continuing to work on the symphony, he refused to release it to the public in any form, and nothing but short fragments, probably sketches he drafted as he initially conceived the work, have ever been identified among his archived manuscripts. The symphony has long been considered completely lost, although some experts have suggested that someday it may be possible to reconstruct the entire work through interpolation, allowing it to be performed.
Indeed, excerpts have already been recorded. Others say that, given the nature of the surviving fragments and Sibelius’s own actions, this course is undesirable, since the composer suppressed the release of a work he clearly would have viewed as inferior.

Q. Based on the passage, which of the following does the author believe to be true about Symphony No. 8 by Jean Sibelius?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 15

The author states that "[a]lthough Sibelius claimed" to be working on the symphony, neither contemporaries nor later music experts examining his papers have ever seen it. The author's contrast of Sibelius's claim with evidence to the contrary allows you to infer that the author believes the composer was not in fact working on the piece.
The correct answer is (B). The author states that Sibelius already has an international reputation, so Symphony No. 8 is not needed to establish one, and (A) is incorrect. (C) and (E) are the opinion of the "[o]thers" mentioned in the last sentence, not the author. Likewise, while "experts" believe the symphony may be performed someday, the author expresses no opinion on this, so (D) is incorrect.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 16

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The word atom is derived from the Greek atomos, meaning “uncuttable,” and was popularized by Democritus as a fundamental, indivisible building block of natural matter around the turn of the 4th century BCE. Although other philosophers across the world developed similar theories, it was not until the turn of the 19th century that the existence of atoms was definitively proved by science. However, at the turn of the 20th century, J.J. Thompson demonstrated the existence of subatomic particles, and these were in turn found to be reducible into elementary (or fundamental) particles. These discoveries, dividing what was previously considered indivisible, have revolutionized physics and spawned a number of subfields. In 2010, the Large Hadron Collider (a hadron being a type of subatomic particle) gained international attention for creating the highest-energy man-made particle collisions. It is the hope of particle physicists that experiments using the collider will be able to shed light on a number of fundamental questions about the laws of nature.

Q. Which of the following statements is NOT supported by the passage?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 16

The correct answer to this question is not supported in the passage, meaning it either contradicts the passage or falls outside the scope. The four wrong answers are supported. The first two sentences of the passage describe the origin of the theory of atoms prior to their scientific discovery, which allows you to eliminate choice (A); furthermore, the author mentions that “philosophers across the world developed similar theories,” which supports—and thus eliminates— choice (E). However, the author describes Democritus as having “popularized” the theory of atoms, which is not the same as first discovering the atom; based on this, choice (D) is correct. Choices (B) and (C) both relate to the discussion of subatomic particles, but because elementary particles are smaller than subatomic particles (an example of the latter being the hadron), you may eliminate (B). The conclusion of the passage rules out choice (C) in the description of the importance of experiments using the Large Hadron Collider.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 17

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Cinematic renditions of historic pieces of literature provide an informative glimpse into the cultural and social context in which the films were made. Shakespeare’s Henry V is a prime example, as it has been in circulation within the English-speaking world for over 400 years and has been reinterpreted in a number of different milieus. Since the source material has not changed, the way in which different artists and directors treat the play indicates not only the predispositions of the interpreter, but also the prevailing social and political views of the audience. This is acutely noticeable in a play like Henry V, which is highly charged with nationalistic concerns.

The play was written during the reign of Elizabeth I, when English national identity (and the modern English language) had begun to crystallize and the language and culture we know today approached their present form. It is a historical biography of King Henry V of England, who waged a bloody campaign during The Hundred Years War with the aim of conquering France. The introduction of the play features an adviser to the King explaining, in a confusing and nearly incomprehensible fashion, the justification for Henry’s claim to the French throne. The text of the play itself has been interpreted as being ambiguous in its treatment of Henry’s character. Henry has a number of rousing, heroic speeches, but he is also shown to be coldly unmerciful, as in the case of his refusal to pardon petty thieves.

Shakespeare’s play has been adapted in two famous film versions. The first, directed by Laurence Olivier, was made during the Second World War, immediately before the invasion of Normandy was launched in 1944. Critics of the film have emphasized the pageantry, bravado, and nationalistic undertones of this version. The battle scenes in the film are understated and tame, with little of the carnage that would be expected of a medieval melee. They are shot in beautiful weather, and the actors are clad in radiant colors. The scene with Henry’s harsh justice is omitted. The film was funded, in part, by the British government and is widely understood to have been intended as a propaganda film, made in anticipation of D-day. The second version, directed by Kenneth Branagh, was made in 1989, only a few years after the Falklands War, and was much harsher in tone. The battle scenes are gory and are shot in gray, dismal weather. The actors wear muddy, blood-smeared costumes reflective of the period. The scene with Henry’s harsh justice is included.

Q. The primary purpose of this passage is to

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 17

The correct answer to a primary purpose question summarizes what the author is trying to do in the passage. Here, the author uses cinematic depictions of Henry V to illustrate how contemporary culture influences the interpretation of art. Choice (A) misses the point; the author uses Shakespeare’s Henry V as an illustration, not for the purpose of describing the play itself. (B) distorts the author’s purpose, which is to illustrate the cultural influence, not to judge which influences are positive or negative. (C) is too broad; the passage isn’t about cinematic interpretations of literature writ large. (D) is too general in the same way as choice (C). So, choice (E) is the correct answer. It cites the effect of contemporary situations on the interpretation of literature, striking at the heart of what the author explores in the passage.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 18

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Cinematic renditions of historic pieces of literature provide an informative glimpse into the cultural and social context in which the films were made. Shakespeare’s Henry V is a prime example, as it has been in circulation within the English-speaking world for over 400 years and has been reinterpreted in a number of different milieus. Since the source material has not changed, the way in which different artists and directors treat the play indicates not only the predispositions of the interpreter, but also the prevailing social and political views of the audience. This is acutely noticeable in a play like Henry V, which is highly charged with nationalistic concerns.

The play was written during the reign of Elizabeth I, when English national identity (and the modern English language) had begun to crystallize and the language and culture we know today approached their present form. It is a historical biography of King Henry V of England, who waged a bloody campaign during The Hundred Years War with the aim of conquering France. The introduction of the play features an adviser to the King explaining, in a confusing and nearly incomprehensible fashion, the justification for Henry’s claim to the French throne. The text of the play itself has been interpreted as being ambiguous in its treatment of Henry’s character. Henry has a number of rousing, heroic speeches, but he is also shown to be coldly unmerciful, as in the case of his refusal to pardon petty thieves.

Shakespeare’s play has been adapted in two famous film versions. The first, directed by Laurence Olivier, was made during the Second World War, immediately before the invasion of Normandy was launched in 1944. Critics of the film have emphasized the pageantry, bravado, and nationalistic undertones of this version. The battle scenes in the film are understated and tame, with little of the carnage that would be expected of a medieval melee. They are shot in beautiful weather, and the actors are clad in radiant colors. The scene with Henry’s harsh justice is omitted. The film was funded, in part, by the British government and is widely understood to have been intended as a propaganda film, made in anticipation of D-day. The second version, directed by Kenneth Branagh, was made in 1989, only a few years after the Falklands War, and was much harsher in tone. The battle scenes are gory and are shot in gray, dismal weather. The actors wear muddy, blood-smeared costumes reflective of the period. The scene with Henry’s harsh justice is included.

Q. The author would most likely agree with which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 18

Evaluate the choices in light of this author’s scope and purpose. Choice (A) makes an irrelevant comparison. The author discusses the influence of historical and societal context on both Shakespeare’s play and the later film adaptations of it but never implies that one is more reflective of its societal context than the other. Choice (B) is correct; this paraphrases the author’s primary purpose, so he’s certain to agree with it. Choice (C) is incorrect. The author makes no effort to argue about what makes good cinema, only what influences it when it’s involved in interpreting classic literary works.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 19

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Cinematic renditions of historic pieces of literature provide an informative glimpse into the cultural and social context in which the films were made. Shakespeare’s Henry V is a prime example, as it has been in circulation within the English-speaking world for over 400 years and has been reinterpreted in a number of different milieus. Since the source material has not changed, the way in which different artists and directors treat the play indicates not only the predispositions of the interpreter, but also the prevailing social and political views of the audience. This is acutely noticeable in a play like Henry V, which is highly charged with nationalistic concerns.

The play was written during the reign of Elizabeth I, when English national identity (and the modern English language) had begun to crystallize and the language and culture we know today approached their present form. It is a historical biography of King Henry V of England, who waged a bloody campaign during The Hundred Years War with the aim of conquering France. The introduction of the play features an adviser to the King explaining, in a confusing and nearly incomprehensible fashion, the justification for Henry’s claim to the French throne. The text of the play itself has been interpreted as being ambiguous in its treatment of Henry’s character. Henry has a number of rousing, heroic speeches, but he is also shown to be coldly unmerciful, as in the case of his refusal to pardon petty thieves.

Shakespeare’s play has been adapted in two famous film versions. The first, directed by Laurence Olivier, was made during the Second World War, immediately before the invasion of Normandy was launched in 1944. Critics of the film have emphasized the pageantry, bravado, and nationalistic undertones of this version. The battle scenes in the film are understated and tame, with little of the carnage that would be expected of a medieval melee. They are shot in beautiful weather, and the actors are clad in radiant colors. The scene with Henry’s harsh justice is omitted. The film was funded, in part, by the British government and is widely understood to have been intended as a propaganda film, made in anticipation of D-day. The second version, directed by Kenneth Branagh, was made in 1989, only a few years after the Falklands War, and was much harsher in tone. The battle scenes are gory and are shot in gray, dismal weather. The actors wear muddy, blood-smeared costumes reflective of the period. The scene with Henry’s harsh justice is included.

Q. Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship between the highlighted sentences?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 19

In this case, the first highlighted sentence is an assertion that lays out the topic and scope of the passage. The second highlighted sentence is a specific example that the author offers to illustrate his main point. Choice (D), the correct answer, hits this prediction squarely.
Choice (A) is incorrect because the second sentence does not contradict the first. You can reject (B) as it mischaracterizes the first sentence; there is nothing disparate about its components. You can reject (C) because it gets the second sentence wrong; the second sentence is an example, not an argument (which would need a conclusion supported by evidence).
Choice (E) distorts the relationship between the two sentences; the second doesn’t contradict the first.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 20

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Cinematic renditions of historic pieces of literature provide an informative glimpse into the cultural and social context in which the films were made. Shakespeare’s Henry V is a prime example, as it has been in circulation within the English-speaking world for over 400 years and has been reinterpreted in a number of different milieus. Since the source material has not changed, the way in which different artists and directors treat the play indicates not only the predispositions of the interpreter, but also the prevailing social and political views of the audience. This is acutely noticeable in a play like Henry V, which is highly charged with nationalistic concerns.

The play was written during the reign of Elizabeth I, when English national identity (and the modern English language) had begun to crystallize and the language and culture we know today approached their present form. It is a historical biography of King Henry V of England, who waged a bloody campaign during The Hundred Years War with the aim of conquering France. The introduction of the play features an adviser to the King explaining, in a confusing and nearly incomprehensible fashion, the justification for Henry’s claim to the French throne. The text of the play itself has been interpreted as being ambiguous in its treatment of Henry’s character. Henry has a number of rousing, heroic speeches, but he is also shown to be coldly unmerciful, as in the case of his refusal to pardon petty thieves.

Shakespeare’s play has been adapted in two famous film versions. The first, directed by Laurence Olivier, was made during the Second World War, immediately before the invasion of Normandy was launched in 1944. Critics of the film have emphasized the pageantry, bravado, and nationalistic undertones of this version. The battle scenes in the film are understated and tame, with little of the carnage that would be expected of a medieval melee. They are shot in beautiful weather, and the actors are clad in radiant colors. The scene with Henry’s harsh justice is omitted. The film was funded, in part, by the British government and is widely understood to have been intended as a propaganda film, made in anticipation of D-day. The second version, directed by Kenneth Branagh, was made in 1989, only a few years after the Falklands War, and was much harsher in tone. The battle scenes are gory and are shot in gray, dismal weather. The actors wear muddy, blood-smeared costumes reflective of the period. The scene with Henry’s harsh justice is included.

Q. It can be inferred that the author

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 20

The tone of the passage is neutral; even when describing Henry’s darker moments, the author passes no judgment. You can therefore reject choice (C), as the author is not doing a character study. Though choices (B) and (D) are mutually exclusive, they are both incorrect. The author states no preference for either of the film versions he describes. Choice (E) is incorrect because the author states no preference for cinematic versions that maintain greater fidelity to the source material. Choice (A) is correct; it matches the author’s purpose for the passage. In order for cultural events to influence the interpretation of classic literature, such literature must be interpretable.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 21

Directions: For each sentence, choose one word for each set of blanks. Select the word or words that best fit(s) the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Many felt the rules for the scholarship competition had been unfairly administered to the applicant pool and that, furthermore, the judges were _______.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 21

Here, “furthermore” indicates that the charge of the word in the blank will be consistent with “unfair.” Choice (A) biased is a good synonym for “unfair,” and is the correct answer. Choices (B), (D), and (E) all list traits one would want in judges. Choice (C) inept provides a negative trait, but one that challenges the judges’ competence, not their fairness.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 22

Directions: For each sentence, choose one word for each set of blanks. Select the word or words that best fit(s) the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

We will face the idea of old age with _______ as long as we believe that it invariably brings poverty, isolation, and illness.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 22

First, read the sentence through, noting any structural road signs and/or key words. Here, “as long as” is a structural clue: we view old age in the same way we do poverty, isolation, and illness. Predict that the correct answer matches a word like fear or despair. Choice (B) apprehension is a good match. Check the other answers, to confirm that each is incorrect.
Choice (A) regret may be tempting because of its negative connotation, but it applies to something that has already happened, not what someone will face in the future. Choice (C) enlightenment doesn’t match the sentence’s list of negative conditions. Choices (D) veneration and (E) reverence both mean “great respect”; that’s a positive way to face old age, but not one that matches the way one would face something likely to bring “poverty, isolation, and illness.” That confirms that (B) is the right answer. Now, plug the answer into the sentence: “We will face the idea of old age with apprehension as long as we believe that it invariably brings poverty, isolation, and illness.” This certainly makes sense.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 23

Directions For each sentence, choose one word for each set of blanks. Select the word or words that best fit(s) the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q. Usually an articulate speaker, as he had given many public addresses over the years, the doctor (i) ________ the keynote speech at the oncology convention. It was clear from their expressions that the audience members were overcome with (ii) ________ by the end.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 23

Consider the logic of the sentences before approaching the first blank. It might be tempting to choose a positive word, but the structure and tone suggest a contrast from the “usual.” It might help to put the word while in front of “Usually.” The only word that suggests the opposite of “articulate speaker” is choice (A) flubbed, which means “to make a mess of.” Choice (B) perfected means “made no errors” and choice (C) rescind means “took back.” These words don’t fit the context of the clause. How might an audience subjected to a flubbed speech feel? You can rule out choice (D) rapture since it means “extreme joy.” That leaves choice (E) repulsion, or “disgust,” and choice (F) bewilderment, or “deep confusion.” Consider the shades of meaning here: the audience is not likely to respond with an emotion as strong as disgust, especially if the doctor is normally a great speaker. Bewilderment is correct.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 24

Directions For each sentence, choose one word for each set of blanks. Select the word or words that best fit(s) the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q. The author’s agent approached the contract signing with (i) ________, as she knew full well the reputation of the publisher. The author, finally recognized after years of rejection, was more (ii) ________ by the event.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 24

You can infer that the author must be “happy” to be published after years of rejection, so start with the second blank. The correct answer is choice (D) enraptured, which means “full of delight.” It wouldn’t make sense for the author to feel (E) humiliated or (F) mortified; she’s finally received some recognition, after all. Now for the first blank. The word “more” functions as a subtle detour road sign in this sentence. The author is “more” happy than the agent, so predict something like “skepticism” on the part of the agent. Only (A) incertitude, which means “uncertainty,” fits this context. (B) hubris is "excessive pride in oneself " that often leads to someone's downfall; while the agent may have been proud of the author and of herself for getting this contract, nothing in the sentence indicates this pride was excessive. At any rate, this sentence is about the contrast between the author's happiness and the agent's more skeptical perspective, not about any sense of accomplishment the agent may feel. (C) cordiality, meaning “friendliness,” is too positive to work here.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 25

Directions For each sentence, choose one word for each set of blanks. Select the word or words that best fit(s) the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q. The hikers were eager to summit Mount Everest and (i) _______ warnings about the dangerous storm approachingthe camp. It was only when disaster struck that the (ii) _______ of the situation took hold. By this time, however,the descent was (iii) _______, and the survivors fought for their lives.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 25

The words “and,” “only,” and “however” are road signs that help you determine the direction of each sentence and choose the appropriate missing words. Overly eager hikers are unlikely to heed warnings, and choice (C) flouted, which means “defied” or “ignored,” captures this relationship best. Neither choice (A) recollected nor (B) scrutinized, both of which suggest examining an issue, fits the context. The second blank will contain a word consistent with one’s attitude aer a disaster. Choice (E) hypocrisy refers to insincerity; that might describe the hikers (who’d just flouted the warnings), but not the situation they now find themselves in. Choice (F) prestige, meaning “status” or “consideration,” is inappropriate to the context as well. Only choice (D) gravity, or “seriousness,” makes sense here. While the descent may have been (G) galvanizing, or “exciting,” on some level, it was in the context of a dire situation, so keep looking for a better choice. Choice (H) fortuitous means “lucky.” (If you didn’t know its definition, notice that it shares the root of “fortune.”) You can infer that it doesn’t fit logically in the paragraph. Something (I) baleful appears threatening, or even deadly; this is the correct answer.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 26

Directions For each sentence, choose one word for each set of blanks. Select the word or words that best fit(s) the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q. The fact that Mark Twain gave orders for his memoir to remain unpublished for 100 years reflects the author’s (i) ________ about its contents. Indeed, releasing his more (ii) ________ observations about the world during his own time would have spurred a public response, one that Twain must have foreseen as (iii) ________.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 26

To complete this sentence, look for key words or phrases that give hints about the context. For instance, “gave orders” in the first sentence indicates a strong feeling, perhaps a concern, so try to find a term that plays off this sentiment. Only choice (A) trepidation, which means “unease,” supports the first sentence. Choice (B) buoyancy means “quick to recover” (think of the buoy floating in the ocean), and (C) insouciance means “lightheartedness.” Both words suggest unconcern, the opposite of how Twain must have felt when ordering his memoirs to remain sealed for a century. The word in the second blank must describe writing that the author wants to keep private for a long time aer his death. Choices (D) quixotic and (E) utopian have a similar meaning—“idealistic”—and neither fits the context. Choice (F) vitriolic, meaning “acidic” or “corrosive,” is the best fit. For the third blank, you need a negative word. Choice (G) enigmatic, or “mysterious,” doesn’t make sense. Choice (H) detrimental means “damaging.” That is the right answer. Finally, choice (I) salubrious means “health-promoting,” which is too positive and does not fit the context.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 27

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Pancreatic beta cells are responsible within a body for monitoring homeostatic cues from a wide variety of hormonal inputs and in turn regulate the insulin needed to maintain balance in the blood sugar. Researchers studying this signaling system have located three key proteins that relay signals. Understanding how these proteins function within the context of the signaling system can help scientists gain more insight into how diabetes compromises the healthy functioning of the system and how to counteract the impact of diabetes once it is identified.

Q. The passage implies which of the following about diabetes research?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 27

The correct answer follows from the passage, though it may not be stated explicitly. Choice (A) is not implied. Although researchers probably hope to stem the occurrence of diabetes, the passage speaks only of combating the disease’s impact. There is also no suggestion in the passage of the hope, expressed in choice (B), of creating an artificial system. Choice (C) is too extreme. The passage doesn’t imply a “standstill” absent “complete” understanding of the proteins. The wording in choice (D) is dense, but it’s also broad enough to follow from the passage. Researchers may well use their understanding of the hormonal cues monitored by the proteins to develop the treatments mentioned in the final sentence of the passage. Indeed, (D) is the correct response. Finally, (E) runs counter to the passage. The researchers hope to understand how to help the relay system work, not how to cut it off.
You can eliminate (E) confidently.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 28

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Pancreatic beta cells are responsible within a body for monitoring homeostatic cues from a wide variety of hormonal inputs and in turn regulate the insulin needed to maintain balance in the blood sugar.Researchers studying this signaling system have located three key proteins that relay signals. Understanding how these proteins function within the context of the signaling system can help scientists gain more insight into how diabetes compromises the healthy functioning of the system and how to counteract the impact of diabetes once it is identified.

Q. According to the passage, each of the following is true EXCEPT:

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 28

The four wrong answers to this Detail question are found in the passage. The correct answer will either contradict or distort the passage, or fall outside its scope altogether. Choice (A) is true; it is stated in the first sentence of the passage. Choice (B) seems like it might be true, but reading carefully, it overstates the role of diabetes as described in the passage: diabetes compromises or impairs the ability of the pancreatic beta cells to function, but you’re not told that it controls those functions. Choice (C) is true and is also stated in the passage’s first sentence. Choice (D) paraphrases the first main claim of the passage. Choice (E) comes from the end of the first sentence.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 29

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Named after the notorious confidence trickster Charles Ponzi (though not originated by him), the term “Ponzi scheme” describes a particular type of fraud in which individual investors are promised extremely high returns, which are then paid either out of their own money or the money of other investors, creating the appearance of an extremely profitable investment. The entire scheme relies on encouraging investors to donate large amounts of money long-term by offering them the enticement of impossibly high short-term returns. As time progresses, investors who have been paid returns contribute even more money, and new investors are drawn into the scheme. New payments are used to pay off new investors. Excess money is then kept as profit for the creator of the fraud, rather than to create any tangible profits for the investment itself.

Q. According to the passage, which is necessary for a Ponzi scheme to be successful?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 29

The correct answer to this Detail question must paraphrase something stated explicitly in the passage. Choice (A) restates the author’s definition of Ponzi schemes: the use of short-term payoffs to attract long-term investments. That’s the correct answer. Choice (D) is incorrect because the passage mentions nothing about paper trails; likewise, it does not address who should share the culpability, ruling out choice (E).
Choice (C) is initially tempting, but be careful; the final sentence of the passage explicitly states that the investment does not create any real profits, so (C)’s recommendations for how to divvy them up must be incorrect. Choice (B) is tempting because the schemes attempt to sucker investors into long-term commitments, but the schemes needn’t be sustainable in any case.

Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 30

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Hay-on-Wye is a small town in Wales, just over the border from England. While once a relatively unknown town, the town rose to fame in the second half of the 20th century as a literary hot spot. Influenced by Richard Booth’s opening of a secondhand bookshop in a converted fire station, a number of other entrepreneurs followed suit, until the tiny town held over 30 used bookshops; by the 1970s, it became known around the world as the “Town of Books.” Aided by Booth’s publicity efforts, Hay-on-Wye was turned from a sleepy market town with fewer than 2,000 inhabitants to a thriving tourist destination.
The town now boasts half a million tourists per year and hosts a popular annual literary festival. Booth himself was inducted into the Order of the British Empire for his efforts to encourage tourism.

Q. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 1 - Question 30

By the time you begin to look at questions accompanying a passage, you should have already determined the scope and purpose of the passage.
In this case, the author is purely expository; she just wants to relate or explain how Hay-on-Wye became known for books and literature.
Choices (A), (B), and (D) are related to the passage’s subject matter but don’t describe the overall purpose of the passage. Choices (C) and (E) look relatively similar, and the fact that the passage is about Hay-onWye makes (E) tempting. But the passage focuses on a specific aspect of the town, rather than the town as a whole. This aspect is its rise to fame as the “Town of Books,” and thus choice (C) is your answer.

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