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Mock Test for GRE - 9 - GRE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test GRE Mock Test Series 2024 - Mock Test for GRE - 9

Mock Test for GRE - 9 for GRE 2024 is part of GRE Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Mock Test for GRE - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the GRE exam syllabus.The Mock Test for GRE - 9 MCQs are made for GRE 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Mock Test for GRE - 9 below.
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Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 1

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

It would be expected that a novel by a figure as prominent as W. E. B. DuBois would attract the attention of literary critics. Additionally, when the novel subtly engages the issue of race, as DuBois’ The Quest of the Silver Fleece (1911) does, it would be a surprise not to encounter an abundance of scholarly work about that text. But though valuable scholarship has examined DuBois’ political and historical thought, his novels have received scant attention. Perhaps DuBois the novelist must wait his turn behind DuBois the philosopher, historian, and editor. But what if the truth lies elsewhere: what if his novels do not speak to current concerns?

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding DuBois’ The Quest of the Silver Fleece?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 1

Choice E is correct. The second sentence states that The Quest of the Silver Fleece subtly engages the issue of race and implies that such an issue would attract the attention of literary scholars. The passage provides no information about whether The Quest of the Silver Fleece is DuBois’ first novel (Choice A), whether it received more or less scholarly attention than his other novels (Choice B), whether it is better than any of his other novels (Choice D), nor about what scholars have said about it (Choice C).

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 2

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

It would be expected that a novel by a figure as prominent as W. E. B. DuBois would attract the attention of literary critics. Additionally, when the novel subtly engages the issue of race, as DuBois’ The Quest of the Silver Fleece (1911) does, it would be a surprise not to encounter an abundance of scholarly work about that text. But though valuable scholarship has examined DuBois’ political and historical thought, his novels have received scant attention. Perhaps DuBois the novelist must wait his turn behind DuBois the philosopher, historian, and editor. But what if the truth lies elsewhere: what if his novels do not speak to current concerns?

Q. In the fourth sentence (“Perhaps DuBois . . . editor.”), the author of the passage is most likely suggesting that

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 2
The fourth sentence speculates that once DuBois scholars have exhausted potential avenues of research in the fields of philosophy, history, and editing, they will turn to his novels, so Choice D is the correct answer. None of the other choices fits the metaphor in “Perhaps DuBois the novelist must wait his turn.”
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Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 3

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

It would be expected that a novel by a figure as prominent as W. E. B. DuBois would attract the attention of literary critics. Additionally, when the novel subtly engages the issue of race, as DuBois’ The Quest of the Silver Fleece (1911) does, it would be a surprise not to encounter an abundance of scholarly work about that text. But though valuable scholarship has examined DuBois’ political and historical thought, his novels have received scant attention. Perhaps DuBois the novelist must wait his turn behind DuBois the philosopher, historian, and editor. But what if the truth lies elsewhere: what if his novels do not speak to current concerns?

Q. Which of the following best describes the central issue with which the passage is concerned?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 3
The passage focuses on the scant attention given to DuBois’ novels, The Quest of the Silver Fleece in particular. The first two sentences give reasons to expect greater attention, while the last two offer speculations about the explanation for the scant attention. Thus, Choice E is correct. The issues described in the other answer choices are all marginal to the passage, if they are mentioned at all.
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 4

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

In a recent study, David Cressy examines two central questions concerning English immigration to New England in the 1630s: what kinds of people immigrated and why? Using contemporary literary evidence, shipping lists, and customs records, Cressy finds that most adult immigrants were skilled in farming or crafts, were literate, and were organized in families. Each of these characteristics sharply distinguishes the 21,000 people who left for New England in the 1630s from most of the approximately 377,000 English people who had immigrated to America by 1700.

With respect to their reasons for immigrating, Cressy does not deny the frequently noted fact that some of the immigrants of the 1630s, most notably the organizers and clergy, advanced religious explanations for departure, but he finds that such explanations usually assumed primacy only in retrospect. When he moves beyond the principal actors, he finds that religious explanations were less frequently offered, and he concludes that most people immigrated because they were recruited by promises of material improvement.

Q. The passage indicates that Cressy would agree with which of the following statements about the organizers among the English immigrants to New England in the 1630s?

[For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.]

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 4
Choice A is correct.

Choice A is correct: the organizers are mentioned in the second paragraph, where the passage says that Cressy “does not deny” that organizers “advanced religious explanations” for leaving England and immigrating to New England in the 1630s. This suggests that Cressy would agree with the statement in choice A about the organizers.

Choice B is incorrect: in lines 10–11, the passage says that Cressy finds that religious reasons for immigration “assumed primacy” only in retrospect, but this is not the same as Cressy’s concluding that no reasons were given at the time of immigration. Therefore it cannot be inferred that Cressy would agree with the statement in Choice B.

Choice C is incorrect: the passage refers in lines 13–14 to “promises of material improvement” as a factor that in Cressy’s view motivated most immigrants other than “the principal actors.” This suggests that Cressy regards the principal actors, such as organizers, as having been less, not more, motivated by material considerations than average immigrants were. Therefore it cannot be inferred that Cressy would agree with the statement in Choice C.

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 5

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

In a recent study, David Cressy examines two central questions concerning English immigration to New England in the 1630s: what kinds of people immigrated and why? Using contemporary literary evidence, shipping lists, and customs records, Cressy finds that most adult immigrants were skilled in farming or crafts, were literate, and were organized in families. Each of these characteristics sharply distinguishes the 21,000 people who left for New England in the 1630s from most of the approximately 377,000 English people who had immigrated to America by 1700.

With respect to their reasons for immigrating, Cressy does not deny the frequently noted fact that some of the immigrants of the 1630s, most notably the organizers and clergy, advanced religious explanations for departure, but he finds that such explanations usually assumed primacy only in retrospect. When he moves beyond the principal actors, he finds that religious explanations were less frequently offered, and he concludes that most people immigrated because they were recruited by promises of material improvement.

Q. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 5
The passage is about Cressy’s investigation of English immigration to New England in the 1630s, and it summarizes his findings concerning who immigrated and why. Choice A, “summarizing the findings of an investigation,” is therefore the best description of the author’s primary concern in the passage. The passage does not analyze a method of argument, so Choice B is incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because the passage is not primarily concerned with evaluating a point of view: it does not assess the merits or demerits of Cressy’s viewpoint. The passage is concerned with reporting Cressy’s findings, not with hypothesizing or with establishing categories, so Choices D and E are incorrect.
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 6

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Fossil bones of the huge herbivorous dinosaurs known as sauropods were first discovered and studied between 1840 and 1880, providing evidence for the gargantuan dimensions of the adults. The shape of sauropod teeth suggested what they ate. But aside from trackways, or series of fossilized footprints—which established that sauropods at least occasionally lived in herds—fossils incorporating direct evidence of other behavior, such as reproductive behavior, have been almost nonexistent. Because no modern land animals even approach sauropod size, scientists have also lacked a living analogue to use as a guide to possible sauropod behavior. Until the recent discovery of fossilized sauropod nesting grounds, scientists were thus uncertain whether sauropods laid eggs or gave birth to live young.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding the evidence provided by sauropod teeth?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 6
Choice B is the only correct answer.

Choice A is incorrect: the passage mentions that fossilized footprints permit the inference that sauropods exhibited herd behavior, but there is no indication that this or any other social behavior can be inferred from sauropod teeth.

Choice B is correct: the passage states that sauropods were herbivorous (feeding on plants) and that “the shape of sauropod teeth suggested what they ate.”

Choice C is incorrect: the passage says that there are no modern land animals similar in size to sauropods, not that there are no such animals with similar teeth.

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 7

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Fossil bones of the huge herbivorous dinosaurs known as sauropods were first discovered and studied between 1840 and 1880, providing evidence for the gargantuan dimensions of the adults. The shape of sauropod teeth suggested what they ate. But aside from trackways, or series of fossilized footprints—which established that sauropods at least occasionally lived in herds—fossils incorporating direct evidence of other behavior, such as reproductive behavior, have been almost nonexistent. Because no modern land animals even approach sauropod size, scientists have also lacked a living analogue to use as a guide to possible sauropod behavior. Until the recent discovery of fossilized sauropod nesting grounds, scientists were thus uncertain whether sauropods laid eggs or gave birth to live young.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding the recently discovered fossilized sauropod nesting grounds?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 7
Choice A is the only correct answer.

Choice A is correct: the last sentence of the passage implies that the discovery of fossilized sauropod nesting grounds resolved the question of whether sauropods laid eggs or gave birth to live young and therefore provided evidence of sauropods’ reproductive behavior. Until this discovery, except for the trackways that showed herd behavior, “fossils incorporating direct evidence” of sauropod behavior were “almost nonexistent” (lines 5–6).

Choice B is incorrect: according to the passage, trackways provided evidence of herd behavior, whereas fossilized nesting grounds provided evidence concerning reproductive behavior. There is no information in the passage to suggest that the nesting grounds confirmed evidence provided by the trackways, or even that the trackway evidence needed confirming.

Choice C is incorrect: the passage presents fossilized nesting grounds as providing evidence about reproductive behavior, not herd behavior. Nothing in the passage suggests that there are theories of the nature of sauropod herd behavior that have been reevaluated.

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 8

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Some researchers contend that sleep plays no role in the consolidation of declarative memory (i.e., memory involving factual information). These researchers note that people with impairments in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep continue to lead normal lives, and they argue that if sleep were crucial for memory, then these individuals would have apparent memory deficits. Yet the same researchers acknowledge that the cognitive capacities of these individuals have never been systematically examined, nor have they been the subject of studies of tasks on which performance reportedly depends on sleep. Even if such studies were done, they could only clarify our understanding of the role of REM sleep, not sleep in general.

These researchers also claim that improvements of memory overnight can be explained by the mere passage of time, rather than attributed to sleep. But recent studies of memory performance after sleep—including one demonstrating that sleep stabilizes declarative memories from future interference caused by mental activity during wakefulness—make this claim unsustainable. Certainly there are memory consolidation processes that occur across periods of wakefulness, some of which neither depend on nor are enhanced by sleep. But when sleep is compared with wakefulness, and performance is better after sleep, then some benefit of sleep for memory must be acknowledged.

Q. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 8

Correct Ans: Option A

Explanation:

The passage mainly challenges the argument made by some researchers who claim that sleep does not play a role in the consolidation of declarative memory. It presents counter-evidence, such as studies showing that sleep stabilizes declarative memories against interference, to refute the claim. The author's primary purpose is to argue against the position that sleep has no effect on memory consolidation.

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 9

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Some researchers contend that sleep plays no role in the consolidation of declarative memory (i.e., memory involving factual information). These researchers note that people with impairments in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep continue to lead normal lives, and they argue that if sleep were crucial for memory, then these individuals would have apparent memory deficits. Yet the same researchers acknowledge that the cognitive capacities of these individuals have never been systematically examined, nor have they been the subject of studies of tasks on which performance reportedly depends on sleep. Even if such studies were done, they could only clarify our understanding of the role of REM sleep, not sleep in general.

These researchers also claim that improvements of memory overnight can be explained by the mere passage of time, rather than attributed to sleep. But recent studies of memory performance after sleep—including one demonstrating that sleep stabilizes declarative memories from future interference caused by mental activity during wakefulness—make this claim unsustainable. Certainly there are memory consolidation processes that occur across periods of wakefulness, some of which neither depend on nor are enhanced by sleep. But when sleep is compared with wakefulness, and performance is better after sleep, then some benefit of sleep for memory must be acknowledged.

Q. According to the author of the passage, which of the following generalizations about memory and sleep is true?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 9
The passage states that “there are memory-consolidation processes that occur across periods of wakefulness.” Accordingly, Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: the passage does not discuss types of memory other than consolidative memory, the relative importance to consolidative memory of REM and non-REM sleep, or differences among individuals in the amount of sleep they require. Choice E is also incorrect: the passage suggests that the truth is the opposite of what this answer choice states. The last sentence of the passage indicates that performance on memory tasks has been found to be better after sleep than after periods of wakefulness.
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 10

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Some researchers contend that sleep plays no role in the consolidation of declarative memory (i.e., memory involving factual information). These researchers note that people with impairments in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep continue to lead normal lives, and they argue that if sleep were crucial for memory, then these individuals would have apparent memory deficits. Yet the same researchers acknowledge that the cognitive capacities of these individuals have never been systematically examined, nor have they been the subject of studies of tasks on which performance reportedly depends on sleep. Even if such studies were done, they could only clarify our understanding of the role of REM sleep, not sleep in general.

These researchers also claim that improvements of memory overnight can be explained by the mere passage of time, rather than attributed to sleep. But recent studies of memory performance after sleep—including one demonstrating that sleep stabilizes declarative memories from future interference caused by mental activity during wakefulness—make this claim unsustainable. Certainly there are memory consolidation processes that occur across periods of wakefulness, some of which neither depend on nor are enhanced by sleep. But when sleep is compared with wakefulness, and performance is better after sleep, then some benefit of sleep for memory must be acknowledged.

Q. Which of the following best describes the function of the sentence in lines 14–16 (“Certainly . . . sleep”)?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 10
The cited sentence begins with the word “Certainly,” a clue that the sentence will concede that the researchers are not entirely wrong: in this instance, they are not wrong about memory consolidation occurring during periods of wakefulness. Thus, Choice E is correct. Choice A is incorrect: the sentence deals with memory consolidation during wakefulness, not with the role of sleep in memory consolidation. Choice B is incorrect: the sentence does follow an assertion that the researchers’ claim is unsustainable, but it does not explain why it is unsustainable. Choice C is incorrect: the sentence does not demonstrate anything. It acknowledges that memory consolidation occurs during wakeful periods but does not identify wakefulness as central to the process. Choice D is incorrect: while the sentence does acknowledge that some memory-consolidation processes are not dependent on sleep, it does not go so far as to claim that sleep plays a limited role in memory consolidation generally.
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 11

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Some researchers contend that sleep plays no role in the consolidation of declarative memory (i.e., memory involving factual information). These researchers note that people with impairments in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep continue to lead normal lives, and they argue that if sleep were crucial for memory, then these individuals would have apparent memory deficits. Yet the same researchers acknowledge that the cognitive capacities of these individuals have never been systematically examined, nor have they been the subject of studies of tasks on which performance reportedly depends on sleep. Even if such studies were done, they could only clarify our understanding of the role of REM sleep, not sleep in general.

These researchers also claim that improvements of memory overnight can be explained by the mere passage of time, rather than attributed to sleep. But recent studies of memory performance after sleep—including one demonstrating that sleep stabilizes declarative memories from future interference caused by mental activity during wakefulness—make this claim unsustainable. Certainly there are memory consolidation processes that occur across periods of wakefulness, some of which neither depend on nor are enhanced by sleep. But when sleep is compared with wakefulness, and performance is better after sleep, then some benefit of sleep for memory must be acknowledged.

Q. The importance of the study mentioned in lines 12–14 is that it

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 11
The question asks what “the importance of the study mentioned in lines 12–14” is. The study is described as having shown that sleep stabilizes declarative memory from future interference caused by mental activity during wakefulness. This protection of memory from interference is the “specific function” played by sleep mentioned in Choice B. Therefore, Choice B is correct. Choice A is incorrect: there is no description of any mechanism, or specific process, by which declarative memory is stabilized. Although Choices C, D, and E each involve issues connected with the study, those connections are all tangential.
*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 12

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

The attribution of early-nineteenth-century English fiction is notoriously problematic. Fewer than half of new novels published in Britain between 1800 and 1829 had the author’s true name printed on the title page. Most of these titles have subsequently been attributed, either through the author’s own acknowledgment of a previously anonymous or pseudonymous work or through bibliographical research. One important tool available to researchers is the list of earlier works “by the author” often found on title pages. But such lists are as likely to create new confusion as they are to solve old problems. Title pages were generally prepared last in the publication process, often without full authorial assent, and in the last-minute rush to press, mistakes were frequently made.

Q. The passage suggests that which of the following factors contributes to the “notoriously problematic” (line 1) nature of authorial attribution in early nineteenth- century English fiction?

[For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that

apply.]

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 12

Choices B and C are correct.

Choice A is incorrect: the passage mentions that the attribution of early-nineteenth-century fiction was sometimes achieved when the author came forward to acknowledge a previously anonymous work (lines 4–5), so Choice A can be eliminated.

Choice B is correct: in lines 5–7, the passage mentions that “one important tool available to researchers is the list of earlier works ‘by the author’ often found on title pages,” but goes on to say that these title pages were prepared hastily and “frequently” contained mistakes (lines 8–10). Since the mistake most likely to “create new confusion” would be the inclusion of works not written by the author, Choice B may be inferred.

Choice C is correct: in lines 2–3, the passage states, “Fewer than half of the new novels published in Britain . . . had the author’s true name printed on the title page.” Line 5 suggests that pseudonyms—fictitious names—were commonly used. Hence, Choice C may be inferred.

*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 13

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

The attribution of early-nineteenth-century English fiction is notoriously problematic. Fewer than half of new novels published in Britain between 1800 and 1829 had the author’s true name printed on the title page. Most of these titles have subsequently been attributed, either through the author’s own acknowledgement of a previously anonymous or pseudonymous work or through bibliographical research. One important tool available to researchers is the list of earlier works “by the author” often found on title pages. But such lists are as likely to create new confusion as they are to solve old problems. Title pages were generally prepared last in the publication process, often without full authorial assent, and in the last-minute rush to press, mistakes were frequently made.

Q. The passage suggests that which of the following is frequently true of the title pages of early-nineteenth-century English novels?

[For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that

apply.]

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 13

Choices A and B are correct. Choice A is correct: the passage mentions that title pages were prepared last and that mistakes often occurred “in the last-minute rush to press” (line 9). This indicates that title pages were often prepared for printing in a hurried manner; hence, Choice A can be inferred. Choice B is correct: the passage includes the detail that title pages were often prepared for printing “without full authorial assent” (line 9); hence, Choice B can be inferred. Choice C is incorrect: nowhere does the passage speculate about commercial motives for falsifying information on title pages. Choice C, therefore, cannot be inferred.

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 14

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

The more definitions a given noun has, the more valuable is each one. Multiple definitions, each subtly different from all the others, convey multiple shades of meaning. They expand the uses of the word; language is enriched, thought is widened, and interpretations increase or dilate to fill the potentialities of association. The very impossibility of absoluteness in the definition of certain nouns adds to the levels of connotation they may reach. The inner life of a writer often says more than most readers can know; the mind of a reader can discover truths that go beyond the intent or perhaps even the comprehension of the writer. And all of it finds expression because a word can mean many things.

Q. In the context in which it appears, “shades” (line 2) most nearly means

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 14
In the context in which it appears, “shades” is used to refer to the subtle distinctions in meaning that are made possible by “multiple definitions, each subtly different from all the others.” Since the sentence deals with multiple definitions conveying meaning, Choice C (“obscurities”) and the more literal Choice D (“coverings”) may be eliminated. In deciding between Choice B and Choice E, one should bear in mind that the sentence focuses on subtle differences in meaning as opposed to different degrees of emphasis for the same meaning. Choice B, “nuances,” best captures this sense of slight variations in meaning and is therefore the correct answer.
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 15

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

The more definitions a given noun has, the more valuable is each one. Multiple definitions, each subtly different from all the others, convey multiple shades of meaning. They expand the uses of the word; language is enriched, thought is widened, and interpretations increase or dilate to fill the potentialities of association. The very impossibility of absoluteness in the definition of certain nouns adds to the levels of connotation they may reach. The inner life of a writer often says more than most readers can know; the mind of a reader can discover truths that go beyond the intent or perhaps even the comprehension of the writer. And all of it finds expression because a word can mean many things.

Q. The passage suggests that a writer’s use of nouns that have multiple definitions can have which of the following effects on the relationship between writer and reader?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 15
Lines 7–8 clearly indicate that multiple meanings of words enable readers to “discover truths that go beyond the intent or perhaps even the comprehension of the writer”; hence, Choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, D, and E all deal with topics that are not mentioned in the passage: the writer’s life, the reader’s frustration, the avoidance of ambiguity, and the question of how efficiently multiple definitions can aid in the presentation of unfamiliar ideas.
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 16

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

In 1998 the United States Department of Transportation received nearly 10,000 consumer complaints about airlines; in 1999 it received over 20,000. Moreover, the number of complaints per 100,000 passengers also more than doubled. In both years the vast majority of complaints concerned flight delays, cancellations, mishandled baggage, and customer service. Clearly, therefore, despite the United States airline industry’s serious efforts to improve performance in these areas, passenger dissatisfaction with airline service increased significantly in 1999.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 16
The passage describes two different year-over-year increases in airline passenger complaints: both the absolute number of complaints and the rate of complaints more than doubled from 1998 to 1999. From these facts, the author of the passage concludes that passenger dissatisfaction with airline service significantly increased in the same period.

Choice D is the correct answer: it weakens the argument because it presents a scenario in which the increase in complaints and in the rate of complaints could merely be the result of an easier means of filing complaints, not an actual increase in passenger dissatisfaction.

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 17

Meteorite explosions in the Earth's atmosphere as large as the one that destroyed forests in Siberia, with approximately the force of a twelve-megaton nuclear blast, occur about once a century. The response of highly automated systems controlled by complex computer programs to unexpected circumstances is unpredictable.

Q. Which of the following conclusions can most properly be drawn, if the statements above are true, about a highly automated nuclear-missile defense system controlled by a complex computer program?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 17
If the defense system designers did not plan for the contingency of large meteorite explosions, such explosions would, from the system's perspective, be unexpected. The system's response 7 to such explosions is consequently unpredictable. E expresses this inference and is thus the best answer. A cannot be inferred since it is consistent with the stated information that no meteorite explosion will occur within a century. B cannot be inferred since there is no information to suggest that meteorite explosions in the atmosphere would destroy the system. C cannot be inferred since it is consistent with the stated information that an appropriately designed nuclear defense system might be able to distinguish nuclear from meteorite explosions. D cannot be inferred since there is no information to suggest that the location of blasts would determine the appropriateness of defense system's response.
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 18

The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that service than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore, if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions.

Q. If the statements in the passage are true, which of the following must be true?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 18
The supposition in c involves reducing by one the number of restrictions on the advertising of legal services. Any such reduction will, if the stated correlation exists, be accompanied by an increase in the number of lawyers advertising their services, as C predicts. Therefore, C is the best answer. A does not follow from the stated information since it is still possible that no lawyers would raise their fees. B does not follow from the stated information since it is still possible that there would be no increase in the number of consumers using legal services. D does not follow the stated information since it is still possible that none of the lawyers who do not advertise would decide to lower their prices. E does not follow the stated information since it is still possible that few lawyers would advertise their legal services.
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 19

The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that service than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore, if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if the state retains its current restrictions.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument concerning overall consumer legal costs?

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 19
If E is true, the lawyers who begin advertising when the restriction is removed might all be among those who do not lower their fees on beginning to advertise, in which case no decrease in consumer legal costs will occur. Therefore, E weakens the argument and is the best answer. Since A does not relate the recent removal of restrictions to changes in consumer legal costs, it alone does not weaken the argument. Since the argument is unconcerned with whatever restrictions remain in effect but focuses only on those that will be removed, B does not weaken the argument. C and D are irrelevant to an evaluation of the argument, which is concerned with cost considerations, not with the quality of legal services or the content of lawyers' advertisements.
*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 20

The island had a history of ____ rule, and had rebelled against various governments numerous times over the years.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 20

If the people of the island have rebelled numerous times, it is reasonable to assume that they rebelled against an oppressive or dictatorial government. Therefore, the correct answers are A) despotic and C) tyrannical. Democratic, which means a government of the people, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Proprietary, which means of or relating to an owner, does not make sense. Myriad, which means countless or extremely great number, does not make sense. Laudatory, which means expressing praise and commendation, does not make sense.

*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 21

Hester’s charity was _____ for its work with children in developing nations, and was awarded a grant for further projects.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 21

The sentence states that Hester's charity was awarded a grant for further projects. It can reasonably be inferred that the charity does worthwhile work; therefore, the correct answers are D) commended and E) recognized. Reprimanded and admonished, each of which means to have rebuked someone (especially officially) do not make sense. Calibrated, which means to have correlated the readings of an instrument, does not make sense. Misappropriated, which means to have dishonestly taken something for one's own use, does not make sense.

*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 22

As he approached middle age, he realized how _____ were the dreams of his youth.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 22

A person approaching middle age is likely to look back at youth and feel that the dreams they once had quickly disappeared. Therefore, the correct answers are A) ephemeral and D) fleeting. Misguided, which means mistaken, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Nonsensical, which means making no sense, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Audacious, which means bold, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Emboldened, which means to give someone courage, is grammatically incorrect.

*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 23

I was used to David’s scheming, but even I was _____ of the outrageous boldness of his latest plan.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 23

The author states he/she was used to David's scheming, and the phrase "but even I was---" indicates that the author managed to be shocked by his latest plan. Therefore, the correct answers are B) incredulous and D) disbelieving. Nonplussed, which means unimpressed, does not fit the context of the sentence. Victimized, which means to be singled out for cruel or unjust treatment, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Forthright, which means candid, does not make sense. Finessed, which means to have brought about by skilful maneuvering, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning.

*Multiple options can be correct
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 24

After a lifetime of taking advantage of people, especially those close to him, we were shocked to find that for the first time in his life, David actually appeared to be _____.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 24

The sentence indicates that David has spent his life taking advantage of people, and suggests that he showed little concern for his actions. For once, however, David did something that shocked people, which would indicate he showed remorse. Therefore, the correct answers are C) contrite and E) repentant. Remorseless and callous, both of which mean unrepentant, do not fit the context of the sentence. Indifferent and apathetic, both of which mean uncaring or unmoved, do not fit the context of the sentence.

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 25

Although the Industrial revolution brought about a raft of new techniques in the area of machine design, the methods used for the printing and binding of books continued ___________ till the early years of the 20th century.

A. intermittently

B. improving

C. transforming

D. unchanged

E. advancing

F. unmodified

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 25
Meanings for the words given in this question are provided in the table. Before going through the detailed explanation, check whether you are able to arrive at the answer after knowing meanings for the words.

Let us start by focusing on the keyword. The word that holds the key to understanding the meaning of this sentence is “Although”. We know that the word “Although” implies contrast. It means that something that happened was not expected to happen.

In the context of this sentence:

The industrial revolution brought about a lot of changes and new techniques in the area of machine design. So what is the expected result of that? We might expect these new changes to bring changes and improvements in printing and book binding. However the word “although” indicates that the author says that this did NOT happen. So printing and book binding must have remained the same.

This rules out all the answer options except D and F. The techniques remained unchanged and unmodified. Note that the words which you select as answer options need not be the same, but the sentence has to have the same overall meaning when you plug in the answer options.

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 26

The ___________ tone and appealing image of American Rock and Roll and blues musicians became popular with British youth in the late 1950s.

A. dulcet

B. cacophony

C. dissonant

D. bohemian

E. hoarse

F. glamorous

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 26
Meanings for the words given in this question are provided in the table. Before going through the detailed explanation, check whether you are able to arrive at the answer after knowing meanings for the words.

This sentence asks you to make a judgment on the quality of music which makes it popular among audiences. We know from the second half of the sentence that the musicians became popular with youth. The blank should contain a word which makes these musicians popular.

At this point, you can pause and ask yourself what kind of music would make musicians popular. Is it music that sounds good or bad? Music that sounds good, of course. That immediately rules out the words hoarse, cacophony and dissonant – all of which are words that describe bad noise. We are left with dulcet, bohemian and glamorous, all of which are “positive” words.

The author talks about the image of the musicians as well as the tone of their music. The sentence clearly emphasizes the tone AS WELL AS the image of the musicians. But what does the blank describe? Does the blank describe both the tone AND the image? No, because the word in the blank describes the tone whereas the word “appealing” describes the image. So the blank has to be filled with a word that can describe a sound. Can a tone be dulcet or bohemian? Yes. Can a sound be glamorous? Not likely.

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 27

Fellow journalists Eric Sevareid, Ed Bliss and Alexander Kendrick considered Murrow one of journalism's greatest figures, noting his honesty and ___________ in delivering the news.

A. integrity

B. deceit

C. credibility

D. duplicity

E. complacency

F. disloyalty

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 27
This is a relatively straightforward sentence in which the blank has to describe the journalist Murrow. We know what fellow journalists think of Murrow. They consider him one of journalism's greatest figures, who delivered news honestly. So what kind of word would fill the blank? A positive word or a negative one?

The word in the blank has to be of course a positive one. That rules out answer options D, B, E and F, leaving us with A and C.

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 28

His writing of "Common Sense" was so influential in ___________ the Revolutionary War that John Adams reportedly said, "Without the pen of the author of 'Common Sense', the sword of Washington would have been raised in vain.”

A. spurring

B. stopping

C. ending

D. stimulating

E. obstructing

F. impeding

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 28
It is very helpful to understand the background story before attempting to answer any sentence equivalence question. So, what do we know about the story behind this sentence? Can we construct a story with the details provided in the sentence?

“Common Sense” might be a book. Who wrote it? Was John Adams the author? No, because according to the quote in the sentence, John Adams spoke about the author of “Common Sense”. So the book was clearly written by someone else. Now, what does John Adams think about the book? Let us look to his quote to understand his view. He says, quite poetically, that “without the pen of the author, the sword of Washington would have been raised in vain” (Does that remind you of something? The pen being mightier than the sword?)

The point that John Adams wants to make is that the Pen (figuratively the ideas and thoughts) are so important that without these ideas that were expressed in his book, the battle (represented by sword) would have been pointless. Adams seems to think that the ideas were the cause and the battle was the end result.

So the writing of Common sense was influential in (use your own word here)...encouraging, inducing or triggering the revolutionary war.

Choices A & D are the correct answers.

Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 29

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Although the stadium had been filled with a(n) __________ of voices and sounds, it was now stilled to a(n) __________. The people stood with mouths silent and __________ as the lightning struck multiple times on the field.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 29
This whole sentence indicates that the stadium was filled with sound but then became "silent." It is key to note this word, for the stadium did not merely become quiet. Thus, options like "whisper," "murmur," and "mumble" are not acceptable for our purposes. If the people's mouths were silent, they were either closed or open without making a sound. To be "agape" is to be hanging open, often in amazement. This works well. To be "stilled to a hush" means to be brought to absolute silence. Finally, a "cacophony" is a loud and unpleasant mixture of sounds—a situation which seems to be well described regarding the initial state of the stadium.
Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 30

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

The aged scholar was well known for his __________, having written __________ articles on many issues of cellular mutation from the most __________ of topics to large-scale, systemic investigations.

Detailed Solution for Mock Test for GRE - 9 - Question 30
The last blank of the sentence may be the simplest to fill in first. The scholar is known for writing on issues that are either large-scale or what seems to be contrasted to this, namely "small-scale." The word "minute" is not the same as the time measurement (i.e. minutes vs. hours). "Minute," in this context, means small. Thus, he wrote on minute, detailed topics as well as large-scale investigations. For such work, he was likely known for his vast learning and erudition. This does not mean he was known for his education or even his brilliance. "Erudition" describes having attained an impressive degree of learning and scholarship. Finally, we can guess that he has written many articles. (This is hinted at by the fact that he wrote "on many issues.") It is quite reasonable to describe these articles as being "innumerable."
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