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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - GRE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test GRE Mock Test Series 2024 - GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 for GRE 2024 is part of GRE Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the GRE exam syllabus.The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 MCQs are made for GRE 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 below.
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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 1

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Deborah disliked her teacher’s rambling speeches; she wished he were more __________.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 1
The word that fills in the blank must contrast with a teacher who rambles. Were Deborah’s teacher more "laconic" (that is, were he more brief and to the point), then he would not likely deliver rambling speeches. "Loquacious" and "garrulous" both mean talkative, while "pedantic" means strictly concerned with formal rules and book learning.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 2

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Although Todd tends to be ___________, he used a conversation partner to help him learn French.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 2
“Autodidactic” describes someone who learns on his own and teaches himself. The first phrase starting with “although” indicates that the word in the blank must be incompatible with using a conversation partner.
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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 3

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

She was infuriated by her classmates’ _________; she wanted to do something to fix the problems that everyone else seemed to accept as inevitable.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 3
  • “Quiescence” means complacency or passive acceptance, which is the only answer choice that would infuriate someone with a desire to act.
  • Hence, option A is correct
*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 4

The increasing gap between the very rich and the desperately poor is one of the most _____ economic trends of our time.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 4

Many would view a growing disparity between rich and poor as a negative development. Therefore, the correct answers are A) disturbing and E) worrisome. Pervasive, which means widespread, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice which means the same thing. Unrecognized, which means unknown or unseen, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice which means the same thing. Asinine, which means extremely stupid or foolish, is incorrect. Combustible, which means explosive or incendiary, does not make sense.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 5

During the damaging drought of last year, many farmers found it difficult to make it, even with generous government _____.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 5

The sentence indicates that because of the drought, farmers struggled economically, even with help from the government. The implication is that farmers were receiving monetary aid from the government. Therefore, the correct answers are B) subsidies and D) grants. Erosion, which means wearing away of the soil, does not make sense. Patents, which are sole rights for excluding others from producing an invention, does not make sense. Industries, which are the production of goods in factories, does not make sense. Marketing, which means advertising, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 6

Professors are often pressured to increase the grades of star athletes, however, I simply cannot do this, as I feel it violates my _____ as an instructor.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 6

The word however is a clue in this sentence. It is reasonable to assume that many instructors would feel that being forced to change a grade for students is unethical. Therefore, the correct answers are B) integrity and E) ethics. Worth, which means value, would fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Freedom would fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Constitution, which can mean the composition of something, would fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Provenance, which means the origin of something, does not make sense.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 7

Although she has led what many would consider a rather scandalous life, Nicole is unusually _____ about her past, even with people she has only just met.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 7

The word although is a clue in this sentence. Many people would assume that if a person has led a scandalous life, they might be less than eager to discuss their life. The word although indicates that this is not the case, however. Therefore, the correct answers are C) forthright and E) candid. Private and tightlipped, both of which mean reserved, do not fit the context of the sentence. Onerous, which means burdensome, does not make sense. Arbitrary, which means based on random choice, does not make sense.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 8

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Animal signals, such as the complex songs of birds, tend to be costly. A bird, by singing, may forfeit time that could otherwise be spent on other important behaviors such as foraging or resting. Singing may also advertise an individual’s location to rivals or predators and impair the ability to detect their approach. Although these types of cost may be important, discussions of the cost of [Line 5] singing have generally focused on energy costs. Overall the evidence is equivocal: for instance, while Eberhardt found increases in energy consumption during singing for Carolina wrens, Chappell found no effect of crowing on energy consumption in roosters.

To obtain empirical data regarding the energy costs of singing, Thomas examined the relationship [Line 10] between song rate and overnight changes in body mass of male nightingales. Birds store energy as subcutaneous fat deposits or “body reserves”; changes in these reserves can be reliably estimated by measuring changes in body mass. If singing has important energy costs, nightingales should lose more body mass on nights when their song rate is high. Thomas found that nightingales reached a significantly higher body mass at dusk and lost more mass [Line 15] overnight on nights when their song rate was high.

These results suggest that there may be several costs of singing at night associated with body reserves. The increased metabolic cost of possessing higher body mass contributes to the increased overnight mass loss. The strategic regulation of evening body reserves[Line 20] is also likely to incur additional costs, as nightingales must spend more time foraging in order to build up larger body reserves. The metabolic cost of singing itself may also contribute to increased loss of reserves. This metabolic cost may arise from the muscular and neural activity involved in singing or from behaviors associated with singing. For example, birds may expend more of their reserves on thermoregulation if they [Line 25] spend the night exposed to the wind on a song post than if they are in a sheltered roost site. Thomas’s data therefore show that whether or not singing per se has an important metabolic cost, metabolic costs associated with singing can have an important measurable effect on a bird’s daily energy budget, at least in birds with high song rates such as nightingales.

Q. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 8
As mentioned above, the first paragraph mentions various costs associated with birdsong, but from that point onward, the focus of the passage is on evidence concerning the energy costs of singing, for nightingales in particular. Thus, the correct answer is Choice C. Although the passage mentions other costs, it does not compare them with one another, so Choice A is incorrect. Because the passage does not question any hypotheses, discuss benefits, or advance an alternative model of birdsong, Choices B, D, and E are incorrect.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 9

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

Animal signals, such as the complex songs of birds, tend to be costly. A bird, by singing, may forfeit time that could otherwise be spent on other important behaviors such as foraging or resting. Singing may also advertise an individual’s location to rivals or predators and impair the ability to detect their approach. Although these types of cost may be important, discussions of the cost of [Line 5] singing have generally focused on energy costs. Overall the evidence is equivocal: for instance, while Eberhardt found increases in energy consumption during singing for Carolina wrens, Chappell found no effect of crowing on energy consumption in roosters.

To obtain empirical data regarding the energy costs of singing, Thomas examined the relationship [Line 10] between song rate and overnight changes in body mass of male nightingales. Birds store energy as subcutaneous fat deposits or “body reserves”; changes in these reserves can be reliably estimated by measuring changes in body mass. If singing has important energy costs, nightingales should lose more body mass on nights when their song rate is high. Thomas found that nightingales reached a significantly higher body mass at dusk and lost more mass [Line 15] overnight on nights when their song rate was high.

These results suggest that there may be several costs of singing at night associated with body reserves. The increased metabolic cost of possessing higher body mass contributes to the increased overnight mass loss. The strategic regulation of evening body reserves[Line 20] is also likely to incur additional costs, as nightingales must spend more time foraging in order to build up larger body reserves. The metabolic cost of singing itself may also contribute to increased loss of reserves. This metabolic cost may arise from the muscular and neural activity involved in singing or from behaviors associated with singing. For example, birds may expend more of their reserves on thermoregulation if they [Line 25] spend the night exposed to the wind on a song post than if they are in a sheltered roost site. Thomas’s data therefore show that whether or not singing per se has an important metabolic cost, metabolic costs associated with singing can have an important measurable effect on a bird’s daily energy budget, at least in birds with high song rates such as nightingales.

Q. The passage implies that during the day before a night on which a male nightingale’s song rate is high, that nightingale probably does which of the following?

[For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that

apply.]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 9
Choice B is correct.

Choice A is incorrect: the only reference to thermoregulation comes in line 24 and discusses nighttime activity, not daytime activity.

Choice B is correct: the second paragraph explains that birds store energy as fat deposits that can be estimated by measuring body mass, and that body mass at dusk was significantly higher in nightingales on nights when their song rate was higher.

Choice C is incorrect: while the passage does say that singing exposes birds to predators (line 3), it says nothing to suggest that they make special efforts to hide before singing, and in fact it says that nightingales spend extra time foraging (line 20).

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 10

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Q. We were all drawn in by the twin babies' __________, wanting to __________ as many hugs as possible from the little __________ duo.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 10
Because the subjects of this sentence seem to want to hug the two little babies as much as possible it seems likely that the blanks will relate to this urge. “Vivacity” means attractive, lively and fun; “garner” means collect, gather; “dynamic” means energetic, exciting, enjoyable. To provide further help, “eloquence” is the ability to speak clearly and well; “articulate” means eloquent, able to express ideas clearly; “devious” means sneaky; “charisma” means charming and engaging in a way that inspires affection from others; “oblige” means force, make to do; “abstemious” means not indulging in things that you want to do that are dangerous or harmful; “probity” means honesty, being strongly moral; “inveigh” means denounce; “malleable” means bendable, flexible; “hedonism” is the pursuit of pleasure above everything else; “contrive” means cause a situation to arise using deceptive or false methods; “spurious” means fake.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 11

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Q. I feel such a strong sense of __________ at the __________ fees charged by my local bank that I am thinking of __________ banking institutions altogether.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 11
From context it is clear that the author of this sentence has strong feelings about banks; it is not clear what the nature of those feelings are, so you have to try to see which three words fit together logically. The correct answer is, therefore, "indignation" (anger at a perceived injustice, umbrage); "exorbiant" (excessively costly); "eschewing" (abstaining from). To provide additional help, “mendacity” means untruthfulness, dishonesty; “cumbersome” means heavy, a burden; “espousing” means declaring; “credulity” means a tendency to believe everything; “wanton” means random; “delineating” means making a list of; “indulgence” means allowing oneself to gratify a desire; “halcyon” means happy, idyllic, a period of time in the past that was carefree; “jettisoning” means getting rid of; “zealotry” is passion, uncompromising and intense belief in some dogma; “miniscule” means tiny; “remedying” means fixing.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 12

Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Q. The __________ work of Isidore of Seville __________ all known topics of his era into a single text. It was named after his __________ methodology, which utilized grammar and history to explain the origins of the words listed in the tome.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 12
The final blank of this sentence is probably the best place to start with this question. The methodology described is that of using etymologies, which are the historical origins of a given word. (This was, in fact, the method followed by Isidore of Seville in his aptly named Etymologiae.) For the second blank, notice that the sentence says that the various topics were gathered brought "into a single text." The word that most quickly comes to mind is "gathered." While this is not an option, "collated" is, for it means to collect or gather together. It literally comes from the roots "col-," meaning with or together, and "-late," which here means to bring. (There is an etymology for you, too!) Such a work likely is comprehensive or, as is an option here, "exhaustive."
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 13

Directions: Answer the questions based on following reading passage.

When marine organisms called phytoplankton photosynthesize, they absorb carbon dioxide dissolved in seawater, potentially causing a reduction in the concentration of atmospheric carbon dioxide, a gas that contributes to global warming. However, phytoplankton flourish only in surface waters where iron levels are sufficiently high. Martin therefore hypothesized that adding iron to iron-poor regions of the ocean could help alleviate global warming. While experiments subsequently confirmed that such a procedure increases phytoplankton growth, field tests have shown that such growth does not significantly lower atmospheric carbon dioxide. When phytoplankton utilize carbon dioxide for photosynthesis, the carbon becomes a building block for organic matter, but the carbon leaks back into the atmosphere when predators consume the phytoplankton and respire carbon dioxide.

Q. It can be inferred that the author of the passage mentions predators (line 10) primarily in order to

[For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that

apply.]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 13
Lines 7–11 of the paragraph present the evidence against Martin’s hypothesis. Lines 7–8 present field test results showing that Martin’s hypothesis is incorrect, and the last sentence explains these results: the reason the increased phytoplankton resulting from the addition of iron do not reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide is that while the phytoplankton absorb carbon dioxide, the gas reenters the atmosphere when it is respired by phytoplankton predators. Therefore Choice A is correct: predators are mentioned to explain why Martin’s hypothesis is incorrect. Choice B is not correct because while predators’ consumption of phytoplankton and respiration of carbon dioxide might be considered one indirect consequence of adding iron to iron-poor waters, identifying a consequence is not the primary function of the mention of predators. Choice C is incorrect because the reference to predators is used to explain how carbon dioxide reappears as a gas, and Choice D is incorrect because no connection is suggested between predators and the distribution of phytoplankton. Choice E is not correct because it is Martin who did not anticipate this factor, rather than the scientists who conducted the field tests.
*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 14

The defendant’s history of drug use and mental health issues was used very effectively by the prosecution, who made it a(an) _____ part of their case.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 14

If the prosecution used the defendant's drug use and mental health very effectively, it is reasonable to assume that it was a large part of the prosecution's case. Therefore, the correct answers are A) integral and B) fundamental. Superfluous, which means unnecessary, does not make sense. Tangential, which means of superficial relevance, does not make sense. Insensitive, which means indifferent to someone's feelings, might fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Regulatory, which means serving or intended to regulate something, does not make sense.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 15

Unfortunately, the long-term _____ of using such pesticides was not known at the time, and many farmers used them widely without fully understanding their harmful properties.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 15

The word unfortunately is a clue in this sentence; it indicates that the use of pesticides had a negative impact in some way. Therefore, the correct answers are B) implications and E) ramifications. Benefits and advantages, both of which mean something that promotes or enhances well-being, are incorrect. Alacrity, which means brisk and cheerful readiness, does not make sense. Avarice, which means greed, does not make sense.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 16

In the more undeveloped, isolated parts of the country, farmers still practice the simple, time-honored techniques of their _____.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 16

The sentence is referring to an area which is undeveloped and isolated, and it is reasonable to assume that such an area is not likely to be modernized. Therefore, the correct answers are B) forebears and D) ancestors. Descendants, which means a person's offspring, does not make sense. Technicians, which are people trained in a particular technical process, does not make sense. Mentors, who are experienced and trusted advisers, can fit the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice with the same meaning. Germination, which means to cause to sprout or grow, does not make sense.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 17

Directions: Answer the questions on following data.

Percent of Adjunct Faculty and Percent of Non-Adjunct Faculty at College X, by Field

Q. There are 275 students in the field of engineering at College X. Approximately what is the ratio of the number of students in engineering to the number of faculty in engineering?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 17
According to the graph, 2 percent of the adjunct faculty and 12 percent of the non-adjunct faculty are in the engineering field. To determine the total number of faculty in engineering, you need to add 2 percent of 200, which is 4, to 12 percent of 250, which is 30, to get 34. Thus, the ratio of the numbers of students to faculty in engineering is 275 to 34, which is approximately equal to 280 to 35, or 8 to 1. The correct answer is Choice A.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 18

Directions: Answer the questions on following data.

Percent of Adjunct Faculty and Percent of Non-Adjunct Faculty at College X, by Field

Q. Approximately what percent of the faculty in humanities are non-adjunct

faculty?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 18
You need to determine the numbers of adjunct and non-adjunct faculty in the humanities field. According to the graph, 17 percent of the 200 adjunct faculty, or 34, and 14 percent of the 250 non-adjunct faculty, or 35, are in humanities. Thus, the fraction of humanities faculty who are non-adjunct faculty is 35/34 + 35 = 35/69 , or approximately 0.507. As a percent, the answer choice that is closest to 0.507 is 51 percent. The correct answer is Choice E.
*Answer can only contain numeric values
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 19

Directions: Answer the questions on following data.

Percent of Adjunct Faculty and Percent of Non-Adjunct Faculty at College X, by Field

[Use the directions for Numeric Entry questions.]

Q. For the biological sciences and health sciences faculty combined, 1/3 of the adjunct and 2/9 of the non-adjunct faculty are medical doctors. What fraction of all the faculty in those two fields combined are medical doctors?


Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 19

You need to determine the number of adjunct faculty and the number of nonadjunct faculty in the combined group. According to the graph, 5 percent of the adjunct faculty, or 10, and 10 percent of the non-adjunct faculty, or 25, are in the biological sciences. Similarly, 16 percent of the adjunct faculty, or 32, and 8 percent of the non-adjunct faculty, or 20, are in the health sciences. When you combine the groups, you get a total of 42 adjunct faculty (10 + 32) and 45 non-adjunt faculty (25 + 20), which is a total of 87 faculty. Medical doctors are 1 of the 42 adjunct faculty, or 14 adjuncts, and 2/9 of the 45 non-adjunct faculty, 3 or 10 non-adjuncts. Thus, there are 24 medical doctors, and the fraction that are medical doctors is 24/87. The correct answer is 24/87 (or any equivalent fraction). In simplest form 8/29.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 20

Directions: Your answer may be an integer, a decimal, or a fraction, and it may be negative. Enter the exact answer unless the question asks you to round your answer.

Q. The figure above represents a rectangular garden with a walkway around it. The garden is 18 feet long and 12 feet wide. The walkway is uniformly 3 feet wide, and its edges meet at right angles. What is the area of the walkway?


Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 20

You can see from the figure that the shaded region is the region between the two rectangles. Looking at the shaded region in this way suggests that the area of the walkway can be calculated as the difference between the area of the larger rectangle and the area of the smaller rectangle.

The region represented by the smaller rectangle is the garden. Since the garden is 18 feet long and 12 feet wide, its area is (18)(12), or 216 square feet.

The region represented by the larger rectangle is the garden and the walkway combined. The length of the region is the length of the garden plus twice the width of the walkway, or 18 + (2)(3) = 24 feet. The width of the region is the width of the garden plus twice the width of the walkway, or 12 + (2)(3) = 18 feet. Therefore, the area of the region represented by the larger rectangle is (24)(18), or 432 square feet, and the area of the walkway is 432 − 216, or 216 square feet.

Another way to approach this problem is to think of the walkway as being composed of four rectangles and four squares, as shown in the figure below.

Each of the four squares is 3 feet long and 3 feet wide. The two rectangles running along the length of the garden are 18 feet long and 3 feet wide, and the two rectangles running along the width of the garden are 12 feet long and 3 feet wide. Thus, the area of the walkway is

4(3)(3) + 2(18)(3) + 2(12)(3) = 36 + 108 + 72 = 216 square feet

The correct answer is 216.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 21

Directions: Directions: Select a single answer choice.

Q. By weight, liquid A makes up 8 percent of solution R and 18 percent of solution S. If 3 grams of solution R are mixed with 7 grams of solution S, then liquid A accounts for what percent of the weight of the resulting

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 21
Liquid A makes up 8 percent of the weight of solution R and 18 percent of the weight of solution S. Therefore, 3 grams of solution R contain (0.08)(3), or 0.24 gram of liquid A, and 7 grams of solution S contain (0.18)(7), or 1.26 grams of liquid A. When the two solutions are mixed, the resulting solution weighs 3 + 7, or 10 grams and contains 0.24 + 1.26, or 1.5 grams of liquid A. This means that liquid A makes up 1.5/10, or 15/100, or 15 percent of the weight of the resulting solution. The correct answer is Choice C.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 22

Directions: Numeric Entry Questions- Your answer may be an integer, a decimal, or a fraction, and it may be negative. Enter the exact answer unless the question asks you to round your answer.

Q. What is the slope of line k in the xy-plane below?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 22
Recall that if a line passes through the points with coordinates (x1, y1) (x2, y2), where x1 ≠ x2 , then the slope of the line is

From the graph of line k in the xy-plane, you can conclude that the x-intercept of line k has coordinates (5, 0) and the y-intercept of line k has coordinates (0, −5). Thus, the slope of line k is

The correct answer is Choice D.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 23

Directions: compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices. A symbol that appears more than once in a question has the same meaning throughout the question.

Q. Frequency Distribution for List X

Frequency Distribution for List Y

List X and list Y each contain 60 numbers. Frequency distributions for each list are given above. The average (arithmetic mean) of the numbers in list X is 2.7, and the average of the numbers in list Y is 7.1. List Z contains 120 numbers: the 60 numbers in list X and the 60 numbers in list Y.

Quantity A: The average of the 120 numbers in list Z

Quantity B: The median of the 120 numbers in list Z

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 23
In this problem you are asked to compare the average with the median of the 120 numbers in list Z. Since list Z consists of the numbers in lists X and Y combined, it is reasonable to try to use the information about lists X and Y to calculate the average and the median of the numbers in list Z.

To determine the average of the 120 numbers in list Z, you can use the information given about the individual averages of the numbers in lists X and Y. Because lists X and Y each contain 60 numbers, the average of the numbers in list Z is the average of the individual averages of the numbers in lists X and Y. Thus, the average of the numbers in list Z is 2.7+7.1 / 2 , or 4.9.

To determine the median of the 120 numbers in list Z, first note that list Z contains an even number of numbers, so the median of the numbers in list Z is the average of the middle two numbers when the numbers are listed in increasing order. If you look at the numbers in the two lists, you will see that the 60 numbers in list X are all less than or equal to 5, and the 60 numbers in list Y are all greater than or equal to 6. Thus, the two middle numbers in list Z are 5 and 6, and the average of these numbers is 5 + 6 /2 or 5.5. Therefore, the median of the numbers in list Z is 5.5, and this is greater than the average of 4.9. The correct answer is Choice B.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 24

Directions: Select a single answer choice.

Q. If x ≠ 0, which of the following is equivalent to

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 24
To simplify , it can be helpful to write (x2)3 as (x2)(x2)(x2) in the given

expression; that is, . Because x ≠ 0, both numerator and denominator can be divided by x2, and the expression simplifies to x(x2)(x2), which, by the rules of exponents, is equal to x5. Another way to simplify the expression using the rules of exponents directly is as follows.

The correct answer is Choice D.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 25

Directions: select all the answer choices that apply.

Q. On the number line shown above, the tick marks are equally spaced. Which of the following statements about the numbers x, y, and z must be true?

Indicate all such statements.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 25

You can see from their positions on the number line that x is less than 0 and both y and z are greater than 0. Because the tick marks are equally spaced, you can also see that x = -y and z = 2y. You need to evaluate each answer choice separately to determine whether it must be true.

Choice A says that the product of the three numbers x, y, and z is less than 0. Recall that the product of three numbers is negative under either of the following two conditions.

  • All three numbers are negative.

  • One of the numbers is negative and the other two numbers are positive.

  • Choice A must be true, since x is negative and y and z are positive.

Choice B is the equation x + z = y. To see whether the equation must be true, it is a good idea to express two of the variables in terms of the third (that is, to “get rid of” two of the variables). The equations x = -y and z = 2y give x and z in terms of y, so the equation x + z = y can be rewritten, substituting −y for x and 2y for z, as y + 2y = y. In this form you can quickly conclude that the equation must be true.

Choice C says that the product of the two numbers z and y - x is greater than 0. Recall that the product of two numbers is positive under either of the following two conditions.

  • Both numbers are positive.

  • Both numbers are negative.

Since you already know that z is positive, you can conclude that the product z(y - x) will be positive if y - x is positive. By adding x to both sides of the inequality y - x > 0 , you can see that it is equivalent to the inequality y - x, which is clearly true from the number line. Since y − x is positive , the product z(y - x) must be positive.

Therefore, the correct answer consists of Choices A, B, and C.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 26

Directions: Select a single answer choice.

Q. Which of the following could be the graph of all values of x that satisfy the inequality

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 26
To determine which of the graphs is the correct answer, you first need to determine all values of x that satisfy the inequality. To do that you need to simplify the inequality until you isolate x.

You can begin by multiplying both sides of the inequality by 3 to obtain (3)(2 - 5x) ≤ - (6x - 5) . Note that when you multiply by 3, the right-hand side of the inequality becomes −(6x − 5), not −6x − 5. The rest of the simplification is as follows.

(3)(2− 5x ) ≤−6 x + 5

6 − 15x ≤ − 6x + 5

−15x ≤ −6x −1

− 9x ≤ − 1

x ≥ 1/9

Note that when an inequality is multiplied (or divided) by a negative number, the direction of the inequality reverses.

The graphs in the answer choices are number lines on which only the number 0 is indicated. Therefore, you do not need to locate 1/9 on the number line; it is enough to know that 1/9 is a positive number. Choice C is the only choice in which the shaded part of the line is equal to or greater than a positive number. 9 Therefore, the correct answer is Choice C.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 27

Directions: Select a single answer choice.

Q. Parallelogram OPQR lies in the xy-plane, as shown in the figure below. The coordinates of point P are (2, 4) and the coordinates of point Q are (8, 6). What are the coordinates of point R?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 27

Since OPQR is a parallelogram, line segments PQ and OR have the same length and the same slope. Therefore, in the figure above, PQM and ORN are congruent right triangles. From the coordinates of P and Q, the lengths of the legs of triangle PQM are PM = 8 - 2 = 6 and QM = 6 - 4 = 2. Thus, the lengths of the legs ON and RN of triangle ORN are also 6 and 2, respectively. So the coordinates of point R are (6, 2). The correct answer is Choice E.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 28

Directions: Select a single answer choice.

Q. The sequence of numbers a1, a2, a3, . . . , an, . . . is defined by for each integer n ≥ 1. What is the sum of the first 20 terms of the sequence?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 28
This question asks for the sum of the first 20 terms of the sequence. Obviously, it would be very time-consuming to write out the first 20 terms of the sequence and add them together, so it is reasonable to try to find a more efficient way to calculate the sum. Questions involving sequences can often be answered by looking for a pattern. Scanning the answer choices and noting that they contain fractions with denominators 2, 20, 21, and 22, and nothing in between, seems to confirm that looking for a pattern is a good approach to try.

To look for a pattern, begin by adding the first two terms of the sequence.

Now, if you add the first three terms of the sequence, you get.

Note that you can simplify the sum by canceling the fraction 1/3; that is, the sum of positive 1/3 and negative 1/3 is 0.

If you add the first four terms, you get

Again, you can simplify the sum by canceling. This time, you can cancel the fractions 1/3 and 1/4.

If you write out the next two sums and simplify them, you will see that they are

.

Working with the sums makes it clear that this pattern continues to hold as you add more and more terms of the sequence together and that a formula for the sum of the first k terms of the sequence is

Therefore, the sum of the first 20 terms of the sequence is equal to

The correct answer is Choice B.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 29

Directions: Your answer may be an integer, a decimal, or a fraction, and it may be

negative. Enter the exact answer unless the question asks you to round your answer.

Q. The table below shows the frequency distribution of the values of a variable Y. What is the mean of the distribution?

Give your answer to the nearest 0.01.


Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 29

The mean of the distribution of the variable Y is the sum of all the values of Y divided by the number of values of Y. However, before you begin the summing process, you need to understand how the information is presented in the question. Information about the variable is given in a table, where any repetitions of values have been summarized in the column labeled “Frequency.” Reading from the table, you can see that the value 2 occurs twice, the value occurs seven times, and so on. To sum all the values of Y, you could add the value 1/2 twice, add the value 3/4 seven times, and continue the addition process in this manner. It is easier, however, to multiply the values by their corresponding frequencies and then sum the individual products, as shown below.

To find the average, you need to divide the sum, 44, by the number of values of Y. The number of values can be found by looking at the column of frequencies in the table. The sum of the numbers in this column, 2 + 7 + 8 + 8 + 9, or 34, is the number of values of Y. Thus, the mean of the distribution is 44/34, which, as a decimal, equals 1.2941.... Rounded to the nearest 0.01, the correct answer is 1.29.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 30

Directions: Select all the answer choices that apply.

Q. Let S be the set of all positive integers n such that n2 is a multiple of both 24 and 108. Which of the following integers are divisors of every integer n in S?

Indicate all such integers.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 8 - Question 30

To determine which of the integers in the answer choices is a divisor of every positive integer n in S, you must first understand the integers that are in S. Note that in this question you are given information about n2, not about n itself. Therefore, you must use the information about n2 to derive information about n. The fact that n2 is a multiple of both 24 and 108 implies that n2 is a multiple of the least common multiple of 24 and 108. To determine the least common multiple of 24 and 108, factor 24 and 108 into prime factors as (23)(3) and (22)(33), respectively. Because these are prime factorizations, you can conclude that the least common multiple of 24 and 108 is (23)(33).

Knowing that n2 must be a multiple of (23)(33) does not mean that every multiple of (23)(33) is a possible value of n2, because n2 must be the square of an integer. The prime factorization of a square number must contain only even exponents. Thus, the least multiple of (23)(33) that is a square is (24)(34). This is the least possible value of n2, and so the least possible value of n is (22)(32), or 36. Furthermore, since every value of n2 is a multiple of (24)(34), the values of n are the positive multiples of 36; that is, S = {36, 72, 108, 144, 180, . . .} . The question asks for integers that are divisors of every integer n in S, that is, divisors of every positive multiple of 36. Since Choice A, 12, is a divisor of 36, it is also a divisor of every multiple of 36. The same is true for Choice C, 36. Choices B and D, 24 and 72, are not divisors of 36, so they are not divisors of every integer in S. The correct answer consists of Choices A and C.

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