OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - OPSC OCS (Odisha) MCQ

The Correct answer is Option 4.

• Foreign Currency Assets (1): Foreign currency assets constitute a significant portion of forex reserves, including currencies held in different denominations.
• Gold (2): Gold is considered a vital component of forex reserves as it acts as a store of value and is part of a country's reserve assets.
• Special Drawing Rights (3): Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are an international reserve asset created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and are included in the forex reserves.
• The Reserve in the International Monetary Fund (4): The reserves held in the IMF, often referred to as the quota subscription, are also considered part of a country's forex reserves. Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.

The Correct answer is Option 1.

• The troops of Indore joined the Revolt of 1857 despite the reluctance of their ruler, Maharaja Holkar. Many princely states were hesitant to support the rebellion, but their troops often acted independently. Hence 1 Correct.
• Mangal Pandey was executed on April 8, 1857, at Barrackpore, not Meerut. The mutiny at Meerut occurred later in May 1857, which marked the beginning of the widespread revolt. Hence 2 is Incorrect.
• Tantia Tope was a key leader in the Revolt of 1857. He assisted Nana Sahib at Kanpur and later supported Rani Lakshmibai at Jhansi. His activities were widespread across central India. Hence 3 is Correct.
• Maharaja Jayajirao Sindhia of Gwalior did not support the revolt and sought British protection during the uprising. He fled to Agra when his own troops revolted against him and joined the rebellion. Hence 4 is Correct.

• Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 (1, 3, and 4).

The Correct answer is Option 1.

• Periyar in Kerala: Periyar is primarily a national park and wildlife sanctuary focused on terrestrial biodiversity, specifically known for its wildlife and the Periyar Lake. It is not classified as a marine protected area (MPA).
• Bhitarkanika in Odisha: Bhitarkanika is a coastal and marine ecosystem known for its mangroves and is designated as a national park that includes marine protected areas. Is an MPA.
• Malvan Marine in Maharashtra: Malvan Marine Sanctuary is specifically established to protect marine biodiversity and is recognized as a marine protected area. Is an MPA.
• Coringa in Andhra Pradesh: Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary includes estuarine and marine areas and is recognized for its ecological significance, qualifying it as a marine protected area. Is an MPA.
• The area that is not a marine protected area (MPA) is Option 1: Periyar in Kerala. Hence correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

list of notable Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) in India

• Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park - Tamil Nadu
• Rameswaram Marine National Park - Tamil Nadu
• Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve - Andaman and Nicobar Islands
• Marine National Park, Gulf of Kutch - Gujarat
• Malvan Marine National Park - Maharashtra
• Turtle Sanctuary, Odisha - Odisha
• Wandoor Marine National Park - Andaman and Nicobar Islands
• Little Andaman National Park - Andaman and Nicobar Islands
• Netrani Island Marine Sanctuary - Karnataka
• Palk Bay Marine National Park - Tamil Nadu
• Chilika Lake Marine Sanctuary - Odisha
• Lakshadweep Marine National Park - Lakshadweep Islands
• Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve - West Bengal
• Kutch Marine National Park - Gujarat
• Maldives Marine National Park - Maharashtra

The Correct answer is Option 3.

• Madhavapura Mahavihara is associated with the ancient Buddhist site of Lalitagiri, which is part of the "Diamond Triangle" of Odisha, India. Lalitagiri, along with Ratnagiri and Udayagiri, is known for its rich Buddhist heritage, including stupas, monasteries, and sculptures. Lalitagiri, in particular, is famous for the remains of the Madhavapura Mahavihara, indicating its significance as a prominent center of Buddhist learning and worship. Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 (Lalitagiri).

The Correct answer is Option 4.

• In May 2016, the RBI Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework (1): The RBI Act was amended to establish the flexible inflation targeting framework. Hence Correct.
• Under Section 45Z A, the Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, determines the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index (CPI), once in five years (2): The inflation target is indeed determined in consultation with the RBI and is reviewed every five years. Hence Correct.
• On March 31, 2021, the Central Government retained the inflation target of 6 percent with the tolerance band of ± 2 percent for the next 5-year period - April 1, 2021 to March 31, 2026 (3): The government retained the inflation target of 6% with a tolerance band of ± 2% for the specified period. Hence Correct.
• All statements regarding inflation targeting by the Reserve Bank of India are correct. Thus, the correct answer is Option 4

The correct answer is During an earthquake S-waves are less destructive to structures like buildings and highway overpasses.

Key Points

• S-waves are slower than P-waves: S-waves, or secondary waves, travel slower than P-waves (primary waves). P-waves are the fastest seismic waves and travel through both solids and liquids, whereas S-waves can only travel through solids. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• During an earthquake S-waves are less destructive to structures like buildings and highway overpasses: This statement is incorrect. S-waves are actually more destructive than P-waves when it comes to structures. This is because S-waves have higher amplitude and produce stronger ground shaking, which can cause significant damage to buildings and infrastructure. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• S-waves can travel only through solids and cannot travel through the Earth's outer core: S-waves are shear waves that can only propagate through solid materials. They are unable to travel through liquids, which is why they do not pass through the Earth's outer core. This has been a key piece of evidence in understanding the composition of the Earth's interior. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Seismologists have concluded that the Earth's outer core must be liquid or fluid: The inability of S-waves to travel through the Earth's outer core has led seismologists to conclude that the outer core is in a liquid or fluid state. This conclusion is based on the observation that S-waves are not detected on the opposite side of the Earth from an earthquake's epicenter. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• S-waves (Secondary waves or Shear waves) are a type of seismic wave that moves through the Earth during an earthquake. They move in a perpendicular direction to the wave propagation, causing shear stress in the material they pass through.
• P-waves (Primary waves) are the first waves to be detected by seismographs after an earthquake. They are compressional waves that move in the direction of wave propagation and can travel through both solids and liquids.
• The Earth's outer core is a layer of liquid iron and nickel that lies beneath the mantle and surrounds the inner core. It is approximately 2,200 kilometers thick and plays a crucial role in generating the Earth's magnetic field.
• Seismology is the scientific study of earthquakes and the propagation of elastic waves through the Earth or other planet-like bodies. It includes the study of earthquake effects, such as tsunamis, and diverse seismic sources such as tectonic, volcanic, oceanic, atmospheric, and artificial processes.
• Understanding the behavior of different types of seismic waves helps scientists infer the internal structure of the Earth. For example, the detection of P-waves and the absence of S-waves on the opposite side of the Earth from an earthquake's epicenter has provided evidence for the liquid state of the Earth's outer core.

The Correct answer is Option 1.

• Providing refinance to lending institutions in rural areas (1): This statement is correct. NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) provides refinance to various financial institutions that lend to the rural sector, facilitating credit availability for rural development.
• Bringing about or promoting development of commercial banks (2): This statement is partially correct. While NABARD does promote rural development, its primary focus is not solely on developing commercial banks but rather on supporting rural financial institutions and cooperative banks.
• Evaluating, monitoring and inspecting all banks in rural areas (3): This statement is incorrect. NABARD does not evaluate or inspect all banks; that role is primarily held by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Monitoring all developmental projects in rural areas (4): This statement is partially correct. While NABARD plays a role in monitoring certain development projects, it does not monitor all developmental projects in rural areas.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

The Correct answer is Option 3.

• S. Subramaniya Ayer was a prominent nationalist and a close associate of Annie Besant. He supported her Home Rule League movement and played an active role in promoting the idea of self-governance in India. Hence 1 Correct.
• The Home Rule League was not started on behalf of the Indian National Congress. It was initiated by Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak independently in 1916 to promote self-rule. The Indian National Congress supported the movement but did not directly establish the Home Rule League. Hence 2 Incorrect.
• After the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms and the subsequent political changes, the Home Rule League was eventually transformed into the Swarajya Sabha, which played a role in the freedom movement. Hence 3 correct.
• The flag of the Home Rule League included the Union Jack in one corner, signifying its demand for self-rule within the British Empire, rather than complete independence at that time. Hence 4 Correct

• Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 (1, 3, and 4).

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The rivers Elbe and Rhine drain their water into the:
• Option 1: North Sea.

• The Elbe River flows from the Czech Republic through Germany and empties into the North Sea at Cuxhaven.
• The Rhine River also flows through several countries, including Switzerland, Germany, and the Netherlands, before discharging into the North Sea at the Hook of Holland.
• Both rivers are significant waterways in Europe and contribute to the drainage of water into the North Sea.

The Correct answer is Option 3.

• Alauddin Khalji established a comprehensive market control system with separate markets for different commodities: One market (mandi) for food grains, A second market for cloth, sugar, ghee, oil, etc., A third market for horses, cattle, and slaves. Hence 1 Correct.
• Alauddin Khalji appointed market supervisors called Shahna to ensure strict control over market prices, prevent hoarding, and enforce market regulations. Hence 2 Correct.
• Under Alauddin Khalji's rule, land revenue was usually collected in cash, not in kind. This policy helped facilitate market transactions and enabled the state to exert greater control over the agricultural economy. Hence 3 is Incorrect.
• During Alauddin Khalji's reign, the buying and selling of slaves were common practices. Slaves were indeed a part of market transactions and were traded along with horses and other commodities. Hence 4 is Correct. Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 (1, 2, and 4).

The Correct answer is Option 1.

• In Sangam literature, the term Melkanakku refers to the "Eighteen Major Works," which are narrative texts, including various poems and longer literary works that depict the life, culture, and values of the Tamil people during the Sangam period. Hence 1 Correct
• The Kilkanakku refers to the "Eighteen Minor Works," which are didactic in nature. These texts include teachings and moral instructions, often focusing on ethical and philosophical aspects of life. Hence 2 Correct.
• Thirukkural, written by Thiruvalluvar, is one of the most important works of Tamil literature and is part of the Sangam corpus. It is a didactic text that provides moral, ethical, and philosophical guidance. Hence 3 Correct.
• While Sangam literature includes contributions from a variety of poets from different social backgrounds, including royalty and commoners, it is not primarily the work of Brahmana scholars. The poets were often from various sections of Tamil society, and the texts reflect the diverse culture of the Sangam era. Hence 4 Incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 (1, 2, and 3).

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The 'Sengol' was a traditional symbol of the transfer of power in ancient Indian kingdoms. It was presented to signify the transfer of power from the British to India at the time of independence in 1947. Hence Correct.
• The 'Sengol' is not specifically linked to Marathi culture. It originates from Tamil tradition and was used in the Chola Empire to symbolize the transfer of power. Hence Incorrect.
• The 'Sengol' was recently reintroduced and placed in the new Parliament Bhavan as a symbol of India's democratic heritage. Hence Correct
• Jawaharlal Nehru did accept the 'Sengol' symbolizing the transfer of power, but it was handed over by the Adhinams (priests) from Tamil Nadu, not Kerala. Hence Incorrect. Hence Option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

Important Facts about the 'Sengol'

• Symbol of Power Transfer: The 'Sengol' is a traditional symbol representing the transfer of power. It was historically used by Chola kings in Tamil Nadu to denote the handing over of authority.
• Significance in Indian Independence: The 'Sengol' was presented to Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on August 14, 1947, marking the transfer of power from the British to India. It symbolized India's sovereignty and independence.
• Origin: The term 'Sengol' is derived from the Tamil word "Semmai," meaning righteousness. It was used by Tamil kings to represent justice, order, and good governance.
• Presented by Tamil Adhinams: The 'Sengol' was handed over to Nehru by the Adhinams (priests) from Tamil Nadu, not Kerala, during the independence ceremony.
• Reintroduced in the New Parliament: Recently, the 'Sengol' was reintroduced and placed in the new Parliament Bhavan of India as a symbol of India's democratic values and historical legacy.
• Design: The 'Sengol' is a gold-coated scepter, traditionally adorned with intricate carvings and symbols reflecting cultural and spiritual significance.
• Cultural Importance: The use of the 'Sengol' draws from the Chola Empire's tradition, highlighting the ancient Indian practices of governance and the ceremonial transfer of power.

The Correct answer is Option 2.

• Corbett Tiger Reserve: Established in 1973, it is located in Uttarakhand and is one of the first tiger reserves under "Project Tiger."
• Similipal Tiger Reserve: Established in 1973, located in Odisha.
• Dholpur-Karauli Tiger Reserve: This is not a designated tiger reserve established in 1973. Dholpur and Karauli are districts in Rajasthan but do not collectively form a recognized tiger reserve.
• Satkosia Tiger Reserve: This reserve was established later and is not one of the nine reserves established in 1973.
• Manas Tiger Reserve: Established in 1973, located in Assam.
• Sunderbans Tiger Reserve: Established in 1973, located in West Bengal.
• Ranthambore Tiger Reserve: Established in 1973, located in Rajasthan.
• Kanha Tiger Reserve: Established in 1973, located in Madhya Pradesh.
• The combination that does not include the tiger reserves established in 1973 is Option 2: Dholpur-Karauli Tiger Reserve, Satkosia Tiger Reserve. Hence correct answer is Option 2.

The Correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The Bhaumakaras, an ancient dynasty in present-day Odisha, started an era in 736 CE. The last known date mentioned in the Bhauma-kara records is 213 of their era. This corresponds to a date in the 10th century CE. Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 (213).

Additional Information

Bhauma-Kara Dynasty

• The Bhauma-Kara dynasty ruled parts of Odisha (ancient Kalinga) in eastern India from the 8th to 10th centuries CE.
• The dynasty is believed to have been founded by Kshatriya chiefs who were followers of Buddhism, showing the influence of Buddhist culture in their reign.
• Their main capital was Guheshvarapataka, identified with modern-day Jajpur in Odisha.
• Tribhuvana Mahadevi I: One of the prominent rulers who emphasized women’s power by ruling as a queen, showcasing the relatively progressive nature of this dynasty regarding women's roles.
• Kamalavati and Dharma Mahadevi: Also known for being among the few female rulers in Indian history.

The Correct answer is Option 4.

• SDG 1 - No Poverty (1): MGNREGS contributes to poverty alleviation by providing guaranteed employment and income security to rural households.
• SDG 2 - Zero Hunger (2): By providing employment, MGNREGS helps improve food security and access to nutritious food for families.
• SDG 5 - Gender Equality (3): MGNREGS promotes gender equality by ensuring equal wages for women and encouraging women's participation in the workforce.
• SDG 10 - Reduced Inequalities (4): The scheme helps reduce inequalities by providing opportunities for marginalized and disadvantaged groups in rural areas.
• MGNREGS contributes directly to achieving all four mentioned Sustainable Development Goals. Thus, the correct answer is Option 4

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Article 15 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights states: "Everyone has the right to a nationality." This article indicates that the right to nationality is a fundamental human right, and individuals should have the freedom to choose their nationality. The correct answer is Option 1: Article 15.

Additional Information

Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)

• Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a milestone document in the history of human rights. Adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on December 10, 1948, it sets out fundamental human rights to be universally protected.
• The UDHR consists of 30 articles outlining various rights and freedoms.

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key PointsThe correct matches are:

• a → 3 (Tungabhadra Multipurpose Project → Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka)
• b → 1 (Sardar Sarovar Project → Lower Narmada Valley, Gujarat)
• c → 4 (Nagarjuna Sagar Project → Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan)
• d → 2 (Bhakra Nangal Project → Nalgonda district, Telangana)

Thus, the correct answer is Option 3: a b c d → 3 1 4 2.

Additional Information

• Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka (The Tungabhadra Multipurpose Project is located in the Tungabhadra river basin, covering areas in both Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.)
• Lower Narmada Valley, Gujarat (The Sardar Sarovar Project is primarily implemented in the Lower Narmada Valley, Gujarat.)
• Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan (The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is primarily aimed at irrigation and water supply in parts of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.)
• Nalgonda district, Telangana (The Bhakra Nangal Project benefits areas in Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.)

The Correct answer is Option 1.

• Pressure Groups (1): These are organized groups of individuals or organizations that seek to influence public policy and decision-making to align with their common interests or objectives. This option is correct as pressure groups actively engage in lobbying, advocacy, and other means to sway policymakers.
• Elite Groups (2) : Elite groups may consist of influential individuals or small factions within society, but they do not primarily aim to influence public policy in the same structured way as pressure groups. While they can influence policy, they are not organized with that specific goal in mind like pressure groups.
• Bureaucracy (3): Bureaucracy refers to the administrative system governing any large institution, including government. While bureaucrats may influence policy, their primary role is implementation rather than advocacy. This option does not fit the description of influencing public policy through organized efforts like pressure groups.
• Political Parties (4): Political parties do seek to influence public policy but do so primarily through winning elections and forming government rather than as a group focused on specific interests like pressure groups. While they influence policy, they operate through different mechanisms than pressure groups.
• Hence The correct answer is Option 1: Pressure Groups,

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Black Earth soil, also known as Regur soil, is typically rich in clay and is known for its moisture-retaining capacity, making it suitable for cotton cultivation.
• The Brahmani Basin is one of the regions in Odisha where Black Earth soil is found. This region supports the cultivation of various crops, including cotton.
• While Mayurbhanj has diverse soil types, it is not specifically known for Black Earth soil.
• Anugul - Athamallik and Boudh: These areas may have varying soil types, but they are not primarily associated with Black Earth soil.
• Sambalpur Valley also features different soil types, but Black Earth soil is not predominant in this region.
• Black Earth soil has been developed primarily in the Brahmani Basin. Thus, the correct answer is Option 1: Brahmani Basin.

The Correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The withdrawal of ₹2000 currency notes is related to any "Compound Note Policy." The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) withdrew these notes to ensure the public has access to other denominations that are more commonly used.
• The RBI’s decision to withdraw ₹2000 notes not aimed to provide the public with clean and high-quality currency notes of other denominations. It aligns with the RBI’s Clean Note Policy.
• ₹2000 currency notes were introduced in November 2016, not in 2015, as part of the government's demonetization exercise.
• he RBI stopped printing ₹2000 notes in 2018-19 as their objective was largely met, and they were not required for circulation.
• Hence Option 4 is correct.

Additional Information ₹2000 Denomination Banknotes

• The ₹2000 denomination banknote was introduced in November 2016 under Section 24(1) of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act)
• Primarily with the objective of meeting the currency requirement of the economy in an expeditious manner after withdrawal of the legal tender status of all ₹500 and ₹1000 banknotes in circulation at that time. With fulfilment of that objective and availability of banknotes in other denominations in adequate quantities,
• Printing of ₹2000 banknote was stopped in 2018-19. A majority of the ₹2000 banknotes was issued prior to March 2017 and are at the end of their estimated life-span of 4-5 years.

The Correct answer is Option 1.

• It is an autonomous Legal Body (1): The Election Commission of India is indeed an autonomous body, but it is not strictly classified as a legal body in the sense of having legal powers; rather, it is a constitutional authority. This statement is partially correct but not entirely accurate as per the context of the question.
• Part XV of Indian Constitution deals with the Elections and the Election Commission (2): This statement is correct. Part XV of the Constitution specifically deals with elections, including provisions for the Election Commission. This statement is correct.
• The Election Commission was established on January 25, 1950 (3): This statement is correct. The Election Commission was established on this date, coinciding with the commencement of the Constitution of India. : This statement is correct.
• Art. 328 provides bar on the interference of Courts in electoral matters (4): Article 328 actually pertains to the power of the state legislatures to make provisions for the composition of their electoral bodies. The bar on interference by courts in electoral matters is more associated with Article 329. This statement is incorrect.
• The correct statements regarding the Election Commission of India are 2 and 3. Thus, the correct answer is Option 1: 2 and 3.

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Light-Emitting Diodes (LEDs):

• LEDs are semiconductor devices that emit light when an electric current passes through them.
• The most commonly used materials for manufacturing LEDs include Gallium Nitride (GaN), which is used for blue and white LEDs, and other compounds like Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) for infrared LEDs.

Thus, the correct answer is Option 3: GaN (Gallium Nitride).

The Correct answer is Option 3.

• The Batagaika Crater is not located in Australia. It is situated in Siberia, Russia. Specifically, it is in the Sakha Republic (Yakutia) in the Russian Far East. Therefore, this statement is not correct.
• The Batagaika Crater has indeed become an important site for scientists studying the impacts of climate change on permafrost, as the thawing of permafrost in the area provides insights into environmental changes.
• The Batagaika Crater is often referred to as the "Gateway to the Underworld," not "The Sky-in." This nickname is due to the crater's large and mysterious appearance.
• When permafrost thaws, it releases significant quantities of organic carbon into the atmosphere, which contributes to climate change. This is a well-documented phenomenon in regions experiencing permafrost melt.
• Hence Statement 1 and 2 are NOT Correct , Hence Option 3 is Correct.

The Correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The Madhya Pradesh state government has launched the 'CM Rise Schools' initiative to improve the quality of education in the state. This initiative aims to provide holistic and advanced educational facilities, focusing on a student-centered approach in government schools. Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 (Madhya Pradesh).

Additional Information

Schemes of Madhya Pradesh

• Mukhyamantri Ladli Bahna Yojana: Aimed at empowering women by providing a monthly financial aid to improve their social and economic status.
• Mukhyamantri Jan Seva Abhiyan: A government campaign to ensure the delivery of public services and benefits from various welfare schemes directly to the citizens at their doorstep.
• Mukhyamantri Kanya Vivah / Nikah Yojana: Provides financial assistance for the marriage of daughters belonging to economically weaker sections of society, including both Hindu and Muslim communities.
• Mukhya Mantri Ration Aapke Dwar Yojana: Aims to deliver ration supplies to the doorsteps of citizens in remote areas to ensure food security for all eligible households.
• Mukhyamantri Sikho Kamao Yojana: An employment-oriented scheme that offers skill training and apprenticeship opportunities for youth to enhance

The correct answer is: Only 3

Key Points

• Bajra as a Kharif crop:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Bajra (Pearl millet) is indeed a Kharif crop, which is sown during the monsoon season in India. It thrives in hot and dry climates.
  • It requires a temperature range of 25°C to 31°C and an annual rainfall of 40-50 cm for optimal growth, making it suited for regions with these climatic conditions.
  • Bajra is grown primarily in Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana.
• Cotton classification:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Cotton is indeed categorized into three groups based on the length of the fiber (staple length): long-staple, medium-staple, and short-staple.
  • Long-staple cotton is considered the best quality and is most commonly used for high-quality fabrics, while short-staple cotton is used for lower-quality fabrics and for industrial purposes.
  • India is one of the largest producers of cotton globally, and the classification helps in determining the use and pricing of cotton in the market.
• India’s jute production:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • India is one of the largest producers of jute, but it does not account for 50% of the world's total jute production.
  • India's share in global jute production is closer to around 25-30%, not 50%. The leading producers of jute are India and Bangladesh, with India being the largest consumer of jute-based products.
  • Jute is primarily grown in the states of West Bengal, Assam, Bihar, and Odisha.
• India’s silk production and consumption:
  • This statement is correct.
  • India is indeed the second-largest producer of silk in the world, after China, and the largest consumer of silk globally.
  • India produces a variety of silk, including Mulberry, Tassar, Eri, and Muga silk. The consumption is high due to the traditional and cultural significance of silk in India.
  • Silk is predominantly produced in states like Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal.

Additional Information

• Bajra (Pearl Millet):
  • Bajra is an important food crop in India and is a staple diet in rural areas. It is particularly rich in dietary fiber, iron, and calcium.
  • Due to its resistance to drought, Bajra is grown in regions with arid climates, where other crops may not thrive.
• Cotton in India:
  • Cotton plays a major role in India's economy, contributing significantly to the textile industry. It is grown in regions like Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Punjab.
  • The three types of cotton help meet different requirements of the domestic and international textile markets.
• Jute in India:
  • Jute is an important natural fiber used for making bags, ropes, and carpets. Despite India’s significant jute production, Bangladesh holds a larger share in the global market.
  • Jute is mostly cultivated in the eastern states of India and has various economic uses in the packaging industry.
• Silk Production and Consumption in India:
  • India's silk industry is one of the oldest, with historical references to silk weaving in ancient India. The industry supports millions of rural livelihoods.
  • The demand for silk is driven by the garment industry, including sarees, scarves, and other traditional wear that require high-quality silk fabrics.

Correct Answer: Option 4

• Statement 1 is correct: Absolute Majority means more than 50% of the House's total strength.
• Statement 2 is correct: Simple Majority is defined as the majority of more than 50% of those present and voting.
• Statement 3 is correct: Effective Majority refers to the majority of the House’s effective strength (total strength minus vacancies).
• Statement 4 is correct: Effective Strength means the total strength of the House excluding the number of vacancies.
• Statement 5 is incorrect: Special Majority generally refers to a majority of 2/3 of the members present and voting, not necessarily 2/3 of the total strength of the House.
• Since Statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct, the answer is option 4.
• Hence, option 4 is correct.

The Correct answer is Option 1.

• In the year 1955 a Lok Sabha Committee had proposed a time-table for parliamentary sessions with three times a year (1): This statement is correct. The Lok Sabha Committee in 1955 did propose a timetable that included three sessions each year.
• It suggested Budget Session from February 1 to May 7 (2): This statement is incorrect. The Budget Session typically starts in February and is usually concluded by the end of March or early April.
• It suggested Monsoon Session from July 1 to September 10 (3): This statement is incorrect. The Monsoon Session usually takes place in July but does not follow the exact dates mentioned.
• It suggested Winter Session from November 15 to December 15 (4): This statement is correct. The Winter Session traditionally occurs during this time frame.
• The correct statements regarding the sittings of Parliament are 1 and 4. Thus, the correct answer is Option 1: 1 and 4.

The Correct answer is Option 2 .

• Art. 21(A) of Indian Constitution provides Right to Education for free and compulsory education to all (1): This statement is correct. Article 21(A) mandates free and compulsory education for all children aged 6 to 14 years.
• Right to Education Act was passed by Indian Parliament on August 4, 2009 (2): This statement is correct. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, also known as the Right to Education Act, was enacted on this date.
• Right to Education came into force on November 14, 2009 (3): This statement is incorrect. The Right to Education came into force on April 1, 2010, not November 14, 2009.
• Art. 21 (A) was inserted in the Constitution by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2004 (4): This statement is Incorrect. Article 21(A) was indeed added to the Constitution by the 86th Amendment 2002.
• The correct statements regarding the Right to Education are 1 and 2. Thus, the correct answer is Option 2: 1 and 2.

The Correct answer is Option 4.

• It is a way of doing things including rules and regulations (1): This statement is true. Public policy encompasses the frameworks, rules, and regulations that govern actions taken by governments and organizations.
• It is a means of 'authoritative allocation of values' (2): This statement is true. Public policy involves the distribution of resources and values within society, reflecting what the government prioritizes.
• It is for Public Sector Organisations (3): This statement is true. Public policy is often created and implemented by public sector organizations, though it can also impact private sector entities.
• 'What the Government choose to do or not to do' (4): This statement is true. Public policy includes both actions taken by the government as well as decisions not to act, shaping societal conditions and expectations.
• All of the statements regarding public policy are true. Thus, the correct answer is Option 4: All above.

The Correct answer is Option 2.

• The 'Namda Project' is a skill development initiative under the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY). It focuses on training artisans to preserve and promote traditional crafts.
• The 'Namda Project' is primarily associated with the traditional craft of wool weaving in regions like Kashmir, not Assam. The statement does not accurately reflect the target group of the program.
• The main objective of the 'Namda Project' is to revive and preserve the traditional woolen weaving craft known as 'Namda' in regions where it is an endangered art form, particularly in Kashmir.
• The project operates through a public-private partnership model to ensure effective implementation, market linkages, and support for artisans. Hence Correct answer is Option 2.