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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - OPSC OCS (Odisha) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test OPSC OAS Mock Test Series 2024 - OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 for OPSC OCS (Odisha) 2024 is part of OPSC OAS Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the OPSC OCS (Odisha) exam syllabus.The OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 MCQs are made for OPSC OCS (Odisha) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 below.
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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
 

Passage 1
 

The truth about ageing in India is that we have not yet built an adequate knowledge base to respond to its multifarious challenges. So says the UN Population Fund in its recently released report on the Status of Elderly in Select States of India. The focus of the study is on the seven states where the aged population is larger than the national average. These are Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal, Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. Three fourths of the elderly live in rural areas and bear the brunt of poverty, illiteracy, income insecurity and inadequate health care. Sixty per cent of them are currently married and over 75 percent live with at least one of their children. But widowhood is over 50 percent among women, reflecting greater longevity among females and gender specific concerns that arise on account of ageing. The survey also reports high levels of substance abuse, with no significant variations between rural and urban areas. On an average, there is equal reliance on public and private health care facilities, while in Odisha and Punjab respectively, there is noticeably greater dependence on public and private care. The economic burden incurred by the elderly to make provision for health care is compounded by the fact that most of them have to work to make ends meet and enjoy no social protection to speak of.
There are major lessons from the survey for the rest of India. After all, the proportion of the segment aged 60 years and above is projected to grow by 360 % by 2050, compared with a mere 60 % rate of increase in the overall population- a product of the decline in fertility rates and the increase in longevity. A rapid rise in the numbers ofthe elderly would impose additional responsibilities on an ever-shrinking population in the working age and raise fresh social challenges in the context of the ongoing nuclearization of India's traditional joint family. In Western countries, economic development and accompanying socio-political advancement preceded population ageing, enabling better planning. India, as with other developing countries, finds itself having to balance the concerns of the elderly into its current growth imperatives. Conversely, investments in sound social projection and public health and welfare policies for the country's predominant population under 35 years would prove a most effective strategy to prepare communities to meet the unfolding transition in the coming decades. Short of such a proactive approach, there is a real risk of allowing today's demographic advantage to turn into tomorrow's adversity.

Consider the following statements
1. The issue of ageing should be approached in a manner that also considers gender specific concerns of the phenomenon ofageing.

2. The information on response strategies to ageing in India is not adequate.

Q.

Which of the given statements are valid?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

The passage talks about the findings of a study by the UNPF regarding the "truth about ageing in India." According to the study, India has "not yet built an adequate knowledge base to respond to the multifarious challenges" posed by ageing. There is no mention of information on response strategies to ageing in India being adequate or not. Thus statement 2 is negated. The passage mentions the significant findings of the study and implies that any approach to the issue of ageing in India should take steps to address the various concerns raised. Statement 1 is thus valid.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

The biggest gain from the Union Government's welcome decision to notify the final award of the Cauvery Water Dispute Tribunal is that it may be the first and most significant step towards a permanent solution to the persistent conflict over sharing the inter-State river's waters. A positive feature is that implementation ofthe final award will involve the formation of a Cauvery Management Board to regulate the supply of water and a Water Regulation Committee, which will post representatives in each of the eight reservoirs in the basin states, to ensure that the decisions are carried out. Giving finality to the award through the notification may help take the issue away from politics and place it in the hands of a technical, expert body. The February 2007 award has been questioned by way of clarification petitions before the Tribunal itself as well as suits in the Supreme Court by both parties and sceptics may wonder how useful the gazette notification may be now. The parties are still free to pursue their clarification petitions and appeals, but in the larger interest of a long term solution and to end seasonal acrimony, they would do well to give the award a chance.
The fact that notifying the award has been a long pending demand ofTamil Nadu should not make one believe that the action redounds to one party's benefit to the detriment of the other. It was the Supreme Court that made the suggestion that the final decision be notified and counsel for all the basin states have agreed that it should be done. It may be argued that gazetting the award will not resolve the present standoff over judicial and administrative directives to Karnataka to release water to save standing crops in Tamil Nadu. The Cauvery Monitoring Committee, while asking Karnataka to ensure 12 thousand million cubic feet of water to Tamil Nadu in December, has itself admitted that its decision is unlikely to satisfy either party, given that both states have less water in their reservoirs than in previous years. Yet, is has opted for a pragmatic solution under which both states will be in deficit of approximately 47 tmcft. It is the same spirit of pragmatism that both states must now approach the larger problem of sharing water as per a judicially determined solution in both normal and distress years. The two should not let posterity say of them that long after equitable distribution has entrenched itself as the most acceptable doctrine in riverine jurisprudence, they did not allow a judicially determines system for sharing to work.

Q.
 

Which of the following options cannot be inferred as a negation with respect to the award of the tribunal?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

The question asks for a reference to negations that have been made with reference to the award of the tribunal.
Refer to the 2nd paragraph for this. Option a can be inferred from the sentence "It may be argued ............................................................................................... crops in
Tamil Nadu" given in the 2nd paragraph. Option b can be inferred from the sentence "has itself admitted....satisfy either party" option c can be inferred from the sentence "The fact that notifying...detriment of the other" and cannot be said to be a negation that been made with reference to the award of the tribunal. Option d cannot be inferred as there is no mention in the passage on whether the tribunal will dwell on how the reserves can be replenished from other sources, and is the answer.

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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

The 2 month long offer of amnesty and regularisation for emigrant workers that the UAE launched on December 4 constitutes a legitimate clean-up effort. It will let those who have overstayed their visa or lack proper documentation, to either leave without penalty or regularise their stay by paying fines. The fact that more than 45000 Indians are expected to seek amnesty in this round points to the scale of this problem. The UAE had offered similar amnesty schemes in 2007, 2002 and 1996, which led to a total of 842,000 people either legalising their stay or leaving without being penalised. On its part, India ought to handle the situation with sensitivity and understanding. One of the demands this time is for the waiver of, or reduction in, the fee for the issue of Emergency Exit Certificates. Following hints from India that this might indeed be done, the response to the amnesty process has so far been slow. The Central and State governments should take steps to encourage people to come forward and legitimise their status. The authorities should decide on the fee liability, and whether free air passage could be provided to the returnees, many of them low paid workers. Minister for Overseas Indian Affairs has favoured this in deserving cases. 

On a broader plane, the situation highlights the need for well regulated and orderly processes for those who seek to emigrate in search of livelihood. It is well known that dodgy practices resorted to by recruiting agents, who work hand in glove with unregulated visa-providers, often hold out before prospective emigrants false promises in terms of the nature of work and the quantum of pay. Sponsors and employers who illegally retain passports to keep migrants in thrall and those who deny fair wages and reasonable working conditions, continue to have a field day as opportunities shrink. The Emigration Act should be tightened to ensure harsher punishment for malpractices. The Indian consular corps need to provide a more accessible and enabling environment to emigrants in distress. Bilateral agreements that have been periodically announced have not entirely succeeded in ensuring the welfare and protection of Indian workers, especially those at the lower end of the wage band. Also taking into account the economic dividend that accrues to the economy thanks to significant remittances from the Gulf countries, India should take a long term view and work to safeguard the welfare of the diaspora.

Q.

Which of the following cannot be taken as a logical explanation for the emigrant problem in the UAE?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

Refer to the 2nd paragraph in which the author seeks to explain some of the reasons behind the emigrant problem in the UAE. Option a can be inferred from the sentence "On a broader plane ....search of livelihood." in the 2nd paragraph. Option b can be inferred from the sentence "Sponsors and employers ............................................................................. as opportunities shrink." Option c is incorrect since, although the 3rd sentence does imply that there are employees in the UAE who take advantage of shrinking job opportunities in order to deny fair wages to their migrant employees, there is no indication that the pay scales in the UAE are low in general. Option d can be inferred from the sentence "Sponsors and employers as opportunities shrink." Thus option c.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

The 2 month long offer of amnesty and regularisation for emigrant workers that the UAE launched on December 4 constitutes a legitimate clean-up effort. It will let those who have overstayed their visa or lack proper documentation, to either leave without penalty or regularise their stay by paying fines. The fact that more than 45000 Indians are expected to seek amnesty in this round points to the scale of this problem. The UAE had offered similar amnesty schemes in 2007, 2002 and 1996, which led to a total of 842,000 people either legalising their stay or leaving without being penalised. On its part, India ought to handle the situation with sensitivity and understanding. One of the demands this time is for the waiver of, or reduction in, the fee for the issue of Emergency Exit Certificates. Following hints from India that this might indeed be done, the response to the amnesty process has so far been slow. The Central and State governments should take steps to encourage people to come forward and legitimise their status. The authorities should decide on the fee liability, and whether free air passage could be provided to the returnees, many of them low paid workers. Minister for Overseas Indian Affairs has favoured this in deserving cases. 

On a broader plane, the situation highlights the need for well regulated and orderly processes for those who seek to emigrate in search of livelihood. It is well known that dodgy practices resorted to by recruiting agents, who work hand in glove with unregulated visa-providers, often hold out before prospective emigrants false promises in terms of the nature of work and the quantum of pay. Sponsors and employers who illegally retain passports to keep migrants in thrall and those who deny fair wages and reasonable working conditions, continue to have a field day as opportunities shrink. The Emigration Act should be tightened to ensure harsher punishment for malpractices. The Indian consular corps need to provide a more accessible and enabling environment to emigrants in distress. Bilateral agreements that have been periodically announced have not entirely succeeded in ensuring the welfare and protection of Indian workers, especially those at the lower end of the wage band. Also taking into account the economic dividend that accrues to the economy thanks to significant remittances from the Gulf countries, India should take a long term view and work to safeguard the welfare of the diaspora.

Q.

Which of the following options aptly perceives the role that the Indian government can play for emigrants to the UAE?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

Refer to the sentences "The Emigration act should ....welfare of the diaspora." given in the 2nd paragraph of the passage. It can be inferred that the government should work for the welfare of its emigrants in the UAE. The sentence "Also taking into....the welfare of the diaspora." also indicates that the government gets the money from the remittances that emigrants send home to India. Option b adequately places these aspects together and is the answer. Option a is incorrect as it is a general statement and does not particularly refer to the emigrant situation. Option c is incorrect as the author does not indicate that the protection of bilateral interests is vital in the emigrant problem. In fact it is indicated that the bilateral agreements on this problem have not yielded results. Also the welfare of the diaspora has been given importance in the passage as opposed to the welfare of those who return to India. Option d is incorrect as it merely states that the Emigration Act should be reviewed which does not necessarily imply a ‘tightening ' of the provisions of the Act, as mentioned in the passage

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

The 2 month long offer of amnesty and regularisation for emigrant workers that the UAE launched on December 4 constitutes a legitimate clean-up effort. It will let those who have overstayed their visa or lack proper documentation, to either leave without penalty or regularise their stay by paying fines. The fact that more than 45000 Indians are expected to seek amnesty in this round points to the scale of this problem. The UAE had offered similar amnesty schemes in 2007, 2002 and 1996, which led to a total of 842,000 people either legalising their stay or leaving without being penalised. On its part, India ought to handle the situation with sensitivity and understanding. One of the demands this time is for the waiver of, or reduction in, the fee for the issue of Emergency Exit Certificates. Following hints from India that this might indeed be done, the response to the amnesty process has so far been slow. The Central and State governments should take steps to encourage people to come forward and legitimise their status. The authorities should decide on the fee liability, and whether free air passage could be provided to the returnees, many of them low paid workers. Minister for Overseas Indian Affairs has favoured this in deserving cases. 

On a broader plane, the situation highlights the need for well regulated and orderly processes for those who seek to emigrate in search of livelihood. It is well known that dodgy practices resorted to by recruiting agents, who work hand in glove with unregulated visa-providers, often hold out before prospective emigrants false promises in terms of the nature of work and the quantum of pay. Sponsors and employers who illegally retain passports to keep migrants in thrall and those who deny fair wages and reasonable working conditions, continue to have a field day as opportunities shrink. The Emigration Act should be tightened to ensure harsher punishment for malpractices. The Indian consular corps need to provide a more accessible and enabling environment to emigrants in distress. Bilateral agreements that have been periodically announced have not entirely succeeded in ensuring the welfare and protection of Indian workers, especially those at the lower end of the wage band. Also taking into account the economic dividend that accrues to the economy thanks to significant remittances from the Gulf countries, India should take a long term view and work to safeguard the welfare of the diaspora.

Q.

Consider the following assumptions:
1. Illegal immigrants wait for the offers of amnesty of the UAE government to either legalize their stay or leave without paying fines.
2. A lot of the people seeking amnesty are workers who may have been detained in the UAE against their better judgement.

Which of the given assumptions are valid?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

Statement 1 is an invalid assumption as there is no mention of people waiting to avail of the offer of amnesty by the UAE government to either legalize their stay or to leave without having to pay a fine. Statement 2 can be inferred from the sentence "It is well known that....the quantum of pay." Which particularly implies that the emigrant workers who are being offered amnesty and regularisation are being given this option because the UAE government may not be able to place the blame of illegal stay on the individuals, as it is the recruiting agents who make false promises to the emigrants and dupe them. This is also why the Indian government has been advised to be sensitive and to allow for a free air passage for returnees.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is Rakesh's position from the right end in a row of children?
Statements:
I. There are 10 children between Rakesh and Rohan.
II. Rohan is twentieth from the left end of the row of children.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Clearly, neither the number of children in the row is given nor the position of Rakesh relative to Rohan is mentioned in any one of I or II.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
 

A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

Which train did Anuj catch to go to office?
Statements:
I. Anuj missed his usual train of 10.25 a.m. A train comes in every 5 minutes.
II. Anuj did not catch the 10.40 a.m. train or any train after that time.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

From I and II, we conclude that Anuj went to office by either 10.30 a.m. or 10.35 a.m. train.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

On which day of the week did Jeetu visit the zoo?
Statements:
I. Jeetu did not visit zoo either on Tuesday or on Thursday.
II. Jeetu visited zoo two days before his mother reached his house which was day after Monday.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

According to I, Jeetu visited the zoo on any of the week days exceptTuesday and Thursday.

According to II, Jeetu's mother reached his house day after Monday i.e. on Tuesday.
Thus, Jeetu visited zoo two days before Tuesday i.e. on Sunday.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

The Chairman of a big company visits one department on Monday of every week except for the Monday of third week of every month. When did he visit the Sales department?
Statements:
I. He visited Accounts department in the second week of September after having visited Sales department on the earlier occasion.
II. He had visited Sales department immediately after visiting Stores department but before visiting Accounts department.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

From I, we can conclude that the Chairman visited Sales department on Monday of the first week of September. The time of visit of no department is mentioned in II, which is, therefore, insufficient.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

Krishna Narayan has been transferred recently to handle a new task. There were initial problems with the productivity of the new team. But, with his skill of interpersonal engagements, Krishna Narayan has brought about observable increase in the performance of the team. He is successfully making all members aware of their roles and standards. What should Krishna Narayan do to keep increasing the productivity?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

It is clear that Krishna Narayan is a good leader, but leadership is a continuous requirement of any team, hence (a) is ruled out. As he has been successful in increasing the performance, he should now try to make his team members identify with their roles. Once it is done then the individual is intrinsically motivated to perform their role in better ways. Their involvement will follow then. And deadlines can be easily emphasized. Hence (d) is the best option

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

Mrs. Pathak is a successful and able worker. She carries hope and positive energy. But she has an opponent in Mr. Naynar who cannot see eye-to-eye with her in the office. Mr. Ramgoswamy (Mrs. Pathak's Boss) is very fond of Mrs. Pathak because of her past record of successes and sense of optimism. Mrs. Pathak came up with a proposal having complete confidence in its success. But, as usual Mr. Naynar opposed it. What should Mr. Ramgoswamy do?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

Option (a) shows a prejudiced approach to relate every criticism by Mr Naynarha having a personal reason, therefore it is ruled out as most inappropriate. As this is Mrs Pathak's proposal, she should be given chance to answer before you take the final decision. When you are already taking the criticisms positively, there is no need for (c), even though it is not totally inappropriate.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statement
The prices of food grains and vegetables have substantially increased due to prolonged strike called by the truck owners' association.

 

Courses of action
I. The government should immediately make alternative arrangement to ensure adequate supply of foodgrains and vegetables in the market.
II. The government should take steps to cancel the licenses of all vehicles belonging to the association.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

Foodgrains and vegetables are essential commodities for households. So, the government must arrange for alternative ways to continue the supply of these commodities. But, licenses should not be cancelled forthwith. Before that, the government should resort to negotiations.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statements
India has been continuously experiencing threats from its neighbouring countries.
Courses of action
I. India should engage into an all-out war to stop the nagging threats.
II. India should get the neighbours into a serious dialogue to reduce the tension at its borders.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

War is not a solution to any problem. Hence action I does not follow. Disputes or differences can be solved through dialogue or negotiation. Hence action II follows.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 2
The helix is a complex shape found in many natural settings. It is commonly illustrated by the shape of DNA molecules. The roots of some plants also burrow as helices, like corkscrews winding downward in search of richer soil. But during an experiment at Harvard University, mechanical engineers were surprised when a pair of rubber ribbons expected to form a helix did not, buckling into a shape rarely observed in nature.
Every helix winds in a left or right direction. The engineers observed what they called a hemi helix: a helix that changes its direction midway. The region along which it changes its direction is called a perversion. Charles Darwin observed plant tendrils forming hemi helices in 1888. Thanks to the Harvard team, we know why they form: "as a result of elastic instabilities", according to Katia Bertoldi, a professor of applied mechanics at the university and a participant in the study.
"The geometry and pre-stretch parameters assign different competition power to these two categories," explained Dr. Bertoldi in an email. Specifically, they found that which shape forms depends on the strips' aspect ratio: the ratio of its length to width. With fixed stretching force for a given polymer, hemi helices were preferred for lower aspect ratios, when the buckling load increased. For ratios around or under 1, the number of perversions increased quickly. For ratios over 3, helices were preferred.
Thus, by tweaking the make-up of certain elastic ribbons, Dr. Bertoldi's work shows we can deterministically manufacture complex 3D shapes from flat structures. This is already a ubiquitous enterprise — e.g. beating sheet metal into the chassis of a car. "The potential applications involve 3D electromagnetic wave-guides, and mechanical, thermal and chemical sensors," Prof. Bertoldi added.

Q.

The shape of hemi helices in nature was first observed by

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

The passage has not mentioned that Mr. Darwin was the 1st one to observe hemi helices. The Harvard team came out with the explanation of formation of hemi helices.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 3

Organic food market in India is expanding at a staggering rate of 400 per cent every year according to a report published by Confederation of Indian Industry (Cll) but the farmers are unable to realise the full potential of the crops grown with natural fertilizer.
It is because they are marginalised by the government which extended maximum support to corporate entities, said G.V. Ramanjaneyulu, Director of Secunderabad-based Centre for Sustainable Agriculture (CSA).
Addressing a seminar on organic farming at Andhra Chamber of Commerce and Industry (ACCI) here on Saturday, Mr. Ramanjaneyulu said empirical data gathered from about nine lakh farmers across the country proved that the difference in yields of organic and conventional systems of agriculture was just about five per cent.
The cost of production came down by 10 to 15 per cent and returns were higher by at least 10 per cent.
Farmers were able to achieve better yields but they struggled in marketing the organic products due to the lack of government support. Post-harvest and supply chain issues bothered the farmers and the government rarely came to their rescue.
Mr. Ramanjaneyulu stressed the need for a major shift in fertilizer usage from NPK to organic manures and chemical-based pesticides which have high concentrations of heavy metals, to eco-friendly substances.
The rising costs and inability of farmers to sustain the present levels of production were issues of concern around the world and the only long-term solution was organic farming.
A global action plan and concerted action were essential to deal with the imminent crises in agriculture sector in which technology plays a limited role, the CSA Director observed. ACCI Chairman M. Murali Krishna and former ZP chairman Kadiyala Raghava Rao were present.

Q.

 

The reason given to shift to the use of organic manures from pesticides is-

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

Refer to the 3rd last paragraph.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other

B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question

C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

How is M related to N?
 

Statements:
I. P, who has only two kids, M and N, is the mother-in-law of Q, who is sister-in-law of N.
II. R, the sister-in-law of M, is the daughter-in-law of S, who has only two kids, M and N.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

From I, we conclude that P is the mother of M and N, while Q is the daughter-in-law of P and sister-in-law of N. Thus, Q is M's wife and hence, M is N's brother.
From II, we conclude that M and N are the children of S. Also, R is the daughter-in-law of S and sister-in-law of M. So, R is N's wife and thus, N is M's brother. Hence, M is either brother or sister of N.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow the passage. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

The issue concerning carrying out mineral exploration as well as opening up of new mines in the declared forest areas has been debated extensively both at the central and state level and at various seminars and symposia. Some action points in this regard will include updating of revenue and forest land records ofthe mineral bearing areas by the Forest and Revenue Departments of the State Governments and the IBM speeding up the process of generating the remaining 270 odd maps with forest overlays, etc. This is an important project and is monitored by the Ministry of Environment and Forests. Updating of revenue and forest land records by the State Governments is one of the Plan objectives and it will continue to be monitored by the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
IBM should also study, deposit-wise, the impact of exploration and mining on flora and fauna and other damages including on human settlements in forests with mineral resources. The next logical step would be to suggest the manner in which the impact will be minimised, which may include afforestation, taking care to replicate the flora and fauna, measures for rehabilitation including time bound and satisfactory re- location of human settlements, etc.
With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:
1. Mineral exploration is a debatable subject both at the Central and State level.
2. IBM has undertaken a study concerning mineral exploration

Q.

 

Which of the following statements is valid?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

From the passage, it is clear that the issue is not mineral exploration per se but mineral exploration as well as opening up of new mines in the declared forest areas. Thus statement 1 is not valid in light of the passage. Also, the passage does not suggest that IBM has undertaken a study concerning mineral exploration. It only tells us that "IBM speeding up the process of generating the remaining 270 odd mps with forest overlays" is one of the action and it "should also study, deposit wise, the impact of exploration and mining on flora and fauna and other damages including on human settlements in forests with mineral resources."

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

Read the following passage and answer the item that follow.

A pharmaceutical company tested a new painkiller on 1,000 lab rats that were fed large doses of the painkiller for a two-month period. By the end of the experiment, 39 of the rats had died. The company concluded that the painkiller was sufficiently safe to test on humans.Q.Which of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on the pharmaceutical company's conclusion?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

A disproportionately high percentage (about 1 in 60 versus 1 in 600,000) of rats developing a rare and lethal form of liver cancer during a drug trial should be cause for considerable alarm. If the drug's effect on rats is in any way comparable to its effect on humans and if it is not, why test it on rats in the first place? then the drug is clearly unsafe to test on humans.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

How many employees of Bank A opted for VRS?
Statements:
I. 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 other cadre employees opted for VRS.
II. 28% of the employees in the age-group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age-groups opted for VRS.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

From I, we have: number of employees who opted for VRS = 18% of 950 + 6% of 1100 = 171 + 66 = 237.
From II, we cannot get the required answer until and unless the number of employees in age-group 51 to 56 and other age-groups is known.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

Among M, N, D, P and K, who is the 2nd highest earner among them?
Statements:
I. N earns more than M and P but less than only D.
II. M earns more than P who earns less than K.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

From I, we have: N>M,N>P,D>N. Thus, we have: D>N>M>Por D>N> P>M.
But, from II, M earns more than P i.e. D > N > M > P. Also, since P earns less than K and N earns less than only D, so we have: D>N>K>M>P or D>N>M> K>P.
Hence, N is the 2nd highest earner.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

It is 6:00 pm, when can Hemu get next bus for Bokaro from Ranchi?
 

Statements:
I. Buses for Bokaro leave after every 30 minutes, till 10 p.m.

II. Fifteen minutes ago, one bus has left for Bokaro.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

II reveals that the previous bus had left at 5:45 pm. As given in I, the next bus would leave after 30 minutes i.e. at 6:15 pm.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

Government deregulation of the long-distance telephone business has resulted in increased competition among telephone carriers, thus resulting in lower prices for consumers. This process, however, will ultimately result in lower-quality service for consumers, because as the telephone carriers drop their prices to compete with one another for customers, they will be forced to cut corners on nonessential items like customer service.Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the argument that government deregulation of the telephone business will result in lower-quality customer service?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

Directly challenges the assumption made in the passage that market forces will drive telephone companies to cut corners on customer service in order to cut costs, because (c) implies that market forces will give these companies at least as much of an incentive to improve customer service as to cut costs. None of the other answers challenge this assumption. The cost savings mentioned in (a) and (d) do not actually give the companies any incentive to devote more resources to customer service.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

The school dropout rate in many parts of the district has risen sharply during the last few years as the parents of these children make them work in the fields owned by rich farmers to earn enough to get at least one meal a day. What would you suggest be done in the circumstances?
 

1. To treat child labour and the deprivation of the right of education of a child as a crime and arrest the defaulting parents
2. Get the government to create a mechanism for the provision of free food grains to the poor in the district so that parents need not send their children to work
3. Make arrangements for the schools to provide free mid-day meals for children so that they are encouraged to come to school and also get the nutrition they require
4. Put in place a food-for-work programme for the adults from among the poor that could supplement their income and they would not be forced to send their children to work

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

I is not only authoritarian, it reflects an insensitivity to and a lack of understanding of the real situation. II appears to be a solution, but it is not long-term arrangement. As soon as the scheme is withdrawn, as it simply cannot be permanent, the situation will be back to square one. Ill and IV, on the other hand, seem feasible and possible ways to solve the problem.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

Read the following information and answer the item that follow.A leading socialite decided to organise a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that at least on one side it has a person of the opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostess's right, next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila, who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.

Q.

If each person is placed directly opposite his or her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

Ratan and Monisha are sitting opposite to each other, hence they must be married and (a) is the correct answer.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passage. Your answers to these items should be based on this passage only.

Passage
Recent findings show that changing climate patterns will affect the picturesque region in several ways. The most obvious one- assessed by analysing temperature data over the last 35 years from 11 meteorological stations in seven states across the region- is an increase in the occurrence of ‘warm nights'. This trend is likely to worsen, according to computer based climate models that were used to predict future climate trends. According to recent research exercises conducted at the Centre forAtmospheric Sciences at IIT Delhi., there has even been a rise of about two degrees, huge by climate change standards, in the average might time temperature between 1971 and 2005. The annual mean temperature over northeast India also displays a markedly upward trend.
An increase in the frequency and intensity of' warm nights' does not just mean discomfort for local communities used to temperatures that range from cool to cold after sunset over the course of the year. Such warming has far more serious ramifications. As Dash puts it. "We have not assessed the impact ofwarm events on biodiversity. But we can say that the ecosystem, including the glaciers in the region, could be affected by the temperature rise."

Communities in the North eastern states are realising what the fallout of such change means, but in different ways. "The fact that the temperature is increasing is being felt for the past 2 decades. But the trends vary in different regions. I think the impact is slightly more intense in the Northeast region than other parts of India. Even though there are several scientific studies based on different computer models, their predictions are different from each other. The community though, has a consensus on certain trends that they are experiencing," says Partha Das osAranyak, an environmental NGO in Guwahati.
Three trends are clear; an overall warming across all seasons; heat waves in summer; and shrinking winters. In Meghalaya, for one, such climate is gradually being registered. B.K. Tiwari of the Northeastern Hill University conducted a study on people's perception of climate change in the region a few years ago. "But the responses were not conclusive. There was a consensus only on 1 aspect; most people agreed that extreme weather events like floods have become more frequent. But these perceptions have no scientific backing. They are just people's assessments. So I think relying on the IMD data of at least 30 years is a more practical method of understanding climate change." He says

 

Consider the following statements
1. Changing climate patterns will strip the Northeastern states of their picturesque beauty.
2. The average right time temperature will continue to grow at a rate of 10 per cent per decade.

Q.

From the information in the passage, which of the following can best be inferred?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Option a is incorrect as the passage clearly mentions that the people of the northeast are aware of the climate changes taking place. Option b can be inferred from the sentence “But these perceptions...climate change” in the last paragraph as it focuses on the importance of scientific data. Option c is incorrect as there is no mention of mosquitoes in high altitude areas of the northeast in the passage. Option d is also incorrect as it goes beyond the scope of the passage- changes in the cultural pattern in the northeastern have not been discussed in the passage.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

You have been instrumental in getting a project of getting potable water in a village successful. The villagers are grateful and the community leader expresses their appreciation by meeting you at the office with a box of sweets and an envelope of cash. How would you respond?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

(c) is the best option. Option (a) and (b) may not be really 'wrong' but it does not seem entirely 'right' either to accept gifts - cash or otherwise - for doing one's official duty. Option (d) is unnecessarily self-righteous: the act of the villager does not quite accord with the act of offering of a bribe.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 27

​The norm of anonymity means that the civil servants must work from behind the curtain, without praise or blame. In the word of Mohit Bhattacharya, "Anonymity meant that the civil servant would merely advice the politician from behind and would be protected from being exposed to the din and fury of politics. The norm of anonymity requires that the minister has to answer for the actions of the civil servants working under him in the parliament and thus, protect them from the criticism of the parliamentarians. This implies that the minister assumes total responsibility for the commissions and omissions of the civil servants working under him. The minister runs his department / ministry and is politically responsible for its activities. He is mainly concerned with policy and consults his secretary on policy decisions. It is the Minister who decide which course of action to adopt. He alone would be answerable in the parliament for good and bad results of the policy, not the secretary. Therefore, the norm of anonymity is the counterpart of the principle of ministerial responsibility. In other words, the principle of anonymity goes hand in hand with the principle of ministerial responsibility.

What does collective responsibility mean as per the passage above?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 27

Collective responsibility means that the executive shall be responsible to the parliament for their action and policies. Thus, the principle of ministerial responsibility ensures that for every act or wrong act in his Ministry / department, the minister has to answer in the parliament and protect the civil servants working under him from the criticism of the parliament. So, the executive is responsible to the parliament for all its actions and policies.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 28

The average age of a family of 6 members is 20 years. If the age of the youngest member be 5 years, the average age of the family at the birth of the youngest member was?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 28

Total present age of the family (6*20) = 120 yrs

Total age of the family 5 years ago = (120 – 6*5) = 90 years  

At that time, Total members in the family = 5

Therefore Average age at that time = 90/5 = 18 yrs..

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

If TEACHING is written as CHEATING, how will BANKINGS be written?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

TEACHING:CHEATING ⇔ 12345678:45231678 

BANKING:? ⇔ 12345678:45231678

Thus, BANKINGS will become KIANBNGS

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 30

If in a code language PAINT is written as 74128 and EXCEL as 93596, then how ACCEPT will be written in that language?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 - Question 30

PAINT - 74128
EXCEL - 93596
Since each letter is assigned a unique code in the given words.
Therefore, the code for ACCEPT is 455978.

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