PU LLB Mock Test- 8


100 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for AILET, DU-LLB, SLAT, & PU-LLB | PU LLB Mock Test- 8


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This mock test of PU LLB Mock Test- 8 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT PU LLB Mock Test- 8 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this PU LLB Mock Test- 8 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this PU LLB Mock Test- 8 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other PU LLB Mock Test- 8 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Which of the following Books has been written by M.S. Gore?

Solution: Urbanization in India began to accelerate after, due to the country's adoption of a mixed economy, which gave rise to the development of the private sector. Urbanization is taking place at a faster rate in India. Population residing in urban areas in India, according to 1901 census, was 11.4%.
QUESTION: 2

Which of the following countries is not a member of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)?

Solution: The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO), or Shanghai Pact, is a Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance, the creation of which was announced on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai, China by the leaders of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan; the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Charter, formally establishing the organization, was signed in June 2002 and entered into force on 19 September 2003. The original five nations, with the exclusion of Uzbekistan, were previously members of the Shanghai Five group, founded on 26 April 1996. Since then, the organization has expanded its membership to eight countries when India and Pakistan joined SCO as full members on 9 June 2017 at a summit in Astana, Kazakhstan. The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the supreme decision-making body in the SCO, it meets once a year and adopts decisions and guidelines on all important matters of the organization. Military exercises are also regularly conducted among members to promote cooperation and coordination against terrorism and other external threats, and to maintain regional peace and stability. Criticisms of the SCO include that it is used by member states to shield each other from international criticism regarding human rights violations.
QUESTION: 3

What is the position of Hyderabad's Rajiv Gandhi International Airport among the top ten best airports in the world?

Solution: With the eighth position, the Rajiv Gandhi International Airport in Hyderabad has been ranked among the top ten best airports in the world. The survey was conducted by AirHelp. The Hamad International Airport in Qatar has topped the list followed by Japan's Tokyo and Greece's Athens International airports.
QUESTION: 4

On which tributary of the Ganga is the Bansagar Dam situated?

Solution: Bansagar or Ban Sagar Dam is a multipurpose river Valley Project on Son River situated in the Ganges Basin in Madhya Pradesh, India with both irrigation and 425 MW of hydroelectric power generation. The project was called "Bansagar" after Bana Bhatt, the renowned Sanskrit scholar of the 7th century, who is believed to have hailed from this region in India.
QUESTION: 5

The Pandya Kings used to maintain major trade relations with whom among the following?

Solution: The mention of Pandya Kings can be found in the details of Meghasthenes, the Greek traveler. They used to rule in Tamil Nadu whereas they used to do business with the Romans. The Pandya Kings benefited a lot from the business with Roman emperors Trojan and Augustus
QUESTION: 6

The U.N. Day is observed on

Solution: United Nations Day is devoted to making known to people of the world the aims and achievements of the United Nations Organization. United Nations Day is part of United Nations Week, which runs from 20 to 26 October.

In 1948, the United Nations General Assembly declared 24 October, the anniversary of the Charter of the United Nations, as which "shall be devoted to making known to the people of the world the aims and achievements of the United Nations and to gaining their support for" its work.

In 1971, the United Nations General Assembly adopted a further resolution (United Nations Resolution 2782) declaring that United Nations Day shall be an international observance or international holiday and recommended that it should be observed as a public holiday by United Nations member states.

QUESTION: 7

Olympic Games are organized after a gap of every

Solution: “To respect the ancient origins of the Olympic Games, which were held every four years at Olympia. The four-year interval between the Ancient Games editions was named an “Olympiad”, and was used for dating purposes at the time: time was counted in Olympiads rather than years.”
QUESTION: 8

Which one of the following is the first stage of the evolution of an institution?

Solution: An ideology is a collection of normative beliefs and values that an individual or group holds for other than purely epistemic reasons. The term is especially used to describe a system of ideas and ideals which forms the basis of economic or political theory and policy. In political science it is used in a descriptive sense to refer to political belief systems. In social science there are many political ideologies.

The term was coined by Antoine Destutt de Tracy, a French Enlightenment aristocrat and philosopher, who conceived it in 1796 as the "science of ideas" during the French Reign of Terror by trying to develop a rational system of ideas to oppose the irrational impulses of the mob. However, in contemporary philosophy it is narrower in scope than that original concept, or the ideas expressed in broad concepts such as worldview, The Imaginary and in ontology.

In the sense defined by French Marxist philosopher Louis Althusser, ideology is "the imagined existence (or idea) of things as it relates to the real conditions of existence".

QUESTION: 9

What is International Development Association?

Solution: The International Development Association (IDA) is an international financial institution which offers concessional loans and grants to the world's poorest developing countries. The IDA is a member of the World Bank Group and is headquartered in Washington, D.C., United States. It was established in 1960 to complement the existing International Bank for Reconstruction and Development by lending to developing countries which suffer from the lowest gross national income, from troubled creditworthiness, or from the lowest per capita income. Together, the International Development Association and International Bank for Reconstruction and Development are collectively generally known as the World Bank, as they follow the same executive leadership and operate with the same staff.
QUESTION: 10

In Sangam Administration, the court of monarchs was known as -

Solution: In case of Sangam administration, the King was the center of everything. He was also known as Ko, Mannam, Vendam, Korravan or Iraivan. The court of these monarchs was known as Avai. The important officials were Amaichchar (ministers), Purohitar (priests), dutar (envoy), senapati year (commander) etc
QUESTION: 11

Who among the following is considered as the earliest Chola King in history?

Solution: The Chola Kingdom was based between the Pennar and the Vellar rivers to the northeast of the Pandya kingdom. Its inland capital was Uraiyar whereas another alternative capital was Kaveripattnam which was the main port of the kingdom. The earliest known Chola king was Elara who conquered Sri Lanka while ruling over 50 years in the kingdom.
QUESTION: 12

ElectionGuard a free open-source Software Development Kit was unveiled by which company?

Solution: Microsoft CEO, Satya Nadella has announced the launch of "ElectionGuard", a free open-source Software Development Kit(SDK) to help nations to carry out secure and verifiable voting. Developed by Galois, "ElectionGuard" is a supplement to paper ballots. It is verifiable as it allows the voters and third-party organizations to verify election results. "ElectionGuard" provides a voter a unique code. During the process of voting, voters have an optional step which allows them to track their votes from the moment he/she casts it, after the voter has verified the selections are correct to the final step of counting the votes. It does not work with vote-by-mail systems and is not designed to work with internet voting schemes as it can be easily hacked.
QUESTION: 13

Where is the UN International Drug Control Programme headquarters located :

Solution: The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC; French: Office des Nations unies contre la drogue et le crime) is a United Nations office that was established in 1997 as the Office for Drug Control and Crime Prevention by combining the United Nations International Drug Control Program (UNDCP) and the Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Division in the United Nations Office at Vienna. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group and was renamed the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime in 2002. In 2016–2017 it has an estimated biannual budget of US$700 million.

The United Nations Office at Vienna (UNOV): provides administrative support including conference planning, security and language interpretation to UN programmes. The Director-General of UNOV, Yury Fedotov, represents the Secretary-General in dealings with the host country and diplomatic missions in Vienna.

QUESTION: 14

Which nation withdrew its nuclear agreement from JCPOA?

Solution: Iran announced it will pull out of some commitments under 2015 international nuclear agreement signed with world powers, called Joint Comprehensive Plan Of Action (JCPOA). Iran said it will stop suppressing its stocks of enriched uranium and heavy water, as these are needed by certain types of the reactor for nuclear fission to take place. It mentioned that such actions are required from Iran as the European Union (EU) and other countries did not have the power to resist US pressure. The move is to secure Iran's rights and bring back the balance after the United States exited from an agreement in 2018.
QUESTION: 15

According to Megasthenese, the Indian society was divided into -

Solution: Meghasthenese came to India during the rule of the Maurya rulers and he wrote Indica based on his experience regarding this visit. He divided the Indian society into seven classes and they were philosophers, farmers, soldiers, herdsmen, artisans, magistrates and councilors. These are mainly economic classes rather than social ones
QUESTION: 16

Name of book written by D.N. Majumdar is-

Solution:
QUESTION: 17

The Indian Army is commemorating '2019' as __________.

Solution: The Indian Army is commemorating '2019' as the 'Year of Next of Kin'. As a part of this commemoration, the Army has planned to reach out to the next of kin of battle casualties, ex-servicemen and serving soldiers to resolve their pension-related issues and to let them know of their entitled financial benefits, welfare schemes. The issue has gained importance because most of the next of kin of the late soldiers were unaware of their entitled financial benefits. The Indian Army has stated that the issue has worsened due to non-digitized personal records, and also because of complications from various policy provisions and their multifarious interpretations.
QUESTION: 18

Which country recently reported the first-ever case of the Monkeypox Virus?

Solution: The first case of Monkeypox Virus was reported in Singapore recently. As per the authorities, the virus was brought in by a Nigerian man who arrived in Singapore in April 2019. The virus is similar to the human smallpox.
QUESTION: 19

Which among the following was founded by Bhagat Singh?

Solution: Some revolutionary organizations in India:
  • Vyayam Mandala: Chapekar brothers

  • Mitra Mela: Savarkar Brothers

  • Anushilan Samiti: Pramath Nath Mitra

  • Abhinava Bharata: Vikram Damodar Savarkar

  • Swadesh Bandhav Samiti: Ashwini Kumar Dutta

  • Bharat Mata Society: Ajit Singh and Sufi Amba Prasad

  • Hindustan Republican Association: SN Sanyal

  • Hindustan Socialist Republican Association: Chandrasekhar Azad

QUESTION: 20

In which country did billiards originate?

Solution: The History of billiards is long and very rich. The game has been played by kings and commoners, presidents, mental patients, ladies, gentlemen, and hustlers alike. It evolved from a lawn game similar to the croquet played some-time during the 15th century in Northern Europe and probably in France.
QUESTION: 21

Which among the following was known as a port in the Chera dynasty?

Solution: The Chera rulers occupied some portion of both Kerala and Tamil Nadu. The capital was situated at Vajji whereas Muzris and Tondi were the major ports. The Romans set up two regiments at Muziris along with a temple
QUESTION: 22

Which among the following was the capital of Northern Province during the Maurya rule in India?

Solution: The provincial administration during the Mauryan rule was divided into five provinces. The provincial administration was divided into northern province, western province, eastern and central province, eastern province and southern province. The capitals of these provinces are Taxila, Ujjain, Patliputra, Toshali and Suvarnagiri respectively
QUESTION: 23

Name of the Airline which operated world's first zero-waste flight.

Solution: Australian flight carrier, Qantas operated the world's first zero-waste commercial flight named QF739 from Sydney to Adelaide which disposed of all waste through compost, reuse or recycles. This airline has substituted over 1000 single-use plastic items with more environment-friendly items which have helped the airline to achieve zero-waste during a commercial flight. The Australian airline Qantas has planned to eliminate 100 million single-use plastics by the end of 2020 and also to reduce 75% of airline's waste by the end of 2021.
QUESTION: 24

Who among the following was responsible for establishment of Somapura University in Bengal?

Solution: Some of the Buddhist universities in India along with their founders and places

QUESTION: 25

India has an agreement with USA for producing energy in the form of

Solution: The demand for energy in India is growing because of population growth and a developing economy. ... Coal and nuclear energy are the major resources available; oil and gas potentials are very low and do not meet today's needs.
QUESTION: 26

Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?

Solution: The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of nations in South Asia. Its member states include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
QUESTION: 27

The name of the founder of the Red Cross is

Solution: In 1901, Dunant was awarded the first Nobel Peace Prize. In 1881, American humanitarians Clara Barton and Adolphus Solomons founded the American National Red Cross, an organization designed to provide humanitarian aid to victims of wars and natural disasters in congruence with the International Red Cross.
QUESTION: 28

Which are the countries who set-up the Economic Cooperation Organisation :

Solution: OECD. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD; French: Organisation de coopération et de développement économiques, OCDE) is an intergovernmental economic organization with 36 member countries, founded in 1961 to stimulate economic progress and world trade.
QUESTION: 29

On which river is the Bhakra Nangal dam situated?

Solution: Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity dam across the Sutlej River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh in northern India. Its reservoir known as "Gobind Sagar" stores up to 9.34 billion cubic metres of water. In terms of quantity of water, it is the third largest reservoir in India, the first being Indira Sagar Dam in Madhya Pradesh and Nagarjunasagar Dam. Nangal dam is another dam downstream of Bhakra dam. Sometimes both the dams together are called Bhakra-Nangal dam though they are two separate dams.
QUESTION: 30

Scientists from this university demonstrated a device that generates electricity in an infrared photodiode from the coldness of the universe.

Solution: Scientists from Stanford University, Shanhui Fan along with Masashi Ono have demonstrated for the first time that it is possible to produce a measurable amount of electricity in an infrared photodiode from the coldness of the universe. The infrared semiconductor uses the temperature difference between Space and Earth to produce the electricity. The study was published in a journal named Applied Physics Letters. The new device has generated about 64 nanowatts per square meter. According to the theoretical calculations, the device can generate almost 4 watts per square meter, roughly one million times what practically generated. In the new technology, the negative illumination effect allows electrical energy to be harvested as heat leaves a surface.
QUESTION: 31

The Lucknow Pact was signed in the year -

Solution: The Lucknow Pact was signed in the year 1916 and it was an important step towards achieving the unity between the Hindus and the Muslims. This pact forced the British government to announce its future policy of giving more space to Indians in the government and at the same time, starting local self-governance bodies in various provinces in the country.
QUESTION: 32

The Rong tribe belongs to which state of India?

Solution: The Lepcha or Róng people are among the indigenous peoples of Sikkim and number between 30,000 and 50,000.
QUESTION: 33

Akbar relinquished Jizya tax from his empire in the year -

Solution: Jaziya tax was introduced during the reign of Sultanate years in Delhi against the Hindus. However, Akbar abolished the Jizya tax during his reign in the year 1564 AD
QUESTION: 34

Who is the sponsor of Afghanistan team in 2019 World Cup?

Solution: Amul has announced to sponsor Afghanistan team in upcoming World Cup 2019 which will be held in England and Wales from May 30, 2019. Amul's logo will be visible on the leading arm of jerseys of the Afghanistan players in international match and also in training kit throughout the world cup.
QUESTION: 35

During the Maurya rule, the chief treasury officer was known as -

Solution: During the Maurya rule, the important officials are:
  • Samaharta: The collector general of revenue

  • Vyavharika: Chief justice of civil court

  • Pradeshta: Chief justice of criminal courts

  • Dhamma Mahamatra: The official tasked with propagation of Dhamma during the reign of Emperor Ashoka

  • Pradesika: They were the modern day district magistrates

  • Rajukas: They were later day Patwaris and were responsible for identifying and assessing land

  • Yukta: A subordinate revenue officer at the district level

QUESTION: 36

Where does the river Tapti originate?

Solution: The Tapti River ancient original name Tapati River is a river in central India. It is one of only three rivers in peninsular India that run from east to west - the others being the Narmada River and the Mahi River. The river rises in the eastern Satpura Range of southern Madhya Pradesh state, and flows westward. The river, along with the northern parallel Narmada River, form the boundaries between North and South India. The Western Ghats or Sahyadri range starts south of the Tapti River near the border of Gujarat and Maharashtra. The Tapti (Tapi) River empties into the Gulf of Khambhat near the city of Surat in Gujarat.
QUESTION: 37

Which among the following country tests the World's fastest bullet train, recently?

Solution: Japan is testing the fastest-ever shinkansen bullet train, capable of speeds of as much as 400 kilometers (249 miles) per hour. Called the Alfa-X, the train is scheduled to go into service in 2030. Rail company JR East plans to operate it at 360 kilometers per hour. That would make it 10 kph faster than China's Fuxing Hao, which links Beijing and Shanghai and has the same top speed.
QUESTION: 38

The Home Rule Movement was inspired by -

Solution: BG Tilak founded the Indian version of the Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 whereas Annie Besant started this movement in India in September 1916. Soon after, this became very popular in India and the branches of this league started all over India.
QUESTION: 39

Which of the States has taken up the job of improving Dams with the help of the World bank's Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement project?

Solution: Govt. of India has taken up the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) with the financial assistance of the World Bank for the repair and rehabilitation of initially about 225 dam projects across the seven states of India, namely Jharkhand (DVC), Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, and Uttarakhand (UJVNL). The number of dams has been finally revised to 198. Project was started in April 2012 and scheduled completion is June 2018. The total project cost is Rs.2100 Crore.
QUESTION: 40

Which state in India currently has more than one operational nuclear power plants?

Solution: Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (or Kudankulam NPP) is a nuclear power station in Koodankulam in the Tirunelveli district of the southern Indian state of Tamil Nadu. Construction on the plant began on 31 March 2002, but faced several delays due to the fishermen's objection. Unit 1 was synchronized with the southern power grid on 22 October 2013. The original cost of the two units was 13,171 crore, but it was later revised to ₹17,270 crore ($2.6 billion). Russia advanced a credit of ₹6,416 crore ($0.97 billion) to both the units. In 2015, Nuclear Power Corporation Ltd (NPCIL) announced a price of 4.29 Rupee/kW·h (6.4 ¢/kW·h) for energy delivered from Kudankulam nuclear power plant. The ground-breaking ceremony for construction of units 3 & 4 was performed on 17 February 2016. Work is expected to begin in April 2016.

Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) located at Kalpakkam about 80 kilometres (50 mi) south of Chennai, India, is a comprehensive nuclear power production, fuel reprocessing, and waste treatment facility that includes plutonium fuel fabrication for fast breeder reactors (FBRs). It is also India's first fully indigenously constructed nuclear power station. It has two units of 220 MWe capacity each. The first and second units of the station went critical in 1983 and 1985 respectively. The station has reactors housed in a reactor building with double shell containment ensuring total protection even in the remotest possibility of loss-of-coolant accident. An Interim Storage Facility [ISF] is also located in Kalpakkam.

QUESTION: 41

The 'tort of deceit' owes its origin to ________________.

Solution: Tort of deceit is established where, the defendant makes a false representation to the claimant, the defendant knows that the representation is false or is reckless as to whether it is true or false, the defendant intends that claimant should act in reliance on it and claimant does act in reliance on the representation and, in consequence, suffers loss.The tort of deceit owes its origin to the above mentioned case.
QUESTION: 42

Rule of law a term in Indian Constitution is taken from ______________.

Solution: The doctrine of rule of law was enunciated by a British jurist A.V.Dicey. This concept exist in the United Kingdom. Therefore it is true to say that this concept was borrowed from the United Kingdom.
QUESTION: 43

Assertion (A) : When a state wants to delay the de jure recognition of any state, it may, in the first stage grant de-facto recognition.

Reason (R) : There is no distinction between 'de facto' and 'de jure' recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the Internal Acts of the Recognised Authority.

Use the codes below and give the correct answer.

Solution: Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
QUESTION: 44

Finality to arbitral awards within meaning of section 35 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall _______.

Solution: It has been provided under Chapter VIII (Finality and enforcement of arbitral awards) of the Part I (Arbitration) of the Arbitration and Conciliation, 1996. According to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an Arbitral Award, shall be in writing, shall be signed by members of Arbitral Tribunal, shall state the reasons on which the Award is based, date and place of arbitration shall be decided. The Act provides that after passing the Award, a signed copy of the Award shall be delivered to each party.
QUESTION: 45

PRINCIPLE: Trespass to land means direct interference with the possession of land without lawful justification. Trespass could be committed either by a person himself entering the land of another person or doing the same through some tangible object(s).

FACTS: 'A' throws some stones upon his neighbour's (B's) premises.

Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?

Solution: Trespass to the person is a tort which involves wrongs being done to an individual. It also refers to interference with another person's land or personal property. A common defense that can be used if one were sued for trespass is that one were given consent by the owner of the land or property. In the above case, consent was absent. Hence, trespass has been committed.

In the above case. A has committed trespass.

QUESTION: 46

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution: Finance Commission is a body set up under the Article 280 of the Constitution. Its main function is to recommend measures and methods on how revenues need to be distributed between the Centre and States.

While, Planning Commission has been replaced by a new institution named NITI Aayog. One of its main functions is to make an assessment in the material, capital and human resources of the country.

QUESTION: 47

Ombudsman refers to the person _____.

Solution: An ombudsman is a person who acts as a trusted intermediary between either the state, elements of state or an organisation, and some internal or external constituency, while representing not only but mostly the broad scope of constituent interest. A Lokpal is proposed in India. The word is derived from the Sanskrit word 'lok' (people) and 'pala' (protector/caretaker), or "caretaker of people."
QUESTION: 48

Liability is _________.

Solution: The term 'liable' means "responsible or answerable in law; legally obligated." In such cases, the claimant is the one who seeks to establish, or prove, liability. The theory of liability has certain conditions that must be proven by the claimant before liability will be established.
QUESTION: 49

Intra vires means __________________.

Solution: The phrase intra vires means within the powers. For example if an act requires legal authority and it is done within such legal authority and power then such an act is called intra vires.
QUESTION: 50

Statutory arbitration is ______________________.

Solution: The dispute which may be the subject of an arbitration agreement need not necessarily arise out of a contract. They may be also arise out of statutory provisions. A reference can be under the provisions Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. The Arbitration Act governs Arbitration in India, including, typically, statutory arbitrations.
QUESTION: 51

LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Defamation is the publication of a statement which tends to lower reputation of a person in the estimation of other members of the society generally.

FACTUAL SITUATION: 'A' writes a highly offensive and derogatory letter about B, and sends it directly to 'B' in a sealed cover.

Decide.

Solution: A defamation as a tort is only a wrong if the defamation is of nature which harms the reputation of a person who is alive. The term "defamation" is an all- encompassing term that covers any statement that hurts someone's reputation. If the statement is made in writing and published, the defamation is called 'libel'. If the hurtful statement is spoken, the statement is called 'slander'. In the above situation, since the essential element for the commission of libel, that is publication of the defamatory words was not involved, it will not result in defamation.
QUESTION: 52

When a minor is supplied with necessaries of life, the supplier :

Solution: Can recover the price from the property of the minor
QUESTION: 53

Which of the following is related to the institution of Ombudsman (or Lokpal)?

Solution: A Lokpal which means caretaker of people in sanskrit, is an anti-corruption authority or ombudsman who represents the public interest. The concept of an ombudsman is borrowed form Sweden. The Lokpal has jurisdiction over all Members of Parliament and central government employees in cases of corruption.
QUESTION: 54

Right to one's Reputation is a:

Solution: 'Right to reputation' is a fundamental right The court held that one cannot be oblivious to the fact that the right to freedom of speech and expression is a highly valued and cherished right, but at the same time, one cannot be unmindful of the fact that the Constitution conceives of reasonable restrictions.
QUESTION: 55

M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086 is a decision on _________________.

Solution: According to the rule of absolute liability, if any person is engaged in an inherently dangerous or hazardous activity, and if any harm is caused to any person due to any accident which occurred during carrying out such inherently dangerous and hazardous activity, then the person who is carrying out such activity will be held absolutely liable. The decision in this case was based on the rule of absolute liability.
QUESTION: 56

The power of court to refer parties for arbitration would and must necessarily include, imply and inhere in it ______.

Solution: This has been covered under the Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. The language of section is peremptory in nature. Therefore, in cases where there is an arbitration clause in the agreement, it is obligatory for the court to refer the parties in arbitration in terms of their arbitration agreement and nothing remains to be decided in the original action after such an application is made except to refer the dispute to an arbitrator.
QUESTION: 57

A letter of acceptance sent by post is lost in transit.

LawMint note : Students may ignore this question. Though the question is tagged with the choice provided in the official answer key, the question is incomplete, does not provide proper context. As per Sec 4 of the Indian Contract Act - The communication of an acceptance is complete, - as against the proposer, when it is put in a course of transmission to him so as to be out of the power of the acceptor; as against the acceptor, when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.

Solution: There is a concluded contract as the letter of acceptance is put in the course of transmission
QUESTION: 58

Which one of the following is not essential to attract the provisions of sec. 149 of the Indian Penal Code ?

Solution: Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code deals with Common Object. According to this provision, every member of an unlawful assembly is held liable for any criminal act done in furtherance of a common object.
QUESTION: 59

Ad-hoc arbitration can be sought _______________________.

Solution: Ad hoc Arbitration is a proceeding that is not administered by others and requires parties to make their own arrangements for selection of arbitrators. The parties are under discretion to choose designation of rules, applicable law, procedures and administrative support.
QUESTION: 60

Acts done in moments of delusion are protected because :

Solution: A delusion is a firm and fixed belief based on inadequate grounds not amenable to rational argument or evidence to contrary, not in sync with regional, cultural and educational background. As a pathology, it is distinct from a belief based on false or incomplete information, confabulation, dogma, illusion, or some other misleading effects of perception.

They have been found to occur in the context of many pathological states (both general physical and mental) and are of particular diagnostic importance in psychotic disorders including schizophrenia, paraphrenia, manic episodes of bipolar disorder, and psychotic depression.

QUESTION: 61

The 'tort of inducement of a breach of contract' finds its origin in ______________.

Solution: The tort of inducement of breach of contract can be defined as an intentional, economic tort. It is knowingly and intentionally procuring the breach of contract, without lawful justification, causing damage to another party to the contract. Therefore it takes place when one person intentionally damages someone else's contractual or business relationships with a third party causing economic harm. It finds its origin in the above mentioned case.
QUESTION: 62

Arbitral proceedings commence _______.

Solution: Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the arbitral proceedings in respect of a particular dispute commence on the date on which a request for that dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent. This has been provided under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
QUESTION: 63

The purpose theory is based on the assumption that "person is applicable only to human beings; they alone can be the subjects of rural relations". Who developed this theory of Brinz in England?

Solution: Purpose theory–This theory was originally propounded by German jurist Brienz and was developed in England by Barker. According to this theory, a person is applicable only to human beings, and they are the subjects of rights and duties. Juristic persons are not persons at all.
QUESTION: 64

Court under section 2(1)(e), Arbitration and Conciliation Act means ______.

Solution: Court means the principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction in a district, and includes the High Court in exercise of its ordinary original civil jurisdiction, having jurisdiction to decide the questions forming the subject matter of the arbitration if the same had been the subject matter of a suit, but does not include any civil court of a grade inferior to such principal Civil Court, or any Court of Small Causes.
QUESTION: 65

PRINCIPLE: Trespass to land is the wrongful and unwarranted entry upon the land of another.

FACTUAL SITUATION: A purchased a ticket to watch a movie in a theatre. After the show got over, A refused to leave the theatre. The owner of the theatre sues A for trespass.

DECIDE.

Solution: He will succeed since A's authorization to remain in the theatre ends with the show.
QUESTION: 66

The defence of volenti non fit injuria, is not available ___________________.

Solution: The defense of violent non-fit injuria absolves the tort- feasor from any liability, if it is proved that the tort arose out of an informed and wilful act of the injured/aggrieved party. Hence, the consent of the injured/aggrieved party forms the essence of this defense. It is crucial that the consent must be free.
QUESTION: 67

The qualifications of the Chairman and other members of the Finance Commission _______________.

Solution: Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the Finance Commission is appointed by the President. Its main function is to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves. The other functions involve redressing the vertical imbalances between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the center and the States respectively and equalization of all public services across the States.
QUESTION: 68

Who among the following enunciated the 'Doctrine of Rule of Law'?

Solution: A.V.Dicey in his book "Introduction to the study of the Law of the Constitution" published in the year 1885 enunciated the Doctrine of Rule of Law.
QUESTION: 69

A sum directed to be paid by an arbitral award shall carry interest ________.

Solution: It is been provided under Section 31 (7) (b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. According to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an Arbitral Award, shall be in writing, shall be signed by members of Arbitral Tribunal, shall state the reasons on which the Award is based, date and place of arbitration shall be decided. The Act provides that after passing the Award, a signed copy of the Award shall be delivered to each party.
QUESTION: 70

In which of the following cases the doctrine of "prospective overruling" was applied?

Solution: Doctrine Of Prospective Overruling

The judgment inter alia provides for Prospective Overruling of the law laid down by this Judgment. The decision to prospectively overrule earlier decisions was a smart and reasonable move played by the Judiciary. The doctrine of prospective overruling implies that the effects of the law to be laid down will be applicable on the future dates only i.e. past decisions will not be affected by this decision. Prospective Overruling was chosen by the majority because of the following reasons:

The majority in order to save the nation from the chaos of retrospective operation and the judicial branch from multiple litigations that may follow after the decision opted for prospective overruling. This was in order to minimize the negative impact of the judgment invalidating the earlier constitutional amendments.

Another reason because of which the majority opted for prospective overruling was since the decision in Golaknath was that parliament cannot amend Fundamental rights, therefore, all of the previous amendments would be invalid and unconstitutional. However, these amendments were in consonance & in strict accordance with the laws laid down in Shankari Prasad and Sajjan Singh, therefore they were valid as per the previous law.

Whether parliament can amend Fundamental Rights enshrined under Part III of The Constitution of India by invoking Article 368 of Indian Constitution for the first time came into question in Shankari Prasad v. Union of India where the constitutionality of 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 was challenged. Shankari Prasad was just a start to what became the biggest legal battle which Indian Democracy faced.

QUESTION: 71

Maxim 'Damnum sine injuria' means _______________.

Solution: The maxim 'Damnum sine injuria' means that "no action will lie if there is actual loss or damage but there has been no infringement of legal right". Where there has been no infringement of any legal right, the mere fact of harm or loss will not render such act or omission actionable although the loss may be substantial or even irreparable.
QUESTION: 72

A person appointed by two parties to settle a dispute is known as ______.

Solution: Arbitration is a legal technique for the resolution of disputes outside the courts, wherein the parties to a dispute refer it to one or more persons (the "arbitrators", or "arbitral tribunal"), by whose decision the "award" they agree to be bound. An arbitrator serves as the decision-maker and referee in an arbitration proceeding, much like a judge during a court case.
QUESTION: 73

Private arbitration is also described as _______.

Solution: Private arbitration is the referral of a dispute to an impartial third person chosen by the parties who agree in advance to be bound by the arbitrator's decision after hearing in which both parties have an opportunity to be heard. It is also known as Consensual arbitration.
QUESTION: 74

Under the consumer protection Act 1986 complaint means an allegation of:

I. An unfair trade practice or a restrictive trade practice

II. Defective goods

III. Deficiency in service

IV. Charging a price in excess of the price agreed

Solution:
QUESTION: 75

The maxim 'injuria sine damnum' has been explained in ___________________.

Solution: Injuria sine damnum means injury of legal rights without damage. It basically states that infringement of an absolute private right without any actual loss or damage. Here, physical damages or actual loss means loss or damage in terms of health, money, etc. Therefore, plaintiff will compensated if his legal rights are violated even though there is no actual damage/loss is suffered.This maxim has been explained in the above-mentioned case.
QUESTION: 76

Which one of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee?

Solution: One of the main purposes of Parliamentary Committee is to study and deal with various matters that cannot be directly handled by the legislature due to their volume. They oversee the functioning of the executive branch of the Government. Standing committees and Ad Hoc committees are the two kinds of Parliamentary Committees.
QUESTION: 77

The police officer executing the warrant may use adequate force to access the place where search is to be conducted when

Solution: A search warrant is a court order that a magistrate or judge issues to authorize law enforcement officers to conduct a search of a person, location, or vehicle for evidence of a crime and to confiscate any evidence they find. In most countries, a search warrant cannot be issued in aid of civil process.

Jurisdictions that respect the rule of law and a right to privacy constrain police powers, and typically require search warrants or an equivalent procedure for searches police conducted in the course of a criminal investigation. The laws usually make an exception for hot pursuit: a police officer following a criminal who has fled the scene of a crime has the right to enter a property where the criminal has sought shelter. The necessity for a search warrant and its abilities vary from country to country. In certain authoritarian nations, police officers may be allowed to search individual's people and property without having to obtain court permission or provide justification for their actions.

QUESTION: 78

Which is incorrect statement?

Solution: Arbitration is a legal technique for the resolution of disputes outside the courts, wherein the parties to a dispute refer it to one or more persons (the "arbitrators", or "arbitral tribunal"), by whose decision the "award" they agree to be bound. An arbitrator serves as the decision-maker and referee in an arbitration proceeding, much like a judge during a court case.
QUESTION: 79

Which one of the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission set up in 1998 is incorrect?

Solution: The Government of India set up The Central Vigilance Commission in February, 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance. The Commission shall consist of

A Central Vigilance Commissioner- Chairperson;

Not more than two Vigilance Commissioners- Members.

QUESTION: 80

Delegated legislation means _______.

Solution: Delegated legislation is a concept studied under the administrative law.It refers to a law made by an executive authority under the powers given to them by primary legislation in order to implement and administer the requirements of that primary legislation.
QUESTION: 81

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.

He was _______ in our plan.

Solution: The options 'interest' and 'interesting' are incorrect because interest either a noun or a verb cannot describe the person 'he' over here. 'Interesting' is something that arouses or catches the interest of a person. The person in given context cannot be interesting, but the plan can be interesting to me. Either of the other two options, 'interested' and 'disinterested' can be correct. 'Interested' is an adjective that means a person is showing or feeling a level of interest. Similarly, 'disinterested' is the exact opposite of the former adjective, that is, the person does not show any interest in something. In the given sentence the person can be interested or disinterested in the plan.
QUESTION: 82

Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... What number should come next?

Solution: This is a simple alternating addition and subtraction series. In the first pattern, 3 is added; in the second, 2 is subtracted.
QUESTION: 83

In a certain code language

"MIXED BUNCH SYSTEM GRAPES" is written as "@26B, @38I, #8R, #16F"

"HAND STOOL FINAL MEMBER" is written as "#24R, @8Z, #24G, @36V"

"SPEND FAST GOAL SUPER" is written as "#36F, @40Z, #8K, @24L"

"SERIAL RELAX FUNCTIONS EXAMS" is written as "@28F, #38C, @24V, #48V"

What will be the code for the words 'SHE HAS MANY SWEETS'?

Solution: For Symbol

If total numbers of word is even then we use @

If total numbers of word is odd then we use #

For Number = 2 × value of the last alphabet of the word

Letter = Opposite of the 2nd alphabet of the word

SHE HAS MANY SWEETS = #10S, #38Z, @50Z, @38D

QUESTION: 84

SCD, TEF, UGH, ____, WKL

Solution: There are two alphabetical series here. The first series is with the first letters only: STUVW. The second series involves the remaining letters: CD, EF, GH, IJ, KL.
QUESTION: 85

Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ... What number should come next?

Solution: This is a simple division series; each number is one-half of the previous number.

In other terms to say, the number is divided by 2 successively to get the next result.

4/2 = 2

2/2 = 1

1/2 = 1/2

(1/2)/2 = 1/4

(1/4)/2 = 1/8 and so on.

QUESTION: 86

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.

The ___________ notes are given at the back of the book.

Solution: Here, the sentence needs an adjective that describes the notes that are given at the end of the book. From the given options, the word explanatory is an adjective whereas explain and explained are verbs in different tenses. Explanation is a noun. Therefore, the correct answer is option C).
QUESTION: 87

In a certain code language

"MIXED BUNCH SYSTEM GRAPES" is written as "@26B, @38I, #8R, #16F"

"HAND STOOL FINAL MEMBER" is written as "#24R, @8Z, #24G, @36V"

"SPEND FAST GOAL SUPER" is written as "#36F, @40Z, #8K, @24L"

"SERIAL RELAX FUNCTIONS EXAMS" is written as "@28F, #38C, @24V, #48V"

The code for the word ‘Happy’ is?

Solution: For Symbol

If total numbers of word is even then we use @

If total numbers of word is odd then we use #

For Number = 2 × value of the last alphabet of the word

Letter = Opposite of the 2nd alphabet of the word

Happy = #50Z

QUESTION: 88

Select the correct adjective from the given options.

Everybody loves you because you are so ___________ all the time.

Solution: The context of the given sentence is to convey a particular quality of the listener 'you' that makes everybody love him/her.

Option B - 'Cheerful' means 'joyful, happy or light-hearted' which is a quality everybody likes. Therefore, this adjective is suitable to complete the given sentence.

On the other hand, Option A - 'Lugubrious' means 'gloomy, sad or depressed', Option C - 'Pensive' means 'thoughtful, dreamy or serious', Option D - 'Sad' means 'dull, unhappy or sorrowful'. None of these qualities are liked by everybody.

Therefore, the appropriate adjective to complete the given sentence is Option B - Cheerful.

The completed sentence, thus, becomes: Everybody loves you because you are so cheerful all the time.

QUESTION: 89

Marathon is to race as hibernation is to

Solution: A marathon is a long race and hibernation is a lengthy period of sleep. The answer is not choice a or b because even though a bear and winter are related to hibernation, neither completes the analogy. (Choice c) is incorrect because sleep and dream are not synonymous.
QUESTION: 90

Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ... What number should come next?

Solution: This is an alternating number subtraction series. First, 2 is subtracted, then 4, then 2, and so on.

Hence, the correct option is A.

QUESTION: 91

In a certain code language

"MIXED BUNCH SYSTEM GRAPES" is written as "@26B, @38I, #8R, #16F"

"HAND STOOL FINAL MEMBER" is written as "#24R, @8Z, #24G, @36V"

"SPEND FAST GOAL SUPER" is written as "#36F, @40Z, #8K, @24L"

"SERIAL RELAX FUNCTIONS EXAMS" is written as "@28F, #38C, @24V, #48V"

The code for the words ‘MOVIE TICKET’ is?

Solution: For Symbol

If total numbers of word is even then we use @

If total numbers of word is odd then we use #

For Number = 2 × value of the last alphabet of the word

Letter = Opposite of the 2nd alphabet of the word

MOVIE TICKET = #10L, @40R

QUESTION: 92

Cup is to coffee as bowl is to

Solution: Coffee goes into a cup and soup goes into a bowl. Choices a and c are incorrect because they are other utensils. The answer is not choice d because the word food is too general.
QUESTION: 93

In a certain code language

"MIXED BUNCH SYSTEM GRAPES" is written as "@26B, @38I, #8R, #16F"

"HAND STOOL FINAL MEMBER" is written as "#24R, @8Z, #24G, @36V"

"SPEND FAST GOAL SUPER" is written as "#36F, @40Z, #8K, @24L"

"SERIAL RELAX FUNCTIONS EXAMS" is written as "@28F, #38C, @24V, #48V"

The code ‘@2N’ denotes which of the following word?

Solution: For Symbol

If total numbers of word is even then we use @

If total numbers of word is odd then we use #

For Number = 2 × value of the last alphabet of the word

Letter = Opposite of the 2nd alphabet of the word

UMBRELLA = @2N

QUESTION: 94

In a certain code language

"MIXED BUNCH SYSTEM GRAPES" is written as "@26B, @38I, #8R, #16F"

"HAND STOOL FINAL MEMBER" is written as "#24R, @8Z, #24G, @36V"

"SPEND FAST GOAL SUPER" is written as "#36F, @40Z, #8K, @24L"

"SERIAL RELAX FUNCTIONS EXAMS" is written as "@28F, #38C, @24V, #48V"

What is the code for ‘FINAL’?

Solution: For Symbol

If total numbers of word is even then we use @

If total numbers of word is odd then we use #

For Number = 2 × value of the last alphabet of the word

Letter = Opposite of the 2nd alphabet of the word

FINAL = #24R

QUESTION: 95

Choose the word which best fills the blank to complete the sentence correctly or meaningfully.

She has no close friends ______ than me.

Solution: Here, the sentence mentions the words 'no close friends' which means that the person who is the subject is the only friend. We cannot use 'more' as it is used to show relativity in the adjectives. 'Rather than' is used when there are two or more choices with different levels of desirability. 'Dear than' is incorrect as using 'dearer' with 'than' is grammatically correct. So, the correct answer is option A) Other.
QUESTION: 96

B2CD, _____, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D

Solution: Because the letters are the same, concentrate on the number series, which is a simple 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 series, and follows each letter in order.
QUESTION: 97

Window is to pane as book is to

Solution: A window is made up of panes, and a book is made up of pages. The answer is not (choice a) because a novel is a type of book. The answer is not (choice b) because glass has no relationship to a book. (Choice c) is incorrect because a cover is only one part of a book; a book is not made up of covers.
QUESTION: 98

Yard is to inch as quart is to

Solution: A yard is a larger measure than an inch (a yard contains 36 inches). A quart is a larger measure than an ounce (a quart contains 32 ounces). Gallon (choice a) is incorrect because it is larger than a quart. Choices c and d are incorrect because they are not units of measurement.
QUESTION: 99

Odometer is to mileage as compass is to

Solution: An odometer is an instrument used to measure mileage. A compass is an instrument used to determine direction. Choices a, b, and c are incorrect because none is an instrument.
QUESTION: 100

Choose the correct word from those given in the options.

You won't need ______ advice before you go to the new hostel.

Solution: 'Few' and 'Little' are used in positive sentences while 'much' and 'many' are used in negative sentences. Also, 'much' and 'little' are used for uncountable nouns and 'few' and 'many' are used for plural nouns. The given sentence is a negative sentence and 'advice' is an uncountable noun. So, the most appropriate answer is option A) Much.

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