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Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8


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150 Questions MCQ Test SNAP Mock Test Series | Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 for CAT 2022 is part of SNAP Mock Test Series preparation. The Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 questions and answers have been prepared according to the CAT exam syllabus.The Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 MCQs are made for CAT 2022 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 below.
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Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 1

In a certain coded language, % means addition, * means subtraction, & means multiplication and $ means division. All expressions of the form (a symbol b) are to be read from left to right.

Q.What is the value of (164 $ 41 & 86 % 11 * 23 & 165 $ 33) & (60.5$ 11 & 1 % 57.5 $23)?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 1

(164  41 x 86 + 11 - 23 x 165 33) x (60.5 + 11 x i + 57 .5 23)
= (4 x 86 + 11 - 23 x 5) x (5.5 x 1 + 2.5) = (344 + 11 - 115) x (5.5+ 2.5) = 240 x 8 = 1920
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 2

Find the values of A and B respectively in the following figure.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 2

Consider the first box,

(4 x 5) - (4 + 5) = 20 - 9 = 11 (at the bottom)

(3 x 4) - (3 + 4) = 12 - 7 = 5 (on the right)

(4 + 5) + (3 + 4) + (1 + 1) + (0 + 5) = 9 + 7 + 2 + 5 = 23 (in the box)
This pattern applies in the second box as well.
Applying it to the third box.
A = (6 x 7) - (6 + 7) = 42 - 13 = 29

B = (6 + 7) + (2 + 9) + (7 + 5) + (2 + 3) = 13 + 11 + 12 + 05 = 41
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 3

Six students were sitting in a row. A is adjacent to B, B is adjacent to C. B is between A and D. E sits next to F. D is between F and A. Who among the following will definitely sits at the extreme end?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 3

A is adjacent to B.
Thus, two arrangements are possible i.e. A B or B A.
B is adjacent to C.

Therefore, the two cases shown above become A B C or C B A. B is between A and D.
Therefore, you get. A B C D o r D C B A .
F sits next to E and D sits between F and A.
Thus, there are four arrangements possible: A B C D E F
A B C D F E
F E D C B A
E F D C B A
Thus, in all cases, A is definitely at one extreme end. Either F or E is at the other extreme end.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 4

The statement given below is followed by two statements.  Analyze all of them and determine the correct combination of a course of action.

Q.The deadline for the deliverable is tomorrow and we are falling short of one day in meeting it.

A . We should give an excuse to the manager so that he extends the deadline by one day.

B. We should give a believable excuse to the client and get it extended.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 4

This situation calls for a course of action which is neither extreme nor unethical. Giving an excuse to get the deadline extended is not ethical and may lead to such situations arising very frequently. The best course of action would be to request for an extension and explain the true reasons for the slip in schedule, thus acting in a rational and ethical manner.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 5

Answer the following question based on the information given  below.

Lack of the ability of flight has not hampered the survival of ostriches as their long featherless legs not only help them run faster but also defend themselves from predators.

Q.Which of the following arguments is analogous to the one presented here?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 5

The main information in this passage is presented in the format: A does not have the normal advantage other members of its kind have, but survives because of some other strategy Option 2 is ruled out as the format is A can leave behind a part of its body to survive/escape, there is no mention of other survival strategies that others of its kind normally use.
Option 3 is ruled out as this is not a threat from a predator, but a disease.
Option 4 is ruled out as this is behaviour of a predator not prey.
Option 1 is the answer as like the ostrich, the penguin too cannot resort to flying to escape from the predator, therefore it has other survival strategies.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 6

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The location of five friends - Rajesh, Mahesh, Suresh, Bikram and Anand - is given below:

1. Rajesh is 10 m east and 5 m north of Anand.

2. Mahesh is 20 m south and 15 m west of Anand.

3. Suresh is 25 m east of Mahesh.

4. Bikram is 30 m north and 10 m east of Mahesh. 

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?  

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 6

Let Anand be at (0, 0) in the X-Y plane. Accordingly, the position of all the other people can be plotted as shown below:

Now, consider the statement given in each option: Option 1: This statement is incorrect as Suresh is 30 m south and 15 m east of Bikram.
Option 2: This statement is correct.
Option 3: This statement is incorrect as Rajesh is 5 m south and 15 m east of Bikram.
Thus, only the statement in option 2 is correct.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 7

Mahesh drove 20 m north and 50 m east. He then drove 10  m north and 25 m west. If Mahesh is now x m from Bikram and y m from Rajesh, find x ~ y.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 7

Consider the solution to the previous question.
Mahesh has traveled (20 + 10) i.e. 30 m north and (50 - 25) i.e. 25 m east.
So, Mahesh’s new position is (10, 10), as shown below.

The position of Rajesh is (10, 5) and the position of Bikram is (-5, 10). /. x = 10 - ( - 5 ) = 15 m and y = 10 - 5 = 5 m x ~ y = 1 5 - 5 = 10m Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 8

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Ram, Mohan, Geeta, Kamla, Vimla, Sohan and Rohan are from the same family. For a game, they are disguised as A, B, C, D, E, F and H. Further it is known that:

I. Rohan is the brother-in-law of A and has an only son.
II. E is the only cousin of F and has a nephew and a niece.
III. Kamla is the maternal grandfather of D.
IV. D is the brother of Vimla and the nephew of Mohan.
V. There are four people in this group who are parents, but only two of them form a couple.
VI. Geeta is the niece of Rohan and is the only person with two children.
VII. Ram and her spouse are disguised as A and H respectively.
VIII. Mohan’s father is disguised as C.

 

Q.Who among the following is the uncle of Mohan?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 8

Ram and her spouse are disguised as A and H respectively. Since Rohan is the brother-in-law of A, Rohan can either be the brother of H or the husband of A or H’s sister.
However, it is known that of the four people who are parents, only two form a couple. So, if A and H have a child, Rohan will not have a spouse and will hence be the brother of H in that case.
Now, Kamla is the maternal grandfather of D and D is the brother of Vimla. It is also known that Geeta is the only person with two children. So, Geeta has to be the daughter of Kamla. Thus, Kamla and Geeta are two of the four parents but they are not a couple. Also, Rohan is a parent with an only son. So, one of these three people are part of the couple.
Now, E is the only cousin of F and has a nephew and a niece. Since Geeta is the only person with two children,

Geeta has to be F. Also, since D is the nephew of Mohan, Mohan has to be E.
Since Geeta is the cousin of Mohan and the niece of Rohan, who has an only son, Mohan has to be the son of Rohan. Since Mohan’s father is disguised as C, Rohan is C.
So, Kamla and Ram have to be the parents of Geeta.
So, Rohan is Kamla’s brother and Kamla is H.
Thus, Sohan is D and Vimla is B.
The entire relationship is as shown below:

Thus, Kamla is the uncle of Mohan.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 9

Ram, Mohan, Geeta, Kamla, Vimla, Sohan and Rohan are from the same family. For a game, they are disguised as A, B, C, D, E, F and H. Further it is known that:

I. Rohan is the brother-in-law of A and has an only son.
II. E is the only cousin of F and has a nephew and a niece.
III. Kamla is the maternal grandfather of D.
IV. D is the brother of Vimla and the nephew of Mohan.
V. There are four people in this group who are parents, but only two of them form a couple.
VI. Geeta is the niece of Rohan and is the only person with two children.
VII. Ram and her spouse are disguised as A and H respectively.
VIII. Mohan’s father is disguised as C.

 

Q.Who is disguised as F?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 9

Consider the family tree obtained in the solution to the first question.
Geeta is disguised as F.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 10

Ram, Mohan, Geeta, Kamla, Vimla, Sohan and Rohan are from the same family. For a game, they are disguised as A, B, C, D, E, F and H. Further it is known that:

I. Rohan is the brother-in-law of A and has an only son.
II. E is the only cousin of F and has a nephew and a niece.
III. Kamla is the maternal grandfather of D.
IV. D is the brother of Vimla and the nephew of Mohan.
V. There are four people in this group who are parents, but only two of them form a couple.
VI. Geeta is the niece of Rohan and is the only person with two children.
VII. Ram and her spouse are disguised as A and H respectively.
VIII. Mohan’s father is disguised as C.

 

Q.Who among the following are siblings?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 10

Consider the family tree obtained in the solution to the first question.
Kamla and Rohan as well as Vimla and Sohan are sibling pairs.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 11

Ram, Mohan, Geeta, Kamla, Vimla, Sohan and Rohan are from the same family. For a game, they are disguised as A, B, C, D, E, F and H. Further it is known that:

I. Rohan is the brother-in-law of A and has an only son.
II. E is the only cousin of F and has a nephew and a niece.
III. Kamla is the maternal grandfather of D.
IV. D is the brother of Vimla and the nephew of Mohan.
V. There are four people in this group who are parents, but only two of them form a couple.
VI. Geeta is the niece of Rohan and is the only person with two children.
VII. Ram and her spouse are disguised as A and H respectively.
VIII. Mohan’s father is disguised as C.

 

Q.How is D related to Ram? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 11

Consider the family tree obtained in the solution to the first question.
D is the grandson of Ram.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 12

Some roads are maps. All maps are rivers. No map is a bridge.  Some rivers are stones.

Based on the above statements, which of the following conclusion(s) is/are true?

i. Some rivers are bridge.

ii. Some rivers are roads.

iii. Some stones are roads.

iv. Some roads are definitely not bridge.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 12

One way of representing the given statements is as shown below:

As seen above, there is a possibility that no river is a bridge. Hence, conclusion i does not follow.
All the roads that are maps have to be rivers. Hence, there are definitely some rivers that are roads. Hence, conclusion ii follows.
As seen above, there is a possibility that no stone is a road. Hence, conclusion iii does not follow.

All the roads that are maps cannot be bridges. Hence, there are some roads that are definitely not bridges. Hence, conclusion iv follows.
Hence, only conclusions ii and iv follow.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 13

What will be the value of a & b (in that order) ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 13

30 = 5 x 6

14 = 7 x 2

15 = 3 x 5
Thus, each number in the lower half of the hexagon is formed by taking the product of the digits of the number opposite it in the upper half of the hexagon. a = 8 x 6 = 48, b = 7 x 3 = 21 Hence option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 14

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

8 people - A to H - are sitting on a circular table facing the centre. B is sitting three places to the right of A. A sits two places to the right of H. F and D sit opposite each other. A and F sit next to each other. H does not have E or G as his neighbour.

 

Q.How many arrangements are possible? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 14

Number the seats 1-8 in clockwise order and let A be on seat 1.
B is sitting three places to the right of A, who sits two places to the right of H. So, H is on seat 3 and B is on seat 6.
Now, F sits next to A and opposite D. If F is on seat 2, D has to be on seat 6. However, this is not possible as B is on seat 6.
So, F is on seat 7 and D is on seat 4.
Thus, D is one of the neighbours of H.
Since H does not have E or G as his neighbour, the other neighbour of H has to be C (on seat 2).
So, E and G are on seats 5 and 7 (in no specific order).
Thus, the entire arrangement is as shown below:

Thus, there are two arrangements possible.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 15

8 people - A to H - are sitting on a circular table facing the centre. B is sitting three places to the right of A. A sits two places to the right of H. F and D sit opposite each other. A and F sit next to each other. H does not have E or G as his neighbour.

 

Q.Who sits opposite A? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 15

Consider the arrangement obtained in the solution to the first question.
Either E or G sits opposite A. However, the exact person cannot be identified.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 16

8 people - A to H - are sitting on a circular table facing the centre. B is sitting three places to the right of A. A sits two places to the right of H. F and D sit opposite each other. A and F sit next to each other. H does not have E or G as his neighbour.

 

Q.If B exchanges places with H, who will be the neighbours of H?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 16

Consider the arrangement obtained in the solution to the first question.
The current neighbours of B are E and G (in no specific order).
So, if B and H exchange places, E and G become the new neighbours of H.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 17

8 people - A to H - are sitting on a circular table facing the centre. B is sitting three places to the right of A. A sits two places to the right of H. F and D sit opposite each other. A and F sit next to each other. H does not have E or G as his neighbour.

 

Q.Who can never sit next to F?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 17

Consider the arrangement obtained in the solution to the first question.
A always sits next to F and either of E and G sit next to F. However, C can never sit next to F.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 18

8 people - A to H - are sitting on a circular table facing the centre. B is sitting three places to the right of A. A sits two places to the right of H. F and D sit opposite each other. A and F sit next to each other. H does not have E or G as his neighbour.

 

Q.Which of the following cannot be a pair of people sitting opposite each other?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 18

Consider the arrangement obtained in the solution to the first question.
E is a neighbour of B in both arrangements.
So, E and B cannot be a pair of people sitting opposite each other.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 19

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

Every summer, Marvel and DC dredge their vaults for a hero, for yet another combination of caped crusaders and masked vigilantes - up against villains with even more outlandish schemes to take over or destroy the planet, as the case may be. This summer Man of Steel and his costumed clan will make studio fortunes, launch tidal waves of merchandising and become the pivot around which the season turns.

 

Q.Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 19

Options 2 and 4 may be correct but cannot be completely inferred as they make tall statements about “best globalizers” and “our Age”, but the passage is only about Superhero summer movies. Therefore, both options are out of the scope of the passage.
Option 3 is completely untrue as per the passage.
Only option 1 is easily inferred from the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 20

Every summer, Marvel and DC dredge their vaults for a hero, for yet another combination of caped crusaders and masked vigilantes - up against villains with even more outlandish schemes to take over or destroy the planet, as the case may be. This summer Man of Steel and his costumed clan will make studio fortunes, launch tidal waves of merchandising and become the pivot around which the season turns.

 

Q.All the numbers given below, except one, exhibit a common property. Which of the numbers is the odd one out?

214927, 8741, 45238921, 458263, 2185

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 20

Each number starts with an even number and comprises even and odd numbers at alternate positions.
The only number that does not satisfy this condition is 458263 where three even numbers appear one after the other.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 21

Read the following question and answer accordingly.

JVC School has passed a new rule stating ‘Whenever a student hears the school anthem s/he must stand in respect, if s/he refuses to do so s/he will be suspended from school.’

 

Q.What can be concluded from above?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 21

Option 1 is more like a suggestion to a school than a conclusion on the basis of the information. Also, “administrative policy” is too generic.
Option 2 mentions “national anthem” incorrectly.

Option 3 is vague and can in no way be concluded from the given statement.
Option 4 is correct. You either stand for the anthem or you are suspended from school. The school will not tolerate students misbehaving or disrespecting during the school anthem.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 22

Kartik speaks in some code language. He says ‘tin chin pin’ which means ‘do the bingo’. When he says ‘tara tira tin’ it means ‘the magic ring’ and when he says ‘sara laru tara’ that means ‘ring is round’. What does ‘tira’ mean?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 22

From the given information,

tin chin pin = do the bingo ... (i) tara tira tin = the magic ring ... (ii)

sara laru tara = ring is round ... (iii) From statements (i) and (ii), we get

‘tin’ = ‘the’

And from statements (ii) and (iii), we get

‘tara’ = ‘ring’

‘tira’ = ‘magic’.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 23

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Babloo has eight cubes. He writes the digits 1-6, one on each face, on each cube in an identical fashion. He now joins the eight cubes to make one large cube, as shown below. Some of the digits get hidden when Babloo joins the cubes.

 

Q.If the digits 1 and 3 are written on opposite faces of the smaller cubes , which digit is written opposite to the face on which 2 is written?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 23

Since Babloo writes the digits in identical fashion on each smaller cube, each cube has the same arrangement of numbers.
Observe that 2 and 5 are adjacent to 1 while 3 is opposite 1.
Hence, 4 and 6 also have to be adjacent to 1.
Let 1,2 and 5 correspond to the front, right and top face as shown in the figure.

Hence, 3 is the back face.
If 6 is below 1 i.e. 6 is the bottom face, 4 becomes the left face.
In this case, 4 is written opposite 2.
If 4 is below 1 i.e. 4 is the bottom face, 6 becomes the left face.
In this case, 6 is written opposite 2.
Thus, either 4 or 6 is written opposite to the face on which 2 is written.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 24

Babloo has eight cubes. He writes the digits 1-6, one on each face, on each cube in an identical fashion. He now joins the eight cubes to make one large cube, as shown below. Some of the digits get hidden when Babloo joins the cubes.

 

Q.If the digits 3 and 5 are written on opposite faces, which digit is written opposite 1?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 24

Consider the solution to the previous question.
Let 1,2 and 5 be the front, right and top face respectively, as seen in the figure.
Since 3 is opposite 5, 3 is the bottom face.
Now, the faces left are the left face (adjacent to 1) and the back face (opposite 1).
It can be seen from the figure that 6 is adjacent to 1.
Hence, 6 is on the left face and 4 is on the back face.

Thus, 4 is written opposite 1.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 25

Babloo has eight cubes. He writes the digits 1-6, one on each face, on each cube in an identical fashion. He now joins the eight cubes to make one large cube, as shown below. Some of the digits get hidden when Babloo joins the cubes.

 

Q.If the digits 3 and 2 are written on opposite faces, which  digit is written opposite 5? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 25

Consider the solution to the previous question.
Let 1,2 and 5 be the front, right and top face respectively, as seen in the figure.
Since 3 is opposite 2, 3 is the left face.
Now, the faces left are the bottom face (adjacent to 1) and the back face (opposite 1).
It can be seen from the figure that 6 is adjacent to 1.
Hence, 6 is on the bottom face and 4 is on the back face. Thus, 6 is written opposite 5.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 26

Read the following question and answer accordingly.

Mira was rejected in the XYZ Company’s interview for the lack of work experience. Mira is a fresh graduate and this was the reason for rejection in the four previous interviews as well. However, she argues that if no company employs her then there is no way she will gain work experience.

 

Q.Which of the following can be said about the reasoning above?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 26

Circular reasoning involves the reasoner beginning with what he or she is trying to end up with.
The individual components of a circular argument will sometimes be logically valid because - if the premises are true, the conclusion must be true, and will not lack relevance.
In the given question, if Mira doesn’t get employment, she’ll have no work experience, and with no work experience, she’ll not get employment.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 27

What is the next term in the following series? 12, 14, 116, 1136, ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 27

Observe that the series does not show a clear subtraction based or multiplication based pattern.
However, observe that 12 = 1 and 22 = 4.
Similarly, 12 = 1 and 42 = 16 Thus, the logic followed is as follows: First term = 12

Second term = 1222 = 14

Third term = 1242 = 116

Fourth term = 121262 = 1136

Fifth term = 12123262 = 11936

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 28

Which letter should replace the question mark in the grid given above? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 28

Consider the letters in the first row and the position of each of them in the alphabet.
E = 5, G = 7 and L = 12

5 + 7 = 12
Thus, the letter in the third column is the sum of the letters in the first two columns.
Similarly, F = 6 , 1 = 9 and 0 = 1 5 ; and 6 + 9 = 15

Applying this pattern to the last row, K = 11 and N = 14 ? + 11 = 14 ⇒ ? = 3

Thus, the missing letter is the third letter of the alphabet i.e. C.

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 29

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Four friends were asked about the city they work in and their native place from among Pune, Mumbai, Chennai and Bangalore. None of them belong to the place where they work. Their responses (not all of which were true) were as shown below:
A. D is from Chennai. I work in Pune.
B. C works in Bangalore. I am from Bangalore.
C. B works in Pune. D is from Mumbai.
D. I am from Pune. B works in Pune.

 

Q.If C (who speaks only the truth) works in Bangalore, where does A work? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 29

Both statements made by C are true.
Hence, C works in Bangalore, B works in Pune and D is from Mumbai.
Since a person cannot work in the same place as he or she is from, D has to work in Chennai.
Hence, A works in Mumbai.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 30

Four friends were asked about the city they work in and their native place from among Pune, Mumbai, Chennai and Bangalore. None of them belong to the place where they work. Their responses (not all of which were true) were as shown below:
A. D is from Chennai. I work in Pune.
B. C works in Bangalore. I am from Bangalore.
C. B works in Pune. D is from Mumbai.
D. I am from Pune. B works in Pune

 

Q.In the previous question, who is from Pune?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 30

Consider the solution to the previous question.
D is from Mumbai.
Since B works in Pune, B is not from Pune.
However, A or C can be from Pune, without violating any condition.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 31

Four friends were asked about the city they work in and their native place from among Pune, Mumbai, Chennai and Bangalore. None of them belong to the place where they work. Their responses (not all of which were true) were as shown below:
A. D is from Chennai. I work in Pune.
B. C works in Bangalore. I am from Bangalore.
C. B works in Pune. D is from Mumbai.
D. I am from Pune. B works in Pune

 

Q.If both A and B speak the truth, who works in Chennai? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 31

Since both A and B speak the truth, A works in Pune and C works in Bangalore.
Since D is from Chennai, D cannot work in Chennai.
Hence, B works in Chennai.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 32

Each of the questions below has a set of sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following:

A. Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an ‘F’ )

B. Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an ‘I’ )

C. Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a ‘J’ )

Select the answer option that best describes the set of statements.


Q.1. In our own context, our sense of humour is distinctly different.

2. I watched ‘Quick Gun Murugan’ and realized I was the only person in a largely empty cinema hall who was laughing at Mango Dolly’s double entendres.

3. Mango Dolly is played by the luscious Rambha in a Dolly Parton-style blond wig.

4. Since the entire movie is a spoof, Rambha’s cheesy lines as she tries to seduce the hero, come off sounding slightly ridiculous instead of tongue-in-cheek.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 32

Statement 1 - “humour is distinctly different” is an inference based on comparison with others’ sense of humour; hence, it si an inference. Statement 2 - “I watched ... and realized” is the direct experience of someone - hence a fact. Statement 3 - “Mango Dolly is played by ...” is an observed fact. Statement 3 has two parts: “Since the entire movie is a spoof (parody),” is an inference “....Rambha’s cheesy lines as she tries to seduce the hero, come off sounding slightly ridiculous instead of tongue-in- cheek,” is an opinion; hence a judgment.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 33

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The figures below provide some data about the subjects taken by all students of a particular school. The square, circle, triangle and rectangle represent Biology, Physics, Maths and Chemistry respectively. The number inside each figure represents the number of students studying each subject. Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions.

 

Q.How many students study Physics and Maths but not  Biology or Chemistry? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 33

Number of students studying Physics and Maths but not Biology or Chemistry is given by the number inside the circle and triangle but outside the square and rectangle.
This condition is satisfied by the number 7.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 34

The figures below provide some data about the subjects taken by all students of a particular school. The square, circle, triangle and rectangle represent Biology, Physics, Maths and Chemistry respectively. The number inside each figure represents the number of students studying each subject. Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions.

 

Q.How many students study atleast two subjects?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 34

Total number of students = 4 + 8 + 25 + 3 + 2 + 27 + 9 + 18 + 2 + 5 + 6 + 14 + 7 + 2 + 11+12 = 155
Number of students studying exactly one subject = 4 + 8 + 9 + 27 + 5+12 + 11+2 = 78
Number of students studying atleast two subjects = 155 - 78 = 77
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 35

In a certain language, if SMILE is coded as XRNQJ, how is MOUSE coded in that language?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 35

S + 5 = X, M + 5 = R, l + 5 = N, L + 5 = Q and E + 5 = J Thus, each letter is replaced by a letter that is 5 places ahead in the alphabet.
Consider the letters of MOUSE.
M + 5 = R, 0 + 5 = T, U + 5 = Z, S + 5 = X and E + 5 = J Thus, MOUSE is coded as RTZXJ.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 36

Read the following question and answer accordingly.

Robert appealed to his entire staff to forgo the Christmas holidays and put in extra time at work because they were all good people and cared for the company.The mentioned argument may be best characterized as:

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 36

The answer is option 1. An appeal to emotion is a logical fallacy when someone manipulates peoples’ emotions in order to get them to either accept a claim as being true or act a certain way. This is aimed at generating feelings in people so that these feelings will get them to act a certain way. Reason is not used to convince them.
The other options are irrelevant.
Hence, the answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 37

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Five friends - A to E - are playing Bubble Crush Saga. They have five different scores from among 1200, 3000, 4300, 6000, 8100 and have reached different levels viz. 20, 25, 30, 35 and 40. E scores the highest and has reached the highest level. The friend who has reached level 30 scores 6000. The difference in the levels reached by A, B is the same as the levels reached by and C, D. D’s score is half of B’s score. E reaches double the level that A reaches.

 

Q.Who among these can reach level 25? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 37

Represent each person’s data as Person-Score-Level.
E has the highest score and reaches the highest level.

i.e. E-8100-40

E reaches double the level that A reaches.

i.e. A-7-20

D’s score is half B’s score.
Considering the given scores, this is possible only when D and B score 3000 and 6000 respectively.
Since the person who has reached level 30 has scored 6000, B has reached level 30.

i.e. B-6000-30 and D-3000-?
Hence, C and D reach levels 25 and 35 (in no specific order).
Similarly, A and C score 1200 and 4300 (in no specific order), as shown below.

Thus, only C or D can reach level 25. Among these, only C is given in the options.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 38

Five friends - A to E - are playing Bubble Crush Saga. They have five different scores from among 1200, 3000, 4300, 6000, 8100 and have reached different levels viz. 20, 25, 30, 35 and 40. E scores the highest and has reached the highest level. The friend who has reached level 30 scores 6000. The difference in the levels reached by A, B is the same as the levels reached by and C, D. D’s score is half of B’s score. E reaches double the level that A reaches.

 

Q.What is A and C’s total score? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 38

Consider the solution to the previous question.
A and C score 1200 and 4300 (in any order).
Their total score = 1200 + 4300 = 5500

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 39

In a trivia game combining geography and word logic, the composite index of several Asian countries is given as follows:

 

Q.What could be the composite index of ‘Afghanistan’ according to the same logic if it is computed only based on the name of the country?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 39

Each letter in the name of the country is replaced by its position number in the alphabet. The sum of position numbers is the composite index.
For example, China = 3 + 8 + 9+ 14 + 1 =35

In the same way, Afghanistan ± 1 + 6 + 7 + 8+1 + 14 + 9 + 19 + 20 + 1 + 14 = 100
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 40

In a certain coded language, # means addition, & means subtraction, β means multiplication and % means division. All expressions of the form (a symbol b) are to be read from left to right.

Q.What is the value of (224 % 32 β 21 # 13 & 5 # 34 & 247 % 13) % (2 β 391 % 23 & 190 % 5 # 9)?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 40

Substituting each symbol by its appropriate operations, the expression becomes

(224  32 x 21 + 13 - 5 + 34 - 247 13) (2 x 39123 - 190 5 + 9)
= (7x21 + 13 - 5 + 34-19) (2 x 17-38 + 9)

= (147+ 23) (34-29)
= 170
= 34
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 41

Complete the following number series 2, 3, 8, 27, 112,?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 41

2 * 1 + 1 = 3
3 x 2 + 2 = 8

8 x 3 + 3 = 27

27 x 4 + 4 = 112

112x5 + 5 = 565

Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 42

Which among the following options will replace the blank in the series below?

ABC, GHIJ,______ , YZ ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 42

Observe that the first term comprises the first three letters - ABC - and then, the next three letters - DEF - are skipped.

The next term starts with the next letter i.e. G and this term has four letters - GHIJ.
Hence, to test this pattern, you can skip the four letters after J - KLMN - and start the next term with O.
Since the first and second term had three and four letters respectively, the third term should have five letters.
Hence, the third term should be OPQRS.
If you want to verify the logic, skip the next five letters - TUVWX - and observe that the next term starts with Y (as it should).
Hence, the missing term is OPQRS.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 43

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Aishwarya, Sushmita, Lara, Diana and Priyanka were chosen by an advertising company to walk the ramp as a famous designer’s muses in five different countries. The five countries were Paris, London, New York, Sun City and San Francisco. The ladies were all top models and specified their choices of countries as follows:

1. Aishwarya and Sushmita would not go to Sun City and Paris.

2. Lara wanted to go to San Francisco.

3. London was chosen by the one of the two models who refused to go to both Paris and Sun City.

4. New York was chosen by Sushmita. 5. Diana had just one demand, and that was she would, in no case, go to Paris.

 

Q.Who went to Paris finally?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 43

Lara and Shushmita went to San Francisco and New York respectively.
Now, from the condition 3, London was chosen by one of the two models who refused to go to both Paris and Sun City i.e. either by Aishwarya or Sushmita.
But Sushmita chose New York.
Hence, Aishwarya went to London.
Hence, Diana and Priyanka went to Paris and Sun City in no particular order.
But Diana, in no case, would go to Paris.
Hence, Diana went to Sun City and Priyanka went to Paris.

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 44

Aishwarya, Sushmita, Lara, Diana and Priyanka were chosen by an advertising company to walk the ramp as a famous designer’s muses in five different countries. The five countries were Paris, London, New York, Sun City and San Francisco. The ladies were all top models and specified their choices of countries as follows:

1. Aishwarya and Sushmita would not go to Sun City and Paris.

2. Lara wanted to go to San Francisco.

3. London was chosen by the one of the two models who refused to go to both Paris and Sun City.

4. New York was chosen by Sushmita. 5. Diana had just one demand, and that was she would, in no case, go to Paris.

 

Q.Where did Diana go?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 44

From the solution of first question, Diana finally went to Sun City.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 45

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Yuvesh goes to a casino with 100 tokens to play his favourite game.The game is a ‘free entry’ game i.e., the player does not need to pay any token to start playing the game. However, every time the player wins a game, he gets 50 tokens from the casino and every time he loses a game, he has to pay 20 tokens to the casino. The game involves using various decks of standard playing cards. If a person draws three consecutive aces, he wins the game else he loses. Also, a card once drawn from the pack is not replaced till all three cards are drawn.

 

Q.On a certain day, Yuvesh played 15 games and left the  casino with 80 tokens. What can be the maximum of number of games that he won out of the first five games that he played? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 45

Assume that Yuvesh won x games in all.
So, he lost (15 - x) games.
For every win, he gains 50 tokens and for every loss, he loses 20 tokens.
He started with 100 tokens and ended with 80 tokens.

80 = 100 + 5 0 x - 2 0 ( 1 5 - x )

100 + 50x - 300 + 20x - 80 = 0

70x = 280 

 x = 4 Thus, Yuvesh won 4 games in all.
To maximise his total wins in the first five games, all four of his wins should have come in the first five games.

So, the maximum number of games that Yuvesh could have won in the first five gaames is four.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 46

Yuvesh goes to a casino with 100 tokens to play his favourite game.The game is a ‘free entry’ game i.e., the player does not need to pay any token to start playing the game. However, every time the player wins a game, he gets 50 tokens from the casino and every time he loses a game, he has to pay 20 tokens to the casino. The game involves using various decks of standard playing cards. If a person draws three consecutive aces, he wins the game else he loses. Also, a card once drawn from the pack is not replaced till all three cards are drawn.

 

Q.Aman and Yuvesh enter the casino together and decide to stop playing after exactly an hour. Aman starts playing with 250 tokens and wins 6 out of 25 games at the end of the given time. Yuvesh wins 3 out of 10 games that he has played in the same time. What is the difference between the number of tokens with Aman and Yuvesh when they stop playing?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 46

Consider the solution to the first question.
The number of tokens that each player has when they stopped playing can be calculated as done earlier in the first question.
Tokens with Aman = 250 + (6 x 50) - (19 x 20) = 250 + 300 -380 = 170
Tokens with Yuvesh = 100 + (3 * 50) - (7 * 20) = 100 + 150 -140 = 110
Required difference = 170 - 110 = 60 Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 47

Yuvesh goes to a casino with 100 tokens to play his favourite game.The game is a ‘free entry’ game i.e., the player does not need to pay any token to start playing the game. However, every time the player wins a game, he gets 50 tokens from the casino and every time he loses a game, he has to pay 20 tokens to the casino. The game involves using various decks of standard playing cards. If a person draws three consecutive aces, he wins the game else he loses. Also, a card once drawn from the pack is not replaced till all three cards are drawn.

 

Q.If Yuvesh ends up with 210 tokens after playing 12 games, what percentage of games (that he played) has he won? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 47

Let Yuvesh win x games in all.

210= 100 + 50x- 20(12 - x)

110 = 50x - 240 + 20x

7Ox = 350

a x = 5

Thus, he won 5 games out of 12.

a Required percentage = (5/12) * 100 = 41.67%

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 48

What should come in the place of the question mark?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 48

Sum of the first row = 1 + 1 = 2

Sum of the second row = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3 Sum of the third row = 5 = (3 + 2)

Sum of the fourth row = 8 = (5 + 3) Thus, sum of (n + 2)th row = sum of (n + 1 )th row + sum of nth row
sum of the fifth row = 8 + 5 = 13

1 + 3 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 7 = 13 
Hence, 3 should replace the question mark.
Hence, option 3

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 49

Sarita has two sons - one of whom is Tarun. Also, the mother of Palak has only two sons - Tarun and Aakash. How is Palak related to Sarita?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 49

Palak’s mother has only two sons, Tarun and Aakash. Hence, Palak has to be the sister of both Tarun and Aakash.
Tarun is also Sarita’s son.
So, Palak is the daughter of Sarita.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 50

There are 3 candles with their lengths in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 (Every other dimension is the same for all the candles). They are lit in such a way that when the second candle has been lit, the first candle had been reduced to half its original length & when the third candle is lit, the second candle is half its original length.The total time taken for all the candles to totally burn out is 9 hours. Assume that the candles are lit in increasing order lengths. In how much time does the longest candle completely burn?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 50

Since, apart from length, all the dimensions of the candle are the same, the time taken by the candles to burn is in the ratio of the lengths of the candles i.e. 1 : 2 : 3.
Let the shortest candle take 2x hours to burn. So, the second longest candle and longest candle respectively take 4x and 6x hours to burn.
Now, the second candle is lit after the first candle is reduced to half its length.
Since the first candle burns completely in 2x hours, it becomes half in x hours.
Thus, the second candle is lit after x hours.
Similarly, the third candle is lit after the second candle is reduced to half its length.
Since the second candle burns completely in 4x hours, it becomes half in 2x hours.

So, the second candle burns for 2x hours, after which the third candle is lit.

Once the third candle is lit, it takes 6x hours to burn.
All three candles burn out in 9 hours.

x + 2x + 6x = 9

 x = 1.
Therefore, the time taken by the longest candle to burn fully is 6 hours.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 51

Rashmin is 4th from the front in a queue while Rahim is 5th from the end and there are 2 people between the two of them. What can be the number of people in the queue if it is known that the number of people is the least possible?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 51

For the number of people to be minimum, Rashmin has to be 4th from the front and Rahim has to be 5th in such a way that Rahim is in front of Rashmin.
This is possible if Rahim is 1st from the front, Rashmin is 4th from the front and there are 5 people in the queue.
The only other combination is where Rashmin is 4th from the front and Rahim is 7th from the front.
However, this leads to the queue having 11 people.
Since we want to have minimum people, this number is 5.

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 52

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Seven university cricket players are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the dais along one side of a single rectangular table.
• A and G have to leave the luncheon early and must be seated at the extreme right end of the table, which is closest to the exit.

• B will receive the Man of the Match award and must be in the center chair.

• C and D who are bitter rivals for the position of wicket keeper, dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as possible.

• E and F are best friends and want to sit together.

 

Q.Which of the following may not be seated at either end of  the table? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 52

Consider the blank seat from left to right as shown below. (Left)____________________(Right) B will be at the centre. Simultaneously, A and G will occupy the two seats at the extreme right.
Thus, the arrangement now is: _______B A/G G/A
Since C and D have to be as far away as possible from each other, one of them has to be to the immediate right of B while the other has to be at the extreme left seat.

Now, E and F have to be together. They anyways have only the second and third seat from the left available.
Hence, they occupy those seats.
Thus, the final arrangement is as shown below.
D/C E/F F/E B C/D A/G G/A
Thus, F may not be seated at either end of the table.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 53

Seven university cricket players are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the dais along one side of a single rectangular table.
• A and G have to leave the luncheon early and must be seated at the extreme right end of the table, which is closest to the exit.

• B will receive the Man of the Match award and must be in the center chair.

• C and D who are bitter rivals for the position of wicket keeper, dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as possible.

• E and F are best friends and want to sit together.

 

Q.Which of the following pairs may not be seated together? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 53

From the solution to the first question, it can be seen that B and D, C and F, as well as G and D can be seated together.
Only E and A can never be seated together.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 54

Seven university cricket players are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the dais along one side of a single rectangular table.
• A and G have to leave the luncheon early and must be seated at the extreme right end of the table, which is closest to the exit.

• B will receive the Man of the Match award and must be in the center chair.

• C and D who are bitter rivals for the position of wicket keeper, dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as possible.

• E and F are best friends and want to sit together.

 

Q.In a certain language, BOMBAY is coded as HJQYCX. Which of these words is coded as SVHOCR in that language? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 54

For BOMBAY and its coded equivalent HJQYCX, consider the position of each letter in the alphabet.
B O M B A Y 
2 15 13 2 1 25
H J Q Y C X 
8 10 17 25 3 24
2 + 6 = 8, 1 5 - 5 = 10, 13 + 4 = 17, 2 8 - 3 = 25 (Note that the 2nd letter is the same as the 28th letter if the alphabet keeps repeating), 1 + 2 = 3 and 25 - 1 = 24

Thus, starting from the first letter, the difference between the letter in the code and the corresponding letter in the original word is +6, -5, + 4, -3, +2 and -1.
A certain word is coded as SVHOCR. To find the original word, apply this logic in reverse.
S-6 ⇒19-6 = 13 i.e. M

V + 5 ⇒ 22 + 5 = 27 (which is the same as 26 + 1) i.e. A

H - 4 ⇒ 8 - 4 = 4 i.e. D

0 + 3⇒ 15 + 3 = 18 i.e. R

C - 2 ⇒ 3 - 2 = 1 i.e. A

R + 1 ⇒ 18 + 1 = 19 i.e. S

Thus, the original word is MADRAS.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 55

Refer to the following data and answer the questions that follow:

In an MBA entrance exam, a candidate attempts X questions correctly and Y questions incorrectly such that X = 2Y - 5. Each correct answer fetches 1.5 marks whereas for each incorrect answer 0.5 marks are deducted.

 

Q.What is the total number of questions asked in the exam, if  a candidate attempts all the questions but goes wrong in 12 of them?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 55

Since the candidate attempts all the questions and gets 12 questions wrong, X + Y = total and Y = 12

X = 2 Y - 5 = 2(12) - 5 = 19
Total questions = X + Y = 1 9 + 12 = 31 Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 56

In an MBA entrance exam, a candidate attempts X questions correctly and Y questions incorrectly such that X = 2Y - 5. Each correct answer fetches 1.5 marks whereas for each incorrect answer 0.5 marks are deducted.

 

Q.If a student has the same number of correct and incorrect  answers, what is his score? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 56

Here, X = Y

Y = 2 Y - 5 which gives Y = X = 5

A student gets 1.5 marks for each correct answer and loses 0.5 marks for each incorrect answer.

Total marks = 1.5(5) - 0.5(5) = 7.5 - 2.5 = 5.0

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 57

In an MBA entrance exam, a candidate attempts X questions correctly and Y questions incorrectly such that X = 2Y - 5. Each correct answer fetches 1.5 marks whereas for each incorrect answer 0.5 marks are deducted.

Q. how many questions did the student not attempt, if the total number of questions in the exam was 20?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 57

Consider the solution to the previous question.
X + Y + unattempted questions = total questions

5 + 5 + unattempted questions = 20 unattempted questions = 10

Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 58

In an MBA entrance exam, a candidate attempts X questions correctly and Y questions incorrectly such that X = 2Y - 5. Each correct answer fetches 1.5 marks whereas for each incorrect answer 0.5 marks are deducted.

 

Q. What is the student’s percentage score, if the unattempted questions do not carry any marks?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 58

Consider the solution to the previous question.

When the total number of questions = 20, maximum possible marks = 20 x 1.5 = 30

As per the previous solutions, the student has scored 5 marks.
Required percentage = (5/30) x 100 = 16.67%

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 59

Assume that the relationship between X and Y no longer  holds. Now, if the student attempts all the questions and gets 25.5 marks by answering 12 questions incorrectly, how many questions does the exam have in all?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 59

A students gets 1.5 marks for every correct answer and loses 0.5 marks for every incorrect answer.

1.5 ( X ) - 0.5(12) = 25.5
1.5X= 31.5
X= 21
Total number of questions = X+Y =21 + 12 = 33

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 60

Riten and Maya attended a dinner party at which there were four other couples Mr. and Mrs. Abel, Mr. and Mrs. Balu, Mr. and Mrs. Chintu, and Mr. and Mrs. Dinesh. As introductions were made, a certain number of handshakes were made.

• No one shook hands with his or her spouse.

• No one shook another person’s hand more than once.

 

Q.How many handshakes were made altogether?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 60

Riten will shake hands with 8 people i.e. Mr. and Mrs. Abel, Mr. and Mrs. Balu, Mr. and Mrs. Chintu and Mr. and Mrs. Dinesh.
Similarly Maya can also shake hands with 8 different people.
Now, Mr. Abel already shook hands with Riten and Maya,

He can now shake hands with 6 different people i.e. Mr. and Mrs. Balu, Mr. and Mrs. Chintu and Mr. and Mrs. Dinesh.
Mrs. Abel can also shake hands with 6 different people.
Similarly Mr. and Mrs. Balu can shake hands with 4 different people each.
Mr. and Mrs. Chintu can shake hands with 2 different people each.
The total number of handshakes = 16 + 12 + 8 + 4 = 40

Hence, option 3.

Alternatively, There are 10 people and one handshake involves 2 people.
If all the people were to shake hands with each other once, the total number of handshakes would be 10C2 i.e. 45.

But since husband and wife do not shake hands with each other, we have to subtract 5 handshakes (for the 5 couples).

The total number of handshakes = 10C2 - 5 = 45 - 5 = 40

Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 61

You have to transfer a set of rings numbered 1 to 8 from tower A to tower C. The rings are stacked one over the other in an order, with 1 at the top and 8 at the bottom, and have to be stacked in the same fashion on tower C. You can move only one ring at a time, and can store the rings in a stack, temporarily, in another tower B. Minimum how many moves of rings, between the towers, will it take for you to arrange the rings in tower C?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 61

In tower C, ring 1 has to be at the top and 8 has to be at the bottom.
Therefore, ring 8 has to go into tower C first while ring 1 has to go in last.
B is the temprorary storage.
First transfer 1,2,3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 (in that order) to B.
Now, transfer 8 directly from A to C.
Now, from B transfer 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1 (in that order) to C.
The total number of moves required = 7(A to B) + 1(A to C) + 7(B to C)

Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 62

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The figures below represent players playing different games i.e. the circle, triangle, rectangle and square represent people playing cricket, football, hockey and kabaddi respectively. The number inside each figure represents the number of players playing that particular game.

 

Q.What is the difference between the number of people playing atmost one game and the number of people playing atleast three games? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 62

Number of people playing atmost one game = 15 + 17 + 19 + 21 = 72
Number of people playing atleast three games = 4 + 6 + 2 + 1 = 13

Difference = 72 - 13 = 59

Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 63

The figures below represent players playing different games i.e. the circle, triangle, rectangle and square represent people playing cricket, football, hockey and kabaddi respectively. The number inside each figure represents the number of players playing that particular game.

 

Q.What is the ratio of players playing only cricket and football to the players playing both football and kabaddi?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 63

Number of players playing only cricket and football = 3

Number of players playing both football and kabaddi = 2 + 6 + 5 + 1 = 14
Required ratio = 3 : 1 4

Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 64

The figures below represent players playing different games i.e. the circle, triangle, rectangle and square represent people playing cricket, football, hockey and kabaddi respectively. The number inside each figure represents the number of players playing that particular game.

 

Q.What percent of total players play atleast two games, if the players in the figure are the only players?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 64

Total number of players = 15 + 7 + 17 + 3 + 4 + 2 + 6 + 3 + 1 + 5 + 19 + 8 + 21 = 111
Players playing atleast two games = 7 + 3 + 4 + 2 + 6 + 3 + 1 + 5 + 8 = 39

Required percentage = (39 /111) x 100 = 35.13%

Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 65

Find the missing term in the series.

48, 105, 192, 315, ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 65

The logic followed in this series is as follows: 48 = 2 x 4 x 6, 105 = 3 x 5 x 7, 192 = 4 x 6 x 8, 315 = 5 x 7 x 9

The next term = 6 x 8 x 1 0 = 480 Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 66

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

There are 5 friends - Raahil, Rohit, Rashesh, Pinki and Pooja. They have different IQ scores. Among them, Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while the others are females. Also, it is known that there is at least 1 male whose IQ is better than the two females. When arranged in decreasing order of their IQ scores, the two females are next to each other. While Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score. Also Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.

 

Q.If Rashesh’s score is interchanged with that of Rohit, how many people’s IQ score is more than that of Rashesh?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 66

Since it is given that there is at least one male whose IQ score is better than all the females and the two females are placed next to each other when arranged in decreasing order; the possibility of their placements (in terms of male and female members) is:

Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while Pinki and Pooja are females.
Since Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, the two females have to be above at least one male.
So, the last case shown in the table above is not possible.
Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score and Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.
Thus, there have to be at least two males above the two females.
So, the first case shown in the table is also not possible.
So, the only possibility is that there are two males, followed by the two females with the third male at the end.
Rashesh > Rohit > Pooja/Pinki > Pinki/Pooja > Raahil

Note that Pooja and Pinki can be either third or fourth without violating any of the given conditions.

Thus, the final arrangement is as shown below:

Hence, if Rashesh’s score is interchanged with that of Rohit, Rashesh would be second and Rohit would have the highest IQ score.
So, only Rohit’s IQ score would be more than that of Rashesh if their scores are interchanged.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 67

There are 5 friends - Raahil, Rohit, Rashesh, Pinki and Pooja. They have different IQ scores. Among them, Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while the others are females. Also, it is known that there is at least 1 male whose IQ is better than the two females. When arranged in decreasing order of their IQ scores, the two females are next to each other. While Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score. Also Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.

 

Q.How many people’s IQ scores are more than that of Pinki? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 67

Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the first question.
Pinki could be 3rd or 4th in the descending order of IQ scores.
Based on this, 2 or 3 people could have their IQ scores greater than that of Pinki.
So, the exact number cannot be determined.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 68

There are 5 friends - Raahil, Rohit, Rashesh, Pinki and Pooja. They have different IQ scores. Among them, Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while the others are females. Also, it is known that there is at least 1 male whose IQ is better than the two females. When arranged in decreasing order of their IQ scores, the two females are next to each other. While Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score. Also Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.

 

Q.Which of the following relationships is definitely correct with respect to the IQ scores of these students?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 68

Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the first question.
Rashesh has the highest IQ score while Raahil has the lowest.
Hence, options 1 and 2 can be eliminated.
The order given in option 4 is a possibility but the order of Pooja and Pinki can also be interchanged.
So, the given relationship may or may not be correct.
Hence, option 4 can also be eliminated.
The relationship in option 3 is definitely correct.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 69

There are 5 friends - Raahil, Rohit, Rashesh, Pinki and Pooja. They have different IQ scores. Among them, Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while the others are females. Also, it is known that there is at least 1 male whose IQ is better than the two females. When arranged in decreasing order of their IQ scores, the two females are next to each other. While Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score. Also Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.

 

Q.Who has the lowest IQ score? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 69

Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the first question.

Raahil has the lowest IQ score.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 70

There are 5 friends - Raahil, Rohit, Rashesh, Pinki and Pooja. They have different IQ scores. Among them, Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while the others are females. Also, it is known that there is at least 1 male whose IQ is better than the two females. When arranged in decreasing order of their IQ scores, the two females are next to each other. While Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score. Also Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.

 

Q.Which person has as many people with an IQ score greater  than him/her as less than him/her?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 70

Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the first question.
The person having an equal number of people with an IQ score greater than and less than his/her IQ score will be third in the descending order of IQ scores.
As per the table, this person could be either Pinki or Pooja.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 71

Six students - A to F - take a test. B scores 7 more marks than D but is not the highest scorer. A scores 3 marks less than F but 5 marks more than E. D scores 5 marks more than A but 8 marks less than C. Who is the third highest scorer among them?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 71

B = 7 + D

A = F - 3 and A = E + 5

D = A + 5 = C - 8 
A = D- 5 and C = D + 8

Now A = F - 3 = D - 5 ⇒ F = D - 2 Similarly, E= D - 10

Since everyone’s marks have been expressed in terms of D, they can be directly compared.
Thus, in descending order of marks, C> B> D> F> A> E Thus, D is the third highest scorer.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 72

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A competition requires Rahul to identify the odd weight in a group of weights, given that all the remaining weights are equal. He is given a regular pan balance to complete this task.

 

Q.If Rahul is initially given 15 weights, how many iterations will 1 Marks he need to definitely pin-point the odd weight and whether it heavier or lighter than the other wieghts?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 72

Here, it is not known whether the odd weight is heavier or lighter.

To begin, Rahul needs to divide the 15 weights into three lots of five weights each.
Iterations 1 and 2: Compare Lot 1 and Lot 2.
If these lots are equal, the odd weight is definitely in the third lot. In that case, compare either Lot 1 or 2 with Lot 3 to identify whether the odd weight is heavier or lighter.
If these lots are unequal, the odd weight is in one of Lot 1 or 2 and the other is equal to Lot 3. So, compare either Lot 1 with Lot 3. If they are equal, the odd weight is in Lot 2, else it is in Lot 1. Also, whether the odd weight is heavier or lighter can be identified at this stage.
Irrespective of the outcome, a Lot of 5 weights (that has the odd weight) can be identified at the end of iteration 2.
Iterations 3 and 4: Divide the Lot of 5 weights into 2, 2 and 1 and compare the two groups of 2 weights each.
If they are equal, the odd weight is the single weight that is left out. In this case, Rahul can pin point the odd weight at the end of the third iteration.
If they are unequal and knowing whether the odd weight is lighter or heavier, Rahul can know which group has the odd weight.
Comparing just these two weights in the next iteration helps Rahul find the odd weight.
So, Rahul can definitely pin point the odd weight at the end of the fourth iteration.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 73

A competition requires Rahul to identify the odd weight in a group of weights, given that all the remaining weights are equal. He is given a regular pan balance to complete this task.

 

Q.If Rahul starts with 30 weights and is told that the odd weight is lighter than the rest, how many iterations will he require to definitely find out the incorrect weight?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 73

In this case, it is known that the odd weight is lighter.
Rahul will start by dividing the weights into equal lots of 10 weights each.
Iteration 1: Compare Lot 1 and Lot 2.
If they are equal then the odd weight is in Lot 3.
If they are unequal, the odd weight is in the Lot where the pan (of the pan balance) has gone up.
Hence, at the end of the first iteration, Rahul will know which lot of 10 weights has the odd weight.
Iteration 2: Subdivide the identified lot into groups of 3, 3 and 4 and compare the weights of the two groups of 3 weights each.
If they are equal then the odd weight is in the third lot of 4 weights.
If, however, they are unequal, then the odd weight is in the lot which has the lesser weight of the two.
Hence, at the end of the second iteration, Rahul has a smaller group of 3 or 4 weights that contains the odd weight.
Iterations 3 and 4: Divide the 3 weights into (1, 1, 1) or the 4 weights into (1, 1,2) and compare the two groups having one weight each.
Thus, as explained in the previous question, Rahul requires two iterations here.
So, Rahul requires 4 iterations to definitely the odd weight in this case. Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 74

In a certain language, FRUIT is coded as (20, 9, 21, 18, 6). Which word will be coded as (11,14, 9,18, 4) in that language?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 74

Consider the alphabetical position of each letter of the word FRUIT.
F = 6, R = 18, U = 21, I = 9 and T = 20 Thus, the logic is that the word is first reversed and then each letter is replaced by its position in the alphabet.
Consider (11, 14, 9, 18, 4).
The letters corresponding to these positions are K, N, I, R and D.
Since these correspond to the reversed word, the original word is obtained by reversing these letters i.e. DRINK.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 75

Given are two statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of them logically follows from the statements.

 

Statements

A. All boys are girls.
B. Some girls are beautiful.

Conclusions

I. Some boys maybe beautiful.
II. All boys are beautiful.
III. No boy is beautiful.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 75

Since all boys are girls and some girls are beautiful, there is a possibility that some boys are beautiful.
However, there is also a case where the set of boys does not intersect with the set of beautiful.
So, some boys may be beautiful.
So, conclusion I follows.
Conclusions II and III may or may not follow.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 76

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In the table given below, players due to play the US Open are listed in order of their seeding from the highest (#1) to the lowest (#32). This tournament has four rounds before the finals - first round, second round, quaterfinal and semifinal. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player i.e. Seed 1 v/s Seed 32 and the match is designated as match number 1 of the first round. Seed 2 plays Seed 31 in match 2 of the first round and so on. The last match of the first round is match number 16 between Seed 16 and Seed 17.
In the second round, the winner of match 1 of the first round plays the winner of match 16 of the first round and this match is called match number 1 of the second round. Similarly, match number 2 of the second round is between the winners of match 2 and match 15 of the first round and so on till match 8 where the winners of matches 8 and 9 of the first round play each other.
In aany round, if a lower-seeded player beats a higher-seeded player, it is termed an “upset”.
The same pattern is followed in the later rounds as well.

 

Q.If there were no upsets in the first round, who will meet  Djokovic in the quarterfinals given that there only 3 upsets (match numbers 4, 5 and 6) in the second round?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 76

Since there are no upsets in the first round, the winners of the first round are seed 1, seed 2, seed 3 and so on upto seed 16.
These players will play each other in the second round as under:
Match 1 - Seed 1 v/s seed 16 - winner seed 1

Match 2 - Seed 2 v/s seed 15 - winner seed 2

Match 3 - Seed 3 v/s seed 14 - winner seed 3

Since matches 4, 5 and 6 are upsets, the lower seed in these matches will be the winner.
Match 4 - Seed 4 v/s seed 13, winner seed 13

Match 5 - Seed 5 v/s seed 12, winner seed 12

Match 6 - Seed 6 v/s seed 11, winner seed 11

Match 7 - Seed 7 v/s seed 10, winner seed 7

Match 8 - Seed 8 v/s seed 9, winner seed 8

Djokovik is seed 3.
Hence, in the next round (quarterfinals), the winner of match 3 (i.e. Djokovik - seed 3) will play the winner of match 6 (i.e. Sam Querrey - seed 11).
Hence option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 77

In the table given below, players due to play the US Open are listed in order of their seeding from the highest (#1) to the lowest (#32). This tournament has four rounds before the finals - first round, second round, quaterfinal and semifinal. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player i.e. Seed 1 v/s Seed 32 and the match is designated as match number 1 of the first round. Seed 2 plays Seed 31 in match 2 of the first round and so on. The last match of the first round is match number 16 between Seed 16 and Seed 17.
In the second round, the winner of match 1 of the first round plays the winner of match 16 of the first round and this match is called match number 1 of the second round. Similarly, match number 2 of the second round is between the winners of match 2 and match 15 of the first round and so on till match 8 where the winners of matches 8 and 9 of the first round play each other.
In aany round, if a lower-seeded player beats a higher-seeded player, it is termed an “upset”.
The same pattern is followed in the later rounds as well.

 

Q.If the top eight reach the quarterfinal and Pete Sampras reaches the finals, who amongst the following players definitely does not play Pete Sampras in the finals? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 77

Pete Sampras is seed 1 who reaches the finals

Since the top eight reach the quarter finals, the quarter final matches are: Seed 1 v/s Seed 8, Seed 2 v/s Seed 7, Seed 3 v/s Seed 6, Seed 4 v/s Seed 5

Similarly, the semi-final matches are: Seed 1 v/s Seed 4/5 and Seed 2/7 v/s Seed 3/6

Finally, the final is:

Seed 1 vs Seed 2/7/3/6

Hence, Seeds 4, 5 and 8 can never be in the finals.
Among the options, Andre Agassis is Seed 4.
Hence, option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 78

In the table given below, players due to play the US Open are listed in order of their seeding from the highest (#1) to the lowest (#32). This tournament has four rounds before the finals - first round, second round, quaterfinal and semifinal. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player i.e. Seed 1 v/s Seed 32 and the match is designated as match number 1 of the first round. Seed 2 plays Seed 31 in match 2 of the first round and so on. The last match of the first round is match number 16 between Seed 16 and Seed 17.
In the second round, the winner of match 1 of the first round plays the winner of match 16 of the first round and this match is called match number 1 of the second round. Similarly, match number 2 of the second round is between the winners of match 2 and match 15 of the first round and so on till match 8 where the winners of matches 8 and 9 of the first round play each other.
In aany round, if a lower-seeded player beats a higher-seeded player, it is termed an “upset”.
The same pattern is followed in the later rounds as well.

 

Q.If in the first round, only the even numbered matches result in upsets and there are no upsets in the second round, who will be the lowest seeded player to face Pete Sampras in the finals?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 78

The matches in Round 1 are:

Seed 1 v/s Seed 32, Seed 2 v/s Seed 31, Seed 3 v/s Seed 30....Seed 16 v/s Seed 17

Since the even numbered matches result in upsets, the winners in round 1 are:

Seed 1, Seed 31, Seed 3, Seed 29, Seed 5, Seed 27, Seed 7, Seed 25, Seed 9, Seed 23, Seed 11, Seed 21, Seed 13, Seed 19, Seed 15 and Seed 17.
So, the matches in Round 2 are:

Seed 1 v/s Seed 17, Seed 31 v/s Seed 15, Seed 3 v/s Seed

19....Seed 7 v/s Seed 23 and Seed 25 v/s Seed 9

Since there are no upsets in round 2, the winners in Round 2 are:
Seed 1, Seed 15, Seed3, Seed 13, Seed 5, Seed 11, Seed 7 and Seed 9 So, the matches in the quarterfinals are:

Seed 1 v/s Seed 9, Seed 15 v/s Seed 7, Seed 3 v/s Seed 11, Seed 13 v/s Seed 5

Since the lowest possible seed to face Sampras in the finals is to be found, assume that Sampras wins all his matches and all other matches are upsets.
So, the winners in the quarterfinals are Seed 1, Seed 15, Seed 11 and Seed 13

So, the matches in the semifinals are: Seed 1 v/s Seed 13 and Seed 15 v/s Seed 11

Again, Seed 1 wins his semifinal match and the other match should be an upset i.e. Seed 15 should win.
So, the lowest seed that can be face Sampras in the finals is Seed 15 i.e. Jimmy Connors.
Hence, option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 79

In the table given below, players due to play the US Open are listed in order of their seeding from the highest (#1) to the lowest (#32). This tournament has four rounds before the finals - first round, second round, quaterfinal and semifinal. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player i.e. Seed 1 v/s Seed 32 and the match is designated as match number 1 of the first round. Seed 2 plays Seed 31 in match 2 of the first round and so on. The last match of the first round is match number 16 between Seed 16 and Seed 17.
In the second round, the winner of match 1 of the first round plays the winner of match 16 of the first round and this match is called match number 1 of the second round. Similarly, match number 2 of the second round is between the winners of match 2 and match 15 of the first round and so on till match 8 where the winners of matches 8 and 9 of the first round play each other.
In aany round, if a lower-seeded player beats a higher-seeded player, it is termed an “upset”.
The same pattern is followed in the later rounds as well.

 

Q.If Rafael Nadal and Del Potro lose in the second round, while Andy Murray and David Ferrer reach the semifinals then who will face Pete Sampras in the quarterfinals? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 79

Seed 6 and Seed 8 lose the second round while Seed 7 and Seed 9 win their quarterfinal matches.
Matches in Round 1:

Seed 1 v/s Seed 32, Seed 2 v/s Seed 31, Seed 3 v/s Seed 30....Seed 16 v/s Seed 17

Seed 1, 7 and 9 qualify for the second round. Similarly, Seed 6 and 8 also qualify as they lose in the second round.
Matches in Round 2:

Seed 1 vs Seed 16/17, Seed 2/31 vs Seed 15/18....Seed 6 vs Seed 11, Seed 7 vs Seed 10, Seed 8 vs Seed 9 The winners are Seed 1, ...,Seed 11, Seed 7, Seed 9

So, Seed 1 faces Seed 9 in the quarterfinals i.e. Sampras faces David Ferrer.
Hence, option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 80

In the table given below, players due to play the US Open are listed in order of their seeding from the highest (#1) to the lowest (#32). This tournament has four rounds before the finals - first round, second round, quaterfinal and semifinal. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player i.e. Seed 1 v/s Seed 32 and the match is designated as match number 1 of the first round. Seed 2 plays Seed 31 in match 2 of the first round and so on. The last match of the first round is match number 16 between Seed 16 and Seed 17.
In the second round, the winner of match 1 of the first round plays the winner of match 16 of the first round and this match is called match number 1 of the second round. Similarly, match number 2 of the second round is between the winners of match 2 and match 15 of the first round and so on till match 8 where the winners of matches 8 and 9 of the first round play each other.
In aany round, if a lower-seeded player beats a higher-seeded player, it is termed an “upset”.
The same pattern is followed in the later rounds as well.

 

Q.If all the matches in all the rounds are upsets, who is the lowest seed to win the US Open?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 80

Since all the matches in all the rounds are upsets, the lower ranked seeds win in each round.
So, the winners in round 1 are Seeds 17 to 32.

Similarly, the winners in round 2 are Seeds 25 to 32, the winners in the quarter finals are Seeds 29 to 32, the winners in the semfinals are Seeds 31 and 32 and the lowest Seed to win the US open is Seed 32 i.e. Mark Knowles.
Hence, option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 81

Re-arrange the scrambled segments in a logical order to make a complete sentence.

1. Boots which extended halfway up his calves

2. which was suggested by his whole appearance

3. at the tops with rich brown fur

4. and which were trimmed

5. completed the impression of barbaric opulence

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 81

The flow on option 4, with 3 as a start, is abrupt.
All the other options start with segment 1, which describes the appearance of boots on a person. 4-3 are linked, since boots are trimmed at the top with fur. Therefore, 1-4-3 flow logically with ‘Boots which extended halfway up his calves, and which were trimmed at the tops with rich brown f u r . . . ’ .
Between segments 2 and 5, 2 has to follow 5. After describing the boots (1-4-3), segment 5 mentions how the boots ‘completed the impression of barbaric opulence’,which can then be followed by segemnt 2 which concludes the sentence by relating the barbaric opulence to his whole appearance.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 82

In the following sentences one word or phrase has been used  incorrectly. Choose the word that must be changed or modified or deleted to make the sentence correct. There are sentences without any errors too.

Q.There are fairly stringent conditions attached from the provision of affordable housing in the village.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 82

“Attached from” should be corrected to ‘attached to’. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 83

Which punctuation  is missing in each of the following sentences?

Some animals may delight us especially by their beauty others may surprise us by their size.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 83

The punctuation mark missing in the sentence is the semicolon. It is required once in the sentence: “Some animals may delight us especially by their beauty; others may surprise us by their size.” A semi colon is used to connect two independent clauses.
A comma is incorrect, since there is no coordinating conjunction. (For example, Some animals may delight us especially by their beauty, and others may surprise us by their size.) Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 84

Select the most OPPOSITE of the given word from the given choices.

LACUNA

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 84

“Lacuna” means ‘a break, pause or interruption’. Its opposite would be “continuation.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 85

Identify the correct sentence.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 85

Option 2 distorts the meaning of the sentence and makes no logical sense.
Option 3 is incorrect due to inconsistency in the tense. The conditional past perfect tense in the first part of the sentence requires ‘would have + past participle’. Moreover, the sentence logically would need to contain ‘not’ (“there is no way this would not have been done”).
Option 4 also has tense inconsistency errors - The first part of the sentence uses the past tense, while the rest of the sentence is in the present.
Option 1 uses the present tense consistently and is also logically consistent.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 86

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the  given options.

Around the table reigned that noisy ________ which usually prevails at such a time among people sufficiently free from the demands of social position not to feel the ________ of etiquette.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 86

The clues in the sentence are “free from the demands of social position” and “noisy”. You know that the people around that table are at ease with each other. Therefore “hilarity” which means ‘cheerfulness; merriment; mirthfulness’ fits the first blank whereas “trammels” which means ‘a hindrance or impediment to free action; restraint’ fits the second. “Indecency” means ‘obscenity or indelicacy’ and “hedonism” means ‘devotion to pleasure as a way of life’- both are misfits. Therefore, option 1 is eliminated. “Haplessness” means ‘unlucky; luckless; unfortunate’ and does not fit the first blank. Therefore, option 2 is eliminated. “Facetiousness” means ‘lacking serious intent; concerned with something nonessential, amusing, or frivolous’. Though the latter probably makes sense there, “discipline” simply does not make sense with ‘noisy’ and hence option 4 is eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 87

Choose the correct option.

ICONOCLAST : TRADITION

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 87

An “iconoclast” is a person who attacks cherished beliefs, traditional institutions.
An “atheist” doesn’t believe in a deity or god.
An “agnostic” is ‘a person who holds that the existence of the ultimate cause, as God, and the essential nature of things are unknown and unknowable, or that human knowledge is limited to experience, therefore he doubts the existence of God’. Option 2 does not share the same antonymous relationship as option 1.
A “philanderer” is ‘a man who carries on a sexual affair, especially an extramarital affair, with a woman one cannot or does not intend to marry’. “Debauchery” is ‘excessive indulgence in sensual pleasures; intemperance’. A “philanderer” on some level believes in “debauchery”, hence option 3 is eliminated.
A “devotee” indulges in “idolatry” which is ‘the worship of idols or excessive devotion’. Therefore, option 4 is eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 88

Choose which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in italic in the sentence to make he sentence grammatically correct.

Q.His osternaticity of all of Shakespeare’s work gave Amol a definite edge over his classmates in the literature exam.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 88

Perusal means ‘reading with great care’ and is the most appropriate word to replace the nonsensical word in the sentence. ‘Reading’ does not fit grammatically. “Detailing” and “circumlocution” are inconsistent with the context of the sentence. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 89

In the following sentences one word or phrase has been used incorrectly. Choose the word that must be changed or modified or deleted to make the sentence correct. There are sentences without any errors too.

Q.These minutes provide an absorbing account and detailed account of the trade and commerce of a colonial power at its height.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 89

The part “an absorbing account” has a redundancy error. The part can be rewritten as follows, ‘an absorbing and detailed account’. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 90

Choose the correct spelling from the options given below.

Q.To convert to another religion or belief system.​

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 90

The correct spelling of the word is “proselytize”.
Options 1, 3 and 4 spell the word incorrectly.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 91

Choose the correct option .

Q.When someone says “I am visiting a shrink”, who is the person visiting?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 91

“Shrink” or “head shrinker” is a colloquial term for ‘a mental health professional such as a psychiatrist or psychologist’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 92

Choose the grammatically correct option from the following.  

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 92

The correct construction is, “In addition to treating their patients through strategic use of technology, doctors are sponsoring medical initiatives to increase interest in the profession.”. Only option 2 reflects this.
In option 1, there is a subject-verb agreement issue with ‘In addition....his patients ... doctors are sponsoring ...’.
Incorrect tense usage in options 3 and 4 eliminates them.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 93

Choose the grammatically correct option.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 93

Negation, or in this case, the word “not” is to be placed between the helping verb and the participle.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 94

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate set of words from the given options.

______a glance it wasn’t obvious but now__ retrospect, I can see that important changes have taken place.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 94

The prepositional phrases are ‘at a glance’ and ‘in retrospect’. Option 3 contains the appropriate prepositions in the correct order.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 95

Choose the appropriate option from among the ones given below Which of the following sentences does not use a pleonasm?

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 95

A “pleonasm” is the usage of more words than necessary to add rhetoric to a sentence.
In option 1, the word “most” is unnecessary since ‘unkindest’ is already in the superlative form.
In the second option, since a gift is something that is given to a person without expecting a payment in return, the word “free” isn’t required.
In the third sentence, the act of raising one’s hands implies moving them upwards; hence, the word “up” is unnecessary.
Thus, the fourth statement which contains no such redundancy is the correct answer.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 96

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the given options.

Heat is said to be a form of energy, and the forms of energy are _________ into one another, as the so-called forces were form erly supposed to be ________ into one another.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 96

Combustible means capable of igniting and burning. This does not fit in grammatically into the sentence - as ‘combustible into one another’ is incorrect. Hence option 1 can be eliminated. Option 2 is also incorrect as when we look at the second half of the sentence; forces cannot be ‘discharged’ into one another. Hence option 2 can also be eliminated.
Again, option 3 is grammatically incorrect and can be eliminated. Hence the most suitable option is option 4. To convert means to change something into another form. And to transform means to change the nature, function or condition of something.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 97

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) has recently started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease and the neurology department has enrolled five patients for it. Though in the nascent stages, experts say stem cell treatment is likely to be the preferred treatment mode for neurological disorders like Parkinson's, Alzheimer's and the lot in the near future. Stem cell therapy in fact was the recurrent theme in the 2nd Asian and Oceanian Parkinson's Disease and Movement Disorder Congress and the 7th Asia Pacific Parkinson's Association (APPA) organized by AIIMS neurology department on Sunday.
Usually extracted from embryos or from bone marrow or umbilical cord, stem cells are primitive, undifferentiated cells that have the ability to grow into any type of tissue. They are being hailed as the dream treatment for a wide range of "incurable" diseases. "We have started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease. But it is a long process. In this trial, we will be using bone marrow stem cells harvested from patients. The cells, after being regrown in the laboratory, will be surgically inserted into the patient's brain. As we would be using patient's own stem cells, there would be no chances of rejection," said Dr Sumit Singh, associate professor and coinvestigator of the stem cell trail at AIIMS. Headed by Dr Madhuri Behari, head of the neurology department, AIIMS, the team stated the trial in January. "We plan to inject the stem cells back into the patients in the coming month. But it is too early to predict the results," said Dr Singh.
After Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's is the second most common neuro-degenerative disorder. It is estimated that worldwide 1% people above the age of 65 and 3% people above the age of 80 are affected by it. In India alone, there are approximately 60 million people suffering from Parkinson's disease. "The reason for the disease is not known, but with right and timely medical intervention, the process of degeneration can be delayed. But factors like genetic composition and environmental toxins are found to be responsible for the disease," said Dr Behari, the organizing chairperson of the conference.
Deliberating on the new trends in the treatment of Parkinson's disease, experts cautioned that "hype should be kept away from hope" in case of stem cell treatment, as trials are in progress. Dr Rupam Borgohain, neurologist at Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences in Hyderabad, who is also experimenting with stem cells in treating Parkinson's disease, said, "It (stem cells) is definitely the way to go, but it is important to keep hype away from hope. It is in the trial phase and we hope to see positive results, but till then we have to wait. Stem cell tissues have proved to be beneficial in treating Parkinson's disease in a few cases. And that gives us hope to move forward."

 

Q."We plan to inject the stem cells back into the patients in the coming month”. These patients suffer from

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 97

The very first line of the passage tells us, “AIIMS has recently started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease and the neurology department has enrolled five patients for it”. Option 3 wrongly mentions neurogenerative disease while actually it is a neuro-degenerative disease. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 98

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) has recently started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease and the neurology department has enrolled five patients for it. Though in the nascent stages, experts say stem cell treatment is likely to be the preferred treatment mode for neurological disorders like Parkinson's, Alzheimer's and the lot in the near future. Stem cell therapy in fact was the recurrent theme in the 2nd Asian and Oceanian Parkinson's Disease and Movement Disorder Congress and the 7th Asia Pacific Parkinson's Association (APPA) organized by AIIMS neurology department on Sunday.
Usually extracted from embryos or from bone marrow or umbilical cord, stem cells are primitive, undifferentiated cells that have the ability to grow into any type of tissue. They are being hailed as the dream treatment for a wide range of "incurable" diseases. "We have started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease. But it is a long process. In this trial, we will be using bone marrow stem cells harvested from patients. The cells, after being regrown in the laboratory, will be surgically inserted into the patient's brain. As we would be using patient's own stem cells, there would be no chances of rejection," said Dr Sumit Singh, associate professor and coinvestigator of the stem cell trail at AIIMS. Headed by Dr Madhuri Behari, head of the neurology department, AIIMS, the team stated the trial in January. "We plan to inject the stem cells back into the patients in the coming month. But it is too early to predict the results," said Dr Singh.
After Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's is the second most common neuro-degenerative disorder. It is estimated that worldwide 1% people above the age of 65 and 3% people above the age of 80 are affected by it. In India alone, there are approximately 60 million people suffering from Parkinson's disease. "The reason for the disease is not known, but with right and timely medical intervention, the process of degeneration can be delayed. But factors like genetic composition and environmental toxins are found to be responsible for the disease," said Dr Behari, the organizing chairperson of the conference.
Deliberating on the new trends in the treatment of Parkinson's disease, experts cautioned that "hype should be kept away from hope" in case of stem cell treatment, as trials are in progress. Dr Rupam Borgohain, neurologist at Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences in Hyderabad, who is also experimenting with stem cells in treating Parkinson's disease, said, "It (stem cells) is definitely the way to go, but it is important to keep hype away from hope. It is in the trial phase and we hope to see positive results, but till then we have to wait. Stem cell tissues have proved to be beneficial in treating Parkinson's disease in a few cases. And that gives us hope to move forward."

 

Q.Which of the following statements is not true as per the passage 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 98

Options 1,2 and 4 are direct facts given in the passage. Option 3 is false as the passage mentions that “They are being hailed as the dream treatment for a wide range of "incurable" diseases” and the research is in nascent stage.” Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 99

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) has recently started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease and the neurology department has enrolled five patients for it. Though in the nascent stages, experts say stem cell treatment is likely to be the preferred treatment mode for neurological disorders like Parkinson's, Alzheimer's and the lot in the near future. Stem cell therapy in fact was the recurrent theme in the 2nd Asian and Oceanian Parkinson's Disease and Movement Disorder Congress and the 7th Asia Pacific Parkinson's Association (APPA) organized by AIIMS neurology department on Sunday.
Usually extracted from embryos or from bone marrow or umbilical cord, stem cells are primitive, undifferentiated cells that have the ability to grow into any type of tissue. They are being hailed as the dream treatment for a wide range of "incurable" diseases. "We have started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease. But it is a long process. In this trial, we will be using bone marrow stem cells harvested from patients. The cells, after being regrown in the laboratory, will be surgically inserted into the patient's brain. As we would be using patient's own stem cells, there would be no chances of rejection," said Dr Sumit Singh, associate professor and coinvestigator of the stem cell trail at AIIMS. Headed by Dr Madhuri Behari, head of the neurology department, AIIMS, the team stated the trial in January. "We plan to inject the stem cells back into the patients in the coming month. But it is too early to predict the results," said Dr Singh.
After Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's is the second most common neuro-degenerative disorder. It is estimated that worldwide 1% people above the age of 65 and 3% people above the age of 80 are affected by it. In India alone, there are approximately 60 million people suffering from Parkinson's disease. "The reason for the disease is not known, but with right and timely medical intervention, the process of degeneration can be delayed. But factors like genetic composition and environmental toxins are found to be responsible for the disease," said Dr Behari, the organizing chairperson of the conference.
Deliberating on the new trends in the treatment of Parkinson's disease, experts cautioned that "hype should be kept away from hope" in case of stem cell treatment, as trials are in progress. Dr Rupam Borgohain, neurologist at Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences in Hyderabad, who is also experimenting with stem cells in treating Parkinson's disease, said, "It (stem cells) is definitely the way to go, but it is important to keep hype away from hope. It is in the trial phase and we hope to see positive results, but till then we have to wait. Stem cell tissues have proved to be beneficial in treating Parkinson's disease in a few cases. And that gives us hope to move forward."

 

Q.The organizing chairperson of the 2nd Asian and Oceanian Parkinson's Disease and Movement Disorder Congress was

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 99

Last line of the penultimate paragraph states,"... said Dr Behari, the organizing chairperson of the conference”. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 100

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) has recently started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease and the neurology department has enrolled five patients for it. Though in the nascent stages, experts say stem cell treatment is likely to be the preferred treatment mode for neurological disorders like Parkinson's, Alzheimer's and the lot in the near future. Stem cell therapy in fact was the recurrent theme in the 2nd Asian and Oceanian Parkinson's Disease and Movement Disorder Congress and the 7th Asia Pacific Parkinson's Association (APPA) organized by AIIMS neurology department on Sunday.
Usually extracted from embryos or from bone marrow or umbilical cord, stem cells are primitive, undifferentiated cells that have the ability to grow into any type of tissue. They are being hailed as the dream treatment for a wide range of "incurable" diseases. "We have started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease. But it is a long process. In this trial, we will be using bone marrow stem cells harvested from patients. The cells, after being regrown in the laboratory, will be surgically inserted into the patient's brain. As we would be using patient's own stem cells, there would be no chances of rejection," said Dr Sumit Singh, associate professor and coinvestigator of the stem cell trail at AIIMS. Headed by Dr Madhuri Behari, head of the neurology department, AIIMS, the team stated the trial in January. "We plan to inject the stem cells back into the patients in the coming month. But it is too early to predict the results," said Dr Singh.
After Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's is the second most common neuro-degenerative disorder. It is estimated that worldwide 1% people above the age of 65 and 3% people above the age of 80 are affected by it. In India alone, there are approximately 60 million people suffering from Parkinson's disease. "The reason for the disease is not known, but with right and timely medical intervention, the process of degeneration can be delayed. But factors like genetic composition and environmental toxins are found to be responsible for the disease," said Dr Behari, the organizing chairperson of the conference.
Deliberating on the new trends in the treatment of Parkinson's disease, experts cautioned that "hype should be kept away from hope" in case of stem cell treatment, as trials are in progress. Dr Rupam Borgohain, neurologist at Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences in Hyderabad, who is also experimenting with stem cells in treating Parkinson's disease, said, "It (stem cells) is definitely the way to go, but it is important to keep hype away from hope. It is in the trial phase and we hope to see positive results, but till then we have to wait. Stem cell tissues have proved to be beneficial in treating Parkinson's disease in a few cases. And that gives us hope to move forward."

 

Q.Which of the following statements are true 

I. Parkinson’s disease affects people in old age.
II. Environmental toxins are the major cause of Parkinson’s disease.
III. Stem cell tissues have successfully treated Parkinson's disease in a few cases.
IV. Stem cells have the ability to grow into any type of tissue.
V. Alzheimer's disease is the most common neuro-degenerative disorder.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 100

III is false as the passage clearly says that, “Stem cell tissues have proved to be beneficial in treating Parkinson's disease in a few cases”, it does not say that they have treated Parkinson's.
II is again false as per the lines, "The reason for the disease is not known, but with right and timely medical intervention, the process of degeneration can be delayed. But factors like genetic composition and environmental toxins are found to be responsible for the disease". Therefore, environmental toxins cannot be said to be the main cause of Parkinson's. Data given in the last and penultimate paragraph verifies I, IV and V to be true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 101

All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) has recently started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease and the neurology department has enrolled five patients for it. Though in the nascent stages, experts say stem cell treatment is likely to be the preferred treatment mode for neurological disorders like Parkinson's, Alzheimer's and the lot in the near future. Stem cell therapy in fact was the recurrent theme in the 2nd Asian and Oceanian Parkinson's Disease and Movement Disorder Congress and the 7th Asia Pacific Parkinson's Association (APPA) organized by AIIMS neurology department on Sunday.
Usually extracted from embryos or from bone marrow or umbilical cord, stem cells are primitive, undifferentiated cells that have the ability to grow into any type of tissue. They are being hailed as the dream treatment for a wide range of "incurable" diseases. "We have started stem cell trials for the treatment of Parkinson's disease. But it is a long process. In this trial, we will be using bone marrow stem cells harvested from patients. The cells, after being regrown in the laboratory, will be surgically inserted into the patient's brain. As we would be using patient's own stem cells, there would be no chances of rejection," said Dr Sumit Singh, associate professor and coinvestigator of the stem cell trail at AIIMS. Headed by Dr Madhuri Behari, head of the neurology department, AIIMS, the team stated the trial in January. "We plan to inject the stem cells back into the patients in the coming month. But it is too early to predict the results," said Dr Singh.
After Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's is the second most common neuro-degenerative disorder. It is estimated that worldwide 1% people above the age of 65 and 3% people above the age of 80 are affected by it. In India alone, there are approximately 60 million people suffering from Parkinson's disease. "The reason for the disease is not known, but with right and timely medical intervention, the process of degeneration can be delayed. But factors like genetic composition and environmental toxins are found to be responsible for the disease," said Dr Behari, the organizing chairperson of the conference.
Deliberating on the new trends in the treatment of Parkinson's disease, experts cautioned that "hype should be kept away from hope" in case of stem cell treatment, as trials are in progress. Dr Rupam Borgohain, neurologist at Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences in Hyderabad, who is also experimenting with stem cells in treating Parkinson's disease, said, "It (stem cells) is definitely the way to go, but it is important to keep hype away from hope. It is in the trial phase and we hope to see positive results, but till then we have to wait. Stem cell tissues have proved to be beneficial in treating Parkinson's disease in a few cases. And that gives us hope to move forward."

 

Q.Parkinson’s disease has affected

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 101

The passage states, “there are approximately 60 million people suffering from Parkinson's disease” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 102

Match the following 


1. Dr. Behari

2. Dr. Rupam

3. Dr. Singh .

i. associate professor

ii. head of neurology department

iii.Nizam’s Institute

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 102

This is a question based on direct details given in the passage and the right match is 1 -ii, 2-iii, 3-i.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 103

The style of the passage is

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 103

The author has not analysed or highlighted the pros and cons of the research in question, he has simply used a reporting manner. He hasn’t gone into too many details so we cannot call the style narrative, as this word is usually used in the context of storytelling. It can best be called a descriptive style.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 104

Choose the option that translates the active voice into the passive Voice.

Q.The man must have eaten five burgers.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 104

The correct sentence is “Five burgers must have been eaten by the man.” Since “burgers” is a plural word, it must be followed by the verb ‘have’. Eliminate option 1. Option 2 is grammatically incorrect. Since the main sentence makes an estimation, the same needs to be repeated in the passive voice as well. Option 4 does not do that.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 105

Pick the correct synonym for the word given.

Bibelot

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 105

The word “bibelot” means ‘a small curio or a trinket’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 106

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.

Q.Hari was sacked by his boss for a blatant act of _____ he stole company stationary and sold it for profit.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 106

“Turpitude” means ‘shameful wickedness or immorality’ and fits best in the context of this sentence. “Ubiquity” means ‘present everywhere’ and “ostentatious” means ‘rich or showy’. Both the words are contextually incorrect. “Peccadillo” means ‘a minor offense’. This word will contradict the logical tenor o f the sentence- “blatant act o f ____ ” .
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 107

In the following sentences one word or phrase has been used incorrectly. Choose the word that must be changed or modified or deleted to make the sentence correct. There are sentences without any errors too.

Q.Old French hill stations, all across the country, are open round the year to offer a welcome respite to the Frenchmen wanting to beat the heat of the plains below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 107

There is no error in this sentence.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 108

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.

Q. This material is different ………………… that. 

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 109

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.


Q.His father ______ to get him to go to Law school since last year.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 109

As the father’s efforts have been going on since last year, the use of the past continuous tense would be most appropriate here. Option 2 expresses a possibility, which is incongruous with something that has been happening since last year.
Option 3 is in the future tense, and option 4 is in the present tense. This makes the sentence illogical.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 110

Mark the option with the incorrect spelling.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 110

Options 2, 3 and 4 are spelt correctly.
In option l , the correct spelling is ‘abhorrence’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 111

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

It is a question of very great importance, no less morally and politically than fiscally, which of these systems deserves most encouragement- that in which the Government considers the immediate cultivators to be the hereditary proprietors, and, through its own public officers, parcels out the lands among them, and adjusts the rates of rent demandable from every minute partition, as the lands become more and more subdivided by the Hindu and Muslim law of inheritance; or that in which the Government considers him who holds the area of a whole village or estate collectively as the hereditary proprietor, and the immediate cultivators as his lease- tenants- leaving the rates of rent to be adjusted among the parties without the aid of public officers, or interposing only to enforce the fulfillment of their mutual contracts. In the latter of these two systems the land will supply more and better members to the middle and higher classes of the society, and create and preserve a better feeling between them and the peasantry, or immediate cultivators of the soil; and it will occasion the re-investment upon the soil, in works of ornament and utility, of a greater portion of the annual returns of rent and profit, and a less expenditure in the costs of litigation in our civil courts, and bribery to our public officers.
Those who advocate the other system, which makes the immediate cultivators the proprietors, will, for the most part, be found to reason upon false premises - upon the assumption that the rates of rent demandable from the immediate cultivators of the soil were everywhere limited and established by immemorial usage, in a certain sum of money per acre, or a certain share of the crop produced from it; and that 'these rates were not only so limited and fixed, but everywhere well known to the people’, and might, consequently, have become well known to the Government, and recorded in public registers. Now every practical man in India, who has had opportunities of becoming well acquainted with the matter, knows that the reverse is the case; that the rate of rent demandable from these cultivators never was the same upon any two estates at the same time: nor even the same upon any one estate at different limes, or for any consecutive number of years. The rates vary every year on every estate, according to the varying circumstances that influence them - such as greater or less exhaustion of the soil, greater or less facilities of irrigation, manure, transit to market, drainage- or from fortuitous advantages on one hand, or calamities of season on the other; or many other circumstances which affect the value of the land, and the abilities of the cultivators to pay. It is not so much the proprietors of the estate or the Government as the cultivators themselves who demand every year a readjustment of the rate demandable upon their different holdings. This readjustment must take place; and, if there is no landlord to effect it, Government must effect it through its own officers. Every holding becomes subdivided when the cultivating proprietor dies and leaves more than one child; and, as the whole face of the country is open and without hedges, the division is easily and speedily made. Thus the field-map which represents an estate one year will never represent it fairly five years after; in fact, we might almost as well attempt to map the waves of the ocean as field-map the face of any considerable area in any part of India. If there be any truth in my conclusions, our Government has acted unwisely in going, as it has generally done, into [one or other of] the two extremes, in its settlement of the land revenue.

 

Q.What is the writer’s view regarding settlement of "land revenue" ? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 111

Option 2 is incorrect because the paragraph presents the idea of ‘readjustment of the rate of land revenue’ mentioned in option 2 for a different method, one in which a “proprietor” exerts control over the land and the government does not intervene in any way.
Option 3 is incorrect because the passage does not mention anything about profit maximisation. Moreover, readjustment of the settlement of land revenue every year in the paragraph by government is also not mentioned in the passage.
Option 4 is incorrect because it is not related to the question stem in any way.
Option 1 is correct because the paragraph opens with the lines, “It is a question of very great importance, no less morally and politically than fiscally, which of these systems deserves most encouragement”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 112

It is a question of very great importance, no less morally and politically than fiscally, which of these systems deserves most encouragement- that in which the Government considers the immediate cultivators to be the hereditary proprietors, and, through its own public officers, parcels out the lands among them, and adjusts the rates of rent demandable from every minute partition, as the lands become more and more subdivided by the Hindu and Muslim law of inheritance; or that in which the Government considers him who holds the area of a whole village or estate collectively as the hereditary proprietor, and the immediate cultivators as his lease- tenants- leaving the rates of rent to be adjusted among the parties without the aid of public officers, or interposing only to enforce the fulfillment of their mutual contracts. In the latter of these two systems the land will supply more and better members to the middle and higher classes of the society, and create and preserve a better feeling between them and the peasantry, or immediate cultivators of the soil; and it will occasion the re-investment upon the soil, in works of ornament and utility, of a greater portion of the annual returns of rent and profit, and a less expenditure in the costs of litigation in our civil courts, and bribery to our public officers.
Those who advocate the other system, which makes the immediate cultivators the proprietors, will, for the most part, be found to reason upon false premises - upon the assumption that the rates of rent demandable from the immediate cultivators of the soil were everywhere limited and established by immemorial usage, in a certain sum of money per acre, or a certain share of the crop produced from it; and that 'these rates were not only so limited and fixed, but everywhere well known to the people’, and might, consequently, have become well known to the Government, and recorded in public registers. Now every practical man in India, who has had opportunities of becoming well acquainted with the matter, knows that the reverse is the case; that the rate of rent demandable from these cultivators never was the same upon any two estates at the same time: nor even the same upon any one estate at different limes, or for any consecutive number of years. The rates vary every year on every estate, according to the varying circumstances that influence them - such as greater or less exhaustion of the soil, greater or less facilities of irrigation, manure, transit to market, drainage- or from fortuitous advantages on one hand, or calamities of season on the other; or many other circumstances which affect the value of the land, and the abilities of the cultivators to pay. It is not so much the proprietors of the estate or the Government as the cultivators themselves who demand every year a readjustment of the rate demandable upon their different holdings. This readjustment must take place; and, if there is no landlord to effect it, Government must effect it through its own officers. Every holding becomes subdivided when the cultivating proprietor dies and leaves more than one child; and, as the whole face of the country is open and without hedges, the division is easily and speedily made. Thus the field-map which represents an estate one year will never represent it fairly five years after; in fact, we might almost as well attempt to map the waves of the ocean as field-map the face of any considerable area in any part of India. If there be any truth in my conclusions, our Government has acted unwisely in going, as it has generally done, into [one or other of] the two extremes, in its settlement of the land revenue.

 

Q.What could be said to be the major problem with the current settlement of land revenue? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 112

Options 1,2, and 3 are incorrect because though they may pose certain difficulties, they are not stated as the major problem with the current settlement of land revenue.
Option 4 is correct because the passage explicitly states that, “Every holding becomes subdivided ... the division is easily and speedily made. Thus, the field-map which represents an estate one year will never represent it fairly five years after; in fact, we might almost as well attempt to map the waves of the ocean as field-map the face of any considerable area in any part of India. If there be any truth in my conclusions, our Government has acted unwisely in going, as it has generally done, into (one or other of) the two extremes, in its settlement of the land revenue.” Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 113

It is a question of very great importance, no less morally and politically than fiscally, which of these systems deserves most encouragement- that in which the Government considers the immediate cultivators to be the hereditary proprietors, and, through its own public officers, parcels out the lands among them, and adjusts the rates of rent demandable from every minute partition, as the lands become more and more subdivided by the Hindu and Muslim law of inheritance; or that in which the Government considers him who holds the area of a whole village or estate collectively as the hereditary proprietor, and the immediate cultivators as his lease- tenants- leaving the rates of rent to be adjusted among the parties without the aid of public officers, or interposing only to enforce the fulfillment of their mutual contracts. In the latter of these two systems the land will supply more and better members to the middle and higher classes of the society, and create and preserve a better feeling between them and the peasantry, or immediate cultivators of the soil; and it will occasion the re-investment upon the soil, in works of ornament and utility, of a greater portion of the annual returns of rent and profit, and a less expenditure in the costs of litigation in our civil courts, and bribery to our public officers.
Those who advocate the other system, which makes the immediate cultivators the proprietors, will, for the most part, be found to reason upon false premises - upon the assumption that the rates of rent demandable from the immediate cultivators of the soil were everywhere limited and established by immemorial usage, in a certain sum of money per acre, or a certain share of the crop produced from it; and that 'these rates were not only so limited and fixed, but everywhere well known to the people’, and might, consequently, have become well known to the Government, and recorded in public registers. Now every practical man in India, who has had opportunities of becoming well acquainted with the matter, knows that the reverse is the case; that the rate of rent demandable from these cultivators never was the same upon any two estates at the same time: nor even the same upon any one estate at different limes, or for any consecutive number of years. The rates vary every year on every estate, according to the varying circumstances that influence them - such as greater or less exhaustion of the soil, greater or less facilities of irrigation, manure, transit to market, drainage- or from fortuitous advantages on one hand, or calamities of season on the other; or many other circumstances which affect the value of the land, and the abilities of the cultivators to pay. It is not so much the proprietors of the estate or the Government as the cultivators themselves who demand every year a readjustment of the rate demandable upon their different holdings. This readjustment must take place; and, if there is no landlord to effect it, Government must effect it through its own officers. Every holding becomes subdivided when the cultivating proprietor dies and leaves more than one child; and, as the whole face of the country is open and without hedges, the division is easily and speedily made. Thus the field-map which represents an estate one year will never represent it fairly five years after; in fact, we might almost as well attempt to map the waves of the ocean as field-map the face of any considerable area in any part of India. If there be any truth in my conclusions, our Government has acted unwisely in going, as it has generally done, into [one or other of] the two extremes, in its settlement of the land revenue.

 

Q.Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Public officers are essential to help smooth out the process of adjusting the rates of rent.
B. Reinvestment upon the soil of a small portion of the annual returns of profit will ensure better productivity in the coming years.
C. Public registers often provide people with information regarding land revenue.
 

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 113

Statement A cannot be inferred from the paragraph. The paragraph clearly states that rent adjustments apply to the “propietory” method where government is not involved in specifying the rates of rent.
Statement B can be inferred from the paragraph. The passage states, “it will occasion the re- investment upon the soil, in works of ornament and utility, of a greater portion of the annual returns of rent and profit, and a less expenditure in the costs of litigation in our civil courts, and bribery to our public officers” resulting in better productivity.
Statement C can be inferred from the passage. It states, “these rates were not only so limited and fixed, but everywhere well known to the people, and might, consequently, have become well known to the Government, and recorded in public registers.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 114

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option

Q.Since she had been through an accident herself, she was of my condition.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 114

To be “emphatic” about something is to ‘lay a higher emphasis’, ‘sympathy’ is associated with ‘compassion’ while being “empathetic” is identifying with ‘a feeling or an experience after having a similar experience’ and “simpatico” is ‘a congenial feeling between like-minded people’.
Since the sentence talks about the subject having gone through an accident herself, she is more likely to be “empathetic” towards somebody who has had a similar experience.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 115

Each of the questions below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

A. The major awards are presented at a live televised ceremony, most commonly in February or March following the relevant calendar year, and six weeks after the announcement of the nominees.
B. The Academy has for several years claimed that the award show has a billion viewers internationally, but this has so far not been confirmed by any independent sources.
C. Neither has the Academy explained how it has reached this figure.
D. Black tie dress is the most common outfit for men, although fashion may dictate not wearing a bow-tie, and musical performers typically do not adhere to this.
E. This is an elaborate extravaganza, with the invited guests walking up the red carpet in the creations of the most prominent fashion designers of the day.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 115

Options suggest that there is an almost definite A-E and B-C link as three out of four options have it i.e. all except 1. Let us examine these options separately. The D-E link in option 1 talks about the dressing preferences of the guests first and then introduces them. This again portrays an illogical flow. Hence, option 1 can be eliminated.
A and B are the only choices for the opening statement of the paragraph in the context of the topic. D may also appear to a contender but it is quite weak when compared to A and B. Here, the emphasis seems to be on the awards rather than the Academy. Thus A becomes the only choice for the opening statement. This eliminates option 3.
The BC link fits better after AED compared to before.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 116

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option

_______ is used to indicate the omission of a letter or letters.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 116

The apostrophe is used to show the omission of a letter or letters such as “don’t” in place of “do not” or “I’ve” instead of “I have”. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 117

Identify the part of this sentence that is grammatically incorrect.

A. It’s a good bet that when debates keep going in circles for years

B. and then decades, the answer doesn’t lie in more empirical evidence, but rather

C. in mixing conceptual clarification and ideological posturing.

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 117

There is a parallelism error in part C. The noun “evidence” needs to be balanced in part C with a noun to maintain the parallelism. Hence, part C should read as 'in a mix of conceptual clarification and ideological posturing'.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 118

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom highlighted in italics in the following sentence.

“Never look a gift horse in the mouth” means:

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 118

“Never look a gift horse in the mouth” means ‘not to be thankless when you receive a gift’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 119

Choose the synonym of the given word.

 Iniquitous

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 119

The meaning of “iniquitous” is ‘grossly unfair and morally wrong’. “Wicked” is synonymous to the given word. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 120

Pick the correct antonym for the word given

 Perdurable

Detailed Solution for Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 120

The word “perdurable” means ‘something that is long-lasting’ which is the same as “eternal”. Eliminate option 1, as it is a synonym.
The words “strong” and “distant” are not-related to duration and are not antonyms of the given word. Eliminate options 2 and 4.

“Ephemeral” which means ‘fleeting or short-lived’ is the correct answer.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 121

Which of the following became the first blind-friendly Railway Station in India with the unveiling of the station's tactile map and train schedule in Braille?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 122

In Himachal Pradesh, PM Narendra Modi dedicated 3 hydro electric projects to the nation.2 being Koldam hydro electric project and Parbati hydro electric project, which is the 3rd project?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 123

Who was crowned Mr.Asia 2016 at the recently concluded 5th Phil-Asia bodybuilding championships held in the Philippines?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 124

Which state launched India’s first e-Vidhan mobile app?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 125

Which State government has launched the PEHAL programme recently?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 126

Which team is ranked number 1 in the world in the current FIFA men’s rankings?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 127

Where was the first emergency number system used in the world?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 128

Which British Formula One (F1) racing driver won the Mexican Grand Prix?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 129

In 2015, Flipkart acquired which of the following companies?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 130

Who is the author of the book “Rebooting Government”?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 131

Which is the most watched Hindi channel in India?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 132

Which of the following glacial lakes near Mount Everest has been drained by Nepal recently?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 133

Which Indian-American author won the coveted Folio Prize 2015?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 134

Who was honoured with the prestigious Merlin award in Sep 2015 by the International Magicians Association (IMA) in Mumbai? 

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 135

Which Indian Bank became the first domestic bank to open branch in Yangon, Myanmar?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 136

Where is the 4th edition of India-SriLanka Joint Military exercise Mitra Shakti 2016 being held?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 137

The scientists of which Indian institute or university have developed a catalyst to render the drinking water E-Coli free?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 138

On the lines of Centre government’s Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, which State government had launched the Swacchata Saptapadi?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 139

Which of the following organizations was India’s market regulator before the existence of SEBI?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 140

Who was declared ‘Man of the Series’ in the recently concluded India-New Zealand 5-match ODI cricket series?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 141

Which state government launched the ‘Aapki Beti Hamari Beti’ scheme?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 142

​Facebook acquired which shopping search engine in 2015?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 143

Name the first woman to climb Mount Everest.

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 144

Who designed Zabivaka, the official mascot of the 2018 FIFA World Cup?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 145

Name the Indians who won the Whitley Award 2015 for Wildlife Conservation?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 146

Who is the author of the book titled ‘Citizen and Society’ that was released by the President Pranab Mukherjee recently?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 147

Union Government launched a scheme for online booking of LPG cylinders.What is the name of the scheme?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 148

What is the name given to the largest planet recently discovered by NASA astronomers that orbits 2 suns?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 149

Which country launched its longest manned space mission?

Practice Mock Test for SNAP - 8 - Question 150

Who among the following won the prestigious 2015 Peter Mackler Award for courageous and ethical journalism?

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