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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test RRB NTPC - Previous Year Papers - RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1)

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 is part of RRB NTPC - Previous Year Papers preparation. The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) questions and answers have been prepared according to the RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA exam syllabus.The RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) MCQs are made for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) below.
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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 1

Vasco Da Gama landed at _______ in 1498.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 1

The correct answer is Calicut.

Key Points

  • Portuguese explorer Vasco Da Gama discovered the sea route from Portugal to India and came to India in 1498 at Calicut.
  • He belonged to Portugal and the discovery of the sea route became essential as the Ottomans occupied Constantinople (present-day Istanbul) and stopped the trade through the land route.
  • Vasco da Gama’s fleet arrived in Kappadu near Kozhikode (Calicut), on the Malabar Coast (present-day the Kerala state of India).
  • The King of Calicut at that time was Samudiri (Zamorin).
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 2

Five colleagues, Chand, Chandini, Nidhi, Vikram and Ajay, are sitting in a row facing north. Nidhi and Chandini occupy the extreme ends of the row. Vikram is sitting exactly in the centre. No two people with the name starting with the same letter are immediate neighbours of each other. Ajay is sitting to the immediate left of Vikram. Who sits in the right extreme?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 2

Five colleagues - Chand, Chandini, Nidhi, Vikram and Ajay, are sitting in a row facing north.

1. Nidhi and Chandini occupy the extreme ends of the row.

2. Vikram is sitting exactly in the centre.

3. Ajay is sitting to the immediate left of Vikram.

4. No two people with the name starting with the same letter are immediate neighbours of each other.

Clearly, Chand and Chandini are not immediate neighbours of each other from the above statement.

Case II is eliminated following the above statement.

So, the final arrangement will be as shown below:

Clearly, Nidhi sits in the right extreme.

Hence, 'Nidhi' is the correct answer.

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RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 3

The ratio of incomes of A and B is 5 : 7 and the ratio of their savings is 2 : 3. If A and B spend ₹35,400 and ₹48,600, respectively, then what is the difference (in₹) between the incomes of B and A?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 3

Given:

The ratio of incomes of A and B is 5 : 7

The ratio of their savings is 2 : 3

A and B spend ₹35,400 and ₹48,600

Concept used:

Savings = Income - Expense

Caclulation:

Let the income of A and B be 5x and 7x and savings 2y and 3y

According to the question,

5x - 2y = 35400 ----(i)

7x - 3y = 48600 ----(ii)

By multiplying 3 with eq (i) and 2 with eq (ii) we get,

15x - 6y = 106200 ----(iii)

14x - 6y = 97200 ----(iv)

By subtracting eq (iv) from eq (iii) we get

x = 9000

So, incomes of A = 9000 × 5 = Rs. 45000

Income of B = 9000 × 7 = Rs. 63000

Difference = 63000 - 45000

⇒ Rs. 18000

The difference (in₹) between the incomes of B and A is 18000.

Alternate Method 

Now, according to the question,

(5x - 35400)/(7x - 48600) = 2/3

⇒ 15x - 106200 = 14x - 97200

⇒ x = 9000

Difference (in₹) between the incomes of B and A

7x - 5x = 2x = 2 × (9000) = 18000

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 4

In ΔABC, the bisectors of B and C intersect at P inside the triangle. If BPC = 128°, then what is the measure of A?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 4

Give:

∠BPC = 128°

Concept used:

In a ΔABC angle at the meeting points of internal angle bisectors of ∠B and ∠C = 90° + ∠A/2

Calculation:

According to the concept,

∠A/2 + 90° = ∠BPC

⇒ ∠A/2 + 90° = 128°

⇒ ∠A/2 = 128° - 90°

⇒ ∠A/2 = 38°

⇒ ∠A = 38° × 2 = 76°

∴ The measure of ∠A is 76°.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 5

In a certain code language, the letters of the English alphabet are coded as per their alphabetical order (A as 1 and Z as 26). However, if a consonant is immediately followed as well as preceded by a vowel, its code would be '77'.

What will be the code for 'WHITEN' in this language?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 5

The pattern/logic followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

The code for T will be 77 as it is immediately followed as well as preceded by a vowel.

Hence, ‘238977514’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 6
The difference between 12% gain and 4% loss on sale of the item was ₹28. What was the cost price of the item?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 6

Given:

The difference between 12% gain and 4% loss on sale of the item was ₹28

Concept used:

SP = CP + CP × gain%

SP = CP - CP × loss%

Here

SP = selling price

CP = cost price

Calculation:

Let the CP of the item be 100a

SP at 12% gain on CP = 100a + 100a × 12%

⇒ 112a

SP at 4% of loss on CP = 100a - 100a × 4%

⇒ 96a

According to the question,

112a - 96a = 28

⇒ 16a = 28

⇒ a = 28/16

Now, CP = 100 × (28/16)

⇒ Rs. 175

The cost price of the item is Rs. 175.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 7
What had been the Global Birth Rate (crude) in the year 2020, according to World Bank?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 7

The correct answer is 17.98.

Key Points

  • The Global Birth Rate (crude) in the year 2020 is 17.98, according to World Bank.
  • Birth rate of World went down by 1.13 % from 18.2 per 1,000 people in 2019 to 17.98 per 1,000 people in 2020.
  • The world's total crude birth rate was estimated at 3,713.07 births per thousand population in 2020.
  • The Global Birth Rate is used to calculate another fundamental measure, the rate of natural increase.

Important Points

  • Crude birth rate
    • indicates the number of live births occurring during the year, per 1,000 population estimated at midyear.
  • Crude Death Rate
    • ​Calculated as the number of deaths in a given period divided by the population exposed to the risk of death in that period.
    • For human populations the period is usually one year.
  • Subtracting the crude death rate from the crude birth rate provides the rate of natural increase, which is equal to the rate of population change in the absence of migration.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 8

Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and fourth term related to the third term.

SUGAR : 11 :: PILOT : 12 :: HOTEL : ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 8

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

The logic followed here is:

(Sum of position value of consonant - sum of position value of vowel) ÷ 2 = code

SUGAR : 11

And,

PILOT : 12

Similarly,

HOTEL : ?

Hence, ‘10’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 9

Which of the following numbers is divisible by 7, 11 and 13?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 9

Concept used:

7 × 11 × 13 = 1001, when any 3 digit number multiplied by 1001 then it repeats itself and always completely divisible by 7,11 and 13.

Calculation:

Option A:

1002001 is divisible by 1001

Option B:

1003001 is not divisible by 1001

Option C:

1005001 is not divisible by 1001

Option D:

1004001 is not divisible by 1001

∴ Required answer is Option A.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 10
The Provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief has been entrusted in the Indian Constitution as one of the:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 10

The correct answer is directive principles of state policy.

Key Points

  • Article 42 of the constitution under DPSP (directive principles of state policy)states:
    • The State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
  • ​A welfare state is a concept of government where the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social welfare of its citizens.
  • DPSPs promote the ideal of the welfare state by emphasizing the state to promote the welfare of people by providing them with basic facilities like shelter, food, and clothing.

Additional Information

  • Directive principles of state policy
    • Articles 36-51 of Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deal with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
    • They are borrowed from the constitution of Ireland.
    • They act as directives to the government to create any law.
    • They act as the ‘instrument of instructions’.
  • Fundamental rights
    • Articles 12-35 of Part - III of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights.
    • Fundamental rights are enforceable in a court of law.
    • These human rights are conferred upon the citizens of India for the Constitution tells that these rights are inviolable.
    • Six main fundamental rights.
  • Fundamental Duties
    • 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
    • 86th Amendment Act 2002 later added the 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.
    • Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended Fundamental Duties.
    • ​The Fundamental Duties are dealt with in Article 51A under Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
    • Non enforceable in a court of law.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 11

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

18, 27, 34, 39, 42, ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 11

The logic is:

Hence, ‘43’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 12

If

'A # B' means 'A is the father of B',

'A $ B' means 'A is the mother of B',

'A @ B' means 'A is the husband of B',

'A % B' means 'A is the wife of B'

'A = B' means 'A is the brother of B',

then how is P related to V in the following expression?

P @ Q $ U = R % S # V

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 12

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

P @ Q $ U = R % S # V → P is the husband of Q, Q is the mother of U, U is the brother of R, R is the wife of S, S is the father of V.

Clearly, P is the Maternal grandfather of V.

Hence, ‘Maternal grandfather’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 13
If 75% of a number is added to 75, then the result is the number itself. The number is:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 13

Given:

If 75% of a number is added to 75, then the result is the number itself.

Calculation:

Let the number be 100a

According to the question,

100a × 75% + 75 = 100a

⇒ 75a + 75 = 100a

⇒ 75 = 100a - 75a

⇒ 75 = 25a

⇒ a = 75/25 = 3

So, the number = 100 × 3

⇒ 300

∴ The number is 300.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 14

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used in a Windows 10 system to switch between open applications?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 14

The correct answer is Alt + Tab.

Key Points

  • Alt+Tab
    • The keyboard shortcut is most often used to switch between open programs in Microsoft Windows 10.
  • Alt + S
    • ​Alt+S is a keyboard shortcut most often used to open the slide show settings in PowerPoint.
  • Ctrl + S​
    • ​In Microsoft Word and other word processors, pressing Ctrl + S saves the current document.
  • Ctrl + Tab​
    • Ctrl+Tab is a keyboard shortcut most often used to switch between open tabs in a browser.

Additional Information

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 15
A can complete a piece of work in 10 days. B is 25% more efficient than A. How many days will B alone take to complete the same work?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 15

Given:

A can complete a piece of work in 10 days

B is 25% more efficient than A.

Concept used:

Total work = efficiency of the worker × time taken by him

Calculation:

Let A's efficiency is 4a

So, B's efficiency = 4a + 4a × 25%

⇒ 5a

Now,

total work = 4a × 10

⇒ 40a

So, B will take to complete the task = 40a/5a

⇒ 8 days

B alone will take 8 days to complete the same work.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 16

The area of a rectangular field, whose sides are in the ratio 13 : 5, is 260 m². What is the perimeter of the rectangular field?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 16

Given:

Side ratio of the rectangle = 13 : 5

Area of the rectangle = 260 m2

Formula used:

Area of the rectangle = (l × b)

Perimeter of the rectange = 2(l + b)

l = length

b = breadth

Calculation:

Let the sides of the rectangle be 13a and 5a

According to the question,

13a × 5a = 260

⇒ 65a2 = 260

⇒ a2 = 4

⇒ a = 2

So, sides are 13 × 2 = 26, and 5 × 2 = 10

Now,

Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(26 + 10)

⇒ 2 × 36 = 72

So, perimeter of the rectangle = 72 m

∴ The perimeter of the rectangular field is 72 m

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 17

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the equation correct?

12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 17

BODMAS Rule:-

A. × and +

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 + 3 ÷ 4 × 6 - 2

= 12 + 4.5 – 2

= 16.5 – 2

= 14.5 ≠ R.H.S

B. ÷ and +

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 × 3 + 4 ÷ 6 - 2

= 36 + 0.67 – 2

= 36.67 – 2

= 34.67 ≠ R.H.S

C. + and –

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 × 3 ÷ 4 - 6 + 2

= 9 – 6 + 2

= 11 – 6

= 5 ≠ R.H.S

D. × and ÷

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 ÷ 3 × 4 + 6 - 2

= 16 + 6 – 2

= 22 – 2

= 20 = R.H.S

Hence, ‘× and ÷’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 18

What is the compound interest on a sum of ₹19,500 invested for 1 2/5  years at 10% p.a., interest compounded annually?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 18

Given:

Sum = Rs. 19500

Rate = 10%

Time =  1 2/5 years

Concept used:

A = P(1 + r/100)n

Interest = A - P

A = amount

P = principal or sum

r = rate

n = time

Calculation:

Interest rate for 2/5 years = 10 × (2/5) = 4%

Now,

A = 19500(1 + 10/100)1 × (1 + 10/100)2/5

⇒ A = 19500(1 + 10/100) × (1 + 4/100)

⇒ A = 19500(1 + 1/10) × (1 + 1/25)

⇒ A = 19500(11/10) × (26/25)

⇒ A = 22308

So, interest of the given years = 22308 - 19500

⇒ Rs. 2808

∴ Required compound interest is Rs. 2808.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 19

Avinash is ranked 11th from the top in the class and Ira is ranked 7th from the bottom. If their positions get interchanged, Avinash will rank 15th from the top and Ira is ranked 11th from the bottom. How many total students appeared for the exam?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 19

Given:

  1. Avinash is ranked 11th from the top in the class.
  2. Ira is ranked 7th from the bottom.

If their positions get interchanged, Avinash will rank 15th from the top and Ira is ranked 11th from the bottom.

Total students appeared for the exams :

Ira's rank from the bottom + After interchanged position Avinash's rank from the top (Ira's rank from the top) - 1

= 7 + 15 - 1 = 22 -1 = 21

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (C): 21".

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 20

The value of ( × ÷ ) × - is:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 20

Given:

( × ÷ ) × -

Concept used:

Calculation:

( × ÷ ) × -

⇒ ( × × ) × -

⇒ 4 × 3/8 - 2/3

⇒ 3/2 - 2/3

⇒ 9 - 4/6

⇒ 5/6

∴ Required answer is 5/6 .

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 21
According to the Industrial Policy Statement of 1973, the private sector was allowed to apply for the license of their industry only after having a total assets of ₹ ______ or more.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 21

The correct answer is 20 crores.

Key Points

  • According to the Industrial Policy Statement of 1973:
    • the private sector was allowed to apply for the license of their industry only after having total assets of Rs. 20 crores or more.

Important Points

  • Industrial Policy Statement, 1973
  • Core Industries
    • The policy introduced a new classification of ‘Core Industries’.
    • It included six industries that were of fundamental importance for developing other industries – Iron & Steel, Cement, Coal, Crude Oil, Oil Refining & electricity.
    • Note: At that time, there were 6 Core Industries. Now there are 8:
      • Coal
      • Crude Oil
      • Cement
      • Fertilizer
      • Electricity
      • Refinery Products
      • Natural Gas
      • Steel

Additional Information

  • Private Companies
    • Private Companies may apply for licenses under Core industries if they aren’t covered under Schedule A.
    • They were eligible only if their total assets were above Rs. 20 crores.
  • Reserved List
    • Some industries were put under a reserved list in which only MSME could set up industry.
  • Joint Sector
    • It allowed partnership between the centre, states & private sector for setting up some industries.
    • The government had discretionary power to exit such ventures in the future.
    • The intention was to promote the private sector with government support.
  • FERA
    • Foreign Exchange Regulation Act was introduced to regulate foreign exchange in India.
    • According to experts, it was draconian law that hampered the country’s growth.
  • Foreign Investment
    • Limited permission for foreign investment was given, with MNCs being allowed to set up subsidiaries in India.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 22

Select the number from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given series.

0,7, 26, 63, 124, ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 22

The logic is:

13 - 1 = 1 - 1 = 0

23 - 1 = 8 - 1 = 7

33 - 1 = 27 - 1 = 26

43 - 1 = 64 - 1 = 63

53 - 1 = 125 - 1 = 124

63 - 1 = 216 - 1 = 215

Hence, ‘215’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 23
If , where y > 0, then the value of y is:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 23

Calculation:

⇒ y = 44 = 256

∴ Required answer is 256.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 24

Which of the following river basins is the most populated in the world?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 24

The correct answer is Ganga.

Key Points

  • The Ganga System
    • The Ganga is the most important river of India both from the point of view of its basin and cultural significance.
    • It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi.
    • It cuts through the Central and the Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges.
    • At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; hereafter, it is known as the Ganga.
    • The Alaknanda has its source in the Satopanth glacier above Badrinath.
      • The Alaknanda consists of the Dhauli and the Vishnu Ganga which meet at Joshimath or Vishnu Prayag.
      • The other tributaries of Alaknanda such as the Pindar joins it at Karna Prayag while Mandakini or Kali Ganga meets it at Rudra Prayag.
    • The Ganga enters the plains at Haridwar. From here, it flows first to the south, then to the south-east and east before splitting into two distributaries, namely the Bhagirathi and the Padma.
    • The river has a length of 2,525 km.
    • It is shared by Uttarakhand (110 km) and Uttar Pradesh (1,450 km), Bihar (445 km) and West Bengal (520 km).

Additional Information

  • Nile
    • ​The Nile is the longest river in the world and is called the father of African rivers.
    • It rises south of the Equator and flows northward through northeastern Africa to drain into the Mediterranean Sea.
    • Drainage countries - Parts of Tanzania, Burundi, Rwanda, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Kenya, Uganda, South Sudan, Ethiopia, Sudan, and the cultivated part of Egypt.
    • Lake Victoria, also called Victoria Nyanza, the largest lake in Africa and the chief reservoir of the Nile, lying mainly in Tanzania and Uganda but bordering on Kenya.
  • Mississippi
    • The Mississippi River is the 2nd longest river in North America.
    • Its source at Lake Itasca through the centre of the continental United States to the Gulf of Mexico.
    • The Missouri River is a tributary of the Mississippi River.
    • The Mississippi-Missouri River (5,970km), combination ranks 4th compared to other rivers of the World.
  • Amazon
    • It is the largest river by discharge volume of water in the world.
    • The Amazon river originates in the Andes Mountains of Peru.
    • It flows through the countries of Peru, Bolivia, Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, and Brazil.
    • Amazon river discharges its water into the Atlantic Ocean.
    • There are no bridges across the entire width of the Amazon river.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 25
Determine the number of months required to get ₹25.5 as simple interest on ₹850 at 3.6% per annum.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 25

Given:

Sum = Rs. 850

Rate = 3.6%

Interest = 25.5

Concept used:

S.I = PTR/100

P = Principal or sum

R = rate

T = time

Calculation:

Let the time be a months

According to the question,

25.5 = [(850 × 3.6 × a)/(100 × 12)]

⇒ 25.5 = 2.55a

⇒ a = 25.5/2.55

⇒ a = 10

So, the actual time needs to get the interest = 10 months

∴ Required time to get the required interest is 10 months.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 26

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table; four of them sit at the 4 corners, while four sit at the middle of the sides. The ones who sit at the corners face the centre, while those who sit at the middle of the sides face outside. F sits fourth to the left of D. D faces outside.

C is immediate to the right of F. A sits third to the right of the H. Only two persons sit between G and B. E is to the immediate right of B and to the immediate left of F. H sits second to the right of the E. What is the position of A with respect to D?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 26

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table; four of them sit at the 4 corners, while four sit at the middle of the sides. The ones who sit at the corners face the centre, while those who sit at the middle of the sides face outside.

1. F sits fourth to the left of D. D faces outside.

2. C is immediate to the right of F.

3. E is to the immediate right of B and to the immediate left of F.

4. H sits second to the right of the E.

5. A sits third to the right of the H.

6. Only two persons sit between G and B.

Clearly, A is second to the left of D.

Hence, 'Second to the left' is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 27

Assuming 8th March 2013 was a Wednesday, what day of the week was 8th March 2014?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 27

The total number of odd days from 8th March 2013 to 8th March 2014 are

Total Odd days = 1

Given:

8th March 2013 → Wednesday

2014 is an ordinary year, so 8th March 2014 will be one day ahead of 8th March 2013.

Therefore, it will be Thursday on 8th March 2014.

Hence, ‘Thursday’ is the correct answer.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 28
The Parliament of India comprises of:
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 28

The correct answer is President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha.

Key Points

  • Article- 79: There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.

Additional Information

  • Indian Parliament:
    • Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India.
    • The Indian Parliament comprises the President and the two Houses - Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and Lok Sabha (House of the People).
    • The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha.
    • The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950.
    • The first general elections under the new Constitution were held during the year 1951-52 and the first elected Parliament came into existence in April 1952.
RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 29

Which of the following was the leading oil producing country in the world for the year 2020, according to US Energy Information Administration?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 29

The correct answer is USA.

Key Points

  • According to US Energy Information Administration, the USA is the leading oil-producing country in the world for the year 2020.
  • The 10 largest oil producers and share of total world oil production in 2020-21.

Additional Information
The 10 largest oil consumers and share of total world oil consumption in 2020-21.

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 30

Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related with the Executive powers of the Union?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Question Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) - Question 30

The correct answer is 53.

Key Points Article 53: Executive Power of the Union

  • The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.
  • Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union Shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.
  • Nothing in this article shall
    • be deemed to transfer to the President any functions conferred by any existing law on the Government of any State or other authority; or
    • prevent Parliament from conferring by law functions on authorities other than the President.

Thus, we can conclude that under Article 53 of the Constitution of India, the executive power of the union is vested in the President.

Additional Information

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