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RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test RRB NTPC Mock Test Series 2025 - RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 is part of RRB NTPC Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA exam syllabus.The RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 MCQs are made for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 below.
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RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 1

Which of the following woman became first to win the Grand Swiss in November 2023?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 1

The Correct Answer is R Vaishali.

In News

  • Vaishali, Vidit win FIDE Grand Swiss women’s and open titles in rare double for India, both qualify for Candidates.

Key Points

  • R Vaishali and Vidit Gujrathi clinched the women’s and open category titles respectively in the FIDE Grand Swiss in a rare double for India on the world stage, with both players also qualifying for the prestigious Candidates tournament.
  • While Vaishali played out a draw with Batkhuyag Mungutuul of Mongolia in the 11th and final round to bag the women’s title.
  • Vidit beat Alexandr Predke of Serbia to record his seventh victory in the event and take the top spot in open section.
  • Vaishali became the first Indian to win the Grand Swiss and will have her task cut out in the Candidates alongside India’s first woman Grandmaster — Subbaraman Vijayalakshmi.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 2

Which of the following rural housing schemes by the Government of India is re-structured into Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awas Yojana?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 2

The correct answer is Indira Awas Yojana.
Key Points
Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana- Gramin (PMAY-G)

  • To achieve the objective of Housing for All by 2022, the erstwhile rural housing scheme Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY) was restructured to Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) w.e.f 1st April 2016. Hence, Option B is correct.
  • This scheme was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development.
  • This scheme aims to provide a pucca house with basic amenities to all rural families, who are homeless or living in kutcha or dilapidated houses by the end of March 2022.
  • To help rural people Below the Poverty Line (BPL) in the construction of dwelling units and the upgradation of existing unserviceable kutcha houses by assisting in the form of a full grant.
  • Beneficiaries of this scheme are People belonging to SCs/STs, freed bonded laborers and non-SC/ST categories, widows or next-of-kin of defense personnel killed in action, ex-servicemen, and retired members of the paramilitary forces, disabled persons, and minorities.
  • The Selection of Beneficiaries through a three stage validation - Socio-Economic Caste Census 2011, Gram Sabha, and geo-tagging.
  • The cost of unit assistance is shared between Central and State Governments in the ratio 60:40 in plain areas and 90:10 for North Eastern and hilly states.

Important Points

  • Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban
    • Launch: 25th June 2015, intends to provide housing for all in urban areas by the year 2022.
    • Implemented by: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
  • Indira Awas Yojana
    • It is related to the construction of rural housing.
    • It was launched in 1985.
    • Indira Awas Yojana was launched by then prime minister Rajiv Gandhi.
    • The scheme was implemented under the Ministry of Rural Development.
    • It was subsumed in Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY) in 1989.
    • Indira Awas Yojana was changed into an independent scheme on 1st January 1996.
    • The government of India re-structured Indira Awas Yojana as Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awas Yojana in 2016.
    • Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) Mission launched on 25th June 2015 which intends to provide housing for all in urban areas by the year 2022.

Additional Information

  • Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana is the restructured version of erstwhile Jawahar Rozgar Yojana.
    • It was launched on 1st April 1999.
  • Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana (DAY) was a scheme launched for the uplift of urban poor folks by enhancing sustainable livelihood opportunities through skill development.
    • It was launched under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (HUPA).
  • Rajiv Awas Yojana (RAY) is a scheme that focuses on slum dwellers and the urban poor.
    • It was launched in June 2011 in two phases
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RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 3

The deficiency of which of the following vitamins is considered responsible for night-blindness?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 3

The correct answer is A.

Key PointsVitamin A:

  • Vitamin A is an important vitamin that plays a major role in our vision.
  • It helps in the production of certain pigments that are important for the proper functioning of the retina.
  • Vitamin A deficiency is the major cause of severe diseases, infections and preventable blindness in children.
  • It is one of the major causes of night blindness in pregnant women.
  • It also affects the immune system and results in deaths from malaria, diarrhoea and measles.
  • Night blindness is a disease that is caused due to deficiency of vitamin A in food.
    • Night blindness (nyctalopia) is a condition in which people are unable to see clearly at night or in dim light.
    • The formation of retinal, a component of rhodopsin, requires vitamin A.
  • Some of the food sources of vitamin A are vegetables, fruits and dairy products.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 4

Who among the following personalities is associated with the musical instrument Flute?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 4

The correct answer is Pandit Hari Prasad Chaurasia.
Key Points

  • He was born in Prayagraj.
  • Famous classical flutist of the Hindustani classical tradition.
  • Chaurasia belonged to the Maihar Senia Gharana (a community of performers who share a distinctive musical style), and he developed a rich personal style after years of experimentation and dedicated practice.
  • Learned under the tutelage of famous flute player Bholanath Prasanna.
  • Formed a group called Shiv-Hari with Santoor player Shiv Kumar Sharma.
  • Was honored with many awards
    • The Sangeet Natak Academy Award 1984
    • Padma Bhushan 1992,
    • Kalidas Samman 1999,
    • Padma Vibhushan 2000,
    • Sangeet Natak Academy Fellowship Award 2012, etc

Additional Information

  • Ustad Zakir Hussain is a tabla player, percussionist, and composer who is known for his contributions to the world of Indian classical music.
    • He has collaborated with several famous musicians, including Pandit Ravi Shankar and John McLaughlin.
  • Ustad Bismillah Khan was a Shehnai player who is known for his mastery of the instrument.
    • He was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in recognition of his contributions to music.
  • Ustad Vilayat Khan was a sitar player who is considered one of the greatest musicians of his generation.
    • He was known for his innovative style and technical virtuosity.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 5

Who founded the 'Indian Home Rule Society' in London?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 5

The correct answer is Shyamji Krishna Verma.
Key Points

  • Shyamji Krishna Varma was an Indian freedom fighter, lawyer, and journalist.
  • Shyamji Krishna Varma founded the 'Indian Home Rule Society' in London.
  • He came to Britain in 1879 as a Sanskrit scholar.
  • Indian Home Rule Society in London was established in 1905.
  • He also established India House in Highgate (at 65 Cromwell Avenue) in London in 1905.
  • India House in Highgate was established as a hostel for Indian students, which became a meeting place for Indian revolutionaries in London.
  • The journal "the Indian sociologist" was founded by Shyamji Krishna Varma.
  • He moved to Paris in 1907 to escape from arrest and censure by the British Government in relation to his published inflammatory material.
  • He died in Geneva in 1930.

Additional Information

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 6

Ball bearings are used to convert static friction into

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 6

The correct option is rolling friction.
Key Points
Ball Bearings:

  • A device known as a ball-bearing is made up of two rings and two freely moving metal balls.
  • It is intended to prevent sliding by forcing a machine's moving elements to roll over one another.
  • The static friction is changed into rolling friction by them.

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 7
61st Constitutional Amendment act is related to-
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 7

The correct answer is Lowering the age of voting from 21 to 18.

Key Points

  • The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 of the Constitution of India lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States.
  • It reduces the age from 21 years to 18 years.

Additional Information

  • The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 made elementary education a fundamental right.
    • It added to article 21 A which states that the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years in such manner a the state may determine.
  • the 1st Amendment Act, 1951 added ninth schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included in it from the judicial review.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 8

Which ministry has organized the Divya Kala Mela event in Agartala, Tripura?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 8

The correct answer is Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.

In News

  • Divya Kala Mela 2024 inaugurated in Agartala, Tripura.

Key Points

  • The Divya Kala Mela event in Agartala, Tripura, has been organized by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan), under the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Government of India.
  • This initiative aims to showcase the products and craftsmanship of Divyang entrepreneurs and artisans from across the country.
  • The event provides a platform for economic empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (PwD) and promotes their skills and talents.
  • It is part of a series of similar events organized by the ministry in different locations across India, with Agartala being the latest in the series.
  • Through such initiatives, the ministry endeavors to support and uplift the Divyang community by providing opportunities for showcasing their products and enhancing their livelihoods.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 9

Which among the following straits divide Sri Lanka from India?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 9

The correct answer is Palk Strait.

Key Points

A strait is a narrow channel of water that joins two water bodies and separates two land masses.

Palk Strait

  • The strait is between southeastern India and northern Sri Lanka.
  • The southwestern portion of the strait is also called Palk Bay.
  • The strait is named after Robert Palk, who was a governor of Madras during the Company Raj period.
  • The strait is 40 to 85 miles (64 to 137 km) wide, 85 miles long, and less than 330 feet (100 meters) deep.
  • It receives several rivers, including the Vaigai (India), and it contains many islands on the Sri Lankan side.
  • The port of Jaffna, the commercial center for northern Sri Lanka, lies on the strait.

Additional Information

Important Points

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 10

Which of the following compounds is NOT likely to form an ionic bond?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 10

The correct answer is CO2.

Key Points

  • Ionic bonds occur when there is a complete transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
  • This usually happens between a metal and a nonmetal atom.
  • The atom that loses an electron becomes a positively charged cation, and the atom that gains an electron becomes a negatively charged anion.
  • The oppositely charged ions are attracted to each other, forming an ionic bond.
  • Carbon Dioxide consists of one Carbon atom (a nonmetal) and two Oxygen atoms (also a nonmetal).
  • In this molecule, the Carbon atom shares electrons with the Oxygen atoms, forming covalent bonds. Therefore, CO2 does not form an ionic bond.

Additional Information

NaCl (Sodium Chloride):

  • Sodium Chloride is formed by an ionic bond.
  • Sodium (a metal) donates an electron to Chlorine (a nonmetal), forming a positively charged Sodium ion and a negatively charged Chloride ion.
  • The electrostatic attraction between these oppositely charged ions forms the ionic bond.

MgO (Magnesium Oxide):

  • Magnesium Oxide is also formed by an ionic bond.
  • Magnesium (a metal) donates two electrons to Oxygen (a nonmetal), forming a positively charged Magnesium ion and a negatively charged Oxide ion.
  • The attraction between these ions forms the ionic bond.

KI (Potassium Iodide):

  • Potassium Iodide is formed by an ionic bond as well.
  • Potassium (a metal) donates an electron to Iodine (a nonmetal), forming a positively charged Potassium ion and a negatively charged Iodide ion.
  • The ionic bond is formed due to the attraction between these ions.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 11

What does ‘Chaitya’ in Buddhist architecture refer to?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 11

The correct answer is Prayer hall.

Key Points

  • Buddhist Architecture is primarily represented by three prominent building types:
    • The Chaitya Hall (Place Of Worship or Prayer hall)
    • The Vihara (Monastery)
    • The Stupa (Hemispherical Mound For Worship/Memory)
  • Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks.
  • Both early Chaityas and Viharas were made from woods and later stone-cut Chaityas and Viharas were made.
  • Chaitya was a rectangular prayer hall with a stupa placed in the centre, the purpose was prayer.
  • The Chaitya was divided into three parts and had an apsidal ending, that is, a semicircular rear end.
  • The central part of the hall (also called the nave) was separated from the two aisles by two rows of pillars.
  • The chaityas also had polished interior walls, semicircular roofs and horse-shoe-shaped windows called the Chaitya windows.
  • Viharas were the residences of the monks.
  • ​Distinctive Buddhist architectural structures and sculptures like Stupas, Pagodas, caves, and monasteries
  • Being the spiritual symbols of Buddhism, these structures are monastic or holy places
  • They also serve as a sacred land that has the power to purify one’s soul.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 12

Shovana Narayan is a renowned __________ dancer.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 12

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

  • Shovana Narayan is a renowned Kathak dancer, who was born on 17 February 1949 in the state of West Bengal, India.
  • Kathak dance form is known for its intricate footwork, rhythmic body movements, and facial expressions.
  • Shovana Narayan has received several accolades for her contribution to the field of dance, including the Padma Shri and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
  • She has also been a part of several international dance festivals and has collaborated with renowned artists from across the world.
  • Manipuri, Kuchipudi, and Odissi are also classical dance forms from India, each with its unique style and origin.

Additional Information

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 13

In plants, glucose is stored as reserve energy in form of starch. In which form is glucose stored as reserve energy in humans?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 13

The correct answer is Glycogen

Key Points

  • Glycogenolysis is a biochemical process in which glycogen breaks down into glucose-1-phosphate and glucose.
  • The site of this reaction is hepatocytes and myocytes cells.
  • Glycogenolysis occurs primarily in the liver and then it is stimulated by the hormones glucagon and epinephrine (adrenaline)
  • During starvation there is a decrease in the blood glucose level, there is an increase in the level of glucagon and is secreted by the pancreas.
  • Simultaneously there is decreased level of insulin secretion because of the actions of insulin, which are aimed at increasing the storage of glucose in the form of glycogen in cells and this process opposes the actions of glucagon.
  • During this process, glucagon travels to the liver, where it stimulates glycogenolysis.
  • Enzymes involved in the regulation of the process are
    • Phosphorylase kinase catalyzes the interconversion between glucose-1-phosphate (G-l-P) and glucose-6-phosphate (G-6-P)
    • Glycogen phosphorylase

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 14

What is the name of the new scheme approved by the Union Cabinet for micro and small enterprises in the fisheries sector?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 14

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana

In News

  • The name of the new scheme is "Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana" approved by the Union Cabinet for micro and small enterprises in the fisheries sector.

Key Points

  • The Union Cabinet approved the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY), a sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana.
  • The expected investment for PM-MKSSY in the next four years is ₹6,000 crore.
  • The extension of the Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund (FIDF) was also approved for another three years, up to 2025-26.
  • The already approved fund size of the FIDF is ₹7,522.48 crore, with a budgetary support of ₹939.48 crore.
  • About 121 fisheries infrastructure projects, with an investment cost of ₹5,588.63 crore, have been approved under the FIDF for various fisheries infrastructure developments.
  • The extension of FIDF aims to intensify the development of fishing harbours, fish landing centres, ice plants, cold storage, and fish transport facilities.
  • The government anticipates that the extension will further leverage financial resources and encourage more investments in fisheries and aquaculture infrastructure from both the public and private sectors.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 15

According to the 2011 Census, which of the following States has the highest (percentage) female literacy rate?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 15

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

Female literacy Rate- Census 2011:

  • According to the 2011 Census, Mizoram State in India had the highest percentage of female literacy rate among the states mentioned in the options.
  • Mizoram is a northeastern state of India, bordering Myanmar and Bangladesh.
  • The female literacy rate in Mizoram was recorded at an impressive 89.27% (Only behind Kerala- 92.07%)
  • This indicates that the majority of women in Mizoram were literate and had access to education.
  • Mizoram's high female literacy rate reflects the state's commitment to promoting education and gender equality.
  • The state government of Mizoram has implemented various initiatives and policies to improve literacy rates, particularly among women.
  • Female empowerment through education is considered a crucial factor in the development and progress of any society.
  • Mizoram's achievement in female literacy rate highlights the importance the state places on education and gender inclusivity.
  • It serves as an example for other states and countries to prioritize female education and work towards achieving gender equality.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 16

Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 16

Key Points

Trophy and Sports:

Hence combinations 2, 3 and 4 are correct

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 17

According to the Ashokan Inscription which of the following was NOT a provincial centre in Magadha Empire?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 17

The correct answer is Indraprastha.

Key Points

  • Indraprastha
    • According to the Ashokan Inscriptions, the city that was not listed as a provincial center in the Mauryan Empire (the empire during Ashoka's reign, not the earlier Magadha Empire) is Indraprastha.
    • Indraprastha is an ancient city believed to be located where the present-day city of Delhi.
    • It's frequently mentioned in ancient Indian literature, particularly the Mahabharata, one of the two major Sanskrit epics of ancient India.
    • According to the Mahabharata, Indraprastha was the capital of the Pandavas, who were the heroes of this epic.
    • It was said to be a magnificent, prosperous city constructed for them by the divine architect Vishwakarma at the command of Lord Krishna.

Additional Information

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 18

Ilyas Khan was born in Lucknow to a family of musicians. He was famous for playing _______.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 18

The correct answer is Sitar.

Key Points

  • Ilyas Khan
    • Ilyas Khan (1924-1989) was born in Lucknow to a family of musicians.
    • His father belonged to the Shahjahanpur Gharana of sarod players while his mother came from the Lucknow Gharana of Sarod players.
    • He was introduced to the sitar by his father.
    • He was a disciple of Abdul Ghani Khan - a dhrupad singer from Kalpi.

Additional Information

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 19

Festival of "Ugadi" is celebrated every year on the first day of the Hindu month ________.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 19

The correct answer is Chaitra.

Key Points

  • Ugadi is a major festival celebrated in the southern states of India, especially in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka.
  • It marks the beginning of the Hindu lunar calendar and is celebrated on the first day of the month of Chaitra, which usually falls in March or April.
  • The festival is also known as Yugadi, which means 'the beginning of a new age.'
  • It symbolizes the start of a new year and the onset of spring.
  • On this day, people clean and decorate their homes, wear new clothes, prepare special dishes, and offer prayers to the gods.
  • They also exchange greetings and gifts with friends and family.

Additional Information

  • Asadha is the fourth month of the Hindu calendar, which usually falls in June or July.
    • It is associated with the monsoon season and the onset of rains.
  • Jyaistha is the third month of the Hindu calendar, which usually falls in May or June.
    • It is associated with the summer season and the harvest of crops.
  • Kartika is the eighth month of the Hindu calendar, which usually falls in October or November.
    • It is associated with the onset of winter and the festival of Diwali.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 20

From which Article does the President of India derive his/her pardoning power?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 20

The Correct answer is Article 72.
Key Points
Judicial Powers of President -
The judicial powers and functions of the President are:

  1. He appoints the Chief Justice and the judges of Supreme Court and high courts.
  2. He can seek advice from the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact. However, the advice tendered by the Supreme Court is not binding on the President.
  3. He can grant pardon, reprieve, respite and remission of punishment, or suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence:
    (i) In all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court martial
    (ii) In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union law
    (iii) In all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
  • Article 72 of the constitution deals with the Power of president to grant pardons,etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
  • Article 73 - Extent of executive power of the Union.
  • Article 74 - Council of ministers to aid and advise President.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 21

Who among the following were prominent leaders of the 'Khilafat Movement'?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 21

The correct answer is Maulana Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali.

Key Points

  • Non-cooperation Movement:
    • The non-cooperation movement by Gandhiji was followed from September 1920 to February 1922.
    • Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in Amritsar in 1919 was one of the major reasons for the start of the Non-cooperation movement.
    • The Chauri Chaura incident occurred at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur district (Uttar Pradesh) on 4 February 1922, when a large group of protesters, participating in the Non-cooperation movement, clashed with police, who opened fire.
    • As the incident turned violent Mahatma Gandhi called off the ‘Non-cooperation Movement’ on 12 February 1922, as a direct result of this incident.
  • Khilafat Movement:
    • The movement was started as an agitation by the Indian Muslims against the treatment accorded to the Ottoman Empire after World War I.
    • The Khilafat Movement begin in 1919 under the leadership of the Ali brothers; Maulana Muhammad Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali.
    • By the mid-1920s, the Khilafat leaders joined hands with Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Movement.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 22

Kalamandalam Kallyanikutty Amma received fame and recognition for her work in ________.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 22

The Correct answer is Mohiniyattam.

Key Points

  • Kalamandalam Kallyanikutty Amma was a renowned exponent of Mohiniyattam, which is a classical dance form of Kerala.
    • A native of Thirunavaya in Malappuram district of Kerala.
    • She died on 12 May 1999 in Tripunithura at the age of 84.
    • She won both the Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Akademi Award and the Kendra Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.

Mohiniyattam:

  • Mohiniyattam and Kathakali are two classical dance forms that originated in Kerala.
  • It is named after 'Mohini', the feminine form of Lord Vishnu, which means 'the dance of Mohini'.
  • The origin and popularity of this dance form are closely linked to the great Tamil dance master Vadivelu, one of the Thanjavur quartets.
  • Mohiniyattam’s underlying traditions are found in Bharata Muni’s Natya Shastra.
    • It is based on Natya Shastra’s lasya style.
  • It is traditionally performed only by women.
  • In this dance form, more emphasis is on facial expressions and hand gestures.

Additional Information

8 important Classical Dance forms of India:

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 23

Which ministry has announced the commencement of Phase-V of the Sagar Parikrama initiative?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 23

The correct answer is Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying.
In News
Phase V of Sagar Parikrama to be held from 17th-19th May 2023 from Raigad to Canacona
Key Points

  • The Union Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has announced the commencement of Phase-V of the Sagar Parikrama initiative.
  • Starting from Raigad, Maharashtra on 17th May 2023 and ending in Canacona.
  • The journey aims to address the challenges faced by fishers and stakeholders while uplifting their economic prospects through various fisheries schemes and programs, such as Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) & Kisan Credit Cards (KCC).
  • Sagar Parikrama, symbolizes solidarity with fisherfolk, fish farmers, and concerned stakeholders, commemorating the spirit of the 75th Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav and honoring our freedom fighters, sailors, and fishers.
  • Having successfully completed four phases, covering 19 locations in Gujarat, Daman & Diu, Maharashtra, and Karnataka, this unprecedented initiative continues to garner support from all stakeholders.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 24
Who is the author of 'Abhijnanashakuntalam'?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 24

Kalidas is the author of 'Abhijnanashakuntalam'.

Key Points

  • Kalidasa was a classical Sanskrit writer, extensively considered as the greatest poet and dramatist of Gupta Period.
  • He was one of the nine gems or navratans in the court of Chadragupta II.
  • The six major works of Kalidasa are:
    • Abhijnanashakuntalam
    • Vikramorvashiya
    • Malavikagnimitra
    • Raghuvamsha
    • Kumarasambhava
    • Meghadutaa
  • 'Abhijnanashakuntalam' depicts the love, separation & reunion of King Dushyanta, Sakuntala & their son (Bharata).

Hence, the correct answer is - Kalidasa.

Additional Information

  • Other than Kalidasa, the scholars (navratans) in the Ujjain court of Chadragupta II were:
    • Amarasimha – His work Amarakosha is a vocabulary of Sanskrit roots, homonyms and synonyms. It has three parts containing around ten thousand words and is also known as Trikanda.
    • Varahamihira – He composed Pancha Siddhantika, the five astronomical systems. His work Brihadsamhita is a great work in the Sanskrit language. It deals with a variety of subjects like astronomy, astrology, geography, architecture, weather, animals, marriage and omens.
    • Dhanvantri – He is considered to be the father of Ayurveda.
    • Ghatakarapara – An expert in sculpture and architecture.
    • Shanku – An architect who wrote the Shilpa Shastra.
    • Kahapanaka – An astrologer who wrote Jyotishya Shastra.
    • Vararuchi – Author of Prakrit Prakasha, the first grammar of the Prakrit language.
    • Vetala Bhatta – Author of Mantrashastra and was a magician.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 25

Provisions related to the seat of the "Supreme Court of India" is mentioned in which article?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 25

The correct answer is Article 130.
Key Points

  • Article 130 of the Indian Constitution mentions the seat of the Supreme Court of India.
  • Article 129 empowers the Supreme Court to punish for contempt of itself.
  • Article 131 provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in certain disputes between the Government of India and one or more States.
  • Article 132 provides for the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in certain cases.
  • Option A (Article 132) is incorrect as it deals with the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, not the seat.
  • Option B (Article 131) is incorrect as it deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in certain disputes, not the seat.
  • Option D (Article 129) is incorrect as it deals with the power of the Supreme Court to punish for contempt, not the seat.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option C (Article 130).

Additional Information

  • The Supreme Court of India was established on January 28, 1950, after India became a republic.
  • The seat of the Supreme Court of India is in New Delhi.
  • The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of the land and has the power of judicial review.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 26
Borgeet is associated with which Indian classical dance form?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 26

The correct answer is Sattriya.

Key Points

  • Borgeet is associated with the Sattriya Indian classical dance form.
  • It is a genre of devotional music from Assam, composed to praise Lord Krishna.
  • Borgeet adds a spiritual dimension to Sattriya dance performances.
  • It combines rhythmic movements with soulful melodies, creating a harmonious expression of devotion.
  • Sattriya dance, accompanied by Borgeet, offers a unique cultural and artistic experience from the northeastern region of India.

Additional Information

Eight Classical Dances of India and States:

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 27
Gulf stream are examples of ________ .
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 27

The correct answer is Warm current.
Important Points

  • The Gulf Stream is an example of an ocean current. Ocean currents are continuous movements of water in the ocean, driven by various factors such as wind patterns, temperature differences, and Earth's rotation.
  • They play a significant role in distributing heat around the planet, influencing weather patterns, and affecting marine ecosystems.
  • The Gulf Stream is a powerful warm ocean current that flows from the Gulf of Mexico along the eastern coast of the United States, before turning towards the northeast and crossing the Atlantic Ocean.
  • It transports warm water from the tropics to the North Atlantic, impacting the climate of the regions it passes through.
  • The Gulf Stream has a notable influence on the weather and climate of eastern North America and Western Europe.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 28

Under the provisions of the constitution on which of the following ground the citizenship of India does not lose?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 28

The Correct answer is Registration.
Key Points

  • Renunciation: A person can voluntarily renounce their Indian citizenship by making a declaration of renunciation.
  • Once the renunciation is accepted by the Indian government, the person ceases to be a citizen of India.
  • Termination: Termination of citizenship can occur if a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country and notifies the Indian government of their intention to renounce Indian citizenship.
  • The Indian government has the authority to terminate citizenship in such cases.

Additional Information

  • Registration: Registration is a process by which a person who is not automatically eligible for Indian citizenship can acquire it through a specific provision of the law.
  • This does not lead to the loss of citizenship but rather grants citizenship to the individual.
  • Deprivation: Deprivation of citizenship can occur in certain circumstances if a person obtained Indian citizenship through fraud, false representation, or concealment of material facts.
  • However, this process involves legal proceedings and does not apply automatically.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option (C) Registration.

Important Points

  • Citizenship is listed in the Union List under the Constitution.
  • The Constitution does not define the term ‘citizen’ but details of various categories of persons who are entitled to citizenship are given in Part 2 (Articles 5 to 11).
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 29

Which organization has released the report "Electricity 2024"?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 29

The correct answer is International Energy Agency (IEA).
In News
International Energy Agency Electricity 2024 Report unveiled.
Key Points

  • The report "Electricity 2024" discussed in the article was released by the International Energy Agency (IEA).
  • India's electricity demand to grow at 6.5% annually until 2026, surpassing China's growth rate.
  • Coal remains the dominant energy source, meeting 68% of India's electricity needs in 2026.
  • Nuclear and hydro generation to expand, with Asia set to overtake North America in nuclear generation.
  • India is also expanding renewable energy, with a target of 40% non-fossil fuel generation by 2030.

Additional Information

  • The IEA is an autonomous intergovernmental organization focused on ensuring reliable, affordable, and clean energy for its member countries and beyond.
  • The report provides forecasts and analysis of global electricity market developments, including demand, supply, and carbon dioxide emissions from the sector through 2026.
  • It highlights the expected growth in global electricity demand and the significant role of low-emissions technologies in meeting this demand.
  • The IEA's findings underscore the importance of transitioning towards cleaner sources of electricity generation to address climate change and meet sustainability goals.
  • Understanding reports like "Electricity 2024" helps policymakers, businesses, and stakeholders make informed decisions regarding energy policies and investments.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 30

What is the chemical name of Marble?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 2 - Question 30

The correct answer is Calcium carbonate.
Key Points
Calcium carbonate

  • Calcium carbonate, often known as CaCO3, may be found in almost every part of the planet and accounts for more than 4% of the crust of the earth.
  • Chalk, limestone, and marble are their most prevalent forms in nature.
  • These three stones were formed over the course of millions of years by the sedimentation of the fossilized shells of small fossilized snails, shellfish, and coral.
  • Although there is no difference between any of the three forms in terms of their chemical composition, there are other ways in which they are distinct from one another, including purity, whiteness, thickness, and homogeneity.

Additional Information
Calcium oxide

  • CaO is the chemical formula for calcium oxide.
  • Calcium and oxygen are the two primary elements that makeup calcium oxide.
  • In order to make it, calcium carbonate (like limestone) is heated to temperatures between 500 and 600 degrees Celsius in a special kiln called a lime kiln, where it breaks down into oxide and carbon dioxide.

Calcium bicarbonate

  • ​Ca(HCO3)2 is the chemical formula for calcium bicarbonate, which is also known as calcium hydrogen carbonate.
  • Calcium bicarbonate is often referred to as cleaning lime.
  • Both sodium bicarbonate and this compound contain bicarbonate, which is composed of hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen atoms.
  • The formation of caverns, stalagmites, and stalactites results in the production of cleansing lime, which only exists in liquid form.

Calcium hydroxide

  • ​Calcium hydroxide, often known as slaked lime, is represented by the chemical formula Ca(OH)2.
  • In its solid form, this inorganic chemical appears white and powdery.
  • On the other hand, crystallized Ca(OH)2 looks completely colorless.
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