SNAP Mock Test - 2 (New Pattern)


60 Questions MCQ Test SNAP Mock Test Series | SNAP Mock Test - 2 (New Pattern)


Description
Attempt SNAP Mock Test - 2 (New Pattern) | 60 questions in 60 minutes | Mock test for CAT preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study SNAP Mock Test Series for CAT Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the word from the options which is most Similar in meaning to the given word.

INVIDIOUS

Solution:

Option 1: Invidious means likely to arouse or incur resentment or anger in others or UNACCEPTABLE

QUESTION: 2

DIRECTIONS for the question: Pick the best option which completes the sentence in the most meaningful manner.

To fully understand (A) ____________ work such as George Orwell's Animal Farm, one must be able to differentiate (B) _____________ events of the plot from the abundant extended metaphors.

Solution:

►To figure out what the missing words are, try to predict their definitions by using keywords from the prompt. In this prompt, each missing word has its own keywords.

►The first missing word’s keywords are at the end of the sentence, where the prompt gives the definition of the missing word as a work that involves “abundant extended metaphors.” The second missing word is contrary to “abundant extended metaphors” and describes the “plot” of the work.

►Thus, the first missing word describes a type of work that uses metaphor, and the second missing word implies the opposite of this figurative language. Therefore, the best choice is option 2.

►Allegorical means involving a figurative or metaphorical treatment of a literal subject, while literal means not figurative or not metaphorical.

QUESTION: 3

DIRECTIONS for the question: In the following sentence choose the erroneous segment.

"Where do you live" asked the stranger?

Solution:

Option 2: The question mark which ends a sentence has to be within the inverted commas.

QUESTION: 4

DIRECTIONS for the question: A sentence or a part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given as substitutions for the highlighted part, one of which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.

A recently carried out meta-analysis of two decades of published research does not suggest that there should be an association between coffee drinking and coronary ailments.

Solution:

Option 1: A report would suggest something happens or something doesn’t happen. Hence option 1 is the best construction.

QUESTION: 5

DIRECTIONS for the question: Complete the sentence by filling in the appropriate blank/blanks from the options provided.

The _____________ play caused me to squirm in my seat, but she began to ______________ her eyes in a way that irritated me.

Solution:

The only word that fits the second blank is daub. Maudlin means self pitying which fits the first blank too.

QUESTION: 6

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

A. Error Management Theory predicts that women have an evolved bias to be skeptical of men’s commitment in a relationship, which reduces the likelihood of making a costly false positive error.

B. We predicted and found that women’s mating cognitions are functionally flexible, such that women do not exhibit the commitment-skepticism bias when faced with behavioral evidence that a male partner is willing to commit.

C. If a woman overestimates her romantic partner’s commitment, the cost to her fitness—reproduction without an investing partner—can be considerable.

D. However, because error probabilities are inversely related, this commitment-skepticism bias simultaneously increases the likelihood of missed opportunities, or false negatives.

E. This suggests that relationship-enhancing behaviors are one contextual cue that may lessen the bias.

F. False positives when gauging a partner’s commitment are the more costly error for women, but missing an opportunity to secure a genuinely high-quality mate can also be quite costly.

Solution:

►This question is hard to crack if you miss the one critical pair that drives the answer: DF.

►This is a pair of connected statements linked by the common reference to false negatives (the second part of statement F is talking about the false negative case).

►This pair is only present in option 2 and when you check the sequence of statements in this question, you will find that all make perfect sense.

►Another clue you can use to solve the question is the placement of statement E.

►It is a concluding statement for the given set and this is highlighted only by option 2.

QUESTION: 7

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the word from the options which is Opposite in meaning to the given word.

DISTRAUGHT

Solution:

Distraught means very worried and upset. Unruffled is an antonym of distraught.

Unruffled meaning free from emotional agitation or nervous tension.

Conceited means characteristic of false pride; having an exaggerated sense of self-importance.

Unwavering means marked by firm determination or resolution.

Uptight means being in a tense state.

QUESTION: 8

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

If Indian exporters say the biggest exports they do are within India, it would be only half in jest. It would be a tongue-in-cheek commentary on the red tape that has long plagued the sector, which requires them to ship tonnes of documents such as letter of credit, copy of proof of advance payment, print-out of application form, foreign inward remittance certificate, etc. to government offices, accompanied by numerous visits. Taken together, these documents would total a whopping 25,000 pages every month, never mind that they ultimately gather dust in storerooms.
In the first week of January, the government decided to rid exporters and itself of this system. Director general of foreign trade (DGFT) Anup K Pujari, who issued the notification, sees the end to submission of documents a New Year gift to exporters, particularly those in the business of commodities such as cotton yarn, nonbasmati rice, wheat, sugar and the like. "We are trusting our exporters. If a cotton yarn exporter, for example, gives us details of his export online, we won't press for any proof," he says.
The idea behind doing away with document submission is to make exports hassle-free, according to Pujari. To be sure, it is not a one-off step. Pujari's department had earlier enabled exporters to electronically avail a bank realization certificate (BRC), which is essential to receive refunds from the government under various schemes. This not only ended a visit to the bank branch, it was also 25% cheaper. Thanks to e-BRC, the government claims that exporters are saving about Rs 2,000 crore annually.
These reforms are godsend for exporters. But many hassles remain. The list is actually pretty long — for instance, there are multiple bottlenecks in custom clearance and delays in receiving refunds. But for many exporters, the real monster is customs, the government agency tasked with collecting duties on foreign trade. Exporters turn nervous wrecks as the bill of entry undergoes scrutiny by clerks, appraising officers, assistant commissioners, preventive officers and so on. A two-day sick leave by a customs officer may delay the shipment and result in huge losses to an exporter, particularly in a non-EDI (electronic data interchange) or manual port.
OP Hisaria, senior vice-president of Reliance Industries (RIL), says the introduction of e-BRC has not only removed the drudgery from the process but also reduced transaction cost and time. But he is quick to add that removing hassles in exports and simplification of processes is a continuous process. The exports of India's largest private enterprise, owned by billionaire MukeshAmbani, are worth $44 billion a year and constitute over 14% of India's total exports. Reliance has made various recommendations to the government to make exports easy, Hisaria adds, without disclosing the details of the company's wish-list. For RIL and other export majors, shifting to electronic mode of BRCs is a game-changer in itself. "Obtaining physical BRCs from more than 15 banks that we deal with for 18,000 shipping bills per year was tedious and time-consuming," says Hisaria.
That said, the reforms in recent times can at best be termed baby steps. India has not yet moved to a regime where trust, and not suspicion, is the hallmark of the country's export policy. Add to that the multiple government agencies and departments that play some role or the other, exporters live in constant trepidation, even dread. KT Chacko, former DGFT and former head of Indian Institute of Foreign Trade, says the government should not suspect that all exporters are wrongdoers. "Once we have such a mechanism, 95% of exporters who believe in self-compliance will benefit. But it should be made clear that deviations from rules will be dealt with a heavy hand, maybe even cancellation of export licences," he says.

Q. According to the author of the passage:

Solution:

In the given case, the author highlights that some of the problems for the export industry have been resolved. He goes on to say that many of the issues still persist and there is a lot more that is expected by the export industry. This makes option 2 the best answer in the given case.

QUESTION: 9

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

If Indian exporters say the biggest exports they do are within India, it would be only half in jest. It would be a tongue-in-cheek commentary on the red tape that has long plagued the sector, which requires them to ship tonnes of documents such as letter of credit, copy of proof of advance payment, print-out of application form, foreign inward remittance certificate, etc. to government offices, accompanied by numerous visits. Taken together, these documents would total a whopping 25,000 pages every month, never mind that they ultimately gather dust in storerooms.
In the first week of January, the government decided to rid exporters and itself of this system. Director general of foreign trade (DGFT) Anup K Pujari, who issued the notification, sees the end to submission of documents a New Year gift to exporters, particularly those in the business of commodities such as cotton yarn, nonbasmati rice, wheat, sugar and the like. "We are trusting our exporters. If a cotton yarn exporter, for example, gives us details of his export online, we won't press for any proof," he says.
The idea behind doing away with document submission is to make exports hassle-free, according to Pujari. To be sure, it is not a one-off step. Pujari's department had earlier enabled exporters to electronically avail a bank realization certificate (BRC), which is essential to receive refunds from the government under various schemes. This not only ended a visit to the bank branch, it was also 25% cheaper. Thanks to e-BRC, the government claims that exporters are saving about Rs 2,000 crore annually.
These reforms are godsend for exporters. But many hassles remain. The list is actually pretty long — for instance, there are multiple bottlenecks in custom clearance and delays in receiving refunds. But for many exporters, the real monster is customs, the government agency tasked with collecting duties on foreign trade. Exporters turn nervous wrecks as the bill of entry undergoes scrutiny by clerks, appraising officers, assistant commissioners, preventive officers and so on. A two-day sick leave by a customs officer may delay the shipment and result in huge losses to an exporter, particularly in a non-EDI (electronic data interchange) or manual port.
OP Hisaria, senior vice-president of Reliance Industries (RIL), says the introduction of e-BRC has not only removed the drudgery from the process but also reduced transaction cost and time. But he is quick to add that removing hassles in exports and simplification of processes is a continuous process. The exports of India's largest private enterprise, owned by billionaire MukeshAmbani, are worth $44 billion a year and constitute over 14% of India's total exports. Reliance has made various recommendations to the government to make exports easy, Hisaria adds, without disclosing the details of the company's wish-list. For RIL and other export majors, shifting to electronic mode of BRCs is a game-changer in itself. "Obtaining physical BRCs from more than 15 banks that we deal with for 18,000 shipping bills per year was tedious and time-consuming," says Hisaria.
That said, the reforms in recent times can at best be termed baby steps. India has not yet moved to a regime where trust, and not suspicion, is the hallmark of the country's export policy. Add to that the multiple government agencies and departments that play some role or the other, exporters live in constant trepidation, even dread. KT Chacko, former DGFT and former head of Indian Institute of Foreign Trade, says the government should not suspect that all exporters are wrongdoers. "Once we have such a mechanism, 95% of exporters who believe in self-compliance will benefit. But it should be made clear that deviations from rules will be dealt with a heavy hand, maybe even cancellation of export licences," he says.

Q. Identify the tone of the author of the passage

Solution:

►In the given case, none of the options that highlight negative tones (prejudiced, complaining or disparaging) can be selected as the answer of the passage.

►Even though the author is highlighting the problems in the system, he does not do so in a negative manner.

►He sticks to a factual tone and describes what needs to be done in the given case. This makes option 2 the best answer in the given case.

QUESTION: 10

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

If Indian exporters say the biggest exports they do are within India, it would be only half in jest. It would be a tongue-in-cheek commentary on the red tape that has long plagued the sector, which requires them to ship tonnes of documents such as letter of credit, copy of proof of advance payment, print-out of application form, foreign inward remittance certificate, etc. to government offices, accompanied by numerous visits. Taken together, these documents would total a whopping 25,000 pages every month, never mind that they ultimately gather dust in storerooms.
In the first week of January, the government decided to rid exporters and itself of this system. Director general of foreign trade (DGFT) Anup K Pujari, who issued the notification, sees the end to submission of documents a New Year gift to exporters, particularly those in the business of commodities such as cotton yarn, nonbasmati rice, wheat, sugar and the like. "We are trusting our exporters. If a cotton yarn exporter, for example, gives us details of his export online, we won't press for any proof," he says.
The idea behind doing away with document submission is to make exports hassle-free, according to Pujari. To be sure, it is not a one-off step. Pujari's department had earlier enabled exporters to electronically avail a bank realization certificate (BRC), which is essential to receive refunds from the government under various schemes. This not only ended a visit to the bank branch, it was also 25% cheaper. Thanks to e-BRC, the government claims that exporters are saving about Rs 2,000 crore annually.
These reforms are godsend for exporters. But many hassles remain. The list is actually pretty long — for instance, there are multiple bottlenecks in custom clearance and delays in receiving refunds. But for many exporters, the real monster is customs, the government agency tasked with collecting duties on foreign trade. Exporters turn nervous wrecks as the bill of entry undergoes scrutiny by clerks, appraising officers, assistant commissioners, preventive officers and so on. A two-day sick leave by a customs officer may delay the shipment and result in huge losses to an exporter, particularly in a non-EDI (electronic data interchange) or manual port.
OP Hisaria, senior vice-president of Reliance Industries (RIL), says the introduction of e-BRC has not only removed the drudgery from the process but also reduced transaction cost and time. But he is quick to add that removing hassles in exports and simplification of processes is a continuous process. The exports of India's largest private enterprise, owned by billionaire MukeshAmbani, are worth $44 billion a year and constitute over 14% of India's total exports. Reliance has made various recommendations to the government to make exports easy, Hisaria adds, without disclosing the details of the company's wish-list. For RIL and other export majors, shifting to electronic mode of BRCs is a game-changer in itself. "Obtaining physical BRCs from more than 15 banks that we deal with for 18,000 shipping bills per year was tedious and time-consuming," says Hisaria.
That said, the reforms in recent times can at best be termed baby steps. India has not yet moved to a regime where trust, and not suspicion, is the hallmark of the country's export policy. Add to that the multiple government agencies and departments that play some role or the other, exporters live in constant trepidation, even dread. KT Chacko, former DGFT and former head of Indian Institute of Foreign Trade, says the government should not suspect that all exporters are wrongdoers. "Once we have such a mechanism, 95% of exporters who believe in self-compliance will benefit. But it should be made clear that deviations from rules will be dealt with a heavy hand, maybe even cancellation of export licences," he says.

Q. What is the main idea of the passage?

Solution:

►In the given passage, the author highlights how there have been positive changes in the export industry and how these measures will correct some of the issues faced by the industry.

►The author is hopeful of the future but at the same time, highlights that a lot of needs to done. This makes option 3 the best answer in the given case.

QUESTION: 11

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

If Indian exporters say the biggest exports they do are within India, it would be only half in jest. It would be a tongue-in-cheek commentary on the red tape that has long plagued the sector, which requires them to ship tonnes of documents such as letter of credit, copy of proof of advance payment, print-out of application form, foreign inward remittance certificate, etc. to government offices, accompanied by numerous visits. Taken together, these documents would total a whopping 25,000 pages every month, never mind that they ultimately gather dust in storerooms.
In the first week of January, the government decided to rid exporters and itself of this system. Director general of foreign trade (DGFT) Anup K Pujari, who issued the notification, sees the end to submission of documents a New Year gift to exporters, particularly those in the business of commodities such as cotton yarn, nonbasmati rice, wheat, sugar and the like. "We are trusting our exporters. If a cotton yarn exporter, for example, gives us details of his export online, we won't press for any proof," he says.
The idea behind doing away with document submission is to make exports hassle-free, according to Pujari. To be sure, it is not a one-off step. Pujari's department had earlier enabled exporters to electronically avail a bank realization certificate (BRC), which is essential to receive refunds from the government under various schemes. This not only ended a visit to the bank branch, it was also 25% cheaper. Thanks to e-BRC, the government claims that exporters are saving about Rs 2,000 crore annually.
These reforms are godsend for exporters. But many hassles remain. The list is actually pretty long — for instance, there are multiple bottlenecks in custom clearance and delays in receiving refunds. But for many exporters, the real monster is customs, the government agency tasked with collecting duties on foreign trade. Exporters turn nervous wrecks as the bill of entry undergoes scrutiny by clerks, appraising officers, assistant commissioners, preventive officers and so on. A two-day sick leave by a customs officer may delay the shipment and result in huge losses to an exporter, particularly in a non-EDI (electronic data interchange) or manual port.
OP Hisaria, senior vice-president of Reliance Industries (RIL), says the introduction of e-BRC has not only removed the drudgery from the process but also reduced transaction cost and time. But he is quick to add that removing hassles in exports and simplification of processes is a continuous process. The exports of India's largest private enterprise, owned by billionaire MukeshAmbani, are worth $44 billion a year and constitute over 14% of India's total exports. Reliance has made various recommendations to the government to make exports easy, Hisaria adds, without disclosing the details of the company's wish-list. For RIL and other export majors, shifting to electronic mode of BRCs is a game-changer in itself. "Obtaining physical BRCs from more than 15 banks that we deal with for 18,000 shipping bills per year was tedious and time-consuming," says Hisaria.
That said, the reforms in recent times can at best be termed baby steps. India has not yet moved to a regime where trust, and not suspicion, is the hallmark of the country's export policy. Add to that the multiple government agencies and departments that play some role or the other, exporters live in constant trepidation, even dread. KT Chacko, former DGFT and former head of Indian Institute of Foreign Trade, says the government should not suspect that all exporters are wrongdoers. "Once we have such a mechanism, 95% of exporters who believe in self-compliance will benefit. But it should be made clear that deviations from rules will be dealt with a heavy hand, maybe even cancellation of export licences," he says.

Q. The word ‘drudgery’ in the passage means:

Solution:

Drudgery refers to hard monotonous routine work. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer here

QUESTION: 12

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

If Indian exporters say the biggest exports they do are within India, it would be only half in jest. It would be a tongue-in-cheek commentary on the red tape that has long plagued the sector, which requires them to ship tonnes of documents such as letter of credit, copy of proof of advance payment, print-out of application form, foreign inward remittance certificate, etc. to government offices, accompanied by numerous visits. Taken together, these documents would total a whopping 25,000 pages every month, never mind that they ultimately gather dust in storerooms.
In the first week of January, the government decided to rid exporters and itself of this system. Director general of foreign trade (DGFT) Anup K Pujari, who issued the notification, sees the end to submission of documents a New Year gift to exporters, particularly those in the business of commodities such as cotton yarn, nonbasmati rice, wheat, sugar and the like. "We are trusting our exporters. If a cotton yarn exporter, for example, gives us details of his export online, we won't press for any proof," he says.
The idea behind doing away with document submission is to make exports hassle-free, according to Pujari. To be sure, it is not a one-off step. Pujari's department had earlier enabled exporters to electronically avail a bank realization certificate (BRC), which is essential to receive refunds from the government under various schemes. This not only ended a visit to the bank branch, it was also 25% cheaper. Thanks to e-BRC, the government claims that exporters are saving about Rs 2,000 crore annually.
These reforms are godsend for exporters. But many hassles remain. The list is actually pretty long — for instance, there are multiple bottlenecks in custom clearance and delays in receiving refunds. But for many exporters, the real monster is customs, the government agency tasked with collecting duties on foreign trade. Exporters turn nervous wrecks as the bill of entry undergoes scrutiny by clerks, appraising officers, assistant commissioners, preventive officers and so on. A two-day sick leave by a customs officer may delay the shipment and result in huge losses to an exporter, particularly in a non-EDI (electronic data interchange) or manual port.
OP Hisaria, senior vice-president of Reliance Industries (RIL), says the introduction of e-BRC has not only removed the drudgery from the process but also reduced transaction cost and time. But he is quick to add that removing hassles in exports and simplification of processes is a continuous process. The exports of India's largest private enterprise, owned by billionaire MukeshAmbani, are worth $44 billion a year and constitute over 14% of India's total exports. Reliance has made various recommendations to the government to make exports easy, Hisaria adds, without disclosing the details of the company's wish-list. For RIL and other export majors, shifting to electronic mode of BRCs is a game-changer in itself. "Obtaining physical BRCs from more than 15 banks that we deal with for 18,000 shipping bills per year was tedious and time-consuming," says Hisaria.
That said, the reforms in recent times can at best be termed baby steps. India has not yet moved to a regime where trust, and not suspicion, is the hallmark of the country's export policy. Add to that the multiple government agencies and departments that play some role or the other, exporters live in constant trepidation, even dread. KT Chacko, former DGFT and former head of Indian Institute of Foreign Trade, says the government should not suspect that all exporters are wrongdoers. "Once we have such a mechanism, 95% of exporters who believe in self-compliance will benefit. But it should be made clear that deviations from rules will be dealt with a heavy hand, maybe even cancellation of export licences," he says.

Q. The author of the passage highlights that:

Solution:

Option 1 can be derived from the lines: But for many exporters, the real monster is customs, the government agency tasked with collecting duties on foreign trade.
Option 2 can be derived from the lines: Pujari's department had earlier enabled exporters to electronically avail a bank realization certificate (BRC), which is essential to receive refunds from the government under various schemes. This not only ended a visit to the bank branch, it was also 25% cheaper.

QUESTION: 13

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the alternative that best explains the underlined phrase.

Be whistling in the dark.

Solution:

Whistling in the dark means- To summon up courage in a frightening situation, make a show of bravery. For example, They knew they were lost and were just whistling in the dark.

QUESTION: 14

DIRECTIONS for the question: Complete the sentence by filling in the appropriate blank/blanks from the options provided.

The unresponsive alarm systems have raised the question of safety, conventional safety measures are all outdated and by the look of it, even the latest protections are __________ sooner than we would collectively desire.

Solution:

►It is mentioned that the conventional safety machines are outdated and the author expects that the latest protections are also expected to be obsolete in coming future.

►This makes option 2 the best answer in this case. We do not select any other option as we need to imply a sentiment that these protectors might not do the desired job that is expected of them.

Thus, these are not stamped out or are not out of use, rather these are not up to the mark in the given scenario.

QUESTION: 15

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the pair of words that best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalized pair.

SERENE : CALM

Solution:

►Superfluous means extra, redundant. Option B matches the relationship pattern expressed in the Question i.e. both the words are synonym of each other.

►Specious, something which seems to be true but is false. Capacious means spacious.

QUESTION: 16

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the following question as per the best of your judgment.

If the number 97423A67B7 is divisible by 9 & 11, the values of A and B respectively are

Solution:

►Since the number is divisible by 9, the sum of its digits must be a multiple of 9.

►Since, 45 + A + B is a multiple of 9, A + B = 9.........(i)

►Now, as the number is divisible by 11, using divisibility test for 11 yields (22 + B) – (23 + A) is 0 or a multiple of 11.

►This simplifies to (B – A – 1) is 0 or a multiple of 11.

►The only possible value is 0.

►So, (B – A) = 1................(ii)

►Solving these equations (i) and (ii),we get A = 4 and B = 5.

QUESTION: 17

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the following question as per the best of your judgment.

Mr. A and Mr. B went to an airport lounge. There are two seats vacant in the whole area. Depending upon their individual speed and the time taken in security check etc, the probability of Mr. A getting the seat is 1/3 and the probability of Mr. B getting the seat is 1/5. Find the probability that only one of them gets the seat.

Solution:

►We are interested in the case where one of them gets a seat and the other doesn’t.

►The probability of A not getting seat is =1-1/3 = 2/3

►The probability of B not getting seat is =1-1/5 = 4/5

►The required probability is (1/3 × 4/5) + (2/3 × 1/5) = 2/5.

QUESTION: 18

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option

In a certain year, the population of a certain town was 9000. If the next year the population of males increases by 5% and that of the females by 8% and the total population increases to 9600, then what was the ratio of population of males and females in that given year?

Solution:

The % increase in total population is 
Thus, by allegation Rule

4 : 5 is the required ratio.

QUESTION: 19

Three horses H1, H2, H3, entered a field which has seven portions marked P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6, P7 . If no two horses are allowed to enter the same portion of the field, in how many ways can the horses graze the grass of the field?

Solution:

The number of ways in which the horses can graze is 7P3 = 210.

QUESTION: 20

The number that must be added to each of the numbers 8, 21, 13 and 31 to make the ratio of the first two numbers equal to the ratio of the last two numbers is:

Solution:

Suppose the number is x. then, (8 + x) / (21 + x) = (13 + x) / (31 + x). Solving this equation yields x = 5.

QUESTION: 21

Ravi, Mohan, Sunil & Pramod borrowed equal sums of money at 12% per annum for two years. Pramod had to pay compound interest compounded quarterly. Ravi had to pay simple interest. Mohan had to pay compound interest compounded yearly. Sunil had to pay compound interest compounded half yearly. At the end of two years the second highest interest is to be paid by

Solution:

►Simple interest will always be less than compound interest. In compound interest, as the number of calculations per year increases, the interest also increases.

►Therefore, Sunil will pay the second highest interest.

QUESTION: 22

Rajan got married 8 years ago. His current age is 6/5 times his age at the time of his marriage.Rajan’s sister was 10 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. The age of Rajan’s sister is=?

Solution:

►Given that his current age is 6/5 times the age at his marriage and given that the difference is 18 years.

►Hence his age at marriage would have been 40 years.

►As his sister is younger by 10 years so she would have been 30 at that time hence her current age is 38 years

QUESTION: 23

Vidhi spends 2 hours training for an upcoming race. She runs full speed at 8 miles per hour for the race distance; then she walks back to her starting point at 2 miles per hour. How long does she spend walking?

Solution:

►Let x be the time she spent running.

►Since she spent 2 hours all together, she must have spent 2 – x hours walking.
 
►Since she ran out, then turned around and walked back, her running and walking distances must be equal.

►Set the distances equal and solve for x:

8x = 2(2 – x)
8x = 4 – 2x
10x = 4
x = 0.4

►She spends 0.4 hours running and 2 – 0.4 = 1.6 hours walking.

Alternate Solution: Since the distance traveled is the same, we know that speed and time are inversely related.

►Since running and walking speeds are in the ratio 4 : 1, the running and walking times are in the ratio 1 : 4.

►So, the time spent walking is (4/5) × 2 = 1.6 hours or 96 minutes.

►The best answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 24

The price of an article was increased by x%, Later the new price was decreased by x%. If the final price is 1 dollar, the original price is

Solution:

QUESTION: 25

Out of 200 candidates at a test, 40% are girls. 5% of the girls fail in the test and the total pass percentage is 92. What percent of the boys fail in the test?

Solution:

►Total candidates = 200,   girls = 0.4* 200 = 80

►No of girls failing = 0.05 * 80 = 4

►Therefore no of girls passing = 80 – 4 = 76, 

►No of boys = 200 – 80 = 120

►Now total passing students = 92/100 * 200 = 184  

►No of boys passing =  184 – 76 = 108.  

►No of boys failing = 120 – 108 = 12 

►Therefore boys failing =( 12 / 120 )* 100 = 10%
So option C.

QUESTION: 26

Two squares of size 1 × 1 are selected one after another from an 8 × 8 chessboard. The probability that the two squares belong to different rows and different columns, is

Solution:

►The first square can be selected out of 64 squares in 64 ways .

►The second square can be selected in (64 - 15) = 49 ways

►Therefore the required probability = (64*49)/(64*63) = 7/9

QUESTION: 27

1000 person are taking a dip into a cuboidal pond which is 80 m long and 50 m broad. What is the rise or water level in the pond, if the average displacement of the water by a person is 0.4 m3?

Solution:

►Total change in volume = 1000 × 0.4 = 400 m3

►So using formula for volume of cuboid = L × B × H = 80 × 50 × H = 400, H = 0.1 m.
So option 1.

QUESTION: 28

If n is a natural number and n! = n(n – 1)(n – 2)…3.2.1, find the remainder when ∑n (n!) is divided by n2 – 2n (n > 2)

Solution:

∑n(n!) = 1 × 1! + 2 × 2! + 3 × 3! + … + n × n!

= (2 - 1)×1! + (3 - 1)×2! + (4 - 1)×3! +.....+ (n + 1 - 1) × n!

= 2! - 1! + 3! - 2! + 4! - 3! +.....+ (n + 1)! - n! = (n + 1)! –1

= (n + 1)! – 1 = (n + 1)(n)(n – 1)(n – 2)… 3.2.1– 1.

Now, (n + 1)(n)(n – 1)(n – 2)… 3.2.1 is perfectly divisible by n(n – 2) [since, n2 – 2n = n(n – 2)].

So, the remainder when ∑n(n!) is divided by n2 – 2n is n2 – 2n – 1.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 29

A group of workers with same efficiency can finish a job in 24 hours working together from start to end. Instead, they start after equal intervals one by one and continue working till the end. Wages being proportional to the time for which the work is done. The first worker (who starts the work) gets 11 times as much wages as the last worker. In how many hours can the work be finished now?

Solution:

►Let there be x workers and efficiency of each of them be 1 unit/hour.

►The work is worth 24x man-hours. Next, if the last person is working for y hours, the 1st person, who starts the work, works for 11y hours. No. of workers is still x.

►Since they have to do the same work 24x = 11y + ...... + 2y + y (x terms).

►24x = x/2 [11y + y] i.e. y = 4 i.e. 11y = 44.

► ∴ The work is finished in 44 hours.

QUESTION: 30

DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the pie chart/s given below and answer the question that follows.

The following two pie charts give the details of the number of professors in the age group of 35 to 50 years, in different departments, at an engineering college, during the year 2003 and the year 2006. No faculty joined or left the college or shifted to another department during the period from 2003 to 2006.

Department Wise Distribution of Professors in the Age Group of 35 to 50 years

Q. If the number of professors in the college who crossed the age of 50 years between 2003 and 2006 is represented by x, the minimum possible value of x is

Solution:

►The number of professors in the different departments in 2003 and 2006 in the age group 35 - 50 are as follows.

►At least twelve professors would have crossed the age of 50 in the Mechanical department, seven in the Civil department and two in Electrical department.

►∴ At least 12(24 - 12) + 7(16 - 9) + 2(20-18) = 21 professors would have crossed the age of 50 from 2003 to 2006.

QUESTION: 31

DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the pie chart/s given below and answer the question that follows.

The following two pie charts give the details of the number of professors in the age group of 35 to 50 years, in different departments, at an engineering college, during the year 2003 and the year 2006. No faculty joined or left the college or shifted to another department during the period from 2003 to 2006.

Department Wise Distribution of Professors in the Age Group of 35 to 50 years

Q. If all lecturers who attain an age of 32 years get promoted as assistant professors and all assistant professors on attaining an age of 35 years get promoted as professors, then the number of assistant professors in the college in 2003 was the maximum in which department?

Solution:

►We do not know the number of professors who crossed the age of 50, between the years 2003 and 2006, in the different departments.

►So the number of new entrants into the age group of 35-50 cannot be determined.

►Since number of people who crossed 35 in 2006 (who were above 32 in 2003) cannot be determined, we cannot find out which department had the highest number of assistant professors in 2003.

QUESTION: 32

DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the pie chart/s given below and answer the question that follows.

The following two pie charts give the details of the number of professors in the age group of 35 to 50 years, in different departments, at an engineering college, during the year 2003 and the year 2006. No faculty joined or left the college or shifted to another department during the period from 2003 to 2006.

Department Wise Distribution of Professors in the Age Group of 35 to 50 years

Q. If the number of professors in the 47 to 50 years age group in the college in 2003 was the minimum possible, then which of the following statements is definitely true, given that the college had no professor over the age of 50 years in the year 2003?

Solution:

►Since a minimum number of professors were in the 47-50 age group in 2003, the number of professors who crossed the age of 50 in 2006 is minimum which is 21.

►Even though maximum number of professors crossed the age of 50, in the mechanical department, their average age need not be the highest.

►Similarly, nothing can be said about the average age of faculty in the civil engineering department.

►The number of professors who crossed the age of 50 between 2003 and 2006 is at least 21.

QUESTION: 33

In an exam, 75% of the candidates passed in English and 70% of the candidates passed in Mathematics. 23% candidates failed in both subjects. If 136 candidates passed in both the subjects, find out the number of candidates that appeared in the exam?

Solution:

►75% of the candidates passed in English

►So failed in english = 100 - 75 = 25%

►70% of the candidates passed in Mathematics

►So failed in Mathematics = 100- 70 = 30%

►23 % students failed in both

►So failed only in Mathematics = 30 - 23 = 7%

►Failed in only English = 25 - 23 = 2%

►So 2% + 7% + 23% = 32% , are the students who are faileed in atleast 1 subject

►students who passed in both = 100 - 32 = 68%

►68% of appeared students = 136
appeared students = 200 

QUESTION: 34

A man buys a house for Rs. 5 lakhs and rents it. He puts 12 .5 % of each month's rent aside for repairs, pays Rs. 1660 as annual taxes and realizes 10% on his investments thereafter. The monthly rent of the house is

Solution:

►Let the monthly rent be x/-

►Therefore, annual amount left after repairs = 12(x - 12.5%x)

►Also, 10% realization on investments means 10% of 5 lakhs or 50000/-

►Thus, (21/2)x - 1660 = 50000 ⇒ x = 4920/-

QUESTION: 35

Two subsets of the set A = {p, q, r, s, t} are to be chosen so that their union is A and their intersection contains exactly two elements. In how many ways can this be done, assuming that the order in which the subsets are chosen does not matter?

Solution:

►we can form two sets X and Y
case 1) let X be 2 element set and Y be 5 element set

►we can do this in 5C2 ways = 10 ways
case 2) we make a 3 element set X and a 4 element set Y leaving one of the members of X

►we get 5C3. 3C1 = 10.3 = 30

►so total sets = 40

QUESTION: 36

DIRECTIONS for the question: In the question given below which one of the answer figures should come after the problem figures given, if the sequence were continued?

Solution:

The pentagon rotates by 45° ACW after flipping while one line segment from ACW side shifts to CW side in each step, which is true in case of 4th option.

QUESTION: 37

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Five friends P, Q, R, S and T travelled to five different cities Chennai, Kolkata, Delhi, Bengaluru and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport - bus, train, aeroplane, car and boat, from Mumbai. The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat. R went to Bengaluru by car and Q went to Kolkata by aeroplane. S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train. Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.

Q. Which of the following combinations is true for S?

Solution:

►From the given information, we can make the following table:

►S went to Chennai by boat.

QUESTION: 38

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Five friends P, Q, R, S and T travelled to five different cities Chennai, Kolkata, Delhi, Bengaluru and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport - bus, train, aeroplane, car and boat, from Mumbai. The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat. R went to Bengaluru by car and Q went to Kolkata by aeroplane. S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train. Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.

Q. Which of the following combinations of place and mode is not correct?

Solution:

►From the given information, we can make the following table:

►Delhi – Bus is not correct.

QUESTION: 39

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

Five friends P, Q, R, S and T travelled to five different cities Chennai, Kolkata, Delhi, Bengaluru and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport - bus, train, aeroplane, car and boat, from Mumbai. The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat. R went to Bengaluru by car and Q went to Kolkata by aeroplane. S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train. Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.

Q. Who among the following travelled to Delhi?

Solution:

►From the given information, we can make the following table:

►T travelled to Delhi.

QUESTION: 40

In a family, there are seven persons, comprising two married couples. F1 is the son of F2 and the grandson of F3. F2 is a widower. F2 and F4 are brothers and F5 is the daughter-in-law of F6, who is the mother of F4 and the grandmother of F7. How is F7 related to F2?

Solution:


F7 is either nephew or niece of F2 as per the given options.

QUESTION: 41

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

A, B, C, D and E are members of a detective agency; To maintain impersonification, they operate under the code names P, Q. R. S and T, not necessarily in the same order. Following are the details pertaining to their impersonification:

(i) If B is R, then D is S
(ii) If A is Q, then C is S
(iii) If D is not T, then E is S
(iv) A is Q if and only if B is S or P
(v) If C is not T then. B is not P
(vi) D is R, and E is not S if and only if B is Q
(vii) If A is R, then C is T

Q. Under what name does C operate?

Solution:

►Using (i) - If B is R, then D is S. However, we cannot conclude that if D is S, then B is R. If B is R,then D is S (from (i). Let us assume that B is R, then D is S. From (iii), as D  is not T, E is S. But both D and E cannot be S. So, our assumption (namely B is R) itself is not valid. Hence we can conclude that B is in not R.

►Using (ii), (iv), and (v) - if B is S, then A is Q [from (iv)]. In such case, C is S [from (iii)]. Once again it is not acceptable, as B and C both cannot be S. Hence the assumption made is invalid in this case too (that B is S). So, B is not S. If B is P, then A is Q [from (iv)]. In that case, C is S [from (ii)]. As C is not T, B is not P [from iv]. This contradicts the assumption that (B is P) with which we started off. So this is also invalid. Hence B is not P.

►As B is neither S nor P, we also get form (iv) that A is not Q. Looking at (iii) again we get form this that D is not S (if D is S, D is not T and hence E is S. This is not possible as both D and E cannot be S).

►Let us summarize the finding till now:

►Hence, B can only be Q or T. Now, if B is Q, D is R and E is not S [from 4].

►But if D is R, E must be S, according to (iii). We cannot have situation where one given statement is contradicted by another given statement. Hence, B cannot be Q. So, the only possibility is that B is T. So we are sure  now that B is T.

►Looking at (vi) again, D is R and E is not S, if and only if B is Q. Now, as B is not Q, it follows that D is not R. It follows that E is S. If A is R, then C is T (vii). But we know that B is T, so C is not T. It follows that A is not R. Thus, A is not R, A is not Q, A is not T (as B is T), and A is not S (as E is S). Hence A is P.

►Coming to D, D is not P or S or T (as A is P, E is S and B is T). We have also seen above that D is not R. Hence, D is Q.

►The person left out till now, namely C, has to be R in that case. So, A, B, C, D and E operate under the names of P, T, R, Q and S respectively.

QUESTION: 42

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

A, B, C, D and E are members of a detective agency; To maintain impersonification, they operate under the code names P, Q. R. S and T, not necessarily in the same order. Following are the details pertaining to their impersonification:

(i) If B is R, then D is S
(ii) If A is Q, then C is S
(iii) If D is not T, then E is S
(iv) A is Q if and only if B is S or P
(v) If C is not T then. B is not P
(vi) D is R, and E is not S if and only if B is Q
(vii) If A is R, then C is T

Q. Who operates under the name of R?

Solution:

►Using (i) - If B is R, then D is S. However, we cannot conclude that if D is S, then B is R. If B is R,then D is S (from (i). Let us assume that B is R, then D is S. From (iii), as D  is not T, E is S. But both D and E cannot be S. So, our assumption (namely B is R) itself is not valid. Hence we can conclude that B is in not R.

►Using (ii), (iv), and (v) - if B is S, then A is Q [from (iv)]. In such case, C is S [from (iii)]. Once again it is not acceptable, as B and C both cannot be S. Hence the assumption made is invalid in this case too (that B is S). So, B is not S. If B is P, then A is Q [from (iv)]. In that case, C is S [from (ii)]. As C is not T, B is not P [from iv]. This contradicts the assumption that (B is P) with which we started off. So this is also invalid. Hence B is not P.

►As B is neither S nor P, we also get form (iv) that A is not Q. Looking at (iii) again we get form this that D is not S (if D is S, D is not T and hence E is S. This is not possible as both D and E cannot be S).

►Let us summarize the finding till now:

►Hence, B can only be Q or T. Now, if B is Q, D is R and E is not S [from 4].

►But if D is R, E must be S, according to (iii). We cannot have situation where one given statement is contradicted by another given statement. Hence, B cannot be Q. So, the only possibility is that B is T. So we are sure  now that B is T.

►Looking at (vi) again, D is R and E is not S, if and only if B is Q. Now, as B is not Q, it follows that D is not R. It follows that E is S. If A is R, then C is T (vii). But we know that B is T, so C is not T. It follows that A is not R. Thus, A is not R, A is not Q, A is not T (as B is T), and A is not S (as E is S). Hence A is P.

►Coming to D, D is not P or S or T (as A is P, E is S and B is T). We have also seen above that D is not R. Hence, D is Q.

►The person left out till now, namely C, has to be R in that case. So, A, B, C, D and E operate under the names of P, T, R, Q and S respectively.

QUESTION: 43

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

A, B, C, D and E are members of a detective agency; To maintain impersonification, they operate under the code names P, Q. R. S and T, not necessarily in the same order. Following are the details pertaining to their impersonification:

(i) If B is R, then D is S
(ii) If A is Q, then C is S
(iii) If D is not T, then E is S
(iv) A is Q if and only if B is S or P
(v) If C is not T then. B is not P
(vi) D is R, and E is not S if and only if B is Q
(vii) If A is R, then C is T

Q. Who operates under the name of Q?

Solution:

►Using (i) - If B is R, then D is S. However, we cannot conclude that if D is S, then B is R. If B is R,then D is S (from (i). Let us assume that B is R, then D is S. From (iii), as D  is not T, E is S. But both D and E cannot be S. So, our assumption (namely B is R) itself is not valid. Hence we can conclude that B is in not R.

►Using (ii), (iv), and (v) - if B is S, then A is Q [from (iv)]. In such case, C is S [from (iii)]. Once again it is not acceptable, as B and C both cannot be S. Hence the assumption made is invalid in this case too (that B is S). So, B is not S. If B is P, then A is Q [from (iv)]. In that case, C is S [from (ii)]. As C is not T, B is not P [from iv]. This contradicts the assumption that (B is P) with which we started off. So this is also invalid. Hence B is not P.

►As B is neither S nor P, we also get form (iv) that A is not Q. Looking at (iii) again we get form this that D is not S (if D is S, D is not T and hence E is S. This is not possible as both D and E cannot be S).

►Let us summarize the finding till now:

►Hence, B can only be Q or T. Now, if B is Q, D is R and E is not S [from 4].

►But if D is R, E must be S, according to (iii). We cannot have situation where one given statement is contradicted by another given statement. Hence, B cannot be Q. So, the only possibility is that B is T. So we are sure  now that B is T.

►Looking at (vi) again, D is R and E is not S, if and only if B is Q. Now, as B is not Q, it follows that D is not R. It follows that E is S. If A is R, then C is T (vii). But we know that B is T, so C is not T. It follows that A is not R. Thus, A is not R, A is not Q, A is not T (as B is T), and A is not S (as E is S). Hence A is P.

►Coming to D, D is not P or S or T (as A is P, E is S and B is T). We have also seen above that D is not R. Hence, D is Q.

►The person left out till now, namely C, has to be R in that case. So, A, B, C, D and E operate under the names of P, T, R, Q and S respectively.

QUESTION: 44

A clock is set right at 11 a. m. If it gains one minute an hour, what is approximately true time when the clock indicates 7 p.m the same day?

Solution:

►When actual time is 1 hour, clock will show 1 + 1/60 = 61/60 hours.

►So when clock shows 61/60 hours, actual time = 1 hr

►When clock shows & hours, actual time =  7 hours 53 minutes.
So actual time is 6:53 pm.

QUESTION: 45

DIRECTIONS for the question: In the question given below which one of the answer figures should come after the problem figures given, if the sequence were continued?

Solution:

►Square should be at lower end in every alternate figure and = sign should be at lower end of ‘c’.

►Now the upper end has new symbol in every even figure.

QUESTION: 46

DIRECTIONS for the question: What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number/alphabetic series?

S A K , Q B L , O D M , ?

Solution:

►Here the first letter of each term is moved two step backward to get the first letter of next term. So for missing term, it will be M

►The second letter of 1st, 2nd and 3rd terms are respectively moved one, two and three steps forward to obtain the corresponding letter of next term.

►So, for missing term it is G. The third letter of each term is moved one step forward to get next term.

►Thus, third letter of missing term is N. Hence, the answer becomes MGN.

QUESTION: 47

DIRECTIONS for the question: There is a question followed by two arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Should open book systems be introduced in examinations?

Arguments:
I. Yes, because it will avoid mass copying.
II. No, because then all students will get 100% marks.
Choose the correct option:

Solution:

Mass copying is not a generalized occurrence. Open book cannot guarantee 100% marks as the students needs to know where to find the answer in the open books.

QUESTION: 48

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

How many hexagons can be found in the given diagram, if each side of a hexagon must consist of all or part of the straight lines in the diagram?

Solution:

►In the given diagram there are:

►four hexagons congruent to the hexagon in the fig (i),

►four hexagons congruent to the hexagon in fig (ii) and

►eight hexagons congruent to the hexagon in fig (iii).

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 49

Raman starts walking in the morning facing the Sun. After sometime, he turned to the left. Later again he turned to his left. At what direction is Raman moving now?

Solution:

According to question,



Raman is moving now in West direction.

QUESTION: 50

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
To open a software lock, you have to type elements in sequence using a keyboard. The sequence is called a combination. All accepted combinations must consist of exactly five elements i.e. four letters and one single digit number. Acceptable combinations must also confirm to the following rules:

1. The number must be either the second or third element in the combination.
2. The fourth and fifth element in the combination must not be the same.
3.  If the third element is a number, then the fifth must be either B or D.
4. If the third element is a letter, then there must be no Fs or Gs in the combination.
5. The first element must be a letter closer to the beginning of the alphabet than any other element in the combination.

Q. A combination whose first element is B and whose fourth element is G could have which of the following as its second, third, and fifth elements, respectively?

Solution:

Work with the answer choices.

►Option b is wrong because If the third element is a number, then the fifth must be either B or D, which is true only for option 1. 

►Option c is ruled out because if the 3rd element is a letter, then F or G cannot appear in the combination.

►Option d is ruled out for the same reason as option c.
The best answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 51

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
To open a software lock, you have to type elements in sequence using a keyboard. The sequence is called a combination. All accepted combinations must consist of exactly five elements i.e. four letters and one single digit number. Acceptable combinations must also confirm to the following rules:

1. The number must be either the second or third element in the combination.
2. The fourth and fifth element in the combination must not be the same.
3.  If the third element is a number, then the fifth must be either B or D.
4. If the third element is a letter, then there must be no Fs or Gs in the combination.
5. The first element must be a letter closer to the beginning of the alphabet than any other element in the combination.

Q. The combination C, Q, 8, P, F can be made acceptable by doing which of the following?

Solution:

►Since the 3rd element is a number, the 5th element must be B or D.

►Since C is the closest to the beginning of the alphabet, the 5th element must be D. 
So F must be replaced with D.

QUESTION: 52

The total of three consecutive even numbers is 36 more than the average of these three numbers. Which of the following is the second of the three numbers?

Solution:

►Suppose the three numbers are (2x – 2), 2x and (2x + 2).

►Mean is  middle number that is 2x. Then A.T.Q.  6x = 36 + 2x.

►Solving this yields x = 9. Therefore the second number must be 18.

QUESTION: 53

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

In a certain code 'MOTIVATION' is written as 'NLGREZGRLM’. How will ‘MANAGEMENT' be written in that code?

Solution:

►Each alphabet is replaced by the alphabet which comes when the complete pattern is written in the reverse order. i.e In MOTIVATION, the position of M in English alphabets in 13.

►So, it is given the code N which is 13 from the end of the alphabets “Similarly the position of O is 15 which is coded as L which is 15th from the end and  so on.
So code of MANAGEMENT is NZMZTVNVMG.

QUESTION: 54

DIRECTIONS for the question: The question consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relationship. From amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrates a similar relationship.

Vertex : Pyramid : ________ : ________

Solution:

The vertex is the highest point of a pyramid; the summit is the highest point of a mountain.

QUESTION: 55

DIRECTIONS for the question: Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

Solution:

when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line it will appear as option 1.
Hence option 1 is the answer.

QUESTION: 56

Aman starts walking from his college, walks 10 km towards North, then he turns to his left and walks 10 km. From there he takes a right turn and walks 10 km. In which direction is he facing now?

Solution:

QUESTION: 57

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the most appropriate option.
Statement: Many youngsters are addicted to social network sites on the internet. This has become a major cause of concern as these youngsters are not paying attention to their studies.

Q. Which of the following steps should the parents of such youngsters take to rid these youngsters of the addiction?

Solution:

►The logical and practicable solution to the problem lies in proper counselling of children rather than putting a ban on social networking or restraining kids to use internet and even yoga practice.

So only option A is valid

QUESTION: 58

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.

6 friends, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a table facing inside. Two of them are singers, two of them are guitarists, one of them is a flautist and one of them is a percussionist. The guitarists, who sit next to each other, are shorter than all the others.
Further,

1. B, the singer, is sitting opposite the tallest person.
2. The percussionist is taller than both the guitarists but shorter than the flautist.
3. A, the shortest, is sitting to the right of a singer.
4. The percussionist is sitting opposite one of the guitarists.
5. C, the singer, is sitting to the left of B.
6. E is not sitting opposite either C or a guitarist.
7. F is sitting to the left of a singer.

Q. Who is the tallest of the six friends?

Solution:

►Place B, the singer and the tallest friend opposite each other. C, the other singer, sits to the left of B as shown.

►Since F sits to the left of a singer, F sits to the left of C. Since A is the shortest, he must be a guitarist and he sits to the right of a singer. So, A must sit to the right of B.

►Now, if F is a guitarist, then the guitarists would sit opposite each other. This contradicts the given information. Since the flautist is taller than the percussionist, and the percussionist sits opposite one of the guitarists, the only possibility is that F is the percussionist.

►The tallest friend is, therefore, the flautist and the other guitarist sits to the right of A.

►Since E sits opposite neither C nor a guitarist, E must be the flautist and D must be the other guitarist. We can now draw the diagram as shown below.

The tallest of the six friends is E, the flautist.

QUESTION: 59

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
6 friends, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a table facing inside. Two of them are singers, two of them are guitarists, one of them is a flautist and one of them is a percussionist. The guitarists, who sit next to each other, are shorter than all the others.

Further,

1. B, the singer, is sitting opposite the tallest person.
2. The percussionist is taller than both the guitarists but shorter than the flautist.
3. A, the shortest, is sitting to the right of a singer.
4. The percussionist is sitting opposite one of the guitarists.
5. C, the singer, is sitting to the left of B.
6. E is not sitting opposite either C or a guitarist.
7. F is sitting to the left of a singer.

Q. How many different bands can be formed if each band must contain at least one singer, at least one guitarist, one percussionist and one flautist?

Solution:

►Since each band must contain at least one singer, at least one guitarist, one percussionist and one flautist, each band has a minimum of 4 friends and a maximum of 6.

►Since there is only one flautist and one percussionist among the six friends, these 2 would be common to each band that can be formed.

►If the band is made up of 4 friends, then one singer and one guitarist can be chosen in 2 × 2 = 4 ways.

►If the band is made up of 5 friends, then 1 guitarist and 2 singers or 1 singer and 2 guitarists can be chosen in 2 × 1 = 2 ways each.

►If the band is made up of 6 friends, these can be chosen in only 1 way.

Thus, a total of 4 + 2 + 2 + 1 = 9 different bands can be formed.

QUESTION: 60

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the most appropriate option.

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BEHAVIOUR each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

Solution:

B   E   H   A   V   I   O   U   R
The pairs are E & I and V & R.

Hence two pairs.

Use Code STAYHOME200 and get INR 200 additional OFF
Use Coupon Code

How to Prepare for CAT

Read our guide to prepare for CAT which is created by Toppers & the best Teachers

Download free EduRev App

Track your progress, build streaks, highlight & save important lessons and more!

Related tests