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# SNAP Mock Test - 5

## 150 Questions MCQ Test SNAP Mock Test Series 2020 | SNAP Mock Test - 5

Description
This mock test of SNAP Mock Test - 5 for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT SNAP Mock Test - 5 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SNAP Mock Test - 5 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT students definitely take this SNAP Mock Test - 5 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SNAP Mock Test - 5 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

### Complete the following number series 2, 3, 8, 27, 112,?

Solution:

2 x 1 + 1 = 3
3 x 2 + 2 = 8
8 x 3 + 3 = 27
27 x 4 + 4 = 112
112 x 5 + 5 = 565
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 2

### Which among the following options will replace the blank in the series below? ABC, G H IJ,______ , YZ ?

Solution:

Observe that the first term comprises the first three letters - ABC - and then, the next three letters - DEF - are skipped.
The next term starts with the next letter i.e. G and this term has four letters - GHIJ.
Hence, to test this pattern, you can skip the four letters after J - KLMN - and start the next term with O.
Since the first and second term had three and four letters respectively, the third term should have five letters.
Hence, the third term should be OPQRS.
If you want to verify the logic, skip the next five letters - TUVWX - and observe that the next term starts with Y (as it should).
Hence, the missing term is OPQRS.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 3

### Group Question Answer the following question based on the information given below. Aishwarya, Sushmita, Lara, Diana and Priyanka were chosen by an advertising company to walk the ramp as a famous designer’s muses in five different countries. The five countries were Paris, London, New York, Sun City and San Francisco. The ladies were all top models and specified their choices of countries as follows: 1. Aishwarya and Sushmita would not go to Sun City and Paris. 2. Lara wanted to go to San Francisco. 3. London was chosen by the one of the two models who refused to go to both Paris and Sun City. 4. New York was chosen by Sushmita. 5. Diana had just one demand, and that was she would, in no case, go to Paris.   Q. Who went to Paris finally?

Solution:

Lara and Shushmita went to San Francisco and New York respectively.
Now, from the condition 3, London was chosen by one of the two models who refused to go to both Paris and Sun City i.e. either by Aishwarya or Sushmita.
But Sushmita chose New York.
Hence, Aishwarya went to London.
Hence, Diana and Priyanka went to Paris and Sun City in no particular order.
But Diana, in no case, would go to Paris.
Hence, Diana went to Sun City and Priyanka went to Paris.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 4

Aishwarya, Sushmita, Lara, Diana and Priyanka were chosen by an advertising company to walk the ramp as a famous designer’s muses in five different countries. The five countries were Paris, London, New York, Sun City and San Francisco. The ladies were all top models and specified their choices of countries as follows:

1. Aishwarya and Sushmita would not go to Sun City and Paris.
2. Lara wanted to go to San Francisco.
3. London was chosen by the one of the two models who refused to go to both Paris and Sun City.
4. New York was chosen by Sushmita.
5. Diana had just one demand, and that was she would, in no case, go to Paris.

Q. Where did Diana go?

Solution:

From the solution of first question, Diana finally went to Sun City.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 5

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Yuvesh goes to a casino with 100 tokens to play his favourite game. The game is a ‘free entry’ game i.e., the player does not need to pay any token to start playing the game. However, every time the player wins a game, he gets 50 tokens from the casino and every time he loses a game, he has to pay 20 tokens to the casino. The game involves using various decks of standard playing cards. If a person draws three consecutive aces, he wins the game else he loses. Also, a card once drawn from the pack is not replaced till all three cards are drawn.

Q. On a certain day, Yuvesh played 15 games and left the casino with 80 tokens. What can be the maximum of number of games that he won out of the first five games that he played?

Solution:

Assume that Yuvesh won x games in all.
So, he lost (15 - x) games.
For every win, he gains 50 tokens and for every loss, he loses 20 tokens.
He started with 100 tokens and ended with 80 tokens.
80 = 100 + 50 x - 2 0 (15 - x)
100 + 50x - 300 + 20x - 80 = 0
70x = 280
x = 4
Thus, Yuvesh won 4 games in all.
To maximise his total wins in the first five games, all four of his wins should have come in the first five games.
So, the maximum number of games that Yuvesh could have won in the first five gaames is four.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 6

Yuvesh goes to a casino with 100 tokens to play his favourite game. The game is a ‘free entry’ game i.e., the player does not need to pay any token to start playing the game. However, every time the player wins a game, he gets 50 tokens from the casino and every time he loses a game, he has to pay 20 tokens to the casino. The game involves using various decks of standard playing cards. If a person draws three consecutive aces, he wins the game else he loses. Also, a card once drawn from the pack is not replaced till all three cards are drawn.

Q. Aman and Yuvesh enter the casino together and decide to stop playing after exactly an hour. Aman starts playing with 250 tokens and wins 6 out of 25 games at the end of the given time. Yuvesh wins 3 out of 10 games that he has played in the same time. What is the difference between the number of tokens with Aman and Yuvesh when they stop playing?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the first question.
The number of tokens that each player has when they stopped playing can be calculated as done earlier in the first question.
Tokens with Aman = 250 + (6 x 50) - (19 x 20) = 250 + 300 - 380 = 170
Tokens with Yuvesh = 100 + (3 x 50) - (7 x 20) = 100 + 150 -140 = 110
Required difference = 170 - 110 = 60
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 7

Yuvesh goes to a casino with 100 tokens to play his favourite game. The game is a ‘free entry’ game i.e., the player does not need to pay any token to start playing the game. However, every time the player wins a game, he gets 50 tokens from the casino and every time he loses a game, he has to pay 20 tokens to the casino. The game involves using various decks of standard playing cards. If a person draws three consecutive aces, he wins the game else he loses. Also, a card once drawn from the pack is not replaced till all three cards are drawn.

Q. If Yuvesh ends up with 210 tokens after playing 12 games, what percentage of games (that he played) has he won?

Solution:

Let Yuvesh win x games in all.
210= 100 + 50x- 20(12 - x)
110 = 50x - 240 + 20x
70x = 350
x = 5
Thus, he won 5 games out of 12.
Required percentage = (5/12) * 100 = 41.67%
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 8

What should come in the place of the question mark?

Solution:

Sum of the first row = 1 + 1 = 2
Sum of the second row = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3
Sum of the third row = 5 = (3 + 2)
Sum of the fourth row = 8 = (5 + 3)
Thus, sum of (n + 2)th row = sum of (n + 1)th row + sum of nth row
sum of the fifth row = 8 + 5 = 13
1 + 3 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 7 = 13
Hence, 3 should replace the question mark.
Hence, option 3

QUESTION: 9

Sarita has two sons - one of whom is Tarun. Also, the mother of Palak has only two sons - Tarun and Aakash. How is Palak related to Sarita?

Solution:

Palak’s mother has only two sons, Tarun and Aakash. Hence, Palak has to be the sister of both Tarun and Aakash.
Tarun is also Sarita’s son.
So, Palak is the daughter of Sarita.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 10

There are 3 candles with their lengths in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 (Every other dimension is the same for all the candles). They are lit in such a way that when the second candle has been lit, the first candle had been reduced to half its original length & when the third candle is lit, the second candle is half its original length.The total time taken for all the candles to totally burn out is 9 hours. Assume that the candles are lit in increasing order lengths. In how much time does the longest candle completely burn?

Solution:

Since, apart from length, all the dimensions of the candle are the same, the time taken by the candles to burn is in the ratio of the lengths of the candles i.e. 1 : 2 : 3.
Let the shortest candle take 2x hours to burn. So, the second longest candle and longest candle respectively take 4x and 6x hours to burn.
Now, the second candle is lit after the first candle is reduced to half its length.
Since the first candle burns completely in 2x hours, it becomes half in x hours.
Thus, the second candle is lit after x hours.
Similarly, the third candle is lit after the second candle is reduced to half its length.
Since the second candle burns completely in 4x hours, it becomes half in 2x hours.
So, the second candle burns for 2x hours, after which the third candle is lit.
Once the third candle is lit, it takes 6x hours to burn.
All three candles burn out in 9 hours.
x + 2x + 6x = 9
x = 1.
Therefore, the time taken by the longest candle to burn fully is 6 hours.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 11

Rashmin is 4th from the front in a queue while Rahim is 5th from the end and there are 2 people between the two of them. What can be the number of people in the queue if it is known that the number of people is the least possible?

Solution:

For the number of people to be minimum, Rashmin has to be 4th from the front and Rahim has to be 5th in such a way that Rahim is in front of Rashmin.
This is possible if Rahim is 1st from the front, Rashmin is 4th from the front and there are 5 people in the queue.
The only other combination is where Rashmin is 4th from the front and Rahim is 7th from the front.
However, this leads to the queue having 11 people.
Since we want to have minimum people, this number is 5.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 12

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Seven university cricket players are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the dais along one side of a single rectangular table.

• A and G have to leave the luncheon early and must be seated at the extreme right end of the table, which is closest to the exit.
• B will receive the Man of the Match award and must be in the center chair.
• C and D who are bitter rivals for the position of wicket keeper, dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as possible.
• E and F are best friends and want to sit together.

Q. Which of the following may not be seated at either end of the table?

Solution:

Consider the blank seat from left to right as shown below.
(Left)____________________(Right)
B will be at the centre. Simultaneously, A and G will occupy the two seats at the extreme right.
Thus, the arrangement now is: _______B __ A/G G/A
Since C and D have to be as far away as possible from each other, one of them has to be to the immediate right of B while the other has to be at the extreme left seat.
Now, E and F have to be together. They anyways have only the second and third seat from the left available.
Hence, they occupy those seats.
Thus, the final arrangement is as shown below.
D/C E/F F/E B C/D A/G G/A
Thus, F may not be seated at either end of the table.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 13

Seven university cricket players are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the dais along one side of a single rectangular table.

• A and G have to leave the luncheon early and must be seated at the extreme right end of the table, which is closest to the exit.
• B will receive the Man of the Match award and must be in the center chair.
• C and D who are bitter rivals for the position of wicket keeper, dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as possible.
• E and F are best friends and want to sit together.

Q. Which of the following pairs may not be seated together?

Solution:

From the solution to the first question, it can be seen that B and D, C and F, as well as G and D can be seated together.
Only E and A can never be seated together.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 14

In a certain language, BOMBAY is coded as HJQYCX. Which of these words is coded as SVHOCR in that language?

Solution:

For BOMBAY and its coded equivalent HJQYCX, consider the position of each letter in the alphabet.

2 + 6 = 8, 1 5 - 5 = 10, 13 + 4 = 17, 2 8 - 3 = 25 (Note that the 2nd letter is the same as the 28th letter if the alphabet keeps repeating), 1 + 2 = 3 and 25 - 1 = 24
Thus, starting from the first letter, the difference between the letter in the code and the corresponding letter in the original word is +6, -5, + 4, -3, +2 and -1.
A certain word is coded as SVHOCR. To find the original word, apply this logic in reverse.
S - 6 ⇒19 - 6 = 13 i.e. M
V + 5 ⇒ 22 + 5 = 27 (which is the same as 26 + 1) i.e. A
H - 4 ⇒ 8 - 4 = 4 i.e. D
o + 3 ⇒ 15 + 3 = 18 i.e. R
C - 2 ⇒ 3 - 2 = 1 i.e. A
R + 1 ⇒ 18 + 1 = 19 i.e. S
Thus, the original word is MADRAS.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 15

Group Question

Refer to the following data and answer the questions that follow:

In an MBA entrance exam, a candidate attempts X questions correctly and Y questions incorrectly such that X = 2Y - 5. Each correct answer fetches 1.5 marks whereas for each incorrect answer 0.5 marks are deducted.

Q. What is the total number of questions asked in the exam, if a candidate attempts all the questions but goes wrong in 12 of them?

Solution:

Since the candidate attempts all the questions and gets 12 questions wrong, X + Y = total and Y = 12
X = 2Y - 5 = 2(12) - 5 = 19
Total questions = X + Y = 1 9 + 12 = 31
Hence, option 4

QUESTION: 16

In an MBA entrance exam, a candidate attempts X questions correctly and Y questions incorrectly such that X = 2Y - 5. Each correct answer fetches 1.5 marks whereas for each incorrect answer 0.5 marks are deducted.

Q. If a student has the same number of correct and incorrect  answers, what is his score?

Solution:

Here, X = Y
Y = 2Y - 5 which gives Y = X = 5
A student gets 1.5 marks for each correct answer and loses 0.5 marks for each incorrect answer.
Total marks = 1.5(5) - 0.5(5) = 7.5 - 2.5 = 5.0
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 17

In an MBA entrance exam, a candidate attempts X questions correctly and Y questions incorrectly such that X = 2Y - 5. Each correct answer fetches 1.5 marks whereas for each incorrect answer 0.5 marks are deducted.

Q. In the previous question, how many questions did the student not attempt, if the total number of questions in the exam was 20?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the previous question.
X + Y + unattempted questions = total questions
5 + 5 + unattempted questions = 20
unattempted questions = 10
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 18

In an MBA entrance exam, a candidate attempts X questions correctly and Y questions incorrectly such that X = 2Y - 5. Each correct answer fetches 1.5 marks whereas for each incorrect answer 0.5 marks are deducted.

Q. In the previous question, what is the student’s percentage score, if the unattempted questions do not carry any marks?

Solution:

Consider the solution to the previous question.
When the total number of questions = 20, maximum possible marks = 20 x 1.5 = 30
As per the previous solutions, the student has scored 5 marks.
Required percentage = (5/30) x 100 = 16.67%
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 19

In an MBA entrance exam, a candidate attempts X questions correctly and Y questions incorrectly such that X = 2Y - 5. Each correct answer fetches 1.5 marks whereas for each incorrect answer 0.5 marks are deducted.

Q. Assume that the relationship between X and Y no longer holds. Now, if the student attempts all the questions and gets 25.5 marks by answering 12 questions incorrectly, how many questions does the exam have in all?

Solution:

A students gets 1.5 marks for every correct answer and loses 0.5 marks for every incorrect answer.
1.5 (X) - 0.5(12) = 25.5
1.5X = 31.5
X = 21
Total number of questions = X+Y =21 + 12 = 33
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 20

Riten and Maya attended a dinner party at which there were four other couples Mr. and Mrs. Abel, Mr. and Mrs. Balu, Mr. and Mrs. Chintu, and Mr. and Mrs. Dinesh. As introductions were made, a certain number of handshakes were made.

• No one shook hands with his or her spouse.
• No one shook another person’s hand more than once.

Q. How many handshakes were made altogether?

Solution:

Riten will shake hands with 8 people i.e. Mr. and Mrs. Abel, Mr. and Mrs. Balu, Mr. and Mrs. Chintu and Mr. and Mrs. Dinesh.
Similarly Maya can also shake hands with 8 different people.
Now, Mr. Abel already shook hands with Riten and Maya,
He can now shake hands with 6 different people i.e. Mr. and Mrs. Balu, Mr. and Mrs. Chintu and Mr. and Mrs. Dinesh.
Mrs. Abel can also shake hands with 6 different people.
Similarly Mr. and Mrs. Balu can shake hands with 4 different people each.
Mr. and Mrs. Chintu can shake hands with 2 different people each.
The total number of handshakes = 16 + 12 + 8 + 4 = 40
Hence, option 3.
Alternatively,
There are 10 people and one handshake involves 2 people.
If all the people were to shake hands with each other once, the total number of handshakes would be 10C2 i.e. 45.

But since husband and wife do not shake hands with each other, we have to subtract 5 handshakes (for the 5 couples).
The total number of handshakes = 10C2 - 5 = 45 - 5 = 40
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 21

You have to transfer a set of rings numbered 1 to 8 from tower A to tower C. The rings are stacked one over the other in an order, with 1 at the top and 8 at the bottom, and have to be stacked in the same fashion on tower C. You can move only one ring at a time, and can store the rings in a stack, temporarily, in another tower B. Minimum how many moves of rings, between the towers, will it take for you to arrange the rings in tower C?

Solution:

In tower C, ring 1 has to be at the top and 8 has to be at the bottom.
Therefore, ring 8 has to go into tower C first while ring 1 has to go in last.
B is the temprorary storage.
First transfer 1,2,3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 (in that order) to B.
Now, transfer 8 directly from A to C.
Now, from B transfer 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1 (in that order) to C.
The total number of moves required = 7(A to B) + 1(A to C) + 7(B to C) = 15

Hence, option 1

QUESTION: 22

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

The figures below represent players playing different games i.e. the circle, triangle, rectangle and square represent people playing cricket, football, hockey and kabaddi respectively. The number inside each figure represents the number of players playing that particular game.

Q. What is the difference between the number of people playing atmost one game and the number of people playing atleast three games?

Solution:

Number of people playing atmost one game = 15 + 17 + 19 + 21 = 72
Number of people playing atleast three games = 4 + 6 + 2 + 1 = 13
Difference = 72 - 13 = 59
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 23

The figures below represent players playing different games i.e. the circle, triangle, rectangle and square represent people playing cricket, football, hockey and kabaddi respectively. The number inside each figure represents the number of players playing that particular game.

Q. What is the ratio of players playing only cricket and football to the players playing both football and kabaddi?

Solution:

Number of players playing only cricket and football = 3
Number of players playing both football and kabaddi = 2 + 6 + 5 + 1 = 14
Required ratio = 3 : 1 4
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 24

The figures below represent players playing different games i.e. the circle, triangle, rectangle and square represent people playing cricket, football, hockey and kabaddi respectively. The number inside each figure represents the number of players playing that particular game.

Q. What percent of total players play atleast two games, if the players in the figure are the only players?

Solution:

Total number of players = 15 + 7 + 17 + 3 + 4 + 2 + 6 + 3 + 1 + 5 + 19 + 8 + 21 = 111
Players playing atleast two games = 7 + 3 + 4 + 2 + 6 + 3 + 1 + 5 + 8 = 39
Required percentage = (39 /111) x 100 = 35.13%
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 25

Find the missing term in the series.

48, 105, 192,315,7

Solution:

The logic followed in this series is as follows:

48 = 2 x 4 x 6, 105 = 3 x 5 x 7, 192 = 4 x 6 x 8, 315 = 5 x 7 x 9
The next term = 6 x 8 x 1 0 = 480
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 26

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

There are 5 friends - Raahil, Rohit, Rashesh, Pinki and Pooja. They have different IQ scores. Among them, Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while the others are females. Also, it is known that there is at least 1 male whose IQ is better than the two females. When arranged in decreasing order of their IQ scores, the two females are next to each other. While Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score. Also Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.

Q. If Rashesh’s score is interchanged with that of Rohit, how many people’s IQ score is more than that of Rashesh?

Solution:

Since it is given that there is at least one male whose IQ score is better than all the females and the two females are placed next to each other when arranged in decreasing order; the possibility of their placements (in terms of male and female members) is:

Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while Pinki and Pooja are females.
Since Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, the two females have to be above at least one male.
So, the last case shown in the table above is not possible.
Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score and Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.
Thus, there have to be at least two males above the two females.
So, the first case shown in the table is also not possible.
So, the only possibility is that there are two males, followed by the two females with the third male at the end.
Rashesh > Rohit > Pooja/Pinki > Pinki/Pooja > Raahil
Note that Pooja and Pinki can be either third or fourth without violating any of the given conditions.

Thus, the final arrangement is as shown below:

Hence, if Rashesh’s score is interchanged with that of Rohit, Rashesh would be second and Rohit would have the highest IQ score.
So, only Rohit’s IQ score would be more than that of Rashesh if their scores are interchanged.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 27

There are 5 friends - Raahil, Rohit, Rashesh, Pinki and Pooja. They have different IQ scores. Among them, Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while the others are females. Also, it is known that there is at least 1 male whose IQ is better than the two females. When arranged in decreasing order of their IQ scores, the two females are next to each other. While Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score. Also Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.

Q. How many people’s IQ scores are more than that of Pinki?

Solution:

Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the first question.
Pinki could be 3rd or 4th in the descending order of IQ scores.
Based on this, 2 or 3 people could have their IQ scores greater than that of Pinki.
So, the exact number cannot be determined.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 28

There are 5 friends - Raahil, Rohit, Rashesh, Pinki and Pooja. They have different IQ scores. Among them, Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while the others are females. Also, it is known that there is at least 1 male whose IQ is better than the two females. When arranged in decreasing order of their IQ scores, the two females are next to each other. While Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score. Also Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.

Q. Which of the following relationships is definitely correct with respect to the IQ scores of these students?

Solution:

Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the first question.
Rashesh has the highest IQ score while Raahil has the lowest.
Hence, options 1 and 2 can be eliminated.
The order given in option 4 is a possibility but the order of Pooja and Pinki can also be interchanged.
So, the given relationship may or may not be correct.
Hence, option 4 can also be eliminated.
The relationship in option 3 is definitely correct.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 29

There are 5 friends - Raahil, Rohit, Rashesh, Pinki and Pooja. They have different IQ scores. Among them, Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while the others are females. Also, it is known that there is at least 1 male whose IQ is better than the two females. When arranged in decreasing order of their IQ scores, the two females are next to each other. While Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score. Also Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.

Q. Who has the lowest IQ score?

Solution:

Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the first question.
Raahil has the lowest IQ score.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 30

There are 5 friends - Raahil, Rohit, Rashesh, Pinki and Pooja. They have different IQ scores. Among them, Raahil, Rohit and Rashesh are males while the others are females. Also, it is known that there is at least 1 male whose IQ is better than the two females. When arranged in decreasing order of their IQ scores, the two females are next to each other. While Pinki’s score is more than Raahil’s score, Rashesh’s score is more than Rohit’s score. Also Rohit’s score is more than Pooja’s score.

Q. Which person has as many people with an IQ score greater than him/her as less than him/her?

Solution:

Consider the final table obtained in the solution to the first question.
The person having an equal number of people with an IQ score greater than and less than his/her IQ score will be third in the descending order of IQ scores.
As per the table, this person could be either Pinki or Pooja.
Hence, option 4

QUESTION: 31

Six students - A to F - take a test. B scores 7 more marks than D but is not the highest scorer. A scores 3 marks less than F but 5 marks more than E. D scores 5 marks more than A but 8 marks less than C. Who is the third highest scorer among them?

Solution:

B = 7 + D
A = F - 3 and A = E + 5
D = A + 5 = C - 8
A = D- 5 and C = D + 8
Now A = F - 3 = D - 5 ⇒ F = D - 2
Similarly, E= D - 10
Since everyone’s marks have been expressed in terms of D, they can be directly compared.
Thus, in descending order of marks, C> B> D> F> A> E
Thus, D is the third highest scorer.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 32

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

A competition requires Rahul to identify the odd weight in a group of weights, given that all the remaining weights are equal. He is given a regular pan balance to complete this task.

Q. If Rahul is initially given 15 weights, how many iterations will he need to definitely pin-point the odd weight and whether it heavier or lighter than the other wieghts?

Solution:

Here, it is not known whether the odd weight is heavier or lighter.

To begin, Rahul needs to divide the 15 weights into three lots of five weights each.
Iterations 1 and 2: Compare Lot 1 and Lot 2.
If these lots are equal, the odd weight is definitely in the third lot. In that case, compare either Lot 1 or 2 with Lot 3 to identify whether the odd weight is heavier or lighter.
If these lots are unequal, the odd weight is in one of Lot 1 or 2 and the other is equal to Lot 3. So, compare either Lot 1 with Lot 3. If they are equal, the odd weight is in Lot 2, else it is in Lot 1. Also, whether the odd weight is heavier or lighter can be identified at this stage.
Irrespective of the outcome, a Lot of 5 weights (that has the odd weight) can be identified at the end of iteration 2.
Iterations 3 and 4: Divide the Lot of 5 weights into 2, 2 and 1 and compare the two groups of 2 weights each.
If they are equal, the odd weight is the single weight that is left out. In this case, Rahul can pin point the odd weight at the end of the third iteration.
If they are unequal and knowing whether the odd weight is lighter or heavier, Rahul can know which group has the odd weight.
Comparing just these two weights in the next iteration helps Rahul find the odd weight.
So, Rahul can definitely pin point the odd weight at the end of the fourth iteration.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 33

A competition requires Rahul to identify the odd weight in a group of weights, given that all the remaining weights are equal. He is given a regular pan balance to complete this task.

Q. If Rahul starts with 30 weights and is told that the odd weight is lighter than the rest, how many iterations will he require to definitely find out the incorrect weight?

Solution:

In this case, it is known that the odd weight is lighter.
Rahul will start by dividing the weights into equal lots of 10 weights each.
Iteration 1: Compare Lot 1 and Lot 2.
If they are equal then the odd weight is in Lot 3.
If they are unequal, the odd weight is in the Lot where the pan (of the pan balance) has gone up.
Hence, at the end of the first iteration, Rahul will know which lot of 10 weights has the odd weight.
Iteration 2: Subdivide the identified lot into groups of 3, 3 and 4 and compare the weights of the two groups of 3 weights each.
If they are equal then the odd weight is in the third lot of 4 weights.
If, however, they are unequal, then the odd weight is in the lot which has the lesser weight of the two.
Hence, at the end of the second iteration, Rahul has a smaller group of 3 or 4 weights that contains the odd weight.
Iterations 3 and 4: Divide the 3 weights into (1, 1, 1) or the 4 weights into (1, 1,2) and compare the two groups having one weight each.
Thus, as explained in the previous question, Rahul requires two iterations here.
So, Rahul requires 4 iterations to definitely the odd weight in this case.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 34

In a certain language, FRUIT is coded as (20, 9, 21, 18, 6). Which word will be coded as (11,14, 9,18, 4) in that language?

Solution:

Consider the alphabetical position of each letter of the word FRUIT.
F = 6, R = 18, U = 21, I = 9 and T = 20
Thus, the logic is that the word is first reversed and then each letter is replaced by its position in the alphabet.
Consider (11, 14, 9, 18, 4).
The letters corresponding to these positions are K, N, I, R and D.
Since these correspond to the reversed word, the original word is obtained by reversing these letters i.e. DRINK.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 35

Given are two statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of them logically follows from the statements.

Statements

A. All boys are girls.
B. Some girls are beautiful.

Conclusions

I. Some boys maybe beautiful.
II. All boys are beautiful.
III. No boy is beautiful.

Solution:

Since all boys are girls and some girls are beautiful, there is a possibility that some boys are beautiful.
However, there is also a case where the set of boys does not intersect with the set of beautiful.
So, some boys may be beautiful.
So, conclusion I follows.
Conclusions II and III may or may not follow.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 36

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

In the table given below, players due to play the US Open are listed in order of their seeding from the highest (#1) to the lowest (#32). This tournament has four rounds before the finals - first round, second round, quaterfinal and semifinal. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player i.e. Seed 1 v/s Seed 32 and the match is designated as match number 1 of the first round. Seed 2 plays Seed 31 in match 2 of the first round and so on. The last match of the first round is match number 16 between Seed 16 and Seed 17.
In the second round, the winner of match 1 of the first round plays the winner of match 16 of the first round and this match is called match number 1 of the second round. Similarly, match number 2 of the second round is between the winners of match 2 and match 15 of the first round and so on till match 8 where the winners of matches 8 and 9 of the first round play each other.
In aany round, if a lower-seeded player beats a higher-seeded player, it is termed an “upset”.
The same pattern is followed in the later rounds as well.

Q. If there were no upsets in the first round, who will meet Djokovic in the quarterfinals given that there only 3 upsets (match numbers 4, 5 and 6) in the second round?

Solution:

Since there are no upsets in the first round, the winners of the first round are seed 1, seed 2, seed 3 and so on upto seed 16.
These players will play each other in the second round as under:
Match 1 - Seed 1 v/s seed 16 - winner seed 1
Match 2 - Seed 2 v/s seed 15 - winner seed 2
Match 3 - Seed 3 v/s seed 14 - winner seed 3

Since matches 4, 5 and 6 are upsets, the lower seed in these matches will be the winner.
Match 4 - Seed 4 v/s seed 13, winner seed 13
Match 5 - Seed 5 v/s seed 12, winner seed 12
Match 6 - Seed 6 v/s seed 11, winner seed 11
Match 7 - Seed 7 v/s seed 10, winner seed 7
Match 8 - Seed 8 v/s seed 9, winner seed 8
Djokovik is seed 3.
Hence, in the next round (quarterfinals), the winner of match 3 (i.e. Djokovik - seed 3) will play the winner of match 6 (i.e. Sam Querrey - seed 11).
Hence option 1.

QUESTION: 37

In the table given below, players due to play the US Open are listed in order of their seeding from the highest (#1) to the lowest (#32). This tournament has four rounds before the finals - first round, second round, quaterfinal and semifinal. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player i.e. Seed 1 v/s Seed 32 and the match is designated as match number 1 of the first round. Seed 2 plays Seed 31 in match 2 of the first round and so on. The last match of the first round is match number 16 between Seed 16 and Seed 17.
In the second round, the winner of match 1 of the first round plays the winner of match 16 of the first round and this match is called match number 1 of the second round. Similarly, match number 2 of the second round is between the winners of match 2 and match 15 of the first round and so on till match 8 where the winners of matches 8 and 9 of the first round play each other.
In aany round, if a lower-seeded player beats a higher-seeded player, it is termed an “upset”.
The same pattern is followed in the later rounds as well.

Q. If the top eight reach the quarterfinal and Pete Sampras reaches the finals, who amongst the following players definitely does not play Pete Sampras in the finals?

Solution:

Pete Sampras is seed 1 who reaches the finals
Since the top eight reach the quarter finals, the quarter final matches are:
Seed 1 v/s Seed 8, Seed 2 v/s Seed 7, Seed 3 v/s Seed 6, Seed 4 v/s Seed 5
Similarly, the semi-final matches are:
Seed 1 v/s Seed 4/5 and Seed 2/7 v/s Seed 3/6
Finally, the final is:
Seed 1 vs Seed 2/7/3/6
Hence, Seeds 4, 5 and 8 can never be in the finals.
Among the options, Andre Agassis is Seed 4.
Hence, option 4

QUESTION: 38

In the table given below, players due to play the US Open are listed in order of their seeding from the highest (#1) to the lowest (#32). This tournament has four rounds before the finals - first round, second round, quaterfinal and semifinal. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player i.e. Seed 1 v/s Seed 32 and the match is designated as match number 1 of the first round. Seed 2 plays Seed 31 in match 2 of the first round and so on. The last match of the first round is match number 16 between Seed 16 and Seed 17.
In the second round, the winner of match 1 of the first round plays the winner of match 16 of the first round and this match is called match number 1 of the second round. Similarly, match number 2 of the second round is between the winners of match 2 and match 15 of the first round and so on till match 8 where the winners of matches 8 and 9 of the first round play each other.
In aany round, if a lower-seeded player beats a higher-seeded player, it is termed an “upset”.
The same pattern is followed in the later rounds as well.

Q. If in the first round, only the even numbered matches result in upsets and there are no upsets in the second round, who will be the lowest seeded player to face Pete Sampras in the finals?

Solution:

The matches in Round 1 are:
Seed 1 v/s Seed 32, Seed 2 v/s Seed 31, Seed 3 v/s Seed 30....Seed 16 v/s Seed 17
Since the even numbered matches result in upsets, the winners in round 1 are:
Seed 1, Seed 31, Seed 3, Seed 29, Seed 5, Seed 27, Seed 7, Seed 25, Seed 9, Seed 23, Seed 11, Seed 21, Seed 13, Seed 19, Seed 15 and Seed 17.
So, the matches in Round 2 are:
Seed 1 v/s Seed 17, Seed 31 v/s Seed 15, Seed 3 v/s Seed 19....Seed 7 v/s Seed 23 and Seed 25 v/s Seed 9
Since there are no upsets in round 2, the winners in Round 2 are:
Seed 1, Seed 15, Seed3, Seed 13, Seed 5, Seed 11, Seed 7 and Seed 9
So, the matches in the quarterfinals are:
Seed 1 v/s Seed 9, Seed 15 v/s Seed 7, Seed 3 v/s Seed 11, Seed 13 v/s Seed 5
Since the lowest possible seed to face Sampras in the finals is to be found, assume that Sampras wins all his matches and all other matches are upsets.
So, the winners in the quarterfinals are Seed 1, Seed 15, Seed 11 and Seed 13
So, the matches in the semifinals are:
Seed 1 v/s Seed 13 and Seed 15 v/s Seed 11
Again, Seed 1 wins his semifinal match and the other match should be an upset i.e. Seed 15 should win.
So, the lowest seed that can be face Sampras in the finals is Seed 15 i.e. Jimmy Connors.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 39

In the table given below, players due to play the US Open are listed in order of their seeding from the highest (#1) to the lowest (#32). This tournament has four rounds before the finals - first round, second round, quaterfinal and semifinal. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player i.e. Seed 1 v/s Seed 32 and the match is designated as match number 1 of the first round. Seed 2 plays Seed 31 in match 2 of the first round and so on. The last match of the first round is match number 16 between Seed 16 and Seed 17.
In the second round, the winner of match 1 of the first round plays the winner of match 16 of the first round and this match is called match number 1 of the second round. Similarly, match number 2 of the second round is between the winners of match 2 and match 15 of the first round and so on till match 8 where the winners of matches 8 and 9 of the first round play each other.
In aany round, if a lower-seeded player beats a higher-seeded player, it is termed an “upset”.
The same pattern is followed in the later rounds as well.

Q. If Rafael Nadal and Del Potro lose in the second round, while Andy Murray and David Ferrer reach the semifinals then who will face Pete Sampras in the quarterfinals?

Solution:

Seed 6 and Seed 8 lose the second round while Seed 7 and Seed 9 win their quarterfinal matches.
Matches in Round 1:
Seed 1 v/s Seed 32, Seed 2 v/s Seed 31, Seed 3 v/s Seed 30....Seed 16 v/s Seed 17
Seed 1, 7 and 9 qualify for the second round. Similarly, Seed 6 and 8 also qualify as they lose in the second round.
Matches in Round 2:
Seed 1 vs Seed 16/17, Seed 2/31 vs Seed 15/18....Seed 6 vs Seed 11, Seed 7 vs Seed 10, Seed 8 vs Seed 9
The winners are Seed 1, ...,Seed 11, Seed 7, Seed 9
So, Seed 1 faces Seed 9 in the quarterfinals i.e. Sampras faces David Ferrer.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 40

In the table given below, players due to play the US Open are listed in order of their seeding from the highest (#1) to the lowest (#32). This tournament has four rounds before the finals - first round, second round, quaterfinal and semifinal. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player i.e. Seed 1 v/s Seed 32 and the match is designated as match number 1 of the first round. Seed 2 plays Seed 31 in match 2 of the first round and so on. The last match of the first round is match number 16 between Seed 16 and Seed 17.
In the second round, the winner of match 1 of the first round plays the winner of match 16 of the first round and this match is called match number 1 of the second round. Similarly, match number 2 of the second round is between the winners of match 2 and match 15 of the first round and so on till match 8 where the winners of matches 8 and 9 of the first round play each other.
In aany round, if a lower-seeded player beats a higher-seeded player, it is termed an “upset”.
The same pattern is followed in the later rounds as well.

Q. If all the matches in all the rounds are upsets, who is the lowest seed to win the US Open?

Solution:

Since all the matches in all the rounds are upsets, the lower ranked seeds win in each round.
So, the winners in round 1 are Seeds 17 to 32.
Similarly, the winners in round 2 are Seeds 25 to 32, the winners in the quarter finals are Seeds 29 to 32, the winners in the semfinals are Seeds 31 and 32 and the lowest Seed to win the US open is Seed 32 i.e. Mark Knowles.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 41

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from thegiven options.

They______to the protest march yesterday.

Solution:

The verb has to agree with the pronoun ‘they’ (plural). Therefore, option 3 can be eliminated.
Since the action took place in the past (yesterday) the use of ‘present perfect tense: ‘have gone/walked’ is inappropriate. Therefore, options 1 and 2 can be eliminated.
The correct tense to be used in this case is the simple past tense. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 42

Choose the grammatically correct option.

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect as the statement begins with a verb “was.”According to the grammar rule, the direct speech should then end with a question mark.
Also, a participle is never preceded by “to”. Hence, option 2 is ruled out. Option 3 is incorrect as there is no helping verb to the participle in the first half of the statement i.e. “she saying.”
Option 4 follows all the rules of grammar and is correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 43

Identify the figure of speech in the following sentence:

Q. Oh Heartache! How do I heal thee?

Solution:

Normal 0 false false false EN-GB X-NONE X-NONE Normal 0 false false false EN-GB X-NONE X-NONE A “personification” is a figure of speech in which ‘an inanimate object or abstraction is endowed with human qualities. or abilities’.
“Apostrophe” is ‘a direct address to the dead, to the absent, or to a personified object or idea’. This figure of speech is a special form of personification.
Normal 0 false false false EN-GB X-NONE X-NONE An “epigram” is ‘a statement or any brief saying in prose or poetry, in which there is an apparent contradiction’.
Normal 0 false false false EN-GB X-NONE X-NONE A “metaphor” is ‘an implied comparison’.
In the given sentence, although ‘Heartache’ is personified, the correct figure of speech is apostrophe, since the personified attribute is also being directly addressed.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.

QUESTION: 44

Identify the figures of speech in the following sentences:

Q. In Shakespeare’s tragic comedy ‘Tempest’, the Duke of Milan is the central character.

Solution:

The use of the words ‘tragic comedy’ to qualify the same object (the play)- two opposing ideas- tragedy and comedy. Therefore, this is an oxymoron, like ‘compassionate cruelty’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 45

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.

Accept the advice dictated by experience with respect, receive even_____ without impatience of manner; in the inner temple of home, as well as where the world looks on, render your father reverence due as he reprimands only for the good of you.

Solution:

The sentence talks about the behaviour of a son towards his father when he is reproved or admonished by his father.
“Diatribe” means ‘a bitter or sharply abusive criticism or attack’. It is incorrect as diatribe is an extremely harsh method of scolding, which one would not normally associate with an interaction between a father and son.
“Anathema” means ‘something that is detested or loathed or a formal ecclesiastical curse involving excommunication’.
“Rebuke” means ‘to scold or reprimand’.
“Interdict” means ‘to forbid or debar authoritatively’.
The only word that fits this context is “rebuke”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 46

Choose the grammatically CORRECT option from the sentences given below:

Choose the best construction.

Solution:

Option 2 has a tense error - the first part of the sentence is in the present tense and the second half is in the past tense.
Option 3 is not well constructed with “your leaving the job should not have been done”.
Option 4 is ruled out as the construction is incorrect, ‘have left’ could be changed to ‘leave’ to correct this.
Option 1 is correct, since it states a present fact and justifies why the past action should not have been carried out.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 47

Mark the option with the correct spelling:

Solution:

Options 1, 3 and 4 are spelt incorrectly. The correct spellings are “decretive”, “inconceivable” and “campestral” respectively.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 48

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option

A/An_________is an alternative symbol for “per se” and “and.”

Solution:

The symbol is called “an ampersand”. It is an alteration of “per se” and “and.” Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 49

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

____is used to set off the name of the person being addressed.

Solution:

A comma is used is used to set off the name of the person being addressed. For example, ‘Come into the house, Radha.’
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 50

Out of the words given in the options below, choose the word that fits into the maximum number of blanks

A. After a long period of struggle, he achieved____.
B. The warrior was filled with a sense of____when the king constantly kept on praising him.
C. The____of our nation can be seen in the rapid economic development in a couple of years.
D. The company did not offer the worthy employee any____incentive.

Solution:

“Authoritative” means ‘having power or control’. This meaning does not fit in any of the blanks. “Substantive” is ‘actual or firm’. This meaning fits in the blank in sentence D.
“Acrimony” is ‘animosity’. This meaning does not fit in anywhere.
“Eminence” means ‘a height or a superior place’. This meaning can be used to fit into the blanks in sentences A and C. So, this word fits into the maximum number of blanks.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 51

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Q. What would be the complex form of the given sentence - “Arthur goes to the library and studies everyday.”

Solution:

Option 3 is the only option that uses a dependent and an independent clause. Thus, it is the only sentence that can be considered to be complex.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 52

Select the odd man out from the given alternatives.

Putrid

Solution:

The meaning of the given word in options 1, 2 and 3 is “bad, corrupt and falsified” where as the meaning in option 4 is “rotten and foul smelling”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 53

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

This is fine!’ the Mole said to himself. ‘This is better than whitewashing!’ The sunshine struck hot on his fur, soft breezes caressed his heated brow, and after the seclusion of the cellarage he had lived in so long the carol of happy birds fell on his dulled hearing almost like a shout. Jumping off all his four legs at once, in the joy of living and the delight of spring without its cleaning, he pursued his way across the meadow till he reached the hedge on the further side.
Hither and thither through the meadows he rambled busily, along the hedgerows, across the copses, finding everywhere birds building, flowers budding, leaves thrusting- everything happy, and progressive, and occupied. And instead of having an uneasy conscience pricking him and whispering ‘whitewash!’ he somehow could only feel how jolly it was to be the only idle dog among all these busy citizens. After all, the best part of a holiday is perhaps not so much to be resting yourself, as to see all the other fellows busy working. He thought his happiness was complete when, as he meandered aimlessly along, suddenly he stood by the edge of a full-fed river. Never in his life had he seen a river before- this sleek, sinuous, full-bodied animal, chasing and chuckling, gripping things with a gurgle and leaving them with a laugh, to fling itself on fresh playmates that shook themselves free, and were caught and held again. All was a-shake and a-shiver- glints and gleams and sparkles, rustle and swirl, chatter and bubble. The Mole was bewitched, entranced, fascinated. By the side of the river he trotted as one trots, when very small, by the side of a man who holds one spell-bound by exciting stories; and when tired at last, he sat on the bank, while the river still chattered on to him, a babbling procession of the best stories in the world, sent from the heart of the earth to be told at last to the insatiable sea. As he sat on the grass and looked across the river, a dark hole in the bank opposite, just above the water’s edge, caught his eye, and dreamily he fell to considering what a nice snug dwelling-place it would make for an animal with few wants and fond of a bijou riverside residence, above flood level and remote from noise and dust.

Q. What was the Mole supposed to be doing when he wandered along the river?

Solution:

The passage states that the Mole, instead of having an uneasy conscience reminding him of whitewashing, felt jolly that he wasn’t working on that beautiful day. Options 1 and 4 aren’t mentioned in the passage and the second option is merely a metaphor used by the author to compare the river to an animal.
Thus, option 3 is the only one that holds true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 54

This is fine!’ the Mole said to himself. ‘This is better than whitewashing!’ The sunshine struck hot on his fur, soft breezes caressed his heated brow, and after the seclusion of the cellarage he had lived in so long the carol of happy birds fell on his dulled hearing almost like a shout. Jumping off all his four legs at once, in the joy of living and the delight of spring without its cleaning, he pursued his way across the meadow till he reached the hedge on the further side.
Hither and thither through the meadows he rambled busily, along the hedgerows, across the copses, finding everywhere birds building, flowers budding, leaves thrusting- everything happy, and progressive, and occupied. And instead of having an uneasy conscience pricking him and whispering ‘whitewash!’ he somehow could only feel how jolly it was to be the only idle dog among all these busy citizens. After all, the best part of a holiday is perhaps not so much to be resting yourself, as to see all the other fellows busy working. He thought his happiness was complete when, as he meandered aimlessly along, suddenly he stood by the edge of a full-fed river. Never in his life had he seen a river before- this sleek, sinuous, full-bodied animal, chasing and chuckling, gripping things with a gurgle and leaving them with a laugh, to fling itself on fresh playmates that shook themselves free, and were caught and held again. All was a-shake and a-shiver- glints and gleams and sparkles, rustle and swirl, chatter and bubble. The Mole was bewitched, entranced, fascinated. By the side of the river he trotted as one trots, when very small, by the side of a man who holds one spell-bound by exciting stories; and when tired at last, he sat on the bank, while the river still chattered on to him, a babbling procession of the best stories in the world, sent from the heart of the earth to be told at last to the insatiable sea. As he sat on the grass and looked across the river, a dark hole in the bank opposite, just above the water’s edge, caught his eye, and dreamily he fell to considering what a nice snug dwelling-place it would make for an animal with few wants and fond of a bijou riverside residence, above flood level and remote from noise and dust.

Q. Which of the following isn’t true according to the passage?

Solution:

The initial part of the passage mentions how the Mole found the chirping of birds to be as loud as a shout after the long seclusion of his cellarage, how he felt realized how happy it was to be an idle dog among busy working fellows and how he finds the river to be bubbling, chattering and playful like a living person. Though the passage talks about how the river seems to carry the best stories in the world from the heart of the earth to the insatiable sea, it isn’t mentioned that the Mole wanted to travel along the same way. Thus, option 3 is not true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 55

This is fine!’ the Mole said to himself. ‘This is better than whitewashing!’ The sunshine struck hot on his fur, soft breezes caressed his heated brow, and after the seclusion of the cellarage he had lived in so long the carol of happy birds fell on his dulled hearing almost like a shout. Jumping off all his four legs at once, in the joy of living and the delight of spring without its cleaning, he pursued his way across the meadow till he reached the hedge on the further side.
Hither and thither through the meadows he rambled busily, along the hedgerows, across the copses, finding everywhere birds building, flowers budding, leaves thrusting- everything happy, and progressive, and occupied. And instead of having an uneasy conscience pricking him and whispering ‘whitewash!’ he somehow could only feel how jolly it was to be the only idle dog among all these busy citizens. After all, the best part of a holiday is perhaps not so much to be resting yourself, as to see all the other fellows busy working. He thought his happiness was complete when, as he meandered aimlessly along, suddenly he stood by the edge of a full-fed river. Never in his life had he seen a river before- this sleek, sinuous, full-bodied animal, chasing and chuckling, gripping things with a gurgle and leaving them with a laugh, to fling itself on fresh playmates that shook themselves free, and were caught and held again. All was a-shake and a-shiver- glints and gleams and sparkles, rustle and swirl, chatter and bubble. The Mole was bewitched, entranced, fascinated. By the side of the river he trotted as one trots, when very small, by the side of a man who holds one spell-bound by exciting stories; and when tired at last, he sat on the bank, while the river still chattered on to him, a babbling procession of the best stories in the world, sent from the heart of the earth to be told at last to the insatiable sea. As he sat on the grass and looked across the river, a dark hole in the bank opposite, just above the water’s edge, caught his eye, and dreamily he fell to considering what a nice snug dwelling-place it would make for an animal with few wants and fond of a bijou riverside residence, above flood level and remote from noise and dust.

Q. What is the meaning of the word ‘bijou’?

Solution:

“A bijou residence” is ‘a delicately wrought house’; thus, the options 2, 3 and 4 are not fitting since they are used to imply ‘repugnance or poor taste’. Thus, only the first option “tasteful” which means something that is elegantly-done can be correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 56

This is fine!’ the Mole said to himself. ‘This is better than whitewashing!’ The sunshine struck hot on his fur, soft breezes caressed his heated brow, and after the seclusion of the cellarage he had lived in so long the carol of happy birds fell on his dulled hearing almost like a shout. Jumping off all his four legs at once, in the joy of living and the delight of spring without its cleaning, he pursued his way across the meadow till he reached the hedge on the further side.
Hither and thither through the meadows he rambled busily, along the hedgerows, across the copses, finding everywhere birds building, flowers budding, leaves thrusting- everything happy, and progressive, and occupied. And instead of having an uneasy conscience pricking him and whispering ‘whitewash!’ he somehow could only feel how jolly it was to be the only idle dog among all these busy citizens. After all, the best part of a holiday is perhaps not so much to be resting yourself, as to see all the other fellows busy working. He thought his happiness was complete when, as he meandered aimlessly along, suddenly he stood by the edge of a full-fed river. Never in his life had he seen a river before- this sleek, sinuous, full-bodied animal, chasing and chuckling, gripping things with a gurgle and leaving them with a laugh, to fling itself on fresh playmates that shook themselves free, and were caught and held again. All was a-shake and a-shiver- glints and gleams and sparkles, rustle and swirl, chatter and bubble. The Mole was bewitched, entranced, fascinated. By the side of the river he trotted as one trots, when very small, by the side of a man who holds one spell-bound by exciting stories; and when tired at last, he sat on the bank, while the river still chattered on to him, a babbling procession of the best stories in the world, sent from the heart of the earth to be told at last to the insatiable sea. As he sat on the grass and looked across the river, a dark hole in the bank opposite, just above the water’s edge, caught his eye, and dreamily he fell to considering what a nice snug dwelling-place it would make for an animal with few wants and fond of a bijou riverside residence, above flood level and remote from noise and dust.

Q. What could be an appropriate title for the given passage?

Solution:

Since the mole is the only animal being spoken of in the passage, option 1 cannot be used as a suitable title; option 3 indicates that the Mole had seceded to live by the riverside, something we cannot conclude from the passage.
Option 4 is ambiguous and places a higher emphasis on the Mole’s idleness which hasn’t been done in the passage. Thus, only option 2 which talks about the Mole’s time by the riverside is correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 57

This is fine!’ the Mole said to himself. ‘This is better than whitewashing!’ The sunshine struck hot on his fur, soft breezes caressed his heated brow, and after the seclusion of the cellarage he had lived in so long the carol of happy birds fell on his dulled hearing almost like a shout. Jumping off all his four legs at once, in the joy of living and the delight of spring without its cleaning, he pursued his way across the meadow till he reached the hedge on the further side.
Hither and thither through the meadows he rambled busily, along the hedgerows, across the copses, finding everywhere birds building, flowers budding, leaves thrusting- everything happy, and progressive, and occupied. And instead of having an uneasy conscience pricking him and whispering ‘whitewash!’ he somehow could only feel how jolly it was to be the only idle dog among all these busy citizens. After all, the best part of a holiday is perhaps not so much to be resting yourself, as to see all the other fellows busy working. He thought his happiness was complete when, as he meandered aimlessly along, suddenly he stood by the edge of a full-fed river. Never in his life had he seen a river before- this sleek, sinuous, full-bodied animal, chasing and chuckling, gripping things with a gurgle and leaving them with a laugh, to fling itself on fresh playmates that shook themselves free, and were caught and held again. All was a-shake and a-shiver- glints and gleams and sparkles, rustle and swirl, chatter and bubble. The Mole was bewitched, entranced, fascinated. By the side of the river he trotted as one trots, when very small, by the side of a man who holds one spell-bound by exciting stories; and when tired at last, he sat on the bank, while the river still chattered on to him, a babbling procession of the best stories in the world, sent from the heart of the earth to be told at last to the insatiable sea. As he sat on the grass and looked across the river, a dark hole in the bank opposite, just above the water’s edge, caught his eye, and dreamily he fell to considering what a nice snug dwelling-place it would make for an animal with few wants and fond of a bijou riverside residence, above flood level and remote from noise and dust.

Q. Identify the figure of speech in the lines- “Never in his life had he seen a river before- this sleek, sinuous, full-bodied animal, chasing and chuckling, gripping things with a gurgle and leaving them...”.

Solution:

In the given lines, the river has been compared to an animal by directly stating that it was one. Thus, the figure of speech used is a metaphor.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 58

Answer the following question based on the information given below.
Mark the option that can replace the underlined word in the sentence below.

Q. Imagine our surprise when we caught a/an "undulated" Moray eel attacking the speared fishes we had kept in our bag.

Solution:

Undulated’ means wavy in appearance. Generally, the word is used to describe waves, leaves and snakes. Wavelike can replace undulated in the sentence.
Sinewy means strong and muscular.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4

QUESTION: 59

Choose the grammatically correct option.

Solution:

“Fell into the sea” is the correct phrase to be used.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 60

This question consists of two capitalized words that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by a certain pair of words. Choose the pair that is RELATED to each other in the same way as the capitalized pair.

SWAGGER: HAUTEUR

Solution:

“Swagger” is a verb meaning ‘to strut or behave in an arrogant manner’. “Hauteur” is a noun meaning ‘haughtiness or arrogance’. If someone displays “hauteur”, then he/she “swaggers”
“Wince” is a verb meaning ‘to shrink or withdraw as from pain’. It is a reaction to pain. Someone who is undergoing “pain” is likely to “wince”.
Options 1, 2, and 3 don't share such an association.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 61

In the following sentence choose the erroneous segment/s.

These are few (A), but in the right sort (B).

Solution:

An incorrect preposition is used in segment (B). The right preposition is ‘o f the right sort’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 62

In each of the following questions, the left hand side column lists four phrases and the right hand side column lists meanings of these four phrases, not necessarily in the same order. You need to match the phrases with their respective meanings.

Solution:

A “cash cow” is something that provides “an easy way to earn money regularly; a dependable source of income”.
To “ape” something is to “imitate something blindly”.
An “eager beaver” is “a very enthusiastic person”.
An “early bird” is “a person who is early for an appointment”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 63

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word/set of words from the given options.

The most efficient way to handle pollen______is by preventing______ with the material.

Solution:

Pollen is not a “disease”, therefore option 4 can be eliminated.
Looking at the options for the second blank, “brush” is incorrect since it would require a determiner. “Collision” is too violent a word to be considered suitable.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 64

Choose the appropriate option from among the ones given below.

Q. When something is difficult to deal with or do and requires a lot of effort, skill or patience, it is:

Solution:

“Hard” means ‘not easy’.
“Challenging” means difficult in a way that tests one’s ability.
“Demanding” means difficult to do and requiring a lot of patience and skill.
“Testing” means difficult and requiring particular skills.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 65

Mark the option that has the correct spelling of the word.

Solution:

The correct spelling of this word is ‘Connoisseur’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 66

Choose the option that translates the active voice into the passive voice.

Q. Rita will have written a letter.

Solution:

The correct sentence is “A letter will have been written by Rita” in the form of will + have + been + past participle in passive voice.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 67

Choose the option that is the closest in meaning to the phrase/phrases in underline

Q. My plans to make three million by my fiftieth birthday have fallen by the wayside.

Solution:

The meaning of the phrase “fall by the wayside” is ‘to give up; fail to continue’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 68

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

The Woodrow Mansion is_____the river.

Solution:

The preposition “adjacent” is always followed by ‘to’, “besides” is used when more than one object is being spoken of and “at” is used for a specific location. Eliminate options 1, 2 and 3.
Thus, “beside” which is used to indicate a general location is the only option that applies.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 69

Rearrange the following sentence fragments to make a meaningful sentence.

When the________took them home.

P. quickly lined up
Q. a window seat for themselves in the bus which
R. bell rang, the children
S. as they all wanted to secure

Solution:

Since the question ends with “the,” it is understood that a noun will follow it. Therefore, the continuing phrase will be R which has the noun “bell.” This phrase ends with “children”
which suggests that the next phrase has to comprise a verb. Therefore, the next phrase is P which has an adverb “quickly” and a verb “lined.” Then comes the reason for the lining up of the students.
Therefore, the phrase S is the next in order as it provides the reason, “as they all wanted to secure.” The last phrase is Q as it answers the question “Secure what?” which came up in phrase S. Therefore, the correct order is RPSQ.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 70

The direct speech is rewritten in the indirect form in the options below. Identify the grammatically CORRECT option.

She said, “Alas! I failed in the exam.”

Solution:

Options 1 and 2 are ruled out as one does not use interjections in an indirect speech. In both the options, the interjection “Alas!” is used. As compared to option 3, option 4 sounds more accurate as the interjection “Alas!” represents sorrow.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 71

Choose the phrase which is CLOSEST in meaning to the word given in CAPITAL LETTERS:

ANTEDATE

Solution:

The prefix “ante”- means ‘before’. Therefore “antedate” means ‘before the date’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 72

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

Solution:

The correct phrase is “live off’ meaning ‘to obtain one’s living or means of survival from someone or something.’
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 73

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

I found myself in a ____when the math results were announced.

Solution:

“In a jam” means ‘a difficult situation’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 74

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

Complete the sentence by selecting the most grammatically correct option.

The Sphinx is a mythological creature that has _________________________.

Solution:

Option 1 seems to be the most correct option since it compares a head to a head and a body to a body.
Option 2 has comparison errors - head compared to a man and a body compared to a lion.
Option 4 is not grammatically right as it incorrectly uses the phrase ‘after that of’.
Option 3 may seem structurally right but the usage is forceful and incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 75

Complete the sentence by choosing the most grammatically correct option.

The president of the committee tried to convince the members ________.

Solution:

The most concise and non-redundant way of completing the sentence is given in option 2. It is free of any grammatical incoherency and maintains the sentence structure.
Option 3 uses the verb ‘convince’ improperly by attaching the preposition ‘about’ with it.
Option 4 unnecessarily uses ‘should’ which denotes compulsion.
Option 1 uses the pronoun ‘they’ twice unnecessarily and is not preferable over option 2.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 76

what grammatical function does the underlined word fulfill?

I studied "that".

Solution:

Another, any, both, each, either, few, many, neither, one, some, etc. are examples of demonstrative pronouns.
Example: Several are good at it. I have a few.
A demonstrative adjective (this, that, these, those) is followed by a noun. Example: I like these questions. That word is an adjective.
Example: Clergymen are answerable to a higher authority.
A demonstrative pronoun represents a thing or things.
Here, ‘that’ may refer to a
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 77

Choose the kangaroo word that carries a smaller version of the word with a very similar meaning.

Solution:

The kangaroo word is “acrid”, which contains the smaller word “acid”. Both these words mean ‘sharp or caustic, especially in speech or nature’.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 78

Replace the underlined sentence with the most appropriate option.

The thief managed to fool the cops for a very long time because he conducted himself "as though he were an innocent citizen".

Solution:

The sentence is correct.
Options 2 and 4 change “were” to “was” and are incorrect.
The correct phrase is ‘as if he were’ or ‘as though he were’.
Option 3 is incorrect as “like” and “as if’’both are used in the sentence to fulfill the same function, making it repetitive.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 79

Each of the questions below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from the options.

A. Many a gallant life has been lost in the attempts to discover the northwest passage, between Davis and Bering’s straits, and to trace the exact outline of the northern coast of America.
B. A number of voyages were undertaken, in the hope at first of relieving and rescuing the lost ships’ companies, and after that, of knowing what exactly happened to them.
C. The Arctic seas have been the scenes of some of the most amazing instances of daring and patience.
D. These were undertaken to make a search for Sir Matthew who, in 1845, had gone forth with two ships, the Erebu and Terror on his second expedition and had been heard of no more.
E. The later Arctic voyages had a nobler purpose than of completing the survey of the coast.

Solution:

‘The survey’ in statement E expands on statement A, thus AE. Between choices 2 and 3, “the lost ships’ companies” in B indicate that B is a continuation, Therefore B cannot begin. As C states the idea central to the paragraph, it is the best way to begin the paragraph.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 80

Read the following sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.
B. And the region’s development profile too is distinctly lunar in nature - there is practically no development activity going on.
C. Leh, which is in focus today, is spread over 44,000 sq. km. of which only 115 sq. km. - a meagre 0.26% is cultivable land.
D. The cold dry desert - like conditions in Ladakh, make for a barren landscape bearing an uncanny resemblance to the surface of the moon.

Solution:

D introduces Ladakh - the topic of the paragraph. The words ‘distinctly lunar in nature’ in B is clearly linked to the reference to moon in D. C following A is obvious because A refers to Leh and Kargil and C elaborates the idea. So DBAC is the correct sequence.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 81

An item is marked at Rs.200 and a discount of 25% is given on MP. The item costs Rs. 80 and another item worth Rs. x is sold with it (at cost). The overall profit made was 50%. Find x (in Rs.).

Solution:

SP of first item = 0.75 x 200 = Rs. 150 and CP of this item = Rs. 80
CP and SP of the other item = Rs. x (as it is being sold at cost).
Total CP in the transaction = Rs. (80 + x)
Total SP in the transaction = Rs. (150 + x)
Since profit = 50%
150 + x= 1.5(80 + x)
150 + x= 120 + 1.5x
x = 60
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 82

On New Year’s eve Ram walks to Shyam’s house. He walks 40% of the distance at 30% of his actual speed, 30% of the remaining distance at 50% of his speed and the remaining distance at his actual speed of 20km/hr. Find his average speed.

Solution:

Let the distance between Ram and Shyam’s house be 10D km.
He walks 40% of the distance at 30% of his actual speed. Therefore, he walks 4D km at 6 km/hr.
He walks 30% of the remaining distance at 50% of his speed.
Therefore, he walks 1.8D km at 10 km/hr.
He walks the remaining distance at his actual speed.
Therefore, he walks 4.2D km at 20 km/hr.

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 83

Aman's investment of Rs. 20,000 amounted to Rs. 35000 in a period of 8 months. In how much time, at the same rate, will Rs. 5600 amount to Rs. 9800?

Solution:

By observation,

The time required for Rs. 5600 to amount to Rs. 9800 will be the same as that required for Rs. 20,000 to amount to Rs. 35,000.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 84

The compound interest on a sum of money for 2 years is Rs. 832 and the simple interest on the same sum for the same period is Rs. 800. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest for the third year is

Solution:

Difference in Cl and SI in second year = Rs 32
Cl = SI for fist year = 800/2 = 400
This difference of Rs. 32 is the SI earned on Rs. 400 on one year (as the SI on first year is also added to principal for second year).
r = [(100 x 32)/(400 x 1)] = 8%
Difference between Cl and SI for 3rd year = SI on Rs. 832 for one year
= (832 x 1 x 8)/100
= Rs 66.56
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 85

Three unbiased dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the three numbers on them is divisible by 4?

Solution:

When three unbiased dice are thrown, there are 63 = 216 combinations possible.
The least possible sum is 3 and the highest possible sum is 18.
The multiples of 4 in this range are 4, 8, 12 and 16

Sum = 4:

Obtained for the combination (1,1, 2).
This combination can be made in 3!/2! = 3 ways

Sum = 8:

Obtained for the combinations-
(1, 1,6)- possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways
(1,2, 5) - possible in 3! = 6 ways
(1, 3, 4) - possible in 3! = 6 ways
(2, 2, 4) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways
(2, 3, 3) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways

Total number of ways = 3 + 6 + 6 + 3 + 3 = 21

Sum = 12:

Obtained for the combinations-
(1, 5, 6) - possible in 3! = 6 ways
(2, 4, 6) - possible in 3! = 6 ways
(2, 5, 5) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways
(3, 3, 6) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways
(3, 4, 5) - possible in 3! = 6 ways
(4, 4, 4) - possible in 1 way
Total number of ways = 6 + 6 + 3 + 3 + 6 + 1 =25

Sum = 16:

Obtained for the combinations-
(4, 6, 6) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways
(5, 5, 6) - possible in 3!/2! = 3 ways
Total number of ways = 3 + 3 = 6
Overall total unmber of ways = 3 + 21 + 25 + 6 = 55
Required probability = 55/216 = 0.254 Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 86

Distance between A and B is 100 m. If P and Q start simultaneously from A and B respectively, then they meet in 4 seconds. If P and Q start simultaneously from A to reach B, then P beats Q by 20 m. How much time will P take to cover 200 m at the same speed?

Solution:

Let the speeds of P and Q be p and q respectively.
Given that P beats Q by 20 m. This means that the time taken by P to cover 100 m is same as that taken by Q to cover 80 m. Therefore, 4p = 5q.
Given that P and Q start simultaneously from A and B respectively, and they meet in 4 seconds.

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 87

Sahil has drawn an isosceles triangle. The length of two of the sides of the triangle measure 4 cm and 10 cm. Which of the following is the semiperimeter of the triangle?

Solution:

Given triangle is an isosceles triangle.
The third side = 4 cm or 10 cm
For a triangle, sum of any two sides is greater than the third side.
4 cm cannot be the third side, as 4 + 4 < 10
We can check that for 4 cm, 10 cm and 10 cm, sum of any two sides is greater than the third side.
The third side = 10 cm
Semiperimeter of the triangle = (4 + 10 + 10)/2 = 12 cm
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 88

A number whose value is increased by 50% is equal to A. The same number when decreased by 22.22% is equal to B.
It is given that A + B = 533/18. Find the number.

Solution:

27x + 14x = 533
x = 533/41 = 13
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 89

If log1227 = a and log916 = b, what is the value of log8108?

Solution:

log8108 = log8(4 x 27)
log8108 = log84 + log827
log84 = 2/3
log827 = (log1627)/(log168)
log827 = (log1627)/(3/4)
log827 = 4/3 (log1627)
log827 = 4/3[(log927)/(log916)]
log827 = 4/3[(3/2)/(log916)]
log827 = 2/b
Iog8108 = 2/3 + 2/b
= 2(1/3 + 1b)
= 2(b + 3)/3b
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 90

37.5% of the guests in a party were non-vegetarians. 300 males were vegetarians and 37.5% of guests were females. How many females were non-vegetarians?

Solution:

Let there be x guests.
0.375x people are non-vegetarians.
0.625x are vegetarians.
Now, 0.375x are females
0.625x are males.
We have the following;

(m + n) + (0.625x - 300) + 300 = x
But we don't have any relationship between m and n.
Hence, we cannot uniquely determine the non-vegetarian female guest.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 91

If b = 4c, 2c = 9d and d = 13e, how is b expressed in terms of e?

Solution:

2c = 9d = 9 x 13e

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 92

A cylindrical wire is made using an old wire. If radius of the new wire is 2 times that of the original, what is the ratio of the length of the new wire to the length of the original wire?

Solution:

Let the radius of an old wire be rand length of an old wire be h.
Radius of new wire = 2r and Length of new wire = H
Also, πr2 h = π(2r)2 H
H : h = 1 : 4
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 93

Duration of a metro journey varies directly as the distance and inversely as the velocity. The velocity varies directly as the square root of the quantity of electricity used; and inversely as the number of carriages in the train. 100 units of electricity is required for the journey of 50 km in half an hour with 18 carriages. How much electricity will be consumed in a journey of 42 km in 28 minutes with 16 carriages?

Solution:

Where t is time, s is distance, v is velocity, Q is the amount of electricity used, n is the number of carriages and k1, k2, k are constants. Also, k = k1/k2
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 94

I bought 30 books on Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry, priced at Rs.17, Rs.19, and Rs. 23 per book respectively, for distribution among poor students of Standard X of a school. The Physics books were more in number than the Mathematics books but less than the Chemistry books, the difference being more than one. The total cost amounted to Rs.620. How many books on Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry could have been bought respectively?

Solution:

Options 2 and 4 can be eliminated as the difference between the set of books is not always greater than 1.
Option 1: Total price = 5 x 17 + 8 x 19 + 17 x 23 = 628 620.
Thus, this option is incorrect.
Option 3: Total price = 5 x 1 7 + 1 0 x 1 9 + 1 5 x 2 3 = 620. Thus, this set is the correct number of books bought.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 95

An amount is divided between A and B in the ratio 4 : 3. Due to an error in calculation, A was given one-seventh of the total amount more, while B got the remaining amount. What is the new ratio of the amounts with A and B?

Solution:

Let the total amount be 7x.
A is supposed to get 4x and B is supposed to get 3x.
But actually A gets (1/7)th part of 7x more i.e. x more.
Thus A gets 5x and B gets the remaining 2x.
Thus, the new ratio is 5 : 2.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 96

Neha has 10 bangles of different colours which she wants to distribute among her two sisters and herself. She intends to keep 50% of the bangles for herself and divide the remaining in such a way that Meena gets one more bangle than Kajol. In how many ways can she divide the bangles?

Solution:

Neha keeps 5 bangles for herself, gives Meena 3 bangles and Kajol 2 bangles.
A group ofp + q + r items can be divided into groups of p, q and r in (p + q + r)!/p! q! r! ways.
Number of ways in which she can divide the bangles = 10!/(5!3!2!) = 2520 ways.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 97

A, B and C work together and complete a task in 19 days. A and B together are twice as efficient as C alone while A and C together are thrice as efficient as B alone. In how many days can C alone complete the task?

Solution:

Let A, B and C individually do a, b and c units of work per day.
a + b = 2 c ... (i)
Similarly, a + c = 3b ... (ii)
When all three work together, total work done per day = a + b + c
Using (i) and (ii), total work done per day (in units) = 3c = 4b
Since the three of them can finish the work in 19 days, let the total work be the LCM of 3, 4 and 19 i.e. 228 units
Total work done per day (in units) = 3c = 228/19 = 12
c = 4 i.e. C can do 4 units of work per day
Hence, if C were to work alone, C could complete the task in 228/4 = 57 days
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 98

From the top of a 15 m high building AB, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 60° and the angle of the depression of the foot of the tower is 30°. What is the height of the tower?

Solution:

Let the height of the tower be denoted by CD (as shown below with the angle of elevation and depression).

Y= 15m
CD = 45 + 15 = 60 m
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 99

Find the sum of the factors of 360.

Solution:

360 = 23 x 32 x 5

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 100

Solution:

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 101

Amir and Akbar enter a circular jogging track of length 300 m. They start at the same point running in opposite directions at the speeds of 10 m/s and 15 m/s respectively. How much distance would Akbar have covered by the time they both meet for the 30th time?

Solution:

The length of the circular track is 300 m.
Relative speed of Akbar and Amir = 10 + 15 = 25 m/s

Now, the distance between them is 300 m and they are running in opposite directions.
They will meet again after 12 s.
They will meet for the 30th time after 12 * 30 = 360 s
Distance covered by Akbar when he meets Amir for the 30th time = 15 x 360 = 5400 m = 5.4 km
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 102

In a housing society, 28 people read Times of India, 35 people read DNA and 12 people read neither. If the society has 65 people, how many people read both newspapers?

Solution:

Let x people read both newspapers. (28 - x) + (35 - x) + x + 12 = 65
75 - x = 65
x = 10
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 103

The difference between 50% of x and 40% of y is 36. The sum of 25% of x and 10% of y is 45. What will be 10% of (x + y)?

Solution:

Solving (i) and (ii), x = 144 and y = 90
10% of (x + y) = 0.1 (144 + 90)
= 23.4
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 104

If x is positive, and , then what is the value of

Solution:

We know the formula,

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 105

What is the highest power of 5 that can exactly divide 480!

Solution:

The highest power of 5 that can exactly divide 480! is the sum of the number of multiples of 5 in 480!, the number of multiples of 25 in 480! and the number of multiples of 125 in 480!.
The highest power of 5 that can exactly divide 480!

Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 106

A contractor undertakes to dig a canal 10 km long in 180 days and employs 40 men. After 60 days he finds that only 2.5 km of the canal has been completed. To complete the work on the scheduled time how many men does he have to increase?

Solution:

In 60 days 40 men completed 2.5 km of the canal.
Let x number of men be required to complete 10 - 2.5 = 7.5 km of the canal in 180 - 60 = 120 days.
M1 x D1 x W2 = M2 x D2 x W1
60 x 40 x 7.5 = x x 120 x 2.5
x = 60 men
So the contractor requires 60 - 40 = 20 more men to complete the work on the scheduled time.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 107

If a, b, c are the roots of the equation x3 - 4x2 + x + 6 = 0, where a > b> c, find ab + c?

Solution:

x3 - 4x2 + x + 6 = 0 :
This equation can be factorized in the form: (x - 2)(x - 3)(x + 1)
So, the roots of this equation are 2, 3 and -1.
So a = 3, b = 2 and c = -1.
ab + c= (3 x 2) + (-1) = 5
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 108

On offering a discount of 40% on the marked price, a trader suffers a loss of 25%. What should be the percentage discount offered so that the trader makes a profit of 10%?

Solution:

Let the cost price of the article be Rs. 100.
Since the trader suffers a loss of 25% in the first transaction, his loss is Rs. 25 and consequently, the selling price is Rs. 75.
This selling price corresponds to a 40% discount i.e. the article is sold at 60% of the marked price.

In the second case, if the trader wants to make a profit of 10%, he should sell at Rs. 110.
Discount in this case = 125 - 110 = Rs. 15

Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 109

A barrel has 100 litres of pure alcohol. 20 litres of alcohol is removed and replaced with the same amount of water. This process is repeated two more times. What is the amount of alcohol in the resultant solution?

Solution:

The above solution of alcohol has been successively diluted three times. Hence we use the formula for successive dilution.

Where v is the initial volume of pure alcohol, c is the concentration of the alcohol after replacements and x is the volume of alcohol replaced.

51.2 litres
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 110

The average height of Prakash, Qaiser, and Ronak is 154 cm. Another person Santosh joins the group and the average height now becomes 162 cm. If another person Tarun whose height is 10 cm less than that of Santosh, replaces Qaiser then the average height of the group becomes 145 cm. What is the height of Qaiser?

Solution:

Let the heights of Prakash, Qaiser, Ronak, Santosh and Tarun be p, q, r, s and t respectively.
It is given that,
p + q + r - 154 x 3 = 462 ... (i)
p + q + r + s = 162 * 4 = 648 ... (ii)
s = 186 cm
It is given that,
t = s - 10 = 176 cm
p + r + s + t = 580
p + r = 580 - (186 + 176) = 218 ... (iii)
Subtracting (iii) from (i), q = 244
The height of Qaiser = 244 cm
Hence, option 4.
Subtracting (iii) from (i),
q = 244
The height of Qaiser = 244 cm
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 111

A rectangular park 30 m long and 20 m wide has two concrete crossroads running in the middle of the park parallel to its sides and rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn is 504 sq. m, then what is the width of the road?

Solution:

Area of the park = (30 x 20) m2 = 600 m2
Area of the lawn = 504 m2
Area of the crossroads = (600 - 504) m2 = 96 m2
Let the width of the road be x meters.
30x + 20x - x2 = 96
⇒ x2 - 50x + 96 = 0
⇒(x - 48)(x - 2) = 0
⇒ x = 2
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 112

The average age of a family is 42 years. In the next year, one person dies and another person gets married to a 25 year old person. Initially, there are seven people in the family. What is the new average age of the family?

Solution:

Since the age of the person who died is not known, the new average of the family cannot be determined.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 113

Raju can complete a task in 16 days while Chandu can complete it in 9 days. Mahesh joins them in the task. On day 1 only Raju works, on day 2 only Chandu works, on day 3 only Mahesh works and so on. In this manner, they complete the work in 12 days. In how many days can Mahesh complete the task alone?

Solution:

Let the total amount of work be the LCM of 16, 9 and 12 i.e. 144 units.
Thus Raju does 9 units per day and Chandu does 16 units of work per day.
Let Mahesh complete x units of work in a day.
One cycle of 3 days comprises one day of work each from the three of them.
Since the total work is completed in 12 days, each of them works for 4 days.
4(16 + 9 + x) = 144
x = 11
Mahesh can complete the work alone in 144/11 = 13.09 days.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 114

Nipun mixes two varieties of rice costing Rs. 50 per kg and Rs. 80 per kg and sells the mix at Rs. 75 per kg to gain 25% in the deal. If he sells 150 kg of the mix, how much of it is the cheaper variety of rice?

Solution:

Let 1 kg of mixture contains the cheaper and dearer variety of rice in the ratio x : y

50x + 80y = 60x + 60y
10x = 20y
x = 2y
Each kg of the mix contains 1 part of the dearer variety and 2 parts of the cheaper variety.
150 kg of the mix contains 100 kg of the cheaper variety.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 115

Find the sum of the squares of the medians of the triangle having sides equal to 8, 8 and 14 units.

Solution:

Using the Apollonius theorem: AB2 + AC2 = 2(AD2 + BD2)
82 + 82 = 2(AD2 + 72)
Similarly, we get BE2 = CF2 = 114
AD2 + BE2 + CF2 = 15 + 114 + 114 = 243 units
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 116

Group Question

Answer the questions based on the following graph.

Six friends played seven online games each, in the same week, and their respective scores are given below. The pie chart gives the game wise breakup for Vikas.

Q. If the 2nd game’s score hadn’t been added to Vikas’ total score due to some technical error, then his rank would____. The total score of all the other players remains the same.

Solution:

The score of Vikas in the 2nd game = 0.2 * 3000 = 600
Thus, Vikas’ score would now become 3000 - 600 = 2400.
There was no change in the score of the other players.
Vikas’ original rank was 2nd and his new rank is still 2nd.
Thus, there is no change in his rank.
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 117

Six friends played seven online games each, in the same week, and their respective scores are given below. The pie chart gives the game wise breakup for Vikas.

Q. What is the combined score of Vikas in the 4th, 5th and 7th games put together?

Solution:

Total score of Vikas = 3000
The 4th, 5th and 7th together account for (15 + 16 + 9)% i.e. 40% of his total score.
Therefore, his combined score in these three games taken together = 0.4 * 3000 = 1200.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 118

Six friends played seven online games each, in the same week, and their respective scores are given below. The pie chart gives the game wise breakup for Vikas.

Q. If Deepu and Mayank respectively scored 10% and 15% of their total score in the 3rd game, then by what percentage was the score of Mayank in the 3rd game more than the score of Deepu in the 3rd game?

Solution:

Deepu’s score in the 3rd game = 0.1 x 2200 = 220
Mayank’s score in the 3rd game = 0.15 x 3200 = 480

Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 119

Six friends played seven online games each, in the same week, and their respective scores are given below. The pie chart gives the game wise breakup for Vikas.

Q. If all the friends got the same score in their 6th game, then how many of them scored more than 10% of their total score in the 6th game?

Solution:

Vikas got 10% of 3000 i.e. a score of 300 in his 6th game.
Therefore, everyone got 300 in their 6th game.
Thus, any player who has a total of less than 3000 will have scored more than 10% of their total score in the 6th game.
4 players (Shamur, Anjali, Deepu and Vinod) have a total score of less than 3000 and so satisfy the given condition.
Thus, there are 4 such players.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 120

Six friends played seven online games each, in the same week, and their respective scores are given below. The pie chart gives the game wise breakup for Vikas.

Q. if in the 1st game, Vinod scored 10% more than what Vikas scored, then what percentage of his total score did Vinod score in his 1st game?

Solution:

The score of Vinod in the 1st game can be given as:

Thus, the required percentage = (594/1800) x 100 = 33%
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 121

Who was the India's flagbearer at Rio Paralympics closing ceremony-2016?

Solution:
QUESTION: 122

Which company is all set to launch free public wifi service at 5 railway stations in India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 123

What is the name given to the India’s first reusable space shuttle launchedWhat is the name given to the India’s first reusable space shuttle launched from Sriharikota in 2016?

Solution:
QUESTION: 124

Who among the following has been recently appointed as the President of Microsoft India?

Solution:
QUESTION: 125

Who was the founder of ’The Theory of the Economic Drain of India’ during British imperialism?

Solution:
QUESTION: 126

Who won the Brazilian Grand Prix 2016?

Solution:
QUESTION: 127

In the absence of the President and Vice-President of India, who is eligible to discharge their functions?

Solution:
QUESTION: 128

Which country hosted the 17th Non-Alignment Movement Summit to discuss the issues of Mutual Interest?

Solution:
QUESTION: 129

Who among the following became the first Indian to win a Ladies European Tour title by clinching the Hero Women's Indian Open?

Solution:
QUESTION: 130

The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship launched the Pradhan Mantri Yuva Yojana. What is the purpose of this scheme?

Solution:
QUESTION: 131

What is the technical name for "Supermoon"?

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

Who among the following was elected as the new president of International Hockey Federation?

Solution:
QUESTION: 133

Who among the following won the 2016 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine?

Solution:
QUESTION: 134

Who is the current title winner of The Annual Beijing International Marathon in the male category?

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

Who among the following won the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2016?

Solution:
QUESTION: 136

Chandana Kochhar is the managing director and chief executive officer of which of the following banks?

Solution:
QUESTION: 137

Who among the following movie stars won Honorary Oscar at 8th Annual Governors Awards?

Solution:
QUESTION: 138

Who among the following is the 18th governor of Manipur?

Solution:
QUESTION: 139

Which of the following companies has launched the instant messaging mobile app named Alio?

Solution:
QUESTION: 140

What was the main theme for the 6th TAFISA World Sport for All Games, held at Jakarta, Indonesia?

Solution:
QUESTION: 141

Which country launched the pulsar navigation satellite XPNAV-1?

Solution:
QUESTION: 142

Which Internet-based retailer company tied up with LG Electronics Inc for smart-homes services?

Solution:
QUESTION: 143

Who won the 2016 BNP Paribas Masters Doubles title?

Solution:
QUESTION: 144

Which of the following is not a folk dance of Uttar Pradesh?

Solution:
QUESTION: 145

Who among the following will be re-appointed as UN Goodwill ambassador in April 2017 after being suspended on 15 March 2016?

Solution:
QUESTION: 146

Which animated movie won the Academy Award for Best Animated Feature Film-2015?

Solution:
QUESTION: 147

Titan acquired majority of shares of which of the following jewellery companies?

Solution:
QUESTION: 148

In the Global Hunger Index-2016, India was ranked at which position?

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

Which among the following channels did Sony Pictures Networks India acquire recently?

Solution:
QUESTION: 150

Who among the following is the 10th Director-General of International Labour Organization?

Solution: