SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 6


200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for SSC JE Mechanical Engineering | SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 6


Description
This mock test of SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 6 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 6 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 6 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 6 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 6 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II, and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all three statements and Give an Answer.

Among six people P, Q, R, S, T, and V each lives on a different floor of a six-store building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2, and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the topmost floor?

I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live. P lives on an even-numbered floor.

II. T does not live on an even-numbered floor. Q lives on an even-numbered floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor.

III. S lives on an odd-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R's floor.

Solution:

From statement I, II, and III people floor P-6, T-5, R-4, S-3, Q-2, V-1

Hence, P lives on the topmost floor,

QUESTION: 2

In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures do not fit in the series/sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 3

In each of the questions given below, which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left if the sequence were continued?

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option A

QUESTION: 4

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers, arrangement them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

(All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Input tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn

Step I 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt

Step II 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn

Step III 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jars 56 alt barn high

Step IV 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar

Step V 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise

Step VI 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall

Step VII 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise, and Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in each of the following questions.

Input 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92

(All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Which word/number would be at the 5th position from the right in Step V?

Solution:

68 51 32 27 14 84 why vain 92 best Feet ink not sit

Hence, 'best' would be at the 5th position from the right in step V.

QUESTION: 5

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input Line of words and numbers, arrangement them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

(All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Input tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn

Step I 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt

Step II 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn

Step III 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high

Step IV 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar

Step V 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise

Step VI 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall

Step VII 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise, and Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92

(All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Which of the following represents the position of 'why' in the fourth step?

Solution:

51 32 27 14 84 why sit vain 68 92 best feet ink not.

Hence, 'why' is sixth from the left in step IV.

QUESTION: 6

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input Line of words and numbers, arrangement them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

(All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Input tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn

Step I 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt

Step II 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn

Step III 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high

Step IV 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar

Step V 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise

Step VI 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall

Step VII 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise and Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92

(All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Which step number is the following output?

9227 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink

Solution:

There is no such step number in the output.

Hence the correct answer is option D

QUESTION: 7

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input Line of words and numbers, arrangement them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

(All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Input tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn

Step I 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt

Step II 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn

Step III 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high

Step IV 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar

Step V 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise

Step VI 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall

Step VII 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise and Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92

(All the numbers are two digits numbers)

How many elements (words or numbers) are there between 'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output?

Solution:

(last step) 92 84 68 51 32 27 14 best feet ink not sit vain why

Hence, three elements (best, 14, 27) are between 'feet' and '32'.

QUESTION: 8

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II, and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all three statements and Give an Answer.

Are all the four friends viz. A, B, C, and D, who are sitting around a circular table, facing the center?

I. B sits second to the right of D. D faces the center. C sits to the immediate right of both B and D.

II. A sits to the immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. C sits to the immediate right of D.'

III. D is an immediate neighbor of both A and C' B sits to the immediate left of A. C sits to the immediate right of B.

Solution:

From statement I

From the statement, we cannot determine that A, B, C, and D are facing the centre because we clearly know that B is facing outside.

From statement II we cannot determine that A, B, C, and D face the centre because we clearly show that D is facing Outside.

From statement III

From statement III, we clearly say that A, B, C, and D are facing the centre.

QUESTION: 9

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II, and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all three statements and Give an Answer.

How is 'one' coded in the code language?

I. 'one of its kind is coded as 'zo pi ko fe' and 'in kind and cash' is coded as 'ga to ru ko.'

II. 'its point for origin' is coded as 'ba le fe mi' and 'make a point clear' is coded as 'yu si mi de.'

Kind sake money and cash arean coded as 'to mi ru hy' and 'money of various kinds coded as'qu ko zo hy.'

Solution:

From statement I, II and III

kind ---> Ko, Point ---> mi, money ---> hy,

of----> zo, and ---> ru, cash ---> to, its ---> fe

of its kind ---> zo fe ko

Hence, one ---> pi

QUESTION: 10

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II, and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all three statements and Give an Answer.

Point D is in which direction with respect to Point B?

I. Point A is to the West of point B. Point C is to the North of point B. Point D is to the South of point C.

II. Point G is to the South of point D. Point G is 4 m from point B. Point D is 9 m from point B.

III. Point A is to the West of point B. Point B is exactly midway between points A and E. point F is to the South of point E. Point D is to the West of point F.

Solution:

From statement I and III

QUESTION: 11

In each of the questions given below, which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left if the sequence were continued?

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option D

QUESTION: 12

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II, and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all three statements and Give an Answer.

There are six letters W, A, R, S, N, and E. Is 'ANSWER' the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only?

I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E.

II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S.

III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W.

Solution:

From statement I

From statement II

∴ From statement I and II

QUESTION: 13

In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures do not fit in the series /sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.

Solution:

Hence the correct answer is option D.

QUESTION: 14

In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures do not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option C

QUESTION: 15

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank, and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, A, B, C, and D are seated, and all of them are facing South' In row-2, P, Q, R, and S are seated, and all of them are facing North. Therefore, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row in the given seating arrangement.

(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

C sits second to the right of the person from the Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from the Bank of Maharashtra.

Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.

The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from the Bank of Maharashtra.

Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.

B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from the Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.

Who among the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?

Solution:

The person from Syndicate Bank and D at extreme ends of the rows.

QUESTION: 16

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank, and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, A, B, C, and D are seated, and all of them are facing South' In row-2, P, Q, R, and S are seated, and all of them are facing North. Therefore, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row in the given seating arrangement.

(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.

Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.

The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from the Bank of Maharashtra.

Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.

B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from the Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.

Who among the following is from Syndicate Bank?

Solution:

P is from Syndicate Bank.

QUESTION: 17

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank, and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, A, B, C, and D are seated, and all of them are facing South' In row-2, P, Q, R, and S are seated, and all of them are facing North. Therefore, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row in the given seating arrangement.

(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.

Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.

The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.

Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.

B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.

Which of the following is true regarding A?

Solution:

The person from the Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbor of A.

QUESTION: 18

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank, and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, A, B, C, and D are seated, and all of them are facing South' In row-2, P, Q, R, and S are seated, and all of them are facing North. Therefore, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row in the given seating arrangement.

(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.

Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.

The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.

Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.

B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.

Who is seated between R and the person from PNB?

Solution:

S(Indian Bank)

Hence correct answer is option D

QUESTION: 19

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank, and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

C sits second to the right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from the Bank of Maharashtra.

Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.

The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from the Bank of Maharashtra.

Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.

B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from the Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

Solution:

Except for Q, all are on the ends of rows

QUESTION: 20

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank, and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.

Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.

The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from the Bank of Maharashtra.

Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.

B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from the Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.

Who among the following faces the person from the Bank of Maharashtra?

Solution:

The person from Indian Bank' is facing the person from the Bank of Maharashtra.

QUESTION: 21

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank, and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.

Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.

The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from the Bank of Maharashtra.

Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.

B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from the i.e.the k of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.

P is related to Dena Bank in the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. To who among the following is D related to, following the same pattern?

Solution:

D is related to Indian Bank.

QUESTION: 22

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions

Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)

C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.

Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.

The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.

Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.

B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.

C is from which of the following banks?

Solution:

C is from Canara Bank.

QUESTION: 23

In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left if the sequence were continued?

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option A

QUESTION: 24

In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option D

QUESTION: 25

In each of the questions given below,,which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left if the sequence were continued?

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option B

QUESTION: 26

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the center but not necessarily in the same order.

B sits second to the left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.

D's daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's.

Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's mother'.

Only one person sits between H's mother and E.

Only one person sits between H, and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild?

Solution:

A's grandchild is C, and A is the immediate right of C.

QUESTION: 27

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circle facing the center but not necessarily in the same order.

B sits second to the left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.

D's daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's.

Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's mother'.

Only one person sits between H's mother and E.

Only one person sits between H, and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

Who sits to the immediate left of C?

Solution:

F's grandmother sits to the immediate left of C.

QUESTION: 28

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circle facing the center but not necessarily in the same order.

B sits second to the left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.

D's daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's.

Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's mother'.

Only one person sits between H's mother and E.

Only one person sits between H, and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information, and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

Solution:

Except C all others are women.

QUESTION: 29

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circle facing the center but not necessarily in the same order.

B sits second to the left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.

D's daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's.

Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's mother'.

Only one person sits between H's mother and E.

Only one person sits between H, and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

What is the position of A with respect to his mother-in-law?

Solution:

A's mother-in-law is B, and A is second to the right of B.

QUESTION: 30

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circle facing the center but not necessarily in the same order.

B sits second to the left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.

D's daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's.

Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's mother'.

Only one person sits between H's mother and E.

Only one person sits between H, and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

How many people sit between G and her uncle?

Solution:

G's uncle is D, and three peoples (either clockwise or anti-clockwise) are sitting between G and her uncle.

QUESTION: 31

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circle facing the center but not necessarily in the same order.

B sits second to the left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.

D's daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's.

Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's mother'.

Only one person sits between H's mother and E.

Only one person sits between H, and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

Solution:

B is the mother of H which is true with respect to the given sitting arrangement.

QUESTION: 32

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circle facing the center but not necessarily in the same order.

B sits second to the left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.

D's daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H's.

Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's mother'.

Only one person sits between H's mother and E.

Only one person sits between H, and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

Among the following is D's daughter?

Solution:

D's daughter is E,

QUESTION: 33

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E, and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A, and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third-highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

Solution:

None of the above is true

Hence correct answer is option D

QUESTION: 34

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E, and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A, and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third-highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

The person who scored the maximum scored 13 marks more than F's marks. Which of the following can be D's score?

Solution:

B scored the highest marks.

Therefore, B's marks = F's marks + 13

= 81 + 13

=94

D scored second highest marks.

Therefore, D scored marks between 81 and 94

Hence, D's Possible marks = 89

QUESTION: 35

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E, and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A, and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third-highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

Which of the following could possibly be C's score?

Solution:

Six friends marks descending order ( >) are as follows.

B > D > F > C > E > A

Given, third-highest marks = 81 and E's marks: 62

Therefore, C's score marks between 62 and 81

Hence, C's Possible marks: 70.

QUESTION: 36

These questions ate based on the information given above and the sentences labelled A, B, C, D, E, and F as given below.

A. A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand makes much more profit from the local Grocery stores than from the supermarkets.

B. As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, and this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.

C. Supermarkets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution.

D. Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.

E. Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, the visibility of the smaller brands at local Grocery stores is much lower than the supermarkets.

F. Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.

Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, D, E, and F can be assumed from the facts/information given in the statement?

(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)

Solution:

The assumption behind the small brands are tying up with supermarkets such as Big Bazaar is the statement (D), and E, which describes that 'supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands' and 'Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much lower as compares to the super markets'

QUESTION: 37

These questions ate based on the information given above and the sentences labelled A, B, C, D, E, and F as given below.

A. A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand makes much more profit from the local Grocery stores than from the supermarkets.

B. As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, and this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.

C. Supermarkets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution.

D. Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.

E. Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, the visibility of the smaller brands at local Grocery stores is much lower than the supermarkets.

F. Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.

The statements A, B, C, D, and E mentioned above represent the reasons for the shift from local grocery stores to supermarkets by the smaller brands?

Solution:

Statement D represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to supermarkets by the smaller brands.

QUESTION: 38

These questions ate based on the information given above and the sentences labelled A, B, C, D, E, and F as given below.

A. A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand makes much more profit from the local Grocery stores than from the supermarkets.

B. As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.

C. Supermarkets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution.

D. Super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.

E. Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local Grocery stores is much lower than the super markets.

F. Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.

Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, E, and F mentioned above would Prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct?

Solution:

Both statements B and E would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct.

QUESTION: 39

These questions ate based on the information given above and the sentences labelled A, B, C, D, E, and F as given below.

A. A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand makes much more profit from the local Grocery stores than from the supermarkets.

B. As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, and this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.

C. Supermarkets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution.

D. Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.

E. Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, the visibility of the smaller brands at local Grocery stores is much lower as compared to the supermarkets.

F. Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.

Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, E, and F represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand?

Solution:

Statement E represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand.

QUESTION: 40

In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures do not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option D

QUESTION: 41

Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows.

Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the organic-farming area of their farms would be heavily fined.

Which of the following statements is an assumption implicit in the given statement?

(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted).

Solution:

A farm's organic and chemical farming area is different is the correct assumption for the given statement (information).

QUESTION: 42

In each group of questions, below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements

All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.

Conclusions

I. Some forces are definitely not powers.

II. No heat is force.

Solution:

Conclusions. I No energy is heat.

ll. Some forces being heat is a possibility.

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.

QUESTION: 43

In each group of questions, below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two-three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements

Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics.

No graphic is a picture.

Conclusions

I. Some graphics are figures.

II. No symbol is a picture.

Solution:

According to the statements, Venn diagram is

Conclusions

I. Some graphics are figures.

II. No symbol is a Picture.

QUESTION: 44

In each group of questions, below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two-three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements

Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.

Conclusions

I. No question is a test.

II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

Solution:

According to the statements, Venn diagram is

Conclusions l. No question is a test.

II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

Hence, only conclusion II follows from the given statements.

QUESTION: 45

(Q. Nos. 12-18) In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements

No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.

Conclusions

I.No metal is plastic.

II. All notes are plastics

Solution:

Conclusion I. No coin is a plastic.

II. All notes are plastic.

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.

QUESTION: 46

In each group of questions, below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements

All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.

Conclusions

I. Some forces are definitely not powers.

II. No heat is force.

Solution:

According to the statements, Venn diagram is

Conclusions

I. Some forces are definitely not powers.

II. No heat is force.

QUESTION: 47

In each group of questions, below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements

No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.

Conclusions

I. No coin is plastic.

II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.

Solution:

Conclusion I. No coin is a plastic.

II. All the plastic being metals is a possibility.

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.

QUESTION: 48

In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two-three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements

All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations.

Conclusions

I. All vacancies are occupation.

II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.

Solution:

According to the statements, Venn diagram is

Conclusion

I. All vacancies are occupations.

ll. All occupations being vacancies is a Possibility Y.

Hence, no conclusion follows from the given statements

QUESTION: 49

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.

Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with supermarkets such as Big Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.

which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)

Solution:

The reason behind the small brands are tying up with supermarkets such as Big Bazaar is that 'there is a perception among small brands that sale in a supermarket is higher than that of small grocery stores'

QUESTION: 50

In each of the questions given below, which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left if the sequence were continued?

Solution:

Hence correct answer is option B

QUESTION: 51

In which situation do wages and prices chase each other at rapid two-three speeds?

Solution:

Hyper-inflation is a situation where wages and prices chase each other at rapid speeds.

It is, in simple terms, defined as rapidly rising inflation.

Disinflation is the slowing of the pace of inflation temporarily.

Reflation is a policy designed to curb the effects of deflation, stimulate spending, and expand output.

Stagflation is a condition where unemployment is relatively high and economic growth is slow or stagnant.

QUESTION: 52

Which among these glands is also known as the third eye in the human body?

Solution:

The pineal gland is also known as the third eye in the human body.

It produces melatonin and serotonin-derived hormone.

Serotonin-derived hormone controls waking up and sleeping.

Melatonin-derived hormone controls the formation of sex hormone at the time of matting.

QUESTION: 53

The process by which a layer of metal is deposited on another material using electricity is called ________.

Solution:

Electroplating is a method by which a material (mostly electrode) is coated with metal using electric current, which reduces the dissolved metal cations, which can then form a thin coherent coating on the material.

Crystallization is a process in which the atoms and molecules are organized into solid structures called crystals.

Rusting is the formation of red or orange coating on the surface of iron when it is exposed to moisture and air.

Galvanization is when a protective zinc coating is applied to iron or steel to prevent it from rusting.

QUESTION: 54

'Angstrom' is a unit of measurement of _______.

Solution:

'Angstrom' is a unit of measurement of length.

An angstrom is a unit of length used to measure very small distances.

One angstrom is equal to 10-10 m (0.1 nanometers).

QUESTION: 55

Who among the following is the longest-serving president of India?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1) i.e., Rajendra Prasad.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first president of India.

He is also the longest-serving president of India from 1950-62.

A lawyer by profession, Dr. Prasad was an influential leader during the Indian freedom struggle.

He served as the president of the Constituent Assembly that drafted the first constitution of the Republic of India, which lasted from 1948 to 1950.

He also became the first Minister of Food and Agriculture in 1946 in the interim national government.

QUESTION: 56

Which part of the cell is known as the "Powerhouse"?

Solution:

The mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of a cell because it is a tube-like organelle and produces energy from food molecules that are provided to it.

It has a double-layered membrane.

This process is known as respiration.

There are so many biochemical processes going on in mitochondria in every moment.

Cristae is the internal structure found in the mitochondria.

The number of mitochondria in a cell indicates the amount of energy that it utilizes.

QUESTION: 57

Which apparatus is used to locate objects submerged underwater?

Solution:

Originally an acronym for sound navigation ranging, the Sonar is a technique that uses sound waves to locate objects that are submerged underwater.

The sonar transducer emits sound pulse or signals into the water. If there is an object in its path, the sound bounces off it and is reflected. The transducer receives the reflected signal and analyzes the time between the emission and reception of the signal to determine the orientation, range, and other physical aspects of the object.

QUESTION: 58

Divyanshu Puri, who won gold at the Khelo India Youth Games in Guwahati in January 2020, is related to which sport?

Solution:

Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG), held annually in January or February, are the national level multidisciplinary grassroots games in India held for two categories, namely under-17 years school students and under-21 college students.

Rajasthan's Divyanshu Puri won gold in 81-kilogram Judo.

In athletics, Harayana girl Sneha bagged gold in the 1500 meter race under 17 at the Khelo India Youth Games in Guwahati.

Uttam Yadav From UP won gold in 1500 meter race under-17 category.

QUESTION: 59

In January 2020, in the 7th Mumbai marathon, who has broken the event record for the full marathon elite category?

Solution:

In the 7th Mumbai marathon, Ethiopian national Derrara Hurisa has broken the event record for the full marathon elite category.

Ayele Abshero and Birhanu Teshome came in second and third in the category.

Srinu Bugatha and Sudha Singh have won the Indian Elite Full Marathon Men's and Women's category.

In the half marathon category, UP's Parul Choudhary emerged victorious.

QUESTION: 60

The Ujjain Kumbh Fair is organized on which Riverbank?

Solution:

The Ujjain Kumbh Fair is organized on the bank of the Shipra River.

It is held in Ujjain city of Madhya Pradesh.

It is organized four times every twelve years in the four Indian cities, namely- Allahabad, Haridwar, Ujjain, or Nasik.

It is also known as Ujjain Simhastha.

The city is famous for the temple of Mahakaal- the most sacred shrine of Lord Shiva.

QUESTION: 61

Which type of unemployment is generally seen in urban areas?

Solution:

Educated unemployment is unemployment among people having an academic degree.

Educated unemployment poses a serious problem in India because many of the educated people are not getting jobs as per their eligibility.

QUESTION: 62

Who among the prominent faces who supported the Revolt of 1857 from the front?

Solution:

Mangal Pandey and Rani Lakshmi Bai were among the prominent leaders of the Revolt of 1857.

Other prominent faces who are still remembered in Indian history are as follows:

1. Bahadur Shah Zafar

2. Nana Sahib

3. Tatya Tope

4. Begum Hazrat Mahal

QUESTION: 63

Who amongst these would be appointed as the chairman of its committee on road safety?

Solution:

The Supreme Court would appoint Justice A M Sapre as the chairman of its committee on road safety.

The panel's current head is former apex court judge Justice K S P Radhakrishnan.

S Sundar, former secretary, Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, will be relieved of his committee’s membership.

Sanjay Mitra, former Defence Secretary, will be appointed in lieu of Sundar.

QUESTION: 64

Which of the following used in the formation of LPG?

Solution:

Propane and Butane are used in the formation of LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas).

LPG is an explosive mixture of gases that is used as a fuel in homes.

The molecular formula of propane is C3H8.

The molecular formula of Butane is C4H10.

QUESTION: 65

The Great Barrier Reef is located in ________.

Solution:

The Great Barrier Reef is the world's largest coral reef system.

The reef is located in the Coral Sea Queensland, Australia.

It is larger than the Great Wall of China and the only living thing on earth visible from space.

It was included in the list of UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1981.

CNN labeled it one of the seven natural wonders of the world.

The Queensland National Trust named it a state icon of Queensland.

QUESTION: 66

Gir National Park is known for its ______.

Solution:

Gir National Park is known for its Asiatic Lions.

Facts about Gir National Park

It is located in the Gujarat state of India.

It was established in 1965 with a total area of 1,412 km2, of which 258 km2 is fully protected as a national park and 1,153 km2 as a wildlife sanctuary.

As per the 14th Asiatic Lion Census 2015, the population of Asiatic Lions was 523.

Nawab of Junagadh established the sanctuary considering the drastic decline in Lions’ population due to hunting.

It is the only area in Asia where Asiatic lions occur and is considered one of Asia’s most important protected areas because of its biodiversity.

The seven major perennial rivers in the Gir region are -

Hiran, Shetrunji, Datardi, Shingoda, Machhundri, Godavari, and Raval.

QUESTION: 67

The average distance between the earth and the sun is ___________ (approximately).

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4 i.e., 150 billion meters.

The astronomical unit (au) is defined by the IAU (International Astronomical Union) as exactly 149,597,870,700 m (i.e., 93 million miles approx.) (i.e., 149 million kilometers)

It is approximately the average distance between the Earth and the Sun (about 150 billion meters).

Note:​

The Earth-Sun orbit distance is defined to be exactly 1.00, and we call this distance 1.00 AUs.

QUESTION: 68

Consider the important passes in India.

I. Bomdi La: Arunachal Pradesh

II. Niti La: Sikkim

III. Jelep La: Uttarakhand

Which among the above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

QUESTION: 69

Acids are ________ in taste while bases are _________ in taste

Solution:

Acids generally taste sour due to the sour H+ ion.

Acid turns blue litmus to red.

Bases taste bitter due to the OH- ion.

Bases turn red litmus paper to blue.

QUESTION: 70

Which of the followings book is written by the Nobel prize winner Amartya Sen?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4) i.e., The Idea of Justice.

QUESTION: 71

Who won the 2019 Nobel Prize in Literature?

Solution:

The 2019 Nobel Prize in Literature has been announced along with the 2018 Prize.

Austrian author Peter Handke has won the 2019 prize while Polish writer Olga Tokarczuk has received the 2018 prize.

Handke's notable works include Short Letter, Long Farewell, and A Sorrow Beyond Dreams.

Tokarczuk was awarded for a narrative imagination with encyclopedic passion.

QUESTION: 72

The first World War ended in the year ________.

Solution:

The First World War originated in Europe. It took place from 28 July 1914 to 11 November 1918. It is considered as one of the largest wars in history and also contemporarily described as the ‘War to End All Wars.’ It was followed by the Second World War 20 years later.

QUESTION: 73

Which of the following fabrics is called 'The artificial Silk'?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2) i.e., Rayon.

Rayon is the fabric which is also called 'The Artificial Silk.’

China was the first country to extract Silk from silkworms. But the Chinese kept it as a secret from where they obtained Silk.

So towards the end of the 19th century, Scientists were successful in obtaining a fiber similar to the properties of Silk.

Although rayon is obtained from a natural source, wood pulp, yet it is a human-made fibre.

It is cheaper than silk and can be woven like silk fibres.

It can also be dyed in a wide variety of colours.

Rayon is mixed with cotton to make bed sheets or mixed with wool to make carpets.

QUESTION: 74

Which of the following rejected the idea of a Parliamentary form of Government for India?

Solution:

Simon Commission rejected the idea of a Parliamentary form of Government for India.

QUESTION: 75

The term "Lame-ducks" refers to _____________.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2, i.e., Those members of the existing Lok Sabha who could not re-elect to the new Lok Sabha.

The members of the existing Lok Sabha who could not get re-elected to the new Lok Sabha are called lame-ducks.

The lame-duck session is also there in Lok-sabha.

The lame-duck session refers to the last session of the existing Lok Sabha after a new Lok Sabha has been elected.

The term is widely used in the USA congress.

There are usually three sessions in a year in the Indian Parliament:

The Budget Session (February to May)

The Monsoon Session (July to September)

The Winter Session (November to December).

QUESTION: 76

What was the main aim of the Montreal Protocol?

Solution:

Protection of the Ozone layer was the main aim of the Montreal Protocol.

The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty that was adopted on September 16, 1987.

It aimed to regulate the production and use of chemicals contributing to the depletion of the Earth’s ozone layer.

Initially, it was signed by 46 countries but now has nearly 200 signatories.

QUESTION: 77

Bru community, recently seen in the news, is related to which of the following states?

Solution:

The Government signed an agreement with stakeholders from the State of Tripura, Mizoram, and members of the Bru community, bringing an end to the 22-year old Bru refugee crisis.

As per the agreement, over 30,000 Bru refugees will be settled in Tripura.

Bru refugees will get a 40 x 30 feet plot along with a fixed deposit of Rs 4 lakh, cash assistance of Rs 5000 per month for 2 years, and free ration.

Bru is one of the 21 scheduled tribes of the Indian state of Tripura.

They may also be found in Mizoram and Assam.

Tripura: State Animal - Phayre's leaf monkey

State Bird - Green imperial pigeon

Mizoram: State Animal - Sumatran serow

State Bird -Mrs. Hume's pheasant

QUESTION: 78

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for an Election Commission?

Solution:

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution provides the formation of an independent body for conduction general elections called as Election Commission of India.

It is vested with the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India, and the office of vice president India.

The Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as determined by the president. Currently, 2 Election Commissioners are appointed by President.

Chief Election Commissioner of India: Sunil Arora

QUESTION: 79

San Andreas Fault in western North America is a famous _________________ fault.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4) i.e., Transform boundary.

The Earth’s outer shell, the lithosphere, consisting of the crust and uppermost mantle, is divided into a patchwork of large tectonic plates that move slowly relative to each other.

The boundaries of these plates are called the plate boundaries.

There are three main types of plate boundaries.

Convergent boundaries - where two plates are colliding.

Divergent boundaries – where two plates are moving apart.

Transform boundaries – where plates slide past each other.

San Andreas Fault Zone of western North America is the most famous example of a fault created by a transform boundary.

QUESTION: 80

Which of these Airports is situated in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh?

Solution:

Lal Bahadur Shastri International Airport is situated in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.

It was given this name in October 2005.

It received its international status in October 2012.

QUESTION: 81

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is calculated as a percentage of each bank's _____.

Solution:

The cash reserve ratio (CRR) is the mandatory deposit held by banks with the Reserve Bank of India.

It is calculated daily based on the bank’s net demand and time liabilities to ensure the liquidity and solvency of the banks.

The current rate of CRR is 4%.

QUESTION: 82

The study of skeleton is known as _________.

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

Which of the following organisms causes Measles?

Solution:

QUESTION: 84

Konark Temple in Odisha was built by which of the following kings?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2, i.e, Narasimha Deva 1

Konark Sun Temple:

It is situated at Konark in Odisha.

It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

It is dedicated to the sun god, Surya, the first rays of the sun fall on the entrance of the temple.

It was built in the 13th century and was built by King Narasimhadeva I.

QUESTION: 85

Who lifted the Indonesia Badminton Masters 2020 women's singles title?

Solution:

Thailand's Ratchanok Intanon lifted the Indonesia Badminton Masters 2020 women's singles title after defeating Carolina Marin on 19 Jan 2020.

Intanon defeated Marin 21-19, 11-21, 21-18 in 1 hour and 20 minutes long match.

The clash went into three games, and both the shuttlers tried their 100 percent to turn things in their favor.

She won the match by claiming the 3rd game by 21-18.

QUESTION: 86

Which of these actresses won the Crossword Book Award in the popular Best Fiction

Category?

Solution:

The 17th Crossword Book Awards were held in Mumbai on 14 Jan 2020.

The award is the only forum in India that gives a face to Indian authors and Indian literature.

Twinkle Khanna won the popular Best Fiction Award for her novel ‘Pyjamas Are Forgiving.

Jayasree Kalathil and N Prabhakaran bagged the best book in the Indian Language Translation category for Diary of a Malayali Madman.

QUESTION: 87

According to the FIT India School Ranking system, which state clinched the first position?

Solution:

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. Andhra Pradesh.

Andhra Pradesh secured the first position in Fit India School Ranking system, followed by Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh for second and third positions, respectively.

Under the Fit India School Ranking system, 3-star and 5-star ratings were decided based on the fitness level of the students.

Fit India Movement was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi nationwide on National Sports Day on August 29, 2019, at Indira Gandhi Stadium Complex in New Delhi.

Important facts of Andhra Pradesh:

QUESTION: 88

Who among the following was the court poet of Mahmud Ghazni?

Solution:

Firdousi was the court poet of Mahmud Ghazni.

The full name of Firdousi was Abu l-Qasim FirdousiTusi.

He is the author of the world's longest epic poem, Shahnama is the work of him alone.

Firdousi is considered as the most celebrated poet in Persian literature.

He belonged to the class of dehqans.

Amir Khusrau was the court poet of Allauddin Khilji.

Alberuni was the court poet of Mahmud Ghazni.

QUESTION: 89

The female reproductive part of a flower is called________.

Solution:

Gynaecium is the female whorl, and its membranes are called carpels. The androecium is a male whorl, and its members are called stamens.

A Flower forms the structural unit of sexual reproduction in plants. It consists of four floral whorls as calyx, corolla, androecium, and gynaecium. They are arranged in sequence from outside to inside.

Androecium and gynoecium are called ‘essential whorls’ because they perform the function of reproduction, whereas calyx and corolla are called ‘accessory whorls’ because they are responsible for the protection of inner whorls.

QUESTION: 90

Who among the following was chosen as the 1st recipient of the Muppavarapu Venkaiah Naidu National Award for Excellence in January 2020?

Solution:

Dr. M S Swaminathan and Dr. Gutta Muniratnam were chosen as the 1st recipients of the Muppavarapu Venkaiah Naidu National Award for Excellence and the Muppavarapu National Award for Social Service, respectively.

Prof. M.S. Swaminathan was awarded for his contributions to agriculture, while Dr. G Muniratnam for his contribution in improving the quality of people’s lives through social service.

The National Award for Excellence was instituted by the Muppavarapu Foundation, while the one for Social Service was launched by the Swarna Bharat Trust in Hyderabad.

QUESTION: 91

Which state has implemented the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regime from January 1, 2020, in the entire state?

Solution:

Manipur state government implemented the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regime from January 1 in the entire state, and the authorities have begun issuing the document.

Any non-indigenous or non-permanent resident of Manipur will have to obtain ILP, which is an official travel document, to visit the state.

Outside travellers to Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh are also required to obtain ILP.

QUESTION: 92

Who holds the apex position in the administrative hierarchy of a state?

Solution:

The Chief Minister holds the highest authority of administration in a state

The Chief Minister is the head of the state's council of ministers

He/she is appointed by the Governor of the state

The hierarchy for state administration is as follows: Chief Minister → Governor → State Secretariat → District Administration → Panchayat → Local Administration.

QUESTION: 93

Where is the headquarters of the 'International Committee of the Red Cross' situated?

Solution:

The International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) is a humanitarian institution based in Geneva, Switzerland, and is a three-time Nobel Prize winner.

State parties (signatories) to the four Geneva Conventions of 1949 and their Additional Protocols of 1977 (Protocol I, Protocol II) and 2005 have given the ICRC a mandate to protect victims of international and internal armed conflicts.

Such victims include war wounded, prisoners, refugees, civilians, and other non - combatants.

QUESTION: 94

In which schedule of the Indian Constitution all the officially recognized languages in India is mentioned?

Solution:

The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides a list of all the officially recognized languages in India. It is found in Articles 344(1) and 351 of the Constitution.

As of now, there are 22 languages present that are officially recognized by the Indian government.

They are 1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri

Information on the other schedules is given below.

QUESTION: 95

Choose the incorrect one from the following alternatives.

Solution:

Insectivorous plants are such that they capture and digest insects passively or by the movement of certain organs in their body.

Examples of insectivorous plants include Venus Flytrap, Drosera, Nepenthes, etc.

Rafflesia is a kind of Parasitic flowering plant.

A Parasitic plant is such that it derives some of its nutritional requirements from another living plant.

QUESTION: 96

Who invented the vaccination for smallpox?

Solution:

Edward Jenner invented the vaccination for smallpox in the year 1796.

Smallpox is caused by the Varicella virus. The symptoms include light fever, the eruption of bile on the body.

QUESTION: 97

"Jivaka" was the court physician of ________.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2) i.e., ​Bimbisara.

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following separates Great Andaman from Little Andaman?

Solution:

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following lenses are used in projectors?

Solution:

Convex Lenses are used in projectors to get a magnified image of the object to be shown on Screen.

Image formation by a convex lens is shown as follow:

QUESTION: 100

Which feature has been announced by the Ride-hailing app ‘Uber’ to enhance its users’ safety and peace of mind?

Solution:

Ride-hailing platform Uber said it would roll out new safety features, including a PIN verification for starting trips and RideCheck for long, unexpected stops, for users in India.

The RideCheck feature would allow Uber to flag certain trip irregularities such as long, unexpected stops or midway drops that might indicate an increased safety risk, especially for women.

If an anomaly is detected, Uber will send a push notification to both driver and rider through the blue safety shield within the app.

They will then see five or six options to clarify the situation, such as share location, call 100, reach out to the Uber safety line, and so on.

In case of any anomaly, Uber can also initiate a RideCheck by calling both the rider and the driver.

The company says the feature is now live for about half of Uber's users and will be available for the other half within two weeks.

The feature will help enhance user safety and peace of mind.

QUESTION: 101

Function of governor is to:

Solution:

The function of a governor is to maintain the speed of the engine within specified limits whenever there is a variation of load.

The speed of an engine varies in two ways

1. During each revolution or cyclic variation

2. Over a number of revolutions.

During each revolution or cyclic variation, the speed of the engine varies due to variation in output torque of the engine during a cycle. It is regulated by a flywheel mounted on the shaft.

Over a number of revolutions, the speed of the engine varies due to variation in load upon the engine, and the speed is maintained by mounting a governor.

QUESTION: 102

Second law of thermodynamics defines:

Solution:

The second law of thermodynamics states that the total entropy of an isolated system always increases over time or remains constant in ideal cases where the system is in a steady state or undergoing a reversible process. This increase in entropy accounts for the irreversibility of natural processes. So the second law gives the entropy term.

Important Point:

Zeroth law – the concept of temperature

First law – the concept of internal energy

Second law – the concept of entropy

QUESTION: 103

Which of the following devices is used to find the composition of exhaust gases from IC engines?

Solution:

Fuel gas analysis refers to the determination of the composition of exhaust gases. It can be done theoretically and experimentally.

Various devices available for measuring the composition of products of combustion (flue gas) are Orsat Analyzer, Gas chromatograph, Infrared analyzer, and Flame ionization detector, etc.

Orsat Apparatus: It is used for carrying out volumetric analysis of dry products of combustion.

Bomb Calorimeter: It is used to determine the higher calorific value of solid and liquid fuels.

Barometer: A barometer is used to measure local atmospheric pressure.

Rope dynamometer: A rope brake dynamometer is used to test the power of engines.

QUESTION: 104

The bond formed by transferring electrons from one atom to another is called

Solution:

Ionic bonding is the complete transfer of valence electron(s) between atoms. It is a type of chemical bond that generates two oppositely charged ions.

QUESTION: 105

If a number of coplanar forces acting at a point be in equilibrium, the sum of clockwise moments must be __________ the sum of anticlockwise moments, about any point.

Solution:

The action of a couple is to produce the rotational motion of a body. The principle of moment states that when a body in equilibrium under the action of a number of forces, then the algebraic sum of moments of all these forces about any point is zero. That is, some of the clockwise moment must be equal to the anticlockwise moment.

QUESTION: 106

Specific speed indicates:

Solution:

Specific speed (NS) is the rated speed at some specified operating conditions.

For Pump: Specific speed is defined as the speed of a geometrically similar pump that would deliver unit discharge in m3/s against a unit head in m.

For Turbine: specific speed is defined as the speed of a similar geometrical turbine which would deliver unit power in kW against a unit head in m.

Important point: Specific speed and shape number are two different parameters. Specific speed is a dimensional parameter, whereas a shape number is a dimensionless

parameter. Shape number

QUESTION: 107

Which of the following fittings is used to extinguish the boiler furnace fire in case the water level falls below the safe level?

Solution:

Boiler mounting: The boiler mountings are part of the boiler and are required for proper functioning. It is essential fitting for the safe working of a boiler. Some of the important mountings are Water level Indicator, Pressure Gauge, Safety Valve, Fusible Plug, Feed Check Valve, and Steam Stop Valve.

Fusible plug: A fusible plug made of a low melting point alloy (lead-based) is installed on the roof of the crown in the furnace. If the water level in the shell falls below a certain level, the fusible plug melts due to overheating, and water pours down through the hole formed and puts down the fire.

Feed check valve: It is used to control the water supply to the boiler and prevent the escaping of water from the boiler when the pump pressure is less or the pump is stopped. Feed check valve ensures unidirectional flow.

Safety valve: It is used to prevent the overheating and overpressure of steam inside the boiler drum. Safety valve allows to blow off excess quantity of steam from boiler drum; thus, the pressure in the boiler falls in the safe limit. It is mounted on the top of the boiler.

Blow-off cock: it is mounted on the bottom side of the boiler. The main function of the Blow-off cock is to remove the sediments and the impurities from the boiler.

QUESTION: 108

The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called:

Solution:

Concept:

Compressor capacity: It is the quantity of air delivered by a compressor in m3/minute or m3/sec

Compression ratio: It is defined as the ratio of the volume of air before compression to the volume of air after compression. It is the ratio of total volume (V1) to the clearance volume (VC)

In other words, the compression ratio is the volume of air before compression to the volume of air after compression.

Free air delivery (FAD): The delivery volume reduced in the compressor to a pressure of 1 bar and temperature of 15C. The relative volume at that condition is known as Free Air Delivery.

Swept volume (Vs): The volume displaced or swept by the piston when it moves between the top dead center and bottom dead center.

Clearance volume: The difference between the total volume and the swept volume is the gap that remains between the piston head and the cylinder head when at the top dead center.

QUESTION: 109

Typical stainless steel are alloy steels with:

Solution:

Stainless steel has more than 10.5% chromium and less than 1.2% carbon.

Stainless steels typically contain chromium besides other elements like C, Mn, Si, S, etc. Chromium imparts corrosion resistance to steel.

One important type of stainless steel is often described as 18/8 steel, where chromium and nickel percentages are 18 and 8, respectively.

A typical designation of stainless steel is 15Si2Mn2Cr18Ni8, where carbon percentage is 0.15.

QUESTION: 110

A Pelton turbine is a/an:

Solution:

Impulse Turbine: If the energy available is only kinetic energy at the inlet of the turbine, the turbine is known as an impulse turbine. e.g., a Pelton wheel turbine.

Reaction Turbine: If at the inlet of the turbine, the water possesses kinetic energy and pressure energy, the turbine is known as a reaction turbine. e.g., e Francis and Kaplan turbine.

Tangential flow turbines: In this type of turbine, the water strikes the runner in the direction of the tangent to the wheel. Example: Pelton wheel turbine

Radial flow turbines: In this type of turbine, the water strikes in the radial direction. accordingly, it is further classified as

Inward flow turbine: The flow is inward from periphery to the centre (centripetal type); Example: old Francis turbine

Outward flow turbine: The flow is outward from the centre to periphery (centrifugal type); Example: Fourneyron turbine

Axial flow turbine: The flow of water is in the direction parallel to the axis of the shaft. Example: Kaplan turbine and propeller turbine

∴ Francis turbine is a radial inward flowing reaction turbine.

QUESTION: 111

Work done is said to be zero, when

Solution:

The work done is said to be zero work when force and displacement are perpendicular to each other or when either force or displacement is zero. Example: When we hold an object and walk, the force acts in the downward direction, whereas displacement acts in the forward direction.

QUESTION: 112

A device used to put off the fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of the water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit is called:

Solution:

Boiler mounting: The items which are mounted on the boiler for the safety purpose of the boiler.

Fusible plug: A fusible plug made of a low melting point alloy (lead-based) is installed on the roof of the crown in the furnace. If the water level in the shell falls below a certain level, the fusible plug melts due to overheating, and water pours down through the hole formed and puts down the fire.

Feed check valve: It is used to control the water supply to the boiler and prevent the escaping of water from the boiler when the pump pressure is less, or the pump is stopped. Feed check valve ensures unidirectional flow.

Safety valve: It is used to prevent the overheating and overpressure of steam inside the boiler drum. The safety valve allows the blow off an excess quantity of steam from the boiler drum; thus, the pressure in the boiler falls within the safe limit. It is mounted on the top of the boiler.

Blow-off cock: it is mounted on the bottom side of the boiler. The main function of the Blow-off cock is to remove the sediments and the impurities from the boiler.

QUESTION: 113

Steam coal is a

Solution:

Steam coal (sometimes called thermal coal) is a grade of coal used in electric power plants to generate steam to create electricity. Grades of steam coal are generally related to sulfur content and ash yield. Typically, the term low-sulfur coal is used for coals with less than 1 percent sulfur.

QUESTION: 114

Using the stream function in a two-dimensional flow automatically satisfies the:

Solution:

The stream function in a two-dimensional flow automatically satisfies the continuity equation.

Stream Function: It is the scalar function of space and time.

The partial derivative of stream function with respect to any direction gives the velocity component perpendicular to that direction.

Stream function defines only for two-dimensional flow.

Properties of stream function:

If ψ exists, it follows the continuity equation, and the flow may be rotational or irrotational.

If ψ satisfies the Laplace equation, then the flow is irrotational.

Continuity equation:

QUESTION: 115

Tool steels:

Solution:

Tool steels refer to a variety of alloy steels that are particularly useful for making tools. The four major alloying elements that form carbides in tool steel are tungsten, chromium, vanadium, and molybdenum.

The essential requirement for all the types of cutting tool materials are:

Hot hardness or red hardness: The cutting tool can withstand high temperatures without losing its cutting edge. The red hardness of the tool materials can be increased by adding chromium, molybdenum, tungsten, and vanadium, all of which form hard carbides.

Abrasion resistance: It is the ability to resist wear. Abrasion resistance not only depends on hardness but also on the extent of hard, undissolved carbides present. This abrasion resistance increases as the carbon and alloy content increases.

Toughness: Toughness is the ability to resist shock and impact forces and also to resist a high unit pressure against the cutting edge.

Friction coefficient: To have low wear and better surface finish, the coefficient of friction between the chip and tool should be as low as possible in the operating range of speed and feed.

Thermal Conductivity and specific heat: It is very much desired that the tool material should possess high thermal conductivity and specific heat so that the materials may conduct away the heat generated at the cutting edge.

Machinability: This is the property of the material that defines the ease with which material would machine. The tool material should be comparatively easier for the machine.

There are different types of tool materials like plain carbon steels, low alloy steels, high-speed steels, Cemented carbides, Ceramics, etc.

The carbon content of tool steels varies from 0.8 to 1.5%.

QUESTION: 116

When the pressure inside the boiler drum exceeds the desired level, then which of the following devices blows off the excess steam in the boiler?

Solution:

Boiler mounting: The items which are mounted on the boiler for the safety purpose of the boiler.

Safety valve: It is used to prevent the overheating and overpressure of steam inside the boiler drum. The safety valve allows the blow off an excess quantity of steam from the boiler drum; thus, the pressure in the boiler falls within the safe limit. It is mounted on the top of the boiler.

Fusible plug: A fusible plug made of a low melting point alloy (lead-based) is installed on the roof of the crown in the furnace. If the water level in the shell falls below a certain level, the fusible plug melts due to overheating, and water pours down through the hole formed and puts down the fire.

Feed check valve: It is used to control the water supply to the boiler and prevent the escaping of water from the boiler when the pump pressure is less or the pump is stopped. Feed check valve ensures unidirectional flow.

Steam stop valve: The function of the steam stop valve is to regulate the flow of steam from one steam pipe to the other or from the boiler to the steam pipe in the same direction.

QUESTION: 117

The pressure of steam produced in a supercritical boiler is in the range of:

Solution:

A supercritical steam generator is a type of boiler that operates at supercritical pressure. In contrast to a subcritical boiler in which bubbles can form, a supercritical boiler operates at pressures above the critical pressure 221.2 bar and critical temperature 373o C.

In the super-critical boiler, no drum is used, but in the sub-critical boiler, the drum may or may not be used.

QUESTION: 118

Which of the following constituents of steels is softest and least strong?

Solution:

Ferrites used in transformer or electromagnetic cores contain nickel, zinc, and/or manganese compounds. They have a low coercivity and are called soft ferrites.

QUESTION: 119

An undesirable property of a refrigerant is its:

Solution:

Required Properties of Ideal Refrigerant:

1) The refrigerant should have a low boiling point and a low freezing point.

2) It must have low specific heat and high latent heat. Because high specific heat decreases the refrigerating effect per kg of refrigerant and high latent heat at low temperature increases the refrigerating effect per kg of refrigerant.

3) It must have high critical pressure and temperature to avoid large power requirements.

4) The pressures required to be maintained in the evaporator and condenser should be low enough to reduce the material cost. They must be positive to avoid leakage of air into the system.

5) It should have a low specific volume to reduce the size of the compressor.

6) It must have high thermal conductivity to reduce the area of heat transfer in the evaporator and condenser.

7) It should be non-flammable, non-explosive, non-toxic, and non-corrosive.

8) It should not have any bad effects on the stored material or food when any leak develops in the system.

9) It must have high miscibility with lubricating oil and it should not have reacting properly with lubricating oil in the temperature range of the system.

10) It should give high COP in the working temperature range. This is necessary to reduce the running cost of the system.

QUESTION: 120

Modified polyol ester is a suitable lubricant in a refrigeration system with the refrigerant:

Solution:

Lubricants are essential for the performance and longevity of a refrigeration system. The choice of lubricant depends on the system, the refrigerant, and the type of application.

There are several categories of oils:

Mineral oils: They are particularly suited for use with CFC (R11, R12), HCFC (R22, R142b, R123) refrigerants, and ammonia.

Alkyl Benzene Oils (AB): AB oils are especially recommended for refrigerants like R-22 and HCFC blends.

Poly Alpha Olefins (PAO): It can be described as ‘mineral synthetic oils.’ PAO oils can be used in refrigeration systems working in extreme conditions with R-22 or ammonia. It has a low pour point and excellent thermal stability.

Poly Alkylene Glycols (PAG): These were the first oils developed for use with HFC refrigerants and are perfectly miscible with these products.

Polyol Ester Oils (POE): POE constitutes the second generation of lubricants developed for use with HFC’s (R134a, R152a). POE oils are excellent lubricants, less hygroscopic than PAG (Poly Alkylene Glycols), and chemically more stable than PAG when in the presence of water. POE oils are intended for all refrigeration and air conditioning applications.

HFCs cannot be used with mineral oils. Generally, POE is used. R134a is not miscible with mineral oil; therefore, a synthetic lubricant of polyester is used.

QUESTION: 121

Electrolux system of refrigerant has:

Solution:

The Electrolux principle works on a 3-fluid system.

There is no solution circulation pump.

The total pressure is the same throughout the system.

The third fluid remains mainly in the evaporator, thus reducing the refrigerant’s partial pressure to evaporate at low pressure and hence low temperature.

Example: An Electrolux refrigerator working on NH3 – H2O system with H2 as the third fluid. Liquid NH3 evaporates in the evaporator in the presence of H2. Hydrogen is chosen as it is non-corrosive and insoluble in water.

QUESTION: 122

The law of motion involved in the recoil of a gun is

Solution:

According to the third law of motion: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction; Recoiling is the backward momentum of a gun to balance the forward momentum of the bullet.

QUESTION: 123

Navier-Stokes equations represent:

Solution:

Navier-Stokes (N-S) equations represent mass conservation or continuity equation. The mass in the control volume can be neither created nor destroyed in accordance with physical laws. The conservation of mass is also expressed as Continuity Equation.

N-S equation also represents the momentum conservation equation.

QUESTION: 124

The furnace is situated outside the boiler shell in case of a:

Solution:

The furnace is situated outside the boiler shell in the case of a Babcock and Wilcox boiler.

Types of the boiler based on the position of the furnace:

1. Externally fired boiler: In this type of boiler, the fire in the furnace occurs outside the boiler shell. Babcock and Wilcox boiler, Stirling boiler is the external fired boilers.

2. Internally fired boiler: In this type of boiler, the fire in the furnace occurs inside the boiler shell. Cochran, Lancashire boiler, Locomotive boiler, etc., are the internally fired boilers.

QUESTION: 125

The maximum shear stress in a shaft, of diameter ‘d’ subjected to torsion ‘T,’ is given by:

Solution:

Torsion Equation:

Where T is torque applied on the shaft in N−m

is the polar moment of inertia m4

T is shear stress in MPa, r is the radius of the shaft in m, G shear modulus or modulus of rigidity in MPa

θ is the angle of twist in radian, and 1 is the length of the shaft in m.Tmaxoccurs at rmax

QUESTION: 126

The velocity at which the flow changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow is called

Solution:

The velocity at which the flow enters from the laminar to the transition period is known as lower critical velocity. There is a transition period between the laminar and turbulent flow. It has been experimentally found that when a laminar flow changes into turbulent, it does not change abruptly.

QUESTION: 127

The knock rating of an SI engine is determined by matching the performance of the engine with a mixture of:

Solution:

According to standard practice, the antiknock value of an SI engine fuel is determined by comparing its antiknock property with a mixture of two reference fuels, normal heptane (C7H18) and iso-octane (C8H18).

And the antiknock value of a CI engine fuel is determined by comparing its antiknock property with a mixture of two reference fuels, α-methyl naphthalene (C11H10) and cetane (C16H34).

Rating of SI engine fuel:

The rating of SI engine fuels is based on its antilock property.

Rating of a particular fuel is accomplished by comparing its performance with that of a standard reference fuel, usually a combination of iso-octane (C8H18) and normal heptane (C7H18) plus tetraethyl lead.

Iso – octane being a very good anti-knock fuel, is arbitrarily assigned a rating of 100 octane number.

On the other hand, normal heptane has very poor anti-knock qualities and is given a rating of zero octane number.

Octane number rating is an expression that indicates the ability of a fuel to resist knock in a SI engine.

Rating of CI engine fuels:

Knock rating of a CI engine fuel is found by comparing it with a reference fuel under prescribed working conditions.

Reference fuel: normal Cetane (C16H34), which is assigned a Cetane number of 100, and alpha-methyl naphthalene (C11H10), which is assigned a Cetane number of zero.

QUESTION: 128

For a centrifugal water pump, if the flow rate is 36000 lit/hr and the head added to the flow is 10 mt, calculate water horsepower (WHP).

Solution:

Water horsepower:

WHP=ρQgh/1000

Where WHP in kW (HP), ρ is in kg/m3, h in m, Q in m3/s

Calculation:

1 litre =1000cm3=10−3m31hr=3600sec

Given: Q=36000 lithr =36000×10−3/3600=0.01m3/s

WHP=ρQgh/1000=

QUESTION: 129

A pitot tube measures the:

Solution:

Pitot tube: A pitot tube is a device used for measuring the velocity of flow at any point in a pipe or channel.

A pitot tube consists of a glass tube bent at the right angle. It is based on the principle of conversion of kinetic energy into pressure energy, i.e., when the velocity of flow at any point becomes zero, then there is an increase in pressure in the flow.

The velocity of flow is determined by the rise of liquid in the tube.

Actual velocity is the coefficient of

Velocity.

QUESTION: 130

In an axial flow pump, the liquid enters:

Solution:

Pump Classification based on flow direction through impeller:

Radial flow pump: The liquid enters the impeller axially, and head is developed by centrifugal force. The liquid leaves the impeller radially. Such pumps are called radial flow pumps.

Axial flow pump: In this, the head is developed by the propelling action of vanes. The liquid enters the impeller axially and also leaves axially. These pumps have very large discharges but low heads.

Mixed flow pump: Flow through a mixed flow impeller is a combination of axial and radial flow. The head is developed by the combined action of centrifugal force and propelling action of the impeller. The flow enters axially, not necessarily in the centre, but leaving at some angle between radially and axially.

QUESTION: 131

Bernoulli’s equation is used for:

Solution:

Bernoulli’s equation assumptions:

1. Fluid is ideal, i.e., fluid has zero viscosity

2. Flow is steady

3. Flow is continuous

4. Flow is incompressible

5. Flow is irrotational

6. Flow is along a streamline.

QUESTION: 132

The degree of reaction for an impulse steam turbine is:

Solution:

Degree of reaction

In the case of an impulse turbine, there is no change in the enthalpy in rotor, so degree of reaction is zero.

R=0

And for Parson's turbine or 50% reaction turbine R=0.5 and for

Hero's turbine

QUESTION: 133

Which boiler has a relatively large storage of steam and water?

Solution:

Lancashire boiler is the most commonly used boiler which is stationary and hardly used during transportation. It is used in sugar mills and textile industries not only for power generation but for various processes. It is normally used where a large quantity of steam is needed, and therefore water reserve should be in large quantity.

The Cornish boiler, Cochran boiler, and Simple vertical boiler is less than the Lancashire boiler; consequently, the capacity of steam generation is less.

QUESTION: 134

The two elements of a pair are said to form a _________ when they permit relative motion between them.

Solution:

When the two elements of a pair have a line or point contact when relative motion takes place, and the motion between the two elements is partly turning and partly sliding, then the pair is known as higher pair.

QUESTION: 135

Upto the critical radius of insulation,

Solution:

Conduction resistance is increased by increasing the thickness of insulation beyond critical thickness but the convective resistance decreases. Hence the net heat transfer from the pipe may increase or decrease depending on which of the above two factors dominates.

QUESTION: 136

The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as

Solution:

Kinematic viscosity is the ratio of dynamic/absolute viscosity to the mass density of water.

QUESTION: 137

The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of

Solution:

A centroid of a triangle is the point where the three medians of the triangle meet. A median of a triangle is a line segment from one vertex to the midpoint on the opposite side of the triangle. The centroid is also called the center of gravity of the triangle.

QUESTION: 138

If a plane is parallel to the plane of projection, it appears:

Solution:

If the observer views the surface such that the lines of sight are parallel to the plane, he or she will see the plane as a single line. The plane will appear foreshortened in any view where the surface is neither parallel nor perpendicular to the projection plane.

QUESTION: 139

In a counter-current flow heat exchanger, the logarithmic temperature difference between the fluids is ________ as compared to the parallel flow heat exchanger.

Solution:

The exchanger is performing at its best when the outlet temperatures are equal. Counterflow heat exchangers are inherently more efficient than parallel-flow heat exchangers because they create a more uniform temperature difference between the fluids over the entire length of the fluid path.

QUESTION: 140

Which of the following devices is used to preheat the feedwater before being supplied to the boiler?

Solution:

Economizer: It is also known as a feedwater heater. It is a device in which the waste heat of the flue gases is utilized for heating the feed water.

Air Preheater: It is used to increase the temperature of the air before it enters the furnace. It is generally placed after the economizer; so that the flue gases pass through the economizer and then to the air preheater.

Superheaters: It is used to dry the wet steam and raise the steam temperature above its saturation temperature. It is generally placed in the path of the furnace gases so as to utilize the heat from the hot flue gases.

Steam trap: A Steam trap is an automatic drain valve that distinguishes between steam and condensate. A steam trap holds back steam & discharges condensate under varying pressures or loads.

QUESTION: 141

Dry saturated steam at a pressure of 8 bar enters a convergent nozzle. The index of isentropic expansion for dry saturated steam is 1.135. For maximum mass flow rate to occur through the nozzle, the exit pressure should be:

Solution:

Concept:

For the flow of compressible fluid through orifices and nozzles,

For the maximum mass flow rate,

Where n is the index of polytropic expansion.

Given exit pressure P1=8 bar, n=1.135

P2=8×0.577=4.62

QUESTION: 142

with usual notation represents:

Solution:

represents entropy in a cyclic process. Generally,

and

represents as cyclic integration of S and represented as ∮dS

for any cycle

since entropy is a property, the cyclic integral of any property is zero

QUESTION: 143

The property enthalpy is defined as the:

Solution: Specific enthalpy is a property of the fluid, defined as a sum of specific internal energy (kJ/kg)and product of pressure and specific volume (m3/kg)

h=u+pv

Enthalpy of a system is defined as the mass of the system (m)

(h) of the system multiplied by the specific enthalpy

H=mh

H=U+pV

Where U is internal energy (kJ), p is pressure (kPa), and V is the volume (m3)

QUESTION: 144

The largest diameter of an external or internal screw thread is known as

Solution:

The largest diameter of the thread of the screw or nut. The term “major diameter” replaces the term “outside diameter” as applied to the thread of a screw and also the term “full diameter” as applied to the thread of a nut. Minor Diameter: The smallest diameter of the thread of the screw or nut.

QUESTION: 145

The friction experienced by a body when in motion is known as

Solution:

When a body moves relative to another body, the friction experienced by the body is dynamic friction. The magnitude of static friction is always greater than that of static friction.

QUESTION: 146

The steady flow energy equation:

Q = m(h2 – h1) is applicable for:

Solution:

From Steady Flow Energy Equation (S.F.E.E.)

For Boiler: W=0, no work is done by the boiler,

Change in kinetic and potential energy is neglected.

i.e. Q=m(h2−h1)

For Nozzle: Q=0, as the nozzle is perfectly insulated,

W=0, no work is done by nozzle, \(v_{1}

For Turbine: Q=0, for the adiabatic or perfectly insulated turbine,

Change in kinetic and potential energy is neglected

i.e. W=m(h1−h2)

for Compressor: Q=0, for an adiabatic or perfectly insulated turbine,

Change in kinetic and potential energy is neglected

i.e. W = m (h2 − h1)

QUESTION: 147

The change in head across a small turbine is 10 m, the flow rate of water is 1 m3/s, and the efficiency is 80%. The power developed by the turbine is approximately:

Solution:

The overall efficiency η0 of turbine = volumetric efficiency (ηv)× hydraulic efficiency (ηn)× mechanical efficiency (ηm)

ηo=ηv×ηh×ηm

Overall efficiency.

Water Power =ρ×Q×g×h

Calculation:

Given, η0=0.8, head h=10m/s and Q=1m3/s

QUESTION: 148

If mw is the mass of water changing the enthalpy from h1 and h2 in a boiler and L is the latent heat of steam at 100°C, then the equivalent evaporation is defined as:

Solution:

Concept:

Equivalent evaporation: It is defined as the amount of dry and saturated steam generated from feed water at 100∘C at normal atmospheric pressure.

Equivalent evaporation of the boiler

m2= Mass of steam output

h= enthalpy of steam at the exit of the boiler

hf= enthalpy of feed-water at the inlet of the boiler

The enthalpy of evaporation of water at 100C=2257kJ/kg

∴ Equivalent evaporation = mw (h2 − h1)]/L

QUESTION: 149

In an IC engine, combustion was found to proceed during the expansion stroke also. The reason could be:

Solution:

Lean mixture: Mixture which contains more air than the stoichiometric requirement. There is more oxygen than required to burn the amount of fuel completely; after combustion, there is excess oxygen in the exhaust gases.

Rich Mixture: Mixture which contains less air than the stoichiometric requirement. There is not enough air to completely burn the amount of fuel; after combustion, there is unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases.

Spark advance/Ignition Advance:

The purpose of the spark advance mechanism is to assure that under every condition of engine operation, ignition takes place at the most favorable instant in time, i.e., most favorable from the standpoint of engine power, fuel economy, and minimum exhaust dilution. By means of these mechanisms, the advance angle is accurately set so that ignition occurs before the TDC point of the piston.

Ignition timing is the correct instant for the introduction of a spark near the end of the compression stroke in the cycle. Several factors affect the ignition timing of an engine, like compression ratio, Engine speed, Engine load, Quality of fuel, Mixture strength, etc.

In the case of a rich mixture, the combustion rate is faster and less ignition advanced is required. And in the case of a lean mixture, the combustion rate will be slower, thus requiring more ignition advances.

When ignition occurs early in the compression stroke, the engine is said to be advanced. A retardation ignition takes place when the piston is just near the compression stroke.

If the ignition is advanced too much, it will be completed before the end of the compression stroke. Under these conditions, the crankshaft and connecting rod will have to push the piston upward, compressing the gases. In such a case, the force might not be sufficient to overcome the pressure and the engine would stop or stall.

If the ignition is retarded too much, the combustion of fuel will continue during the power stroke of the piston (Expansion stroke), and the maximum pressure will not be developed. Less work will be obtained from heat energy. Under these conditions, comparatively more exhaust gases will be going out of the engine cylinder overheating the exhaust valve.

Conclusion:

Rich Mixture with ignition advance: It can complete before the compression stroke

Weak Mixture without ignition advance: Combustion can be found to proceed during the expansion stroke

The rich mixture should have retarded ignition advance, and the lean mixture should have more ignition advance.

QUESTION: 150

The component of the acceleration, perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, at the given instant is called

Solution:

The centripetal or radial component is perpendicular to the velocity of the particle at the given instant. The tangential component is parallel to the velocity of the particle at the given instant.

QUESTION: 151

Crystal structure of a material is generally examined by