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# SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 7

## 200 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for SSC JE Mechanical Engineering | SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 7

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This mock test of SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 7 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 7 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 7 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 7 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC JE (ME) Mock Test - 7 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

### Statements: No table is fruit. No fruit is window. All windows are chairs.Conclusions :I. No window is table.II. No chair is fruit.III. No chair is table.IV. All chairs are windows.

Solution:

No table is fruit. No fruit is window.

Since both the premises are negative, no definite conclusion follows.

No fruit is window. All windows are chairs.

Since the middle term 'windows' is distributed twice and one premise is negative, the conclusion must be particularly negative. So, it follows that 'Some chairs are not fruits.’

QUESTION: 2

### Choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word.Vibration

Solution:

Something cannot vibrate without creating motion, so motion is essential to vibration.

QUESTION: 3

### Study the following information to answer the given questions.In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109', and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.'873'would mean

Solution:

a friend of mine = 4916

mine lots of metal = 3109

a piece of metal = 7163

From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9

From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3

So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find

the code of all by comparing equations.

a=6 lots= 0

piece = 7 friend= 4

We know the code of 7 and 3, i.e., piece and metal. Once again, you have to make an intelligent guess with the help of answer options. The answers option will be (5).

QUESTION: 4

Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

I. gorblflur means fan belt

II. pixngorbl means ceiling fan

III. arthtusl means tile roof

Which word could mean "ceiling tile"?

Solution:

Gorbl means fan; flur means belt; pixn means ceiling; arth means tile; and tusl means roof. Therefore, pixnarth is the correct choice.

QUESTION: 5

Choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word.

Hurricane

Solution:

A hurricane cannot exist without wind. A beach is not essential to a hurricane (choice a). A hurricane is a type of cyclone, which rules out (choice b). Not all hurricanes cause damage (choice c).

QUESTION: 6

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109', and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

What does '9' stand for?

Solution:

a friend of mine = 4916 ......(i)

mine lots of metal = 3109 .......(ii)

a piece of metal = 7163 ...........(iii)

From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9

From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3

So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find

the code of all by comparing equations.

a=6 lots=0

piece = 7 friends =4

QUESTION: 7

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109', and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

What does '0' stand for?

Solution:

a friend of mine = 4916 .........(i)

mine lots of metal = 3109 .........(ii)

a piece of metal = 7163 ..........(iii)

From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9

From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3

So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find

the code of all by comparing equations.

a=6 lots= 0

piece = 7 friend= 4

QUESTION: 8

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109', and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

Which of the following may represent 'a pleasure of mine'?

Solution:

a friend of mine = 4916

mine lots of metal = 3109

a piece of metal = 7163

From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9

From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3

So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find

the code of all by comparing equations.

a=6 lots= 0

piece = 7 friend = 4

a = 6, of = 1 and mine = 9- and we don't know the code ofpleasure but seeing the answer options 6, 1, 9, is available in answer option (3) only

QUESTION: 9

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In a certain code, 'a friend of mine’ is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109', and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

What is the code for 'Piece'?

Solution:

a friend of mine = 4916 ..........(i)

mine lots of metal = 3109 .........(ii)

a piece of metal = 7163 ..........(iii)

From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9

From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3

So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find

the code of all by comparing equations.

a=6 lots=0

piece = 7 friends= 4

QUESTION: 10

Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement is given, followed by three conclusions. Give answer:

Statement: The employees association has appealed to the Managers of Company Z to introduce written examinations for clerical cadre recruitment to prevent the selection of incompetent persons.

Assumptions :

I. So far the Company Z used to select candidates without conducting a written examination.

II. A written examination can help to identify competent persons.

III. At a higher level, written examination may not be of much use.

Solution:

An appeal has been made to 'introduce' written examination. This means that so far written examination was not conducted. So, I is implicit. II follows directly from the statement, and so it is implicit. However, nothing can be deduced about the mode of selection at a higher level. So, III is not implicit.

QUESTION: 11

Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement is given, followed by three conclusions. Give answer :

Assumptions :

I. Artificial honey can be prepared.

II. People do not mind paying more for pure and natural honey.

III. No other company supplies pure honey.

Solution:

Artificial honey can be made. That is why the word 'natural' needs to be mentioned in the advertisement. So, I is implicit. No comparison is made of the prices of natural and artificial honey. So, II is not implicit. Nothing about the quality of honey of other companies can be deduced. So, III is also not implicit.

QUESTION: 12

Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement is given, followed by three conclusions. Give answer :

Statement: To improve the employment situation in India, there is a need to recast the present educational system towards the implementation of scientific discoveries in daily life.

Assumptions :

I. The students, after completing such education, may be able to earn their livelihood.

II. This may bring the meaning of education to the minds of the youth.

III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage themselves in self-employment.

Solution:

The statement mentions that such education can improve the employment situation. So, both I and II are implicit. Nothing about the aspect of revenue collection is mentioned in the statement. So, III is not implicit.

QUESTION: 13

Statements: All jungles are buses. All books are buses. All fruits are books.

Conclusions :

I. Some fruits are jungles.

II. Some buses are books.

III. Some buses are jungles.

IV. All fruits are buses.

Solution:

III is the converse of the first premise, and II is the converse of the second premise.

So, both of them hold.

All fruits are books. All books are buses.

Since both the premises are universal and affirmative, the conclusion must be universal affirmative and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that 'All fruits are buses.’ Thus, IV follows.

All jungles are buses. All books are buses.

Since the middle term 'buses' is not distributed even once on the premises, no definite conclusion follows.

All fruits are buses. All books are buses.

As discussed above, no definite conclusion can be drawn.

All jungles are buses. All fruits are buses.

Again, no definite conclusion follows.

QUESTION: 14

Choose the correct order of the given alternative: C-3, E-5, G-7, I-9, ??

Solution:

Every letter has given its alphabetical series number, and one letter is skipped in between.

So, answer option (B) is correct.

QUESTION: 15

Statement: Company X has rejected the first lot of values supplied by Company A and has canceled its entire huge order, using inferior quality material and poor craftsmanship.

Courses of Action :

I. Company A needs to investigate the functioning of its purchase, production, and quality control departments.

II. Company A should inspect all the valves rejected by Company X.

III. Company A should inform Company X that steps have been taken for improvement and renegotiate the schedule of supply.

Solution:

First of all, company A should inspect the rejected valves to ensure if they are sub-standard. If yes, it should scrutinise its working thoroughly and remove its lacking, be it in the quality of raw material or craftsmanship. So, both I and II follow. III seems to be a far-off action that can be implemented only after the first two steps are put into practice. Thus, III does not follow.

QUESTION: 16

Find out the wrong term: 105, 85, 60, 30, 0, - 45, - 90

Solution:

The correct pattern is - 20, - 25, - 30, ............

So, 0 is wrong and must be replaced by (30 - 35), i.e., - 5.

QUESTION: 17

Choose the odd one out.

Solution:

All other groups contain a vowel as the first letter.

QUESTION: 18

Choose the correct order of the given alternative: FAK, IEM, LIO,?

Solution:

F A K

+3 +4 +2

I E M

+3 +4 +2

L I O

+3 +4 +2

O M Q

QUESTION: 19

Which word does NOT belong with the others?

Solution:

All except auricle are parts of the lungs, while auricle is a part of the heart.

QUESTION: 20

In each of the following questions, find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

Conference: Chairman:: Newspaper:?

Solution:

As Chairman is the highest authority in a conference similarly, Editor is in Newspaper.

QUESTION: 21

Find the odd number/letters/word from the given alternative:

Solution:

Except for the bow, all others are related to Ship.

QUESTION: 22

Find out the wrong term: 15, 16, 22, 29, 45, 70

Solution:

The correct pattern is + 1, + 4, + 9, + 16, + 25 i.e., + 12 , + 22 , + 32 , + 42 , + 52.

So, 22 is wrong and must be replaced by (16 + 4), i.e., 20.

QUESTION: 23

Statements: Some tapes are discs. Some discs are cassettes. Some cassettes are songs.

Conclusions :

I. Some songs are discs.

II. Some cassettes are tapes.

III. Some songs are tapes.

IV. No song is a disc.

Solution:

Since each combination of premises shall contain two particular premises, no definite conclusion can be drawn. However, I and IV involve the extreme terms of the second and third premises and form a complementary pair. Thus, either I or IV follows.

QUESTION: 24

Choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word.

Town

Solution:

Residents must be present in order to have a town. A town may be too small to have skyscrapers (choice b). A town may or may not have parks (choice c) and libraries (choice d), so they are not the essential elements.

QUESTION: 25

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T, and V are seated, and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated, and they are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

A sits third to the right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A, and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'.

Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?

Solution:

P, R sits extreme ends of rows, who are facing southward.

QUESTION: 26

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T, and V are seated, and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated, and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

A sits third to the right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A, and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'.

Which of the following is true regarding F?

Solution:

F faces V is true regarding F

QUESTION: 27

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T, and V are seated, and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated, and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

A sits third to the right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A, and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'.P is related to V in the same way as C is related to F. To which of the following is E related to, following the same pattern?

Solution:

V is third to the East of P, and F is also third to the East of C. So, B will be the correct answer because B is third to the East of E.

QUESTION: 28

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T, and V are seated, and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated, and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

A sits third to the right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A, and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'.

How many persons are seated between T and S?

Solution:

There are two-person Q, V sits between T and S.

QUESTION: 29

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T, and V are seated, and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated, and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

A sits third to the right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A, and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'.

Who amongst the following sits exactly between P and Q?

Solution:

T is exactly between P and Q.

QUESTION: 30

The following question consists of two words, each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words:

Stain: Honour

Solution:

First is the act of spoiling the second.

QUESTION: 31

The following question consists of two words, each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words:

Sedan: Automobile

Solution:

The first is a type of the second.

QUESTION: 32

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, and Y, are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

P, who faces the centre, sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to the right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Who sits second to the left of Q?

Solution:

P is second to the left of Q because Q is facing at centre.

QUESTION: 33

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, and Y, are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

P, who faces the centre, sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to the right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Which of the following is true regarding R?

Solution:

R sits exactly between T and S.Here, and we should ignore left and right.

QUESTION: 34

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, and Y, are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

P, who faces the centre, sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to the right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Which of the following will come in place of the question mark (?) based upon the given seating arrangement?

WP TR QW RS?

Solution:

(Note Ignore left and right and move in clockwise direction only)

QUESTION: 35

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, and Y, are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

P, who faces the centre, sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to the right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

What is the position of T with respect to V?

Solution:

The position of T is third to the left of V because V is facing outside.

QUESTION: 36

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, and Y, are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

P, who faces the centre, sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to the right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

Solution:

S is facing at the centre, but R, W, V, Y are facing outside.

QUESTION: 37

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement An advertisement by bank X-'Our interest rates for education loans are lower than any other bank'.

Assumptions

I. Some other banks also provide education loans.

II. Interest rates charged on education loans are different for different banks

Solution:

According to bank X, the interest rate compares to others, which means some other banks are also providing education loans. Also, interest rates vary from bank to bank.

So, both assumptions are implicit.

QUESTION: 38

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: If parking space is not available in the office, park your vehicles in the mall and walk to the area in the office.

Assumptions

I. The mall is at a walkable distance from the office.

II. The office does not allow visitors' vehicles on its premises.

Solution:

The assumption I is implicit because if there is no parking space, then "park your vehicles in the mall and walk to the office" given in the statement justifies that the mall is at a walkable distance from the office. The office allows all vehicles till space is available.

QUESTION: 39

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement

Use our medicine to fight the problem of obesity.

Assumptions

I. Other slimming medicines available in the market do not reduce weight.

II. Obesity cannot be controlled without medicines

Solution:

The assumption I is not implicit because only that medicine is not which can reduce weight, and also weight can reduce without medicines.

QUESTION: 40

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement

For any kind of problem with your mobile phone, contact our help desk immediately.

Assumptions

I. Help desk has a solution to all kinds of problems related to mobile phones or will guide accordingly.

II. Unless the problem is reported immediately, it cannot be solved.

Solution:

Unless the problem is reported immediately, it cannot be solved at that particular desk, but it can be solved by someone else. So, only I is implicit.

QUESTION: 41

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement Farmers must immediately switch over to organic fertilizers from chemical fertilizers for better yield.

Assumptions

I. All the farmers use only chemical fertilizers.

II. Organic fertilizers are readily available to the farmers.

Solution:

Here, all and only does not make assumptions I implicit. Since it is already specified in the statement that farmers must immediately switch over to organic fertilizers means organic fertilizers are available.

QUESTION: 42

All other groups contain a vowel as the first letter.

Solution:

In all other groups, there is a gap of two letters between first and second and between second and third letters.

QUESTION: 43

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to the consumer the question. Read both the statements, and Point A is towards which direction from point B?

I. If a person walks 4 m towards the North from point A and takes two consecutive right turns, each after walking 4 m, he would reach point C, which is 8 m away from point B.

II. Point D is 2 m towards the East of point A and 4 m towards the West of point B.

Solution:

Take r = 8 m and draw a circle around this radius.

Now, B can be anywhere on a circular path. So, we cannot exactly find the direction between A and B.

II.

So, A is in the West of B.

So, Statement II is alone sufficient to give an answer.

QUESTION: 44

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to the consumer the question. Read both the statements and Who amongst L, M, N, O, and P is the shortest?

I. O is shorter than P but taller than N.

II. M is not as tall as L.

Solution:

I. N

II. L>M

Hence, both statements are not sufficient to answer the question, i.e., who is shortest?

QUESTION: 45

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to the consumer the question. Read both the statements and Is T grandmother of Q?

I. P is the mother of Q. Q is the son of R. R is the son of T.

II. L is the father of N and N is the daughter of T.

Solution:

Since Q is the son of R. So, Q is male also R is the son of T so, R is also male. Here, the sex of T is not clear. It may be male or female So, T may be grandfather or grandmother of Q.

II. We have to establish the relation between T and Q, and in statement II, Q is nowhere. So, relationships cannot find.

So, finally, both statements are not sufficient to answer the question.

QUESTION: 46

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to the consumer the question. Read both the statements and

How many brothers does Bharat have?

I. Shiela, the mother of Bharat, has only three children.

II. Meena, the grandmother of Bharat, has only one granddaughter.

Solution:

Shiela has three children, and the set of two is not clear. If we took Bharat as a male. However, some people say that Bharat may be female, but commonly we find Bharat as a male in society.

So, according to statement II, we can find the number of brothers of Bharat. So, statement II is alone sufficient to give an answer.

QUESTION: 47

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to the consumer the question. Read both the statements and all the five friends Leena, Amit, Arun, Ali, and Ken, who are seated around a circular table facing the centre.

I.Leena sits second to the left of Amit. Amit faces the centre. Arun sits second to the right of Leena.

II. Ali sits third to the left of Ken. Ken faces the centre. Amit sits to the immediate left of Ali, but Ken is not an immediate neighbour of Amit.

Solution:

So, from I and II, we can say Ali, Amit, and Ken are facing centre. Since Ken is second left of Amit so, Leena can't. So, all are not facing centre. So, both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

QUESTION: 48

Find the odd number/letters/word from the given alternative:

Solution:

ONP = NOP

IHJ = HIJ

LKM = KLM

STR = RST (This is odd out)

QUESTION: 49

Statement: Company X has rejected the first lot of values supplied by Company A and has cancelled its entire huge order quoting the use of inferior quality material and poor craftsmanship.

Courses of Action :

I. Company A needs to investigate the functioning of its purchase, production, and quality control departments.

II. Company A should inspect all the valves rejected by Company X.

III. Company A should inform Company X that steps have been taken for improvement and renegotiate the schedule of supply.

Solution:

First of all, company A should inspect the rejected valves to ensure if they are really sub-standard. If yes, it should scrutinise its working thoroughly and remove its lackenings, be it in the quality of raw material or craftsmanship. So, both I and II follow. III seems to be a far-off action that can be implemented only after the first two steps are put into practice. Thus, III does not follow.

QUESTION: 50

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions

One of the seven subjects viz. Maths, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry Physics, English, and Statistics is taught one day a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is neither taught on Tuesday nor Saturday. Only one lecture is held between Chemistry and Botany. Two lectures are scheduled between Maths and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

How many subjects are taught between Botany and Zoology?

Solution:

Three subjects, i.e., Maths, Chemistry, and Statistics.

QUESTION: 51

Polar Easterlies flow more stably in ________ .

Solution:

Polar Easterlies

Polar Easterlies flow more stable in Southern Hemisphere.

Within the permanent pressure belt, Wind tends to blow from high pressure to low pressure as the planetary wind.

The effect of rotation of the Earth tends to deflect the wind direction, and it’s called the Coriolis force.

In the northern hemisphere, it tends to deflect to the right, whereas in the southern hemisphere, it tends to deflect left; this is called Ferrel's law of deflection.

The Coriolis force is absent at the equator and tends to increase towards the pole gradually.

- It flows from the polar high-pressure belt towards the temperate low-pressure belts.

- They are more regular in the southern hemisphere than in the northern hemisphere.

- They are extremely cold winds as they come from tundra and ice cap regions.

QUESTION: 52

Vitamin C is also known as ____.

Solution:

Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a vitamin found in fruits like orange, grapes, lemon, etc., and used as a dietary supplement.

Tartaric acid is an organic acid. It occurs naturally in some fruits like bananas, grapes, tamarinds, and citrus.

Malic acid is a dicarboxylic acid, and it is used as a food additive.

Acetic acid, also called ethanoic acid, is used in making vinegar.

Trick: Absorb vitamin c daily

QUESTION: 53

Which of the following is an example of a first-generation computer?

Solution:

Computers developed between 1946 – 1959 are the first generation of computers.

They were large and limited to basic calculations.

They consisted of large devices like vacuum tubes.

The input method of these computers was a machine language known as the 1GL or the first-generation language.

The physical methods of using punch cards, paper tape, and magnetic tape were used to enter data into these computers.

Examples of first-generation computers include ENIAC, EDVAC, UNIVAC, IBM-701, and IBM-650.

The remaining options are second-generation computers.

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following metals is not present in the alloy of Gun Metal?

Solution:

Gunmetal, also known as red brass, is a type of bronze, an alloy of copper, tin, and zinc. Proportions vary by source, but 88% copper, 8-10% tin, and 2–4% zinc is an approximation.

It was used mainly for making guns and bullets. Now it is superseded by Steel.

Gunmetal is used extensively for making heavy machinery parts as it can withstand high pressure and is corrosion resistant.

QUESTION: 55

From which of the following states did the Sattriya dance form originate?

Solution:

The Sangeet Natak Akademi recognizes eight classical dance forms in India.

1. Bharatnatyam

2. Kuchipudi

3. Kathakali

4. Odissi

5. Manipuri

6. Mohiniattam

7. Sattriya

8. Manipuri

Sattriya dance originated in Assam.

The Sattriya dance form was introduced in 15th century A.D by the great Vaishnava saint and reformer of Assam, Mahapurusha Sankaradeva, as a powerful medium for the propagation of the Vaishnava faith.

QUESTION: 56

Which one of the following is NOT a simple permanent tissue?

Solution:

Xylem and Phloem are Complex Permanent Tissue, while the other three are simple permanent tissues.

QUESTION: 57

________ won the Nobel Prize in 1902 for his work on malaria.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., Ronald Ross

He was the British medical doctor who received the Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine in 1902 for his work on the transmission of malaria.

He became the first British Nobel laureate and firstborn outside Europe.

His discovery of the malarial parasite in the gastrointestinal tract of a mosquito proved that malaria was transmitted by mosquitoes.

QUESTION: 58

Which of the following ministries is organizing 'Pariksha Pe Charcha 2020'?

Solution:

PM Narendra Modi's interactive program 'Pariksha Pe Charcha 2020' will be held on 20 Jan 2020.

The HRD Ministry, in partnership with MyGov, has launched a 'short essay' competition for students of classes 9 to 12.

The students whose entries are judged the best based on their online responses are invited to take part in the program to be held in Delhi at Talkatora Stadium.

QUESTION: 59

Which state has launched the Amma Vodi scheme in January 2020?

Solution:

Andhra Pradesh CM Jagan Mohan Reddy, on 9 Jan 2020, launched the Amma Vodi scheme in Chittoor.

Under the scheme, mothers and guardians of school-going children from low-income families will receive annual financial assistance of Rs 15,000.

More than 42 lakh beneficiaries were identified this year, and Rs 6,318 crores in total will be deposited into their accounts.

QUESTION: 60

From which country are the ‘Fundamental Duties’ of the Indian Constitution borrowed?

Solution:

The renal capsule is made up of thick fibres.

It protects the vital tissues of the kidneys from injury.

The pleural membrane is present in the Lungs.

The Pericardium is the membrane of the Heart.

QUESTION: 61

In which of these following states the Kanheri caves are located?

Solution:

The Kanheri Caves are located in Maharashtra.

They are situated in Sanjay Gandhi National Park, Mumbai.

Kanheri Caves were excavated around the 1st and 2nd century B.C.

There is a total of 108 caves, and it contains both Chaityas (Assembly halls that contain Stupas) and Viharas (Residence for Monks).

Kanheri Caves are rock-cut caves, and their main attraction is 22ft long Buddha statue.

The other famous Buddhist cave complex in Mumbai is Elephanta Caves.

QUESTION: 62

In December 2019, which country has surpassed Kuwait to become India's sixth-largest oil supplier?

Solution:

The United States has surpassed Kuwait to become India's sixth-largest oil supplier.

It supplied 70% more crude to India, the world's third-largest energy consumer, during April-September 2019.

According to data furnished by the oil ministry to the parliamentary committee, the US supplied 5.4 million tonnes of crude oil during the first six months of 2019-20.

QUESTION: 63

What does RAM in a computer stand for?

Solution:

RAM is an acronym used for Random Access Memory.

A RAM can be accessed randomly, and it is found in servers, computers, tablets, smartphones, and printers.

A RAM makes it possible for the users to find specific information very quickly.

It acts as volatile storage used as the main memory in computer systems. All information that was stored in RAM is lost when the computer is turned off.

There are two main types of RAM: dynamic random access memory (DRAM), or Dynamic RAM, and static random access memory (SRAM).

QUESTION: 64

Which of the following expenditures is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?

Solution:

The salary of judges of the High Court is charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State and not on the Consolidated Fund of India.

The salary of the Supreme court judges, Pensions of the high court judges, and the salary of Lok Sabha speaker is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Salaries of the President of India, Deputy Speaker in Lok Sabha, Chairman and Deputy Chairman in Rajya Sabha are also charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

A charged expenditure is that part of the budget which doesn't require voting in the parliament or state legislature.

QUESTION: 65

Microeconomics is also called ________.

Solution:

The theory of price is a microeconomic principle that uses the concept of supply and demand to determine the appropriate price point for a good or service.

This simple theory of determining prices is one of the core principles underlying economic theory.

QUESTION: 66

Who among the following rulers set up the department of Diwan-i-Khairat?

Solution:

Diwan-i-Khairat was set up by Feroz Shah Tughlaq to make provision for the marriage of poor girls.

Feroz Shah Tughlak belonged to the Tughlaq dynasty of Delhi Sultanate.

He paid a lot of attention to the development of irrigation.

QUESTION: 67

How many members are there in the Estimates committee?

Solution:

Estimates Committee

It was set up for the first time in the year 1921.

The first Estimates committee of independent India was set up in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai (Finance minister).

Originally it had 25 members, but in 1956, its membership was raised to 30.

All its members are elected from the Lok Sabha by Proportional Representation.

The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.

It is also known as a ‘continuous economic committee.’

The Estimates Committee is the largest committee of the Parliament of India.

QUESTION: 68

Which type of glass is used in sunglasses?

Solution:

Crooks glass mainly comprises of cerium oxide, which absorbs the ultraviolet radiations from the sun. This is why crooks glass is used in sunglasses.

Pyrex glass is made up of sodium silicate and barium silicate, and it is used in laboratory or pharmaceutical pieces of equipment, containers, and vessels.

Flint glass is composed of potassium carbonate and is used in electric bulbs and camera lenses.

Soda glass is made up of sodium carbonate, and it is used in making bottles and tube lights.

QUESTION: 69

When was the First Five-year plan started in India?

Solution:

The First Five year Plan was started in 1951 and continued till 1956.

It focused on the development of the primary sector.

12th Five-year plan was the last plan which ended in 2017.

Now there are no Five-year Plans, and the Planning commission has been scaped down, and NITI Aayog took its place.

QUESTION: 70

In which of the following countries, Fausta, the world's oldest black rhino, has died aged 57?

Solution:

The oldest free-ranging black rhino named Fausta died at the age of 57 in the Ngorongoro Crater, Tanzania.

Fausta, a female eastern black rhino, died of suspected natural death in the captive environment on 27th December 2019 at the age of 57.

She lived longest than any rhino in the world and survived in the Ngorongoro, free-ranging, for more than 54 years.

It was kept in captivity in a sanctuary for the last three years of its life in 2016.

Fausta was first located in the Ngorongoro crater in 1965 by a scientist from the University of Dar Es Salaam, at the age between 3 and 4 years.

Sana, a white rhino who died in La Planete Sauvage Zoological park in France, recently in November 2019, at the age of 55.

The life expectancy of rhinos is between 37 and 43 years in the wild, and they can live up to 50 years and above in captivity.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following sites of the Indus Valley civilization is situated on the bank of the Luni River?

Solution:

Dholavira is situated on the bank of the Luni river.

The City of Dholavira was divided into three parts.

Lothal was situated on the bank of river Bhogava.

Mohenjodaro was situated on the bank of the Indus river.

Harappa was situated on the bank of the Ravi river.

QUESTION: 72

What is the range of the pH Scale?

Solution:

pH scale ranges from 0 to 14.

A pH value of 7 is considered neutral, for example - water.

pH value > 7 is Basic

pH value < 7 is Acidic

QUESTION: 73

Which of the following tribes are found in the Congo Basin of Central Africa?

Solution:

QUESTION: 74

The famous Battle of Talikota was fought in ________.

Solution:

The famous Battle of Talikota was fought in 1565 A. D.

It was fought between Sultanates of Deccan and Vijaynagar kingdom on 23 January 1565 AD.

Sadasiva Raya was the ruler of the Vijaynagar kingdom at the time of the battle of Talikota.

The main reason behind Vijaynagar’s defeat was the betrayal of two major commanders in the Vijayanagar kingdom known as the Gilani brothers.

QUESTION: 75

The Sunauli border is a famous transit point between India and _________.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 1. i.e., Nepal.

The Sunauli border is the most popular entry point from India to Nepal.

On the Indian side, Sunauli is a dusty town in Uttar Pradesh.

The capital of Nepal is Kathmandu.

The Indian states that touch the border with Nepal are Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, West Bengal, and Sikkim.

QUESTION: 76

Which Indian state has got its first elephant colony due to staying back after they strayed into the state’s famous National Park last year?

Solution:

Madhya Pradesh gets its first elephant colony due to elephants staying back after straying into the state’s famous Bandhavgarh National Park.

Last November, elephants in herds, 38 of them, wandered into the forests of Bandhavgarh looking for food and water, like each year.

A year on, they have stayed back in Madhya Pradesh for the first time, choosing not to return to the withering forests of north Chhattisgarh.

The herd has found plenty of space, food, and water within the core area of the Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve, and that’s why it may have stayed back.

Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve:-

In 1968, it was notified as a national park.

In 1993, it was declared a tiger reserve- under the Project Tiger Network at the neighbouring Panpatha Sanctuary.

The National Park Derives Its Name From The legends Of Ramayana.

It Is Believed That The Fort Inside The Park Was Built By Lord Rama And Given To His Brother Lakshman And Hence The Name Bandhavgarh (Bandhav – Brother And Garh – Fort).

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following Portuguese Governors introduced " The Policy of Blue Water"?

Portuguese Governor Francisco de Almeida(1505-1509) introduced "the policy of Blue Water.”

As per the policy, the Portuguese should be the sole trade power in the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean.

It called for the Portuguese to be powerful at the sea instead of building fortresses on the Indian mainland.

He was the first governor of Portuguese to India.

Afonso de Albuquerque(1509-1515) was the 2nd governor of Portuguese to India.

He introduced 'The policy of Imperialism.’ It is the policy of extending the rule or authority of an empire or nation over foreign countries.

Nuno da Cunha(1528-1538) was the Portuguese governor who transferred his capital from Cochin to Goa.

He also captured Daman and Diu from Bahadur Shah of Gujarat.

Martim Afonso de Sousa(1542-1545) was also a Portuguese governor. Famous Jesuit Saint Francisco Xavier arrived in India with him.

Solution:
QUESTION: 78

In which year was the Battle of Waterloo fought?

Solution:

The Battle of Waterloo was fought between the French army commanded by Napoleon Bonaparte and the British army led by the Duke of Wellington in 1815.

The Battle of Waterloo is considered one of the most dreadful battles in history. In this war, the Duke of Wellington defeated Napoleon Bonaparte.

Napoleon surrendered in front of British forces after a few months. He was sent to St. Helena, where he died in 1821.

QUESTION: 79

Which of the following articles talks about the "Right to Education"?

Solution:

Article 21A - Right to Education.​

It declares that the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children from 6 to 14.

QUESTION: 80

The world’s longest river, the Nile, flows through which continent?

Solution:

The Nile flows through eastern Africa.

It drains into the Mediterranean Sea.

The Nile River is the longest in the world, with a length of about 6,650 kilometres.

QUESTION: 81

Which of the following is the largest living bird in the world?

Solution:

Ostrich is the largest living bird in the world.

The key facts about an Ostrich:

An adult Ostrich weighs up to 150 kilograms and has a maximum height of 6 feet.

They also held the record for the fastest speed of any bird in the land and the largest egg of any living bird.

Generally, flightless Ostriches are found in Africa.

They mainly feed on fruits, flowers, seeds, shrubs, and small insects.

They can also live without water for several days.

They usually live in groups that contain 10 to 50 birds.

A female Ostrich lays up to 60 eggs in a year.

On average, an ostrich egg measures 5.1 inches in diameter and up to 1.4 kg in weight.

QUESTION: 82

Persons suffering from myopia are advised to use ________.

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

Which among the following is also known as Aggregative Economics?

Solution:

Macroeconomics is defined as the economic behaviour of the whole system of the country.

This is also known as aggregative economics.

On the other hand, microeconomics is defined as the study of the individual sectors such as industry, firms, households, etc.

Welfare economics is the branch that studies the effect of microeconomic activities to evaluate welfare at the macro level.

QUESTION: 84

Which Indian hockey player has been nominated for the World Games Athlete of the Year 2019 award?

Solution:

India women's hockey captain Rani Rampal has been nominated for the World Games Athlete of the Year 2019 award.

The 25 athletes nominated for this award from 25 sports have been recommended by their international federations.

Rani has been recommended for the award for her outstanding performance and her ability to lead by example.

QUESTION: 85

In January 2020, who won the presidential elections in Taiwan?

Solution:

Taiwan's President Tsai Ing-wen secured a victory in presidential elections.

This will be her second term.

As per official results, Tsai was ahead with 57 percent, more than eight million votes.

Taiwan: Capital - Taipei

Currency - New Taiwan dollar

QUESTION: 86

Gujarat Chief Minister has unveiled the world’s second tallest statue of which of the following persons and where?

Solution:

Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani has unveiled the second tallest statue of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in the world at Ahmedabad.

It is a replica of the 182-meter tall Statue of Unity, the highest in the world, dedicated to Sardar Patel, in Kevadiya in Narmada district.

The 50 feet tall bronze statue with the weight of 70 thousand kilograms has been unveiled at the Sardardham campus near Vaishnodevi Circle in Ahmedabad.

The statue was also designed by Padma Bhusan Ram V. Sutar, the same sculptor who had designed the Statue of Unity.

QUESTION: 87

Who is the inventor of the Web?

Solution:

Tim Berners-Lee is the inventor of the Web.

Sir Tim Berners-Lee invented the World Wide Web in the year 1989.

He is the director of the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C).

He is a recipient of several international awards, including Germany's Die Quadriga award, Japan Prize, the Prince of Asturias Foundation Prize, and the Millennium Technology Prize.

QUESTION: 88

The scientific study of fishes is called ________.

Solution:

The branch of zoology that is concerned with the study of fishes is called ichthyology.

The study of soil in its natural environment is called pedology.

Ophiology is the study of snakes, whereas the study of trees is called dendrology.

QUESTION: 89

Which of the following has developed a special class diesel conforming to NATO grade for use in ships of the Indian Navy?

Solution:

Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) has developed a special class diesel conforming to NATO grade for use in ships of the Indian Navy.

Vice Admiral G S Pabby launched the Upgraded High Flash High-Speed Diesel (HFHSD- IN 512) in the presence of IOC Directors SSV Ramakumar and S M Vaidya.

The fuel has a lesser environmental impact due to low Sulphur content and would result in the better performance of engines.

QUESTION: 90

What is the theme of the 18th Dhaka International Film Festival, inaugurated in January 2020?

Solution:

The 18th Dhaka International Film Festival was inaugurated on 11 Jan 2020 by the Foreign Minister of Bangladesh, Dr. A.K. Abdul Momen.

During the festival, 220 films from 74 countries will be screened across various venues in Dhaka between 11-19 Jan 2020.

Apart from the film screening, a conference on the theme of women in cinema will also be organised during the festival.

The theme of the festival is ‘Better Film, Better Audience, and Better Society.’

QUESTION: 91

Who is known as the father of the communal electorate in India?

Solution:

Lord Minto: He is known as the father of the communal electorate in India because he introduced communal election in 1909 (Indian Councils act, 1909). The Muslims were given a separate electorate.

Lord Curzon: He is responsible for Partition in Bengal in 1905.

Lord Mountbatten: He was the last Viceroy of India. He was also the first Governor-General Of independent India.

Lord Ripon: He is known as the father of the local self govt in India. He also repealed the Controversial Vernacular Press act of 1878, which was passed by Lord Lytton.

QUESTION: 92

The Indus river enters India through _____________.

Solution:

The river Indus rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar.

Flowing west, it enters India in the Ladakh.

Several tributaries, the Zaskar, the Nubra, the Shyok, and the Hunza, join it in the Kashmir region.

The Indus flows through Baltistan and Gilgit and emerges from the mountains at Attock.

The Satluj, the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab, and the Jhelum join together to enter the Indus near Mithankot in Pakistan.

Finally, the Indus river drains into the Arabian Sea.

The total length of the Indus River is 2900 km.

QUESTION: 93

Which of the following newspaper was founded by Annie Besant?

Solution:

New India was the daily newspaper founded by Annie Besant.

QUESTION: 94

Scattering of light takes place in ________.

Solution:

Light scattering takes place in colloidal solutions.

Most objects that one sees are visible due to light scattering from their surfaces. The scattering of light depends on the wavelength or frequency of the light being scattered.

This scattering of light can be due to simple reflection because the size of the particles is smaller than the wavelength of visible light, which is, therefore, unable to reflect light waves.

The intensity of scattered light is the difference between the refractive indices of the dispersed phase and that of the medium.

This is known as the Tyndall Effect.

QUESTION: 95

The _______ is a tax on production/manufacture of goods within the country:

Solution:

The Excise duty is a tax on the production/manufacture of goods within the country.

Excise duty is an indirect tax levied on those goods which are manufactured in India and are meant for home consumption.

It is a tax on manufacturing, which is paid by a manufacturer, who passes its incidence on to the customers.

Sales tax is levied on the sale of a commodity, which is produced or imported and sold for the first time.

Service tax is a tax levied by the government on service providers on certain service transactions but is actually borne by the customers.

Customs duty is a type of indirect tax that is levied on all the goods that are imported to the country as well as some goods exported from the country.

QUESTION: 96

Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in __________.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., Rajasthan.

Sariska Tiger Reserve is a national park and tiger reserve located in the Alwar district of the state of Rajasthan, India.

It was given the status of a tiger reserve, making it a part of India's Project Tiger in 1978.

It is the first reserve in the world to have successfully relocated tigers.

QUESTION: 97

Which of the following pairs of nuclear plants in India is matched correctly?

1. Tarapur - Maharashtra

2. Kalpakkam - Kerala

3. Kakrapara - Gujarat

Solution:

Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL)

Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL)

QUESTION: 98

Tartaric acid is present in ________.

Solution:

Tartaric acid (C4H6O6) is an organic acid that is naturally present in many fruits such as tamarind, grapes, banana, and citrus fruits.

It is mostly used as an antioxidant and leavening agent in food.

Also, it is used in the process of winemaking.

The acid found in milk is lactic acid.

QUESTION: 99

What is the rank of Indian passport as per the Henley Passport Index 2020?

Solution:

Henley Passport Index 2020 has been released.

The Indian passport ranked 84th in the world’s most powerful passport index 2020, which is a drop by 2 places as it ranked 82nd in 2019.

The list was topped by Japan.

Japan was followed by Singapore, Germany, and South Korea.

Afghanistan was among the world's worst passports.

QUESTION: 100

Which among the following membranes covers the kidneys?

Solution:

The renal capsule is made up of thick fibres.

It protects the vital tissues of the kidneys from injury.

The pleural membrane is present in the Lungs.

The Pericardium is the membrane of the Heart.

QUESTION: 101

Bearing suitable for fluctuation loads is

Solution:

For fluctuations of load best bearing is roller or middle bearing. Despite their low cross-section, the bearings have a high load rating and are therefore very suitable for seating where radial dimensions are limited. Used, above all, for low speeds or swinging movements; also suitable for fluctuating and surge loads.

QUESTION: 102

The size of the gear is usually specified by

Solution:

It is the diameter of the pitch circle. The size of the gear is usually specified by the pitch circle diameter. It is also called pitch diameter.

QUESTION: 103

In the figure shown, E is the heat engine with an efficiency of 0.4, and R is the refrigerator. Given that Q2 + Q4 = 3Q1, the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is

Solution:

QUESTION: 104

A fluid flowing over a flat plate has the following properties Dynamic Viscosity = 25×106 kg/ms Specific heat = 2.0 kJ /kg K, Thermal Conductivity = 0.05 W/mk

Find the Pr and tl Number

Solution:

QUESTION: 105

Cast aluminum alloys have the main drawback of

Solution:

Aluminium casting alloys offer a range of advantages, particularly good castability. This includes a relatively high fluidity, low melting point, short casting cycles, relatively low tendency for hot cracking, good as-cast surface finish, and chemical stability.

QUESTION: 106

Volume of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature is defined by

Solution:

He observed that the volume of a given mass of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at a constant temperature. Boyle's law, published in 1662, states that, at a constant temperature, the product of the pressure and volume of a given mass of an ideal gas in a closed system is always constant.

QUESTION: 107

The reaction shown below is an example of Austenite→Ferrite + Cementite

Solution:

Austenite→ Ferrite + Cementite is the example of a Eutectoid reaction

A eutectoid reaction is a three-phase reaction by which, on cooling, a solid transforms into two other solid phases simultaneously. If the bottom of a single-phase solid field closes (and provided the adjacent two-phase fields are solid also), it does so with a eutectoid point.

QUESTION: 108

What will be the effect on eccentricity ratio for a hydrodynamic journal bearing if there is an increase in the diameter of the journal (Assume other parameters as constant)?

Solution:

QUESTION: 109

The octane number of fuel in a mixture of 80% iso-octane and 20% n-heptane in an engine is

Solution:

Octane number is the percentage of isooctane in the mixture of iso-octane and n-heptane. The octane number is for gasoline (petrol) fuel. Gasoline with an octane number of 80 means 80% of isooctane and 20% of n-heptane, i.e., the branched-chain alkane is more, so knocking is less.

QUESTION: 110

A for cylinder engine running at 1200rpm delivers 20kW. The average torque when one cylinder was cut is 110Nm. If the calorific value of the fuel is 43MJ/kg and the engine uses 360gms of gasoline per kWh. Then the mass of fuel consumption in kg/sec is

Solution:

Average BP for 3 cylinder

Average IP with one cylinder

Fuel consumption

QUESTION: 111

Hookes law holds within

Solution:

Hooke's law states that the force applied to an elastic material is directly proportional to the extension produced. Therefore Hooke's law holds good up to limit of proportionality.

QUESTION: 112

Which of the following mode of metal transfer is preferred in overhead welding?

Solution:

The short circuit transfer mode is typically found in solid MIG or metal-cored wires when the ratio of Argon in the shielding gas is 75 to 85% Argon, and the welding voltage is low. In the globular transfer mode, the weld metal transfers across the arc in a gravity feed.

QUESTION: 113

Two forces, P and Q, are inclined to their resultant R, as shown in the figure. The ratio of P/Q is equal to

α=30°

α=45°

Solution:

QUESTION: 114

Evaluate the following limit:

Solution:

QUESTION: 115

The coefficient of steadiness for a flywheel is 25, and the minimum speed of the flywheel is 750 r.p.m. The maximum fluctuation of speed for the flywheel is

Solution:

where

N1= Maximum Speed

N2= Minimum Speed, maximum fluctuation of Speed

N1 − N2 = 30.61rpm

QUESTION: 116

Throttling process is

Solution:

The throttling process is when high-pressure fluid is converted to low-pressure fluid at constant pressure using a throttle value. In the throttling process, work done is O & enthalpy is constant. It is an irreversible process.

QUESTION: 117

A bronze bar 3m long with a cross-sectional area of 320mm is placed between two rigid walls, as shown in the figure. At a temperature of 20C, gap A is 2.5mm. Then the temperature at which the compressive stress in the bar will be σ=35MPa is

Solution:

QUESTION: 118

The material used in the construction of thermistor is

Solution:

The thermistor is made with a sintered mixture of metallic oxides like manganese, cobalt, nickel, cobalt, copper, iron, uranium, etc. It is available in the form of the bead, rod, and disc. The different types of the thermistor are shown in the figure below.

QUESTION: 119

A flapper nozzle is used in

Solution:

One of the basic building blocks of a pneumatic control system is the flapper nozzle amplifier. It converts a very small displacement signal (in order of microns) to a variation of air pressure. At the extreme, if the nozzle is open (the flapper is far off), the output pressure will be equal to the atmospheric pressure.

QUESTION: 120

The velocity in a laminar boundary layer The displacement thickness is equal to

Solution:

QUESTION: 121

The demand for a commodity is 100 units per day. Every time an order is placed, a fixed cost of Rs. 400 is incurred. Holding cost is Rs. 0.08 per unit per day. If the lead-time is 13 days, then the re-order point is

Solution:

Length of cycle = t0

As lead time is 13 days and cycle length is 10 days .recorded point

= (13 − 10 × 100) = 300 units

QUESTION: 122

Modulus of Rigidity of metal is defined as

Solution:

The modulus of rigidity, also known as shear modulus, is defined as the ratio of shear stress to the shear strain of a structural member. This property depends on the material of the member: the more elastic the member, the higher the modulus of rigidity.

QUESTION: 123

When a system is taken from state A to state B along the path A-C-B, 180 kJ heat flows into the system, and it does 130 kJ of work (as shown in the figure). How much heat will flow into the system along the path ADB if the work done by it along the path is 40 kJ?

Solution:

QUESTION: 124

In automobiles, Hooke’s joint is used between

Solution:

It is often used to transmit rotary motion from one shaft to another when they are not coaxial, i.e., when their axes are inclined to each other. One very famous application of the Hooke's Joint is in automobiles, where it is used to connect shafts that transmit the power from the gearbox to the differential.

QUESTION: 125

Ice normally floats on water. The reason is

Solution:

Ice floats because it is 9% less dense than water. In other words, ice takes 9% more space than water, so one litre of ice is less than one litre of water. Therefore, water is heavier than ice; the ice remains or sets in its place, which causes it to float on the water.

QUESTION: 126

Bainite is a fine mixture of

Solution:

'Bainite' named for E.C. Bain is the generic term for fine aggregates of ferrite (α) platelets (or laths) separated by regions of residual phases, untransformed austenite (γ), or cementite (θ). The transformation occurs from austenite (γ) at temperatures between those at which pearlite and martensite form.

QUESTION: 127

The uncut thickness is

Solution:

From Merchant Circle

QUESTION: 128

Therblig 'H' means (In metal cutting)

Solution:

Grasp (G): grasping an object with the active hand. Transport loaded (TL): moving an object using a hand motion. Hold (H): holding an object.

QUESTION: 129

A blunt tool is used in

Solution:

Rammer's Super Blunt tool is designed to deliver the maximum force of a hammer's impact energy directly into boulders. The Super Blunt is only designed to be used in boulder breaking applications, where it provides 1.5...3 times more wear life than a standard blunt tool.

QUESTION: 130

A machine mounted on springs and fitted with a dashpot has a mass of 60 kg. There are three springs, each of stiffness 12N/mm. The amplitude of vibrations reduces from 45 to 8mm in two complete oscillations. Assuming that the damping force varies as velocity. Then the damping coefficient will be

Solution:

QUESTION: 131

A strip is to be rolled from a thickness of 30 mm to 15 mm using a two-high mill having rolls of diameter 300 mm. The coefficient of friction for an unaided bite is

Solution:

QUESTION: 132

The second approximation for the root of the equation 3x = cosx + 1 between 0 and 1 with X0 = 0.6 by Newton Raphson method is:

Solution:

QUESTION: 133

If a gas of volume 6000cm3 and at a pressure of 100kPa is compressed quasi-statically ac-cording to PV2 = constant until the volume becomes 2000cm3, determine the work transfer from the system

Solution:

w = p1v1 − p2v2 = (100 × 6000 × 10

3 × 10−6 − 900 × 103 × 2000 × 10−6) = −1200j = −1.2kj

QUESTION: 134

In which of the following devices equation dQ = dU + dW cannot be applied:

(i) Internal combustion Engine working on otto cycle

(ii) Internal combustion Engine working on diesel cycle

(iii) Gas Turbines

(iv) Steam Turbines

Solution:

dQ = dU + dW is only valid for closed systems, and gas turbines and steam turbines are open systems.

QUESTION: 135

The motion of the particle is described by the following equations. x = t2 + 8t + 4 find the velocity when t = 2 sec

Solution:

QUESTION: 136

Pascal is the unit of

Solution:

A pascal is a pressure of one newton per square metre, or, in SI base units, one kilogram per metre per second squared. This unit is inconveniently small for many purposes, and the kilopascal (kPa) of 1,000 newtons per square metre is more commonly used.

QUESTION: 137

Motorcycle shock absorbers are usually designed for.

Solution:

Shock absorbers are essential components of motorcycle suspension, which is usually designed to lessen shock impacts. Motorcycle shock absorbers normally work through the use of fluid displacement during compression and expansion of the spring component.

QUESTION: 138

Find the chip thickness ratio if chip thickness before cutting = 0.2mm and chip thickness after cutting = 0.4mm in orthogonal cutting operation

Solution:

Uncut chip thickness t1=0.2mm

Cut chip thickness t2=0.2mm

Chip thickness ratio

QUESTION: 139

Time study is carried out to determine the time required to complete the job by

Solution:

Time study is a structured process of directly observing and measuring human work using a timing device to establish the time required for completion of the work by a qualified worker when working at a defined level of performance.

QUESTION: 140

The radial distance from the _______________ to the clearance circle is called working depth.

Solution:

Working depth is the radial distance from the addendum circle to the clearance circle. It is equal to the sum of the addendum of the two meshing gears.

QUESTION: 141

The following system of equations :

x - 2y + 3z = 3

2x + y - z = 9

-3x - 4y + 5z = - 8 has

Solution:

The bottom row of the final matrix corresponds to the equation 0.x+0.y+0.z=7

which has no solution.

QUESTION: 142

The rails are welded by

Solution:

The thermite welding railroad method is especially suitable for broken steel rail repair, on-site joint welding on railway frog section of seamless railway line ball, and heavy transportation tasks.

QUESTION: 143

A tank connected to 3 pipelines P1, P2, and P3, whose lengths are in the ratio 1:2:3 and diameter is also in the ratio 1:2:3. The sum of length for all the pipes is 18m, and the product of diameters is 20250mm3. It has been found that head loss due to friction in pipe P1 is the sum of head loss in P2 and P3. Assume the same friction factor for all pipelines.

What will be the value

Where Qi represents the charge in the pipeline

Solution:

L1 + L2 + L3 = 18

⇒ K + 2K + 3K = 18, K = 3

L1 = 3,L2 = 6,L3 = 9

d1 × d2 × d3 = 20250

⇒ 3k × 2k × k = 202550, k = 15

d1 = 15mm, d2 = 30mm

d1 = 45mm

QUESTION: 144

Which of the following materials is most elastic

Solution:

Elasticity is the ability of a material to regain its own original shape after being stretched, according to which rubber is the most elastic substance.

But when we define elasticity in physics it is the ratio of stress to strain. It means that the shape which has more resistance to change is more elastic.

Hence, as per physics, steel is the most elastic material.

QUESTION: 145

Tyre gauge is used for the measurement of

Solution:

A tire-pressure gauge, or tyre-pressure gauge, is a pressure gauge used to measure the pressure of tires on a vehicle. Since tires are rated for specific loads at a certain pressure, it is important to keep the pressure of the tire at the optimal amount.

QUESTION: 146

A turbine is working under a head of 200m. The power developed by the turbine is 100KW, and discharge through the turbine is 0.125m3/sec. What will be the ratio of unit power to unit discharge for the turbine?

Solution:

Unit power

QUESTION: 147

Two castings of the same metal having the same surface area. One casting in the form of a sphere and another is in the form of a cube. The ratio of solidification time for the sphere to the cube is

Solution:

QUESTION: 148

For what value of X the following system of equations have a non-trivial solution

Solution:

QUESTION: 149

The extra rails provided over the bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as

Solution:

A guardrail is, first and foremost, a safety barrier intended to shield a motorist who has left the roadway. The best-case scenario, if a car is careening off the road, would be for that car to come to rest unhindered.

QUESTION: 150

In a thermocouple, the potential between the two functions is due to the temperature gradient along the conductors in the circuit. This effect is named as

Solution:

Thomson effect, the evolution or absorption of heat when an electric current passes through a circuit composed of a single material that has a temperature difference along its length. This heat transfer is superimposed on the common production of heat associated with the electrical resistance to currents in conductors.

QUESTION: 151

Creep is essentially a

Solution:

Creep may be defined as a time-dependent deformation at elevated temperature and constant stress. It follows, then, that a failure from such a condition is referred to as a creep failure or, occasionally, a stress rupture. The temperature at which creep begins depends on the alloy composition.

QUESTION: 152

Screws used for power transmission should have

Solution:

V thread screw used because it provides a high frictional force that lessens the possibility of loosening the parts assembled by threaded joints. Still, the purpose of the power transmission thread is to reduce the friction between screw and nut.

QUESTION: 153

_____ is the ability of a material to sustain impact forces without fracture.