SSC MTS Mock Test -3


100 Questions MCQ Test SSC MTS Mock Test Series | SSC MTS Mock Test -3


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This mock test of SSC MTS Mock Test -3 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC MTS Mock Test -3 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC MTS Mock Test -3 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC MTS Mock Test -3 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC MTS Mock Test -3 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

Q. They had marched (1) / the whole journey (2) / on top speed. (3) / No Error (4)

Solution:

The preposition 'on' is used to indicate proximity and position above or outside. Thus, we can see that 'on' does not fit the context of the sentence. Instead of 'on', the preposition 'at' should be used which is used to indicate an action. 

QUESTION: 2

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

Q. You ordered (1) / the goods and so (2) / they have been send. (3) / No Error (4)

Solution:

The word 'send' is grammatically incorrect because it is the present perfect tense of the verb. However, the sentence mentioned above is in the past tense. The word 'sent', which is the past participle of 'send' should be used in the (3) part of the sentence.

QUESTION: 3

Which of the following words/phrases given below in the options should replace the phrase in undrline in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given then mark 'no error'.

Q. Bad habits ​grow unconsciously

Solution:

The sentence is correct and does not require any edits. 

The sentence uses present tense to imply a common thing that takes place irrelevant 'all the time' or 'at any time'. 

Option 1 is rejected as it has 'shall' which is used for future tense and 'grew' which is the past form of the verb 'grow', together 'shall grew' makes no sense grammatically. 

Option 2 is rejected as the verb in present tense 'grows' does not satisfy the subject verb agreement as the subject, 'habits' is plural.

Option 3 is rejected as using the present continuous tense 'growing' in the sentence does not convey the same meaning and leaves the sentence incomplete.

QUESTION: 4

Which of the following words/phrases given below in the options should replace the phrase in underline in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given then mark 'no error'.

Q. The early birds catches the worm.

Solution:

According to the subject-verb agreement, a plural subject will have the plural verb form and the singular verb will have a singular verb form. 

If the sentence has a plural verb 'birds', the verb in the present tense will be 'catch' and if the sentence has a singular verb 'bird', the verb in the present tense will be 'catches', hence option 1 is incorrect and option 3 is correct.

Option 2 is rejected as 'will' is used in future tense and it is incorrect to use it with the past participle 'caught'.
Hence option 3 is the correct answer.  

QUESTION: 5

In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Q. All matter _______ indestructible. 

Solution:

The word 'am' gets ruled-out for being grammatically incorrect as it is only used with the subject 'I'. Since the word 'matter' is singular, we cannot use 'are' or 'were' as they are used with plural words, making 'is' the right answer.
Hence option 2 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 6

In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Q. We should profit _______ experience. 

Solution:

The preposition 'of' means 'belonging to'. The preposition 'to' means 'towards'. The preposition 'above' is used for 'higher than'. None of these prepositions are fit for the blank, leaving 'from' as the correct answer.
Hence option 1 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 7

A passage is given below with five blanks labelled (A)-(E). Below the passage, four options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

On November 8th, 2016, Prime Minister Narendra Modi made a dramatic __(A)__. In one go, he outlawed notes of Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 that constituted 86 percent of the country’s currency in __(B)__. It was perhaps India’s boldest policy experiment in over a quarter century.

A year later, a __(C)__ of sorts has emerged: while intellectuals and analysts in India have slammed the step, Indians at large have reacted positively to it. The usual explanation is that the economics and politics of demonetisation bear no __(D)__ with the idea of finding favour with citizens by virtue of the populist appeal of its moral logic. Lost in the noise are the modernising __(E)__ of a larger process that began with creating no-frill bank accounts for the underprivileged and has culminated—for the time being—in major tax reform, the Goods and Services Tax (GST). 

Q. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (A)?

Solution:

The sentence mentions ‘made a dramatic’, therefore, ruling-out the word ‘abridgment’ which means 'to reduce or lessen' as it does not convey any meaning when used in the sentence. The words ‘accomplishment’ and 'achievement' disturb the meaning of the sentence. The word ‘announcement’ that means 'giving a formal public statement', fits the blank best. 

Hence the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 8

A passage is given below with five blanks labelled (A)-(E). Below the passage, four options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

On November 8th, 2016, Prime Minister Narendra Modi made a dramatic __(A)__. In one go, he outlawed notes of Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 that constituted 86 percent of the country’s currency in __(B)__. It was perhaps India’s boldest policy experiment in over a quarter century.

A year later, a __(C)__ of sorts has emerged: while intellectuals and analysts in India have slammed the step, Indians at large have reacted positively to it. The usual explanation is that the economics and politics of demonetisation bear no __(D)__ with the idea of finding favour with citizens by virtue of the populist appeal of its moral logic. Lost in the noise are the modernising __(E)__ of a larger process that began with creating no-frill bank accounts for the underprivileged and has culminated—for the time being—in major tax reform, the Goods and Services Tax (GST). 

Q. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (B)?

Solution:

The words ‘proclamation’ and ‘training’ cannot be used with respect to 'the country’s currency'. The word 'definition' does not fit the context of the sentence, therefore making ‘circulation’ as the best fit to fill the blank as it refers to the movement of the currency in the country.
Hence option 1 is the correct answer. 

QUESTION: 9

A passage is given below with five blanks labelled (A)-(E). Below the passage, four options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

On November 8th, 2016, Prime Minister Narendra Modi made a dramatic __(A)__. In one go, he outlawed notes of Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 that constituted 86 percent of the country’s currency in __(B)__. It was perhaps India’s boldest policy experiment in over a quarter century.

A year later, a __(C)__ of sorts has emerged: while intellectuals and analysts in India have slammed the step, Indians at large have reacted positively to it. The usual explanation is that the economics and politics of demonetisation bear no __(D)__ with the idea of finding favour with citizens by virtue of the populist appeal of its moral logic. Lost in the noise are the modernising __(E)__ of a larger process that began with creating no-frill bank accounts for the underprivileged and has culminated—for the time being—in major tax reform, the Goods and Services Tax (GST). 

Q. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (C)?

Solution:

The sentence mentions ‘sorts’, which should be used as a hint while picking up the word fitting the blank. ‘Major’ and 'focused' does not make a proper sentence, when used with ‘sorts’, while the phrase 'reform of sorts' does not make any sense. The word ‘paradox’ fits the word ‘sorts’ along with appropriately conveying the meaning of the sentence too.
Hence the correct answer is option 4. 

QUESTION: 10

A passage is given below with five blanks labelled (A)-(E). Below the passage, four options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

On November 8th, 2016, Prime Minister Narendra Modi made a dramatic __(A)__. In one go, he outlawed notes of Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 that constituted 86 percent of the country’s currency in __(B)__. It was perhaps India’s boldest policy experiment in over a quarter century.

A year later, a __(C)__ of sorts has emerged: while intellectuals and analysts in India have slammed the step, Indians at large have reacted positively to it. The usual explanation is that the economics and politics of demonetisation bear no __(D)__ with the idea of finding favour with citizens by virtue of the populist appeal of its moral logic. Lost in the noise are the modernising __(E)__ of a larger process that began with creating no-frill bank accounts for the underprivileged and has culminated—for the time being—in major tax reform, the Goods and Services Tax (GST). 

Q. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (D)?

Solution:

‘Dominated’ and 'illustration' do not make strong options to fit the blank as they are grammatically incorrect. The word 'vengeance' makes the sentence vague and thus, is omitted. The word ‘connection’ is the best fit for the blank as it conveys the most appropriate meaning.
Hence the correct answer is option 2. 

QUESTION: 11

A passage is given below with five blanks labelled (A)-(E). Below the passage, four options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

On November 8th, 2016, Prime Minister Narendra Modi made a dramatic __(A)__. In one go, he outlawed notes of Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 that constituted 86 percent of the country’s currency in __(B)__. It was perhaps India’s boldest policy experiment in over a quarter century.

A year later, a __(C)__ of sorts has emerged: while intellectuals and analysts in India have slammed the step, Indians at large have reacted positively to it. The usual explanation is that the economics and politics of demonetisation bear no __(D)__ with the idea of finding favour with citizens by virtue of the populist appeal of its moral logic. Lost in the noise are the modernising __(E)__ of a larger process that began with creating no-frill bank accounts for the underprivileged and has culminated—for the time being—in major tax reform, the Goods and Services Tax (GST). 

Q. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (E)?

Solution:

‘Corruption’ and 'drubbing' gets omitted due to being grammatically incorrect. ‘Sentiment’ cannot be used as it does not convey proper meaning. ‘Features’ not just carries the required message fitting the sense of the statement, but also make the sentence meaningful.
Hence the correct answer is option 2. 

QUESTION: 12

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute for the phrase.

Q. Spoken or done without preparation 

Solution:

The correct word is 'Extempore'. It is used to refer to something which was spoken or done without preparation. ‘He gave instruction in the form of continuous lectures delivered extempore from brief notes.’ could be used as a sentence to understand the use of the word better.

Almanac: an annual calendar containing important dates and statistical information such as astronomical data and tide tables.

Mortuary: a room or building in which dead bodies are kept, for hygienic storage or for examination, until burial or cremation.

Genophobia: the physical or psychological fear of sexual relations or sexual intercourse.
Hence the correct option is 3.

QUESTION: 13

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute for the phrase.

Q. A news article that reports the recent death of a person.

Solution:

The correct word is 'Obituary'. It is used to refer to a notice of the death of a person. 'Several obituaries for Herman Melville portrayed him as an obscure, largely forgotten author.’ could be used as a sentence to understand the use of the word better. 

The meaning of the other words are:
Homicide: the killing of one person by another.
Hodophobia: the fear of traveling or road travel.

Democracy: a system of government by the whole population or all the eligible members of a state, typically through elected representatives.
Hence the correct option is 2.

QUESTION: 14

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Fair

Solution:

‘Fair’ means 'to treat people equally without any kind of discrimination or to be just'. ‘Fare’ refers to 'the money which one has to pay for any mode of transport', ‘Unprotected’ means 'without any kind of protection', and 'Carnival' refers to 'a festival or celebration', eliminating the probability of being correct answers.

The correct answer is option 3, 'Unbiased' which means 'to be impartial'.

QUESTION: 15

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Diligent

Solution:

‘Diligent’ means 'hard-working'. Out of the given options, ‘Determined’ carries a similar meaning forward. The other three words ‘Difficult’ means 'something which is not easy', ‘Depressed’ means 'in a state of unhappiness or despondency', and 'Deceive' means 'deliberately cause (someone) to believe something that is not true, especially for personal gain'. None of them do indicate hard work or dedication, eliminating the probability of being correct answers.

The correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 16

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Considerate

Solution:

‘Considerate’ means thoughtful or friendly. Out of the given options, ‘Amiable’ carries the similar meaning forward. The other three words ‘indolent’, ‘Sanguine’ and 'Tyrannical' do not indicate considerate behaviour, eliminating the probability of being correct answers.

Hence the correct option is 1.

QUESTION: 17

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Wax

Solution:

‘Wax’ as a verb means to be stronger or larger. ‘Wane’ means to 'become weak or decrease in extent'. These are exact opposites. ‘War’ is ‘armed conflict’, ‘Wet means 'moist' and ‘Worship’ means 'devotion'.
Hence the correct option is 2.

QUESTION: 18

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Vice

Solution:

‘Vice’ means 'wicked or immoral'. ‘Virtue’ refers to 'high moral standards'. These are exact opposites. ‘Vacant’ is ‘empty’, ‘Vanish’ means to 'disappear' and ‘Visible ’ refers to 'something which can be easily seen or noticed'.
Hence the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 19

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Spendthrift

Solution:

‘Spendthrift’ refers to 'a person who spends money in an irresponsible way'. ‘Miser’ is 'a person who spends as little money as possible'. These are exact opposites. ‘Obedient’ refers to 'a person who is dutiful or good', ‘Disloyal’ is 'a person who is unfaithful' and ‘Prude’ is a 'person who is a moralist'.

Hence the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 20

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

Hit the nail on the head

Solution:

The correct option is 3.
'Hit the nail on the head' means to find exactly the right answer. To understand the use of the phrase best, the idiom could be used in the sentence - ‘Stephen hit the nail on the head when he said that what the company was lacking in was a clear vision and focus’. 

QUESTION: 21

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

The gift of the gab

Solution:

The correct option is 3.
'The gift of the gab' refers to the talent for speaking with fluency. ‘He is not a great lawyer but he has the gift of the gab’ could be used as a sentence to understand the use of the idiom better.

QUESTION: 22

In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

Solution:

The correct spelling is ‘Phenomenon’, which means 'Occurrence'.
The correct option is 3.

QUESTION: 23

In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

Solution:

The correct spelling is 'Expository', which means 'Explanatory'.
The correct option is 4.

QUESTION: 24

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Happy is the man
P:  habit of reading 
Q: who acquires the
R: when he is young

Solution:

The first part of the sentence is Q as it fits correctly from the grammatical as well as the meaning standpoint. Q introduces the subject of the sentence. The second part of the sentence is P as it further tells us about the thing acquired, also being grammatically correct, leaving R as the last part of the sentence.
Hence the correct answer is option 1, QPR.
The sentence will be: Happy is the man who acquires the habit of reading when he is young.

QUESTION: 25

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.

There is not much
P: need for proving to
Q: holidays are necessary
R: most schoolboys that

Solution:

The first part of the sentence is P as it fits correctly from the grammatical as well as the meaning standpoint. The second part of the sentence is R. It further tells us as to whom we don't need any proving to do, also being grammatically correct, leaving Q as the last part of the sentence.
Hence the correct option is 3, PRQ.

The sentence will be: There is not much need for proving to most schoolboys that holidays are necessary.

QUESTION: 26

How many squares are there in the given figure?

Solution:



Clearly, 14 squares are there.

QUESTION: 27

A sheet of paper is folded and cut as shown in the figure below. From the options given, find how the figure will appear when it is opened.

Solution:

When the folded paper is opened, the cuts will appear as follows,

Thus answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 28

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:
I. Some denims are blue.
II. Some blue are hairs.

Conclusions:
I. All denims are hairs.
II. Some hairs are denims.

Solution:

The possible Venn diagram is:

Explanation:
I. All denims are hairs → It is not possible as there is no direct relation between denims and hairs, hence false.
II. Some hairs are denims → Not possible, as there is no direct relation between hairs and denims, hence false.
So, neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

QUESTION: 29

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘P’ can be represented by 12, 67, etc., and ‘Q’ can be represented by 40, 89, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “TAB”.

 

Solution:

1) 66, 55, 14 → TAR
2) 32, 24, 78 → TAZ
3) 14, 96, 79 → TAD
4) 87, 24, 20 → TAB
Clearly, the number set for the word ‘TAB’ is ‘87, 24, 20’

QUESTION: 30

In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Each of the number except 728 is a perfect cube.
Thus, the odd number is 728.

QUESTION: 31

In the following alphabet series, a wrong term is given. Find out the wrong term.

WD, QG, LK, HO, EV

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,


It should be 'HP' instead of 'HO'.
Hence, 'HO' is the wrong term in the above series.

QUESTION: 32

In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.

1. Package
2. Pacific
3. Plate
4. Pain
5. Paddle

Solution:

After rearrangement: (2) Pacific (1) Package (5) Paddle (4) Pain (3) Plate
Hence, the correct order is 21543.

QUESTION: 33

PACKAGING is coded as CAPKAGGNI, EXCURTION will be coded in the same manner as:

Solution:

The word is divided into three equal sections, and the letters of First and third sections are written backwards.

QUESTION: 34

Which among the following figures will complete the pattern of the question figure?

Solution:

From the given figures, the figure given in option b completes the pattern.

QUESTION: 35

In a certain code language, "PIN" is written as "78" and "SIN" is written as "84". How is "BIN" written in that code language?

Solution:

Consider the position of letters of the English Alphabet:
A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4 …… Y = 25, Z = 26
PIN can be written as
PIN = 16 + 9 + 14 = 39
= 39 × 2 = 78
SIN can be written as
SIN = 19 + 9 + 14 = 42
= 42 × 2 = 84
Similarly, BIN can be written as
BIN = 2 + 9 + 14 = 25
= 25 × 2 = 50.
Hence, 50 is the correct ans.

QUESTION: 36

In the following diagram, triangle shows girls, circle shows school going and rectangle shows boys, then which number represents school going boys only?

Solution:

QUESTION: 37

Pointing to a lady, Vikas said “She is the daughter of the wife of my father”. How is the lady related to Vikas?

Solution:

Using the following notations, we can draw the family tree:


Clearly, a lady is a sister of Vikas.

QUESTION: 38

In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Here the pattern of relation followed is:
1) Pen - Ink → Pen consists of ink
2) Pen - Writer → We write using a pen.
3) Book - Pages → Book consists of pages
4) Word - Letter → Word consists of letter
Clearly, ‘Pen - Writer’ is the odd one out.

QUESTION: 39

In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

PAEDOMORPHISM

Solution:

The word ‘PERSON’ cannot be formed using the letters of the given word as there is no ‘N’ in the given word.

QUESTION: 40

A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

Triangle, Square, Pentagon, ?

Solution:

Triangle, Square, Pentagon belongs to polygon series.

Triangle is three-sided figure, Square is a four-sided figure, Pentagon is a five-sided figure.
Hence, next figure must be six sided.
Hexagon is six-sided figure.
Therefore, answer is ‘Hexagon’.

QUESTION: 41

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Rain : Clouds :: Heat : ?

Solution:

Here, the 1st word is produced by the 2nd word i.e.
Rain : Clouds → Rain is produced by Clouds.
Similarly, Heat is produced by Sun.
Thus, Sun is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 42

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

493 : 16 : : 587 : ?

Solution:

The logic followed here is:
493 : 16 → 4 + 9 + 3 = 16
Similarly,
587 : ? → 5 + 8 + 7 = 20
Hence, Value of “ ? ” will be 20

QUESTION: 43

Two cruisers start from the same port. Cruiser A sails 50 miles South, then it turns right and sails 60 miles. In the meanwhile, cruiser B sails 105 miles West, then it turns left and sails 50 miles, then it turns West and sails 45 miles. Where is cruiser A with respect to cruiser B?

Solution:


Hence, answer is ’90 miles East’.

QUESTION: 44

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given equation?

48 ? 32 ? 16 ? 64

Solution:

Let’s check each option,

1) ÷, × and >

Equation will become 48 ÷ 32 × 16 > 64

According to BODMAS rule, we have:

48 ÷ 32 × 16 > 64

(3/2) × 16 > 64

3 × 8 > 64

but 24 < 64

2) +, ÷ and =

Equation will become 48 + 32 ÷ 16 = 64

According to BODMAS rule, we have:

48 + 32 ÷ 16 = 64

48 + 2 = 64

50 ≠ 64

3) -, = and +

Equation will become 48 - 32 = 16 + 64

So, we have:

48 - 32 = 16 + 64

16 ≠ 80

4) ×, ÷ and >

Equation will become 48 × 32 ÷ 16 > 64

According to BODMAS rule, we have :

48 × 32 ÷ 16 > 64

48 × 2 > 64

96 > 64

which is true.

Hence, “×, ÷ and >” is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 45

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

0, 11, 52, 59, ?, 75

Solution:

The pattern followed here is,


Hence, 72 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 46

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the correct image of the given figure?

Solution:

If a mirror is placed along AB line, then only the top and bottom part of a given image will be interchanged in the mirror image while everything else will remain same. Thus, we will get the following mirror image:


Hence, we can say that option 1 is the correct mirror image of the given question.

QUESTION: 47

Which among the given letters can be used as a suffix to the following words to form a new word?

WAR CAR BEAR TEN BAN

Solution:


Clearly, the words are suffixed with D to form a meaningful word otherwise, with the other letters the words are meaningless.

QUESTION: 48

In a certain code OPPOSITE is coded as TESIPOOP. How will APPROACH be coded?

Solution:

The word is divided into sections containing two letters each, the then the sections are written backwards.

QUESTION: 49

In the following question, select the odd letters / numbers from the given alternatives.

Solution:

According to the positional values of the letters in the English alphabetical series, the pattern followed here is,
(Addition of the positional values of the letters × 2)



Hence, "V47Y" is the odd one out from the other three responses.

QUESTION: 50

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Here the logic is,
In column I: (2 + 3) × 7 = 35
In column II: (4 + 5) × 6 = 54
Similarly,
In column III: (7 + 9) × 2 = 32
Hence the missing number is 32.

QUESTION: 51

38% of 250 is equal to:

Solution:

38% of 250 = 38/100 of 250 = 38/100 × 250 = 95

QUESTION: 52

Two numbers are respectively 20% and 35% less than a third number. First number is approximately what percent of the second number?

Solution:

Let the third number be 100.
First number is 20% less than the third number
∴ First number = 80
Second number is 35% less than the third number
∴ Second number = 65
Now, 80/65 × 100 = 123.07% ≈ 123%
Hence first number is 123% of second number.

QUESTION: 53

The total cost of 6 pens and 9 pencils is Rs. 69 and the total cost of 9 pens and 6 pencils is Rs. 81. Find the cost of 15 pens and 20 pencils.

Solution:

6 pens + 9 pencils = 69       ----(1)
9 pens + 6 pencils = 81      ----(2)
Multiplying equation (1) by 3 and equation (2) by 2
⇒ 18 pens + 27 pencils = 207       ----(3)
⇒ 18 pens + 12 pencils = 162       ----(4)
Equation (3) – equation (4)
⇒ 15 pencils = 45
⇒ 1 pencil = Rs. 3
Substituting in equation (1)
⇒ 6 pens = 69 – 9 × 3
⇒ 1 pen = 42 ÷ 6 = Rs. 7
Cost of 15 pens and 20 pencils = 15 × 7 + 20 × 3
⇒ 105 + 60 = Rs. 165

QUESTION: 54

The expenses on food, entertainment and rent are in ratio 12 : 8 : 15 respectively. The expenses on these increased by 20%, 30% and 40%. Find the total expenses increased by what percentage compared to previous one.

Solution:

Let the expenses be 120, 80 and 150
Increased expenditure on food = 120 × 1.2 = 144
Increased expenditure on entertainment = 80 × 1.3 = 104
Increased expenditure on rent = 150 × 1.4 = 210
Total expenditure = 144 + 104 + 210 = 458
∴ Percentage increase = [(458 – 350)/350] × 100 = 30.85% = 31%

QUESTION: 55

A train crosses a platform of length 150 m and man seating on platform in 1 min and 20 seconds and 50 seconds respectively. How much time will it take to cross another train of length 200 m moving at a speed of 10 m/sec in opposite direction?

Solution:

Let Length of the train be A m and trains speed be B m/sec.
As, the train crosses the man in 50 sec
⇒ Speed = length of train/time taken
⇒ B = A/50
Also, the train crosses the platform of length 150 m in 1 min 20 sec = 80 sec
⇒ Speed = Length of train + platform/time taken
⇒ (A + 150)/80 = B
⇒ (A + 150)/80 = A/50
⇒ A = 250 m
⇒ B = 250/50 = 5
⇒ Speed of train = 5m/sec
⇒ Relative speed of trains = 5 + 10 = 15m/sec
⇒ Sum of Length of trains = 200 + 250 = 450m
⇒ Required time = Sum of lengths/relative speed = 450/15 = 30 sec
∴ It will take 30 seconds to cross another train

QUESTION: 56

Marked price of an article is 30% more than its cost price. If 30% discount is given, then what will be the loss percentage?

Solution:

Let the Cost price be Rs. X.
Then, MP = x + 0.3x = 1.3x
After giving discount, we get
⇒ SP = 1.3x - (0.3 × 1.3x) = 0.91x

QUESTION: 57

The total surface area of a cube is 2646 cm2. What is the volume of this cube?

Solution:

Let the side of the cube be x cm.
Total surface area of cube = 6a= 2646

Volume of cube = a3 = (21)3 = 9261 cm3

QUESTION: 58

A and B together can do a piece of work in 5 days and A alone can do it in 30 days. B alone can do the work in how many days?

Solution:

Given,
A and B together can do a work in 5 days.
(A + B)’s one day work = 1/5
A can do the same work in 30 days.
A’s one day work = 1/30
Then,
B’s one day work = (A + B)’s one day work - A’s one day work
B’s one day work = 1/5 - 1/30 = (6 - 1)/30 = 5/30 = 1/6
Hence, B can do the same work = 6 days

QUESTION: 59

Find the total surface area (in cm2) of a right circular cylinder of diameter 28 cm and height 12 cm.

Solution:

Diameter = 28 & height = 12
So, r = 28/2 = 14

We know, total surface area of a right circular cylinder of diameter = 2r (r + h)

∴ Total surface area of right circular cylinder = 2 × 22/7 × 14 × (14 + 12) = 2288 cm2

QUESTION: 60

 

A and B started a business by investing money in the ratio of 4 : 5. After 9 months C joined them by investing thrice the amount as A. At the end of the year, a profit of Rs.14400 is earned. What will be share of B?

Solution:

Let, A’s investment = 4x
B’s investment = 5x
∴ C’s investment = 3 × 4x = 12x
∴ Weighted ratio of investment of A, B, C = 4x × 12 : 5x × 12 : 12x × (12 - 9)
⇒ 48x : 60x : 36x
⇒ 4 : 5 : 3
∴ B’s share in this profit = (5/12) × 14400 = 6000

QUESTION: 61

A boat travels 32 km downstream in 4 hours and 24 km upstream in 6 hours. What is the speed (in km/hr) of boat in still water?

Solution:

Let u be speed of boat in still water and a be speed of current.
Speed downstream = u + a
Speed upstream = u – a
Distance travelled upstream = 24 km
⇒ 24 = (u – a) × 6 ⇒ u – a = 4   ----(1)
⇒ (u + a) × 4 = 32 ⇒ u + a = 8   ----(2)
Adding (1) and (2)
⇒ 2u = 12
∴ u = 6 km/hr

QUESTION: 62

Direction: The bar graph shown average marks scored in a 100 marks Geography exam by students of 7 divisions of Standard X. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

Q. If all students of Division C got bonus 10 marks for winning the inter-school trophy their new average marks would increase by how much?

Solution:

Average marks scored by division C = 50
If average marks increased by 10,
∴ Percentage increase = (10/50) × 100 = 20%

QUESTION: 63

Direction: The bar graph shown average marks scored in a 100 marks Geography exam by students of 7 divisions of Standard X. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

Q. Average marks of division A were lesser than that of Division C by _________

Solution:

Average marked scored by division A = 25
Average marks scored by division C = 50
∴ Average marks of division A were lesser than that of Division C by = [(50 – 25)/50] × 100 = 50%

QUESTION: 64

Direction: The bar graph shown average marks scored in a 100 marks Geography exam by students of 7 divisions of Standard X. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

Q. What is the ratio of average marks scored by Division C to Division G?

Solution:

Average marked scored by division C = 50
Average marks scored by division G = 30
∴ Required ratio = 50 ∶ 30 = 5 ∶ 3

QUESTION: 65

Direction: The bar graph shown average marks scored in a 100 marks Geography exam by students of 7 divisions of Standard X. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

Q. Which division scored the second highest average marks?

Solution:

The division C scored second highest average marks

QUESTION: 66

The ratio of ages of Meena and Meera is 4 : 3. The sum of their age s is 28 years. The ratio of their ages after 8 years will be:

Solution:


After 8 years their respective ages will be 24 years and 20 years which shall be in ratio 24 : 20 or 6 : 5.

QUESTION: 67

If the average of the first five multiples of a number is 24, find the number.

Solution:

Let the number be ‘x’
Sum of first five multiples = x + 2x + 3x + 4x + 5x = 15x
Average = 15x/5 = 3x
⇒ 3x = 24
⇒ x = 24/3 = 8
∴ The number is 8

QUESTION: 68

The sum of 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + ………. Upto n terms is

Solution:

Here a = 1; d = 3 - 1 = 2

QUESTION: 69

The fourth proportion to 4 and 8 is

Solution:

4 : 8 ∷ 8 : x
x = (8 × 8)/4 = 16

QUESTION: 70

If 300 ml of water is added in 1200 ml of alcohol-water mixture in ratio 5 : 1, find the new ratio of the mixture.

Solution:

Sum of ratios = 5 + 1 = 6
Amount of alcohol in mixture = (5/6) × 1200 = 1000 ml
Amount of water in mixture = (1/6) × 1200 = 200 ml
Amount of water in new mixture = 200 + 300 = 500 ml
∴ New ratio = (1000 ∶ 500) = 2 : 1

QUESTION: 71

The difference between simple and compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at 5% per annum is Rs. 20. Find the principal amount?

Solution:

Let the total amount is Rs. P
Principal = (difference × 100²)/(R)²

⇒ P = 20/25 × 10000
∴ P = Rs. 8000 

QUESTION: 72

What will be the gain percentage for a shopkeeper who sells 20 articles for the ​same price at which he bought 25 articles?

Solution:

Let the Cost Price (CP) of each article be x
CP of 25 articles = 25x
Selling price (SP) of 20 articles = 25x
Selling price of an article = 25x/20 = 5x/4
Profit = SP – CP = 5x/4 – x = x/4
∴ Profit% = (x/4) /x × 100 = 25%

QUESTION: 73

If  what is the value of  

Solution:


∴ option 2 is correct

QUESTION: 74

7 bells start tolling together and toll at intervals of 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 and 21 seconds respectively. In 2½ hours, how many times do they toll together?

Solution:

The L.C.M of 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 and 21 is 1260

Hence, the bell will toll together after every 1260 seconds that is after every 21 minutes
2 ½ hours or 150 minutes

First they will toll together at the first minute

Then after 21 minutes i.e. 1+ 21 = 22nd minute, (22 + 21) 43rd minute, and last at 148th minute.

Considering above as arithmetic progression where 1 is the first and 148 is the last nth term,
⇒ 1, 22, 43, …, 148
⇒ Tn = 1 + (n – 1)21
⇒ 148 = 1 + 21n – 21
⇒ 168 = 21n
⇒ n = 8

∴ They will together 8 times in duration of 150 minute

QUESTION: 75

If x + 1/x = -2. Then find the value of x2 + 1/x2.

Solution:

Given: x + 1/x = -2
We know that (x + 1/x)2 = x2 + 1/x2 + 2
⇒ (-2)2 = x2 + 1/x2 + 2
⇒ 4 = x2 + 1/x2 + 2
So, x2 + 1/x2 = 2
∴ the correct option is (2)

QUESTION: 76

Who among these designed the city of Chandigarh?

Solution:

  • Chandigarh is located in the foothills of Shivalik range.
  • Chandigarh is the common capital of both Haryana and Punjab. It is administered by an administrator who is appointed by the president of India.
QUESTION: 77

“Ace Against Odds” is the autobiography of ___________.

Solution:

QUESTION: 78

Which of the following countries launched BeiDou Navigation System?

Solution:

QUESTION: 79

Great Leap Forward campaign was initiated by __________.

Solution:

Great Leap Forward campaign was initiated by China in the year 1958

  • It was aimed at industrialising the country on a massive scale.
  • People were encouraged to set up industries in their backyards.
  • Great Leap Forward campaign met with many problems. Such as - the lack of central planning by the Chinese government and a severe drought killed 30 million people in China
QUESTION: 80

WTO was founded on _________.

Solution:

WTO stands for World Trade Organisation.

  • It was founded on 1st January 1995
  • It was set up under the Marrakesh Agreement.
  • The agreement was signed in Marrakesh, Morocco, by 124 nations on 15 April 1994
  • It replaced the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT).
  • It is headquartered at Geneva, Switzerland.
  • The current total members of  WTO is 164 
QUESTION: 81

What is the percentage of forest area in Lakshadweep?

Solution:

Lakshadweep has 0 % forest area whereas it has 85 % forest cover.


Note: Forest area is designated by the government. It has not been designated by the Govt of Lakshadweep. Whereas forest cover is a geographic measurement, measured using satellites.

QUESTION: 82

“Levante or Levanter” is the local wind of __________.

Solution:

QUESTION: 83

Which among the following articles is related to Finance Commission of India?

Solution:

The Finance Commission of India is a constitutional body which is mentioned in the article 280 of the constitution of India.

  • It is set up by the president of India.
  • It is set up after every five years.
  • The chairman of the 15th finance commission is N. K. Singh.
  • Recommendations of the 15th Finance plan will come into effect from 1st April 2020.
  • The chairman of 1st finance commission was K. C. Niyogi.
  • The First Finance Commission was established in 1951 under the Article 280.
QUESTION: 84

Scientific name of Vitamin B12 is __________.

Solution:

QUESTION: 85

How many bones are present in the Human Skull?

Solution:
  • There are 22 bones present in the human skull.
  • There are 8 cranial bones and fourteen facial skeleton bones.
  • The Skull contains small holes, called Foramina, that allows blood vessels and nerves to enter and exit cranium.
  • The Jaw bone is known as mandible. It is the only bone in the skull that moves.
QUESTION: 86

Which among the following causes Ringworm?

Solution:

Ringworm is caused by Fungus Dermatophytes.

  • The word Ringworm is a misnomer because it is caused by Fungus, not a worm.
  • It can affect both humans and animals.

QUESTION: 87

_________ is an air to surface missile.

Solution:

QUESTION: 88

Which among the following gases is also known as Laughing gas?

Solution:
  • Nitrous oxide (N2O) is a colourless at room temperature and odourless gas.
  • It is commonly used for sedation and pain relief.
  • It is also used as a food aerosol in the preparation of whipping cream.

QUESTION: 89

Which among these is a renewable source of energy?

Solution:
  • Renewable source of energy are those sources which can be used repeatedly and can be replaced naturally whereas non renewable source of energy is produced using those resources which are limited in nature and takes millions of year to regenerate.
  • Renewable source: Tides and Sunlight etc
  • Non renewable source: Coal, CNG, Petroleum, and Diesel etc
QUESTION: 90

Hydraulic Brakes works on the principle of __________.

Solution:

  • Bernoulli’s Principle: In fluid dynamics, Bernoulli's principle states that an increase in the speed of a fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in pressure or a decrease in the fluid's potential energy.
  • Pascal's law: It states that when there is an increase in pressure at any point in a confined fluid, there is an equal increase at every other point in the container.
  • Archimedes’ principle: It states that anybody completely or partially submerged in a fluid (gas or liquid) at rest is acted upon by an upward, or buoyant, force the magnitude of which is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
QUESTION: 91

Who established Tattwabodhini Sabha?

Solution:

QUESTION: 92

Adhai din ka jhopra was constructed by __________.

Solution:

QUESTION: 93

Drupad Raga is mentioned in _________.

Solution:

Drupad Raga is mentioned in Sama Veda.

QUESTION: 94

What is the escape velocity of earth?

Solution:
  • The lowest velocity which is required to escape the gravitational pull of the earth is called its escape velocity.
  • It is 11.2 Km/s for earth.
  • Different planets have different escape velocity depending on their Gravitational force.
  • The escape velocity of Moon is 2.38 km/s
  • Among all the planet Jupiter has the highest escape velocity of 59.5 km/s.
QUESTION: 95

Which of the following dams is situated on the Yamuna river?

Solution:

QUESTION: 96

Who won Formula 1 State Oil Company of Azerbaijan Republic (SOCAR) Azerbaijan Grand Prix 2019?

Solution:
  • Valtteri Viktor Bottas of Mercedes won Formula 1 State Oil Company of Azerbaijan Republic (SOCAR) Azerbaijan Grand Prix 2019.
  • He defeated Mercedes teammate Lewis Hamilton at the Baku City Circuit in Baku, Azerbaijan.
  • Bottas finished the race 1.5 seconds ahead of Hamilton Sebastian Vettel of Ferrari finished with 3rd position and Max Verstappen Red Bull gained 4th position.
QUESTION: 97

Which of the following country hosted the Special Olympics World Games 2019?

Solution:
  • Special Olympics World Games 2019 held at UAE from March 14 to March 21.
  • It is a multi-sport event for athletes with intellectual disabilities in the tradition of the Special Olympics movement.
  • India won 368 medals (85 gold, 154 Silver, and 129 Bronze) at the game.
  • The next Special Olympic Games will take place in Sweden in 2021. 
  • Miramichi was the Mascot of special Olympic games 2019. 
QUESTION: 98

Who has become the first overseas player from India to join Hampshire as South Africa batsman Aiden Markram's replacement?

Solution:
  • Ajinkya Rahane became the first overseas player from India to join Hampshire as South Africa batsman Aiden Markram's replacement.
  • With this, Rahane becomes the first Indian cricketer to represent Hampshire.
  • Rahane will feature in eight county matches from May to July, subject to visa clearance
QUESTION: 99

India successfully test-fired Nirbhay in April 2019. It is a/an ________.

Solution:
  • India successfully test-fired its first Sub-sonic cruise missile, Nirbhay on 15 April 2019.
  • The launch was conducted from a test range in Odisha at 11:44 am.
  • The missile, which can be deployed from multiple platforms was launched by DRDO from complex-3 of the Integrated Test Range (ITR) at Chandipur.
  • The last successful trial of ‘Nirbhay’ cruise missile was conducted on November 7, 2017.
QUESTION: 100

Which of the following is the first state in the country to give legal protection to good Samaritans?

Solution:
  • Karnataka is the first state in the country to give legal protection to good Samaritans.
  • The Karnataka Good Samaritan and Medical Professional (Protection and Regulation during Emergency Situations) Bill, 2016 provides legal protection to ordinary citizens so that they step forward without hesitation and help accident victims get to the nearest medical facility within the ‘golden hour.’
  • The golden hour is the first hour following a traumatic injury during which medical attention is very crucial.

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