SSC MTS Mock Test -7


100 Questions MCQ Test SSC MTS Mock Test Series | SSC MTS Mock Test -7


Description
This mock test of SSC MTS Mock Test -7 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC MTS Mock Test -7 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC MTS Mock Test -7 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC MTS Mock Test -7 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC MTS Mock Test -7 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Complete the passage by choosing the correct words for the numbered blanks.

Making India a developed country in 2020 is not an easy task. India has to keep in check a variety of factors in order to progress __(A)__. To quote China as an example is that they ___(B)__ an old building to construct a very big port to meet future demands, but India is still waiting for things to happen. The profits gained by India through various sectors are to be spent on the development and ___(C)__ of the country. India's __(D)__ for a brighter path will come true not only by mere words or by speech, but the extra effort is needed at all levels to overcome the __(E)__.

Q. Which of the following fits in the blank labelled (A)?

Solution:

The passage talks about making India a developed country thus progress should be ‘rapid’ or 'fast'. 

‘Aesthetically’ means ‘in a way that gives pleasure through beauty’ and ‘ballistic’ means ‘to become extremely angry’. The word ‘meandering’ means ‘following a winding course.’

Thus option 2 is the correct answer. Other words do not convey any meaning.

QUESTION: 2

Complete the passage by choosing the correct words for the numbered blanks.

Making India a developed country in 2020 is not an easy task. India has to keep in check a variety of factors in order to progress __(A)__. To quote China as an example is that they ___(B)__ an old building to construct a very big port to meet future demands, but India is still waiting for things to happen. The profits gained by India through various sectors are to be spent on the development and ___(C)__ of the country. India's __(D)__ for a brighter path will come true not only by mere words or by speech, but the extra effort is needed at all levels to overcome the __(E)__.

Q. Which of the following fits in the blank labelled (B)?

Solution:

The sentence talks about transforming an old building to a very big port thus the building must have been destroyed and not preserved.

The word ‘renovated’ too is incorrect as it means ‘restored; modernized.’ The word ‘goaded’ which means ‘provoked’ makes no sense here.

Thus ‘demolished’ which means ‘pulled or knocked down (a building)’ fits here correctly.
Hence the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 3

Complete the passage by choosing the correct words for the numbered blanks.

Making India a developed country in 2020 is not an easy task. India has to keep in check a variety of factors in order to progress __(A)__. To quote China as an example is that they ___(B)__ an old building to construct a very big port to meet future demands, but India is still waiting for things to happen. The profits gained by India through various sectors are to be spent on the development and ___(C)__ of the country. India's __(D)__ for a brighter path will come true not only by mere words or by speech, but the extra effort is needed at all levels to overcome the __(E)__.

Q. Which of the following fits in the blank labelled (C)?

Solution:

The word ‘welfare’ means ‘betterment and well-being’ and conveys the correct meaning that the profits should be spent for the welfare of the nation. The other words mean as follows and convey no meaning here.
Tribulation ⇒ a cause of great trouble or suffering
Paucity ⇒ scarcity
Consideration ⇒ careful thought, typically over a period of time.
Option 1 is thus the correct answer.

QUESTION: 4

Complete the passage by choosing the correct words for the numbered blanks.

Making India a developed country in 2020 is not an easy task. India has to keep in check a variety of factors in order to progress __(A)__. To quote China as an example is that they ___(B)__ an old building to construct a very big port to meet future demands, but India is still waiting for things to happen. The profits gained by India through various sectors are to be spent on the development and ___(C)__ of the country. India's __(D)__ for a brighter path will come true not only by mere words or by speech, but the extra effort is needed at all levels to overcome the __(E)__.

Q. Which of the following fits in the blank labelled (D)?

Solution:

The word ‘vision’ which means ‘the ability to think about or plan the future with imagination or wisdom’ fits here conveying the meaning that India’s future plan or goal will come true not only by words but the extra effort is needed.

Other words do not convey any meaning. Option 4 is thus the correct answer.

QUESTION: 5

Complete the passage by choosing the correct words for the numbered blanks.

Making India a developed country in 2020 is not an easy task. India has to keep in check a variety of factors in order to progress __(A)__. To quote China as an example is that they ___(B)__ an old building to construct a very big port to meet future demands, but India is still waiting for things to happen. The profits gained by India through various sectors are to be spent on the development and ___(C)__ of the country. India's __(D)__ for a brighter path will come true not only by mere words or by speech, but the extra effort is needed at all levels to overcome the __(E)__.

Q. Which of the following fits in the blank labelled (E)?

Solution:

The word ‘overcome’ gives us the hint that a word conveying a negative meaning should be used here thus ‘opulence’ which means ‘wealth’ is incorrect here. The sentence does not talk about anything in specific thus ‘corruption’ and ‘crisis’ would be incorrect here.

The word ‘pitfalls’ means ‘dangers; risks’ and conveys the correct meaning. It means that extra effort is needed to overcome all the risks or obstacles at all levels.
Option 3 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 6

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Q. Ryan visit (1)/ San Fernando Valley last summer (2) with his cousins (3)/ No Error (4)

Solution:

The error is in part 1 of the sentence, ‘visited’ should be used instead of ‘visit’. “Visited” is the past tense form of the verb “visit” and is used to denote going somewhere habitually or to see someone or someplace. Since the subject has already completed the trip, the past tense of the word should be used. 

QUESTION: 7

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Q. Although she was in excruciating pain (1)/, yet Sophie decided to go (2)/ on the college ski trip. (3)/ No Error (4)

Solution:

The error is in part 2 of the sentence. “Yet” and “although” should not be used together as they denote the same thing and so if used together they cancel out each other’s effect and are thus redundant. “Although” is used to denote ‘despite the fact that’ and ‘yet’ is used to denote ‘even so’.
Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 8

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Q. I’ve been looking (1)/ at this amazing view from (2)/ the mountaintop since the last 3 hours. (3)/ No Error (4)

Solution:

The error is in part 3 of the sentence. ‘For’ should be used instead of ‘since’.

“Since” is used to express the time and to mean ‘because’. Since means from ‘a definite time in the past to the present’. “Since” should not be used here as the sentence is talking about a duration of time which is still ongoing.

'For' is used to denote the duration of time and should replace since the sentence.
Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 9

In the following question, part if the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option ‘No Improvement’.

Q. While Eve believed her daughter could do away with her rattle now, she was gravely mistaken.

Solution:

The sentence uses the form ‘do away with’, which is correct and thus needs no improvement.

Doing away with means to get rid of something or stop using something.

Do without means to manage without having something.

Thus, the alternative ‘doing away with’ would be an improvement for the sentence and thus makes it meaningful.

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Example sentence: These ridiculous rules and regulations should have been done away with years ago. 

QUESTION: 10

In the following question, part if the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option ‘No Improvement’.

Q. The lawyers on both sides of the divorce decided to draw down expected versions of the agreement and then meet to sort out the differences. 

Solution:

The sentence uses the form ‘draw down’, which is incorrect and thus needs improvement.

Draw down is a noun that means a situation in which money that is available has been taken.

Draw up is a phrasal verb which means to prepare something, usually officially, in writing.

Thus, the alternative ‘draw up’ would be an improvement for the sentence and thus makes it meaningful.
Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 11

In the following question, part if the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option ‘No Improvement’.

Q. In order to pass the entrance test of that particular university with flying colours, Anna would have to catch up world events.

Solution:

The sentence uses the form ‘catch up’ which is incorrect and thus needs improvement.

Catch up is a phrasal verb which means the reach the same quality or standard as something else.

Catch up on is a phrasal verb that means get the latest news or information about something.

Thus, the alternative ‘catch up on’ would be an improvement for the sentence and thus makes it meaningful.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 12

Choose the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word.

Savvy

Solution:

The word 'savvy' means 'shrewd and knowledgeable; having common sense and good judgment'. The meanings of the words are:
Scandalous ⇒ morally offensive.
Scrupulous ⇒ paying great attention to detail.
Sybarite ⇒ a luxurious person.
Gullible ⇒ easily persuaded to believe something; credulous.
Option 4 is thus the correct answer.

QUESTION: 13

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Foment

Solution:

The correct option is option 2.
Foment- instigate or stir up (an undesirable or violent sentiment or course of action).

Instigate- bring about or initiate (an action or event).

Cease- come or bring to an end.
Prod- stimulate or persuade (someone who is reluctant or slow) to do something.

QUESTION: 14

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Postulate

Solution:

The correct option is option 2.
Postulate means 'suggest or assume the existence, fact, or truth of (something) as a basis for reasoning, discussion, or belief'.

Emphatic- expressing something forcibly and clearly.

Assume- suppose to be the case, without proof.

Decisive- producing a definite result.
Hence the word synonymous with 'Postulate' is 'Assume'.

QUESTION: 15

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in the Passive/Active voice.

Q. The mason is building the wall.

Solution:

The verb in the sentence is 'building'.

A verb is in the active voice when its form shows that the person or thing denoted by the subject does something.

A verb is in the passive voice when its form shows that something is done to the person or thing denoted by the subject.

So we can clearly see that the sentence provided to us is in the active voice. To convert it into passive voice, the subject generally is shifted to the end of the statement.

Since the question uses 'is building' which is the present continuous tense, it can only be converted into 'is being built'.
Therefore, option 1 appropriately follows the above rule. 

QUESTION: 16

A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in Direct/Indirect speech.

Q. Bob said to Rohan,"I like this kind of trips."

Solution:

In indirect speech, the words of the speaker are not written in quotes. Usually, the word 'that' is used to convey the words of the speaker.  In Reported speech, it shows his habit/general interest, so tense shouldn't be changed. The word 'this' needs to be written as 'that.'

Also the present simple tense 'like' should be changed to past simple tense 'liked' and 'this' will be changed to 'that'.
Option 4 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 17

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Direct/Indirect speech.

Q. He exclaimed sadly that he did not have any money left.

Solution:

The correct option is option 1.
Direct speech occurs when something is being repeated exactly as it was, usually in between a pair of inverted commas. Indirect speech is a report on what someone else said or wrote without using that person's exact words.

The given sentence is in Indirect Speech and needs to be converted to Direct Speech.
There are several rules for doing the same:

1. It is important to use the correct tense of the reporting verb (said).
2.  The conjunctions ‘that, to, if, whether’ must be removed.
3. Quotation marks, question marks, exclamation marks, and full stop must be inserted wherever necessary.
4. A comma must be inserted before the statement.
5. The order of words must be carefully looked at.
6. Pay attention to the correct conjugation of the verbs in the given statement.

Keeping all the above rules into consideration, the correct form of the sentence in Direct Speech would be:

He said, "Alas! I do not have any money left."

QUESTION: 18

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Speak by the card

Solution:

The phrase ‘speak by the card’ means to speak to the point and well without guessing but based on information.

Eg- Kavya always keeps to herself and speaks by the card.
Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 19

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Q. Hide one’s light under a bushel

Solution:

The idiom ‘hide one’s light under a bushel’ means to conceal your talents or abilities.

Eg-There is no need to hide your light under a bushel, we heard you singing in your room.
Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 20

Read the following group of sentences. The first and the last are numbered 1 and 6 while all others are given by P,Q,R and S. Arrange these four parts in proper order to form a meaningful sentence/paragraph.

1. The small section of 
P. the English language print 
Q. questions could have been squeezed 
R. a bit through back channels 
S. media that was asking hard 
6. but was otherwise kept ignored.

Solution:

The part S ends with the adjective 'hard', indicating that it must be associated with some noun.

Out of the jumbled parts, only Q begins with the noun 'questions'.

So, SQ must be the correct order.

Similarly, P also ends with the adjective 'print', which needs to completed by the following part.

This is only shown by S, which begins with the noun 'media', which means S must follow P.

So, PSQ is the correct order.
This is only reflected by option 4, which gives the order PSQR.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.
The correct sentence will be: 

The small section of the English language print media that was asking hard questions could have been squeezed a bit through back channels but was otherwise kept ignored.

QUESTION: 21

Read the following group of sentences. The first and the last are numbered 1 and 6 while all others are given by P,Q,R and S. Arrange these four parts in proper order to form a meaningful sentence/paragraph.

1. Metaphysical libertarianism, 
P. when we act freely some part 
Q. not to be confused with the 
R. political doctrine of libertarianism, 
S. says that determinism is false because
6. of the process is leading up to the action.

Solution:

The part Q ends with the article 'the', indicating that it must be associated with an adjective or a noun.

So, the part following Q must begin with an adjective or a noun. This is only given by R, which begins with the adjective 'political'.

QR is, therefore, the correct sequence.
Looking at the context, QR fits aptly after 1.
So, QR begins the correct sequence.
Only option 1 shows this, giving the sequence QRSP.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.
The correct sentence will be:

Metaphysical libertarianism, not to be confused with the political doctrine of libertarianism, says that determinism is false because when we act freely some part of the process is leading up to the action.

QUESTION: 22

In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Q. My room has _____ boxes.

Solution:

The correct answer is option 2.

When a number of adjectives are used together, the order depends on their function. The usual order is:

Quantity, Value/opinion, Size, Temperature, Age, Shape, Colour, Origin, Material

Therefore, the correct sentence will be:
My room has two small round wooden boxes.

QUESTION: 23

In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Q. Operations analytics aid banks in _________ and streamlining operations like processing name change requests

Solution:

The correct answer here is 'optimising'.

Optimising refers to make the best or most effective use of (a situation or resource).

The other alternatives are grammatically and structurally incorrect keeping in mind the tense of the sentence.

The sentence is framed in present continuous tense and only option 3 has the same tense.

QUESTION: 24

Give one-word substitute.

A cautionary advice.

Solution:

The meanings of the words given in the options are as follows:

1.Censor: To forbid someone from doing something
2. Sensor: A sensitive detector
3. Pressure: Continuous physical force exerted on or against an object by something in contact with it
4. Warning: A statement or event that warns of something; a cautionary advice
Thus, the word ‘warning’ can be substituted for ‘a cautionary advice’.

QUESTION: 25

In the following question, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence:

Q. To remove a priest from his position

Solution:

The meanings of the words are:
Unfrock ⇒ To remove a priest from his position
Delimit ⇒ determine the limits or boundaries of.
Falter ⇒ hesitate
Digress ⇒ wander off from the subject
Thus option 1 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 26

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

Solution:

Logic:
The pattern followed here is:
4 × 3 = 12; 5 × 2 = 10, 12 + 10 = 22
6 × 5 = 30; 2 × 3 = 6, 30 + 6 = 36
So, 2 × 7 = 14; 8 × 4 = 32, 14 + 32 = 46
Thus, 46 is the correct answer. 

QUESTION: 27

A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘D’ can be represented by 01, 79, etc., and ‘N’ can be represented by 11, 66, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “TRACK”.

Solution:

1) 14, 21, 24, 58, 32 → TXACK
2) 76, 13, 23, 58, 65 → TRCCK
3) 14, 98, 24, 76, 32 → TRATK
4) 76, 13, 55, 85, 32 → TRACK
Clearly, the number set for the word “TRACK” is ’76, 13, 55, 85, 32.’

QUESTION: 28

How many Square are there in the given figure?

Solution:

The Squares formed are:
ADSR, BPQC,
RFSN, PEQM
AENP, EDQN, RMNP, MSQN, RMFB, FCSM,
ELNI, INJP, JNKM, KNLQ,
Thus, there are total 14 Squares formed.

QUESTION: 29

From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Solution:

On close observation, we find that question figure is embedded in fig.2, as shown below:


Thus, figure 2 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 30

What will come in place of question marks (?) in the given equation?

84 ? 12 ? 5 ? 13 = 72

Solution:

Checking all the symbols:
84 ÷ 12 + 5 × 13 = 72
→ 7 + 5 × 13 = 72
→ 7 + 65 = 72
→ 72 = 72
Thus, ‘÷, + and ×’ will balance the given equation.

QUESTION: 31

Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Quench
2. Query
3. Queasy
4. Queer
5. Quickie

Solution:

The order will be: (3) Queasy, (4) Queer, (1) Quench, (2) Query, (5) Quickie
Thus, 34125 is the correct order.

QUESTION: 32

In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

7, 18, 49, 140, 411, ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:


Thus, the missing number is 1222.

QUESTION: 33

In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:
8 − 1 = 7; (7 × 2) = 14
6 − 2 = 4; (4 × 2) = 8
9 − 4 = 5; (5 × 2) = 10
So, 7 − 4 = 3; (3 × 2) = 6
Thus, 74 – 5 is the odd number pair.

QUESTION: 34

In the following question, select the odd letters pair from the given alternatives.

Solution:

J + 6 = P,
B + 2 = D,
F + 6 = L,
G + 6 = M
Hence, the correct answer is BD.

QUESTION: 35

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

4 : 112 : : 8 : ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:
4→ 16 × 7 = 112
So, 8→ 64 × 7 = 448
Thus, 448 is the related number.

QUESTION: 36

In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

QUARRELSOME

Solution:

The word ‘AIR’ cannot be formed using the letters of the given word as there is no ‘I’ in the given word.

QUESTION: 37

Four girls Riya, Tina, Niti and Mona are playing Ludo, Riya is facing south, Mona is facing east, Niti is facing west and Tina is sitting left of the Niti.

Q. Who is sitting in front of Tina

Solution:


Clearly, Riya is sitting in front of Tina.

QUESTION: 38

A person walks 40 km to the East, turns North and walks 20 km, again turns left and walks 20 km. How far is he from the starting point?

Solution:


Using the Pythagoras theorem:

Thus, he is 20√2 km far from the starting point.

QUESTION: 39

In a certain code language, "COFFIN" is written as "XLUURM". How is "MURDER" written in that code language?

Solution:


Thus, NFIWVI is the correct code for “MURDER.”

QUESTION: 40

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Solution:

Clearly, fig.3 will complete the pattern when placed in the blank space of question figure as shown below:

Thus, figure 3 is the correct answer. 

QUESTION: 41

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the figure is the mirror image of the given figure?

Solution:

Clearly, fig.4 shows the correct image of the question figure.


Thus, figure 4 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 42

In a certain code language, "BOOK" is written as "2335", and “TAKE” is written as “4156”, then how is "BOAT" written in that code language?

Solution:


Then,

Thus, 2314 is the correct code for “BOAT.”

QUESTION: 43

Mukesh’s position is 12th from downwards in a class of 52 students. What will be his position from upwards?

Solution:

Mukesh’s position from upwards = (Total students - Mukesh’s position from downwards + 1)
= [52 - 12] + 1 = 41th
Mukesh is at 41 position from top.

QUESTION: 44

In the following question, select the correct letter from the given alternatives.

CE : XV : : HK : ?

Solution:

The position of letters of first group in alphabetical order is same as the position of letters of second group in reverse alphabetical order. 

QUESTION: 45

Pointing towards a girl, Chetan said "She is the daughter of the only child of my grandmother". How is Chetan related to that girl?

Solution:


Hence, Chetan is the brother of the girl. 

QUESTION: 46

If ‘A’ means ‘+’, ‘B’ means ‘×’, ‘C’ means ‘÷’ & ‘D’ means ‘−‘, then

12 A 6 C 2 B 3 D 6 = ?

Solution:

12 A 6 C 2 B 3 D 6 = ?
→ 12 + 6 ÷ 2 × 3 − 6
→ 12 + 3 × 3 − 6
→ 12 + 9 – 6
= 15
Thus, 15 is the correct answer. 

QUESTION: 47

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

B4, E10, H16, K22, ?

Solution:

The pattern followed here is:


Thus, N28 is the missing term which completes the series.

QUESTION: 48

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Boys, Athletes, Girls

Solution:

The diagram will be:

Thus, fig.2 best represents the relationship between Boys, Athletes, Girls.

QUESTION: 49

In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:
I. Some clips are blue.
II. All clips are green.
III. No blue is red.

Conclusions:
I. Some green are blue.
II. No red is green.
III. All clips are blue.
IV. Some clips are green.

Solution:

The possible Venn diagram is:

Explanation:
I. Some green are blue → It is definitely true.
II. No red is green → Can’t say as there is no direct relation between the two, hence false.
III. All clips are blue → Only some clips are blue is a given statement thus it is false.
IV. Some clips are green → It is definitely true.
Thus, only conclusion I and IV follow.

QUESTION: 50

In the following questions, in three out of the given four pairs of figures, figure I is related to figure II in the same particular manner. Find out the pair in which this relationship does not exist between figure I and II.

Solution:

In each pair of figure I and II, figure I rotates 90° clockwise to form figure II.
In the figure given below, when the figure I rotates 90° clockwise it does not form figure II.
Hence, the figure given below is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 51

Find the number of common factors of 2× 9× 73 and 2× 9× 7.

Solution:

H.C.F of 2× 9× 73 and 2× 9× 7 = 2× 3× 7
∴ Number of common factors = (5 + 1) × (4 + 1) × (1 + 1) = 6 × 5 × 2 = 60

QUESTION: 52

A can contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 4 : 1. When 15 litres of mixture is drawn off and filled with water, then the ratio becomes 17 : 8. What is the total mixture it can hold?

Solution:

Given,
If capacity of can is 5a then milk is 4a and water is a.

Given,
After 15 litres mixture drawn off
⇒ Milk amount = 4a – 4/5 × 15 = 4a – 12
⇒ Water amount = a – 1/5 × 15 + 15 = a + 12

Given,
⇒ (4a – 12) : (a + 12) = 17 : 8
⇒ 32a – 96 = 17a + 204
⇒ 15a = 300
⇒ a = 20
∴ Total mixture = 5 × 20 = 100 litre

QUESTION: 53

P, Q and R can complete work for Rs.21000. P, Q and R can alone complete work in 20 days, 30 days and 60 days. With help of D they complete work in 8 days. Among the four who gets more share and how much?

Solution:

Given,
⇒ P’s 1 day’s work = 1/20
⇒ Q’s 1 day’s work = 1/30
⇒ R’s 1 day’s work = 1/60
(P + Q + R)’s 1 days work = 1/20 + 1/30 + 1/60 = (6/60) = 1/10
(P + Q + R + D)’s 1 days work = 1/8
D’s 1 day’s work = 1/8 – 1/10 = 2/80 = 1/40

Ratio of work efficiency = P : Q : R : D = 1/20 : 1/30 : 1/60 : 1/40 = 6 : 4 : 2 : 3
⇒ P’ share = 21000 × 6/15 = Rs. 8400
⇒ Q’ share = 21000 × 4/15 = Rs. 5600
⇒ R’ share = 21000 × 2/15 = Rs. 2800
⇒ S’ share = 21000 × 3/15 = Rs. 4200
∴ From this, P gets highest share of Rs. 8400.

QUESTION: 54

A fraction, when taken away form 3/4 gives 1/12, The fraction is:

Solution:

Let the fraction be x
⇒ 3/4 – x = 1/12
⇒ x = 3/4 – 1/12
⇒ x = (9 – 1) /12
⇒ x = 2/3
∴ The fraction is = 2/3

QUESTION: 55

A women is standing 30 m away from her house. An angle of elevation from top of her is 30° towards the top of house and angle of elevation from her foot is 60° towards the top of house. Find the total height of house and women.

Solution:

Given,


⇒ tan30° = AB/BC
⇒ AB = 10√3 m
Given,
⇒ tan60° = AE/ED
⇒ √3 = (AB + BE)/30
⇒ AB + BE = 30√3
⇒ BE = 30√3 – 10√3
⇒ BE = 20√3 m
⇒ AE = 20√3 + 10√3 = 30√3 m
Required height = 30√3 + 20√3 = 50√3 m

QUESTION: 56

The ratio of number of veg customers to non-veg customers is 5 : 3. If there is increase in veg customers and non-veg customers by 10% and 500 respectively. If the total customers after increase is 3050 then what is the difference between veg customers and non-veg customers before increase?

Solution:

Let the veg and the non-veg customers be A and B respectively.

Given,
⇒ A/B = 5/3
⇒ A × 10/100 + A + B + 500 = 3050
⇒ A + 10A + 10B + 5000 = 30500
⇒ 11A + 10B = 25500
⇒ 11A + 10(3A/5) = 25500
⇒ 11A + 6A = 25500
⇒ A = 1500
⇒ B = 1500 × 3/5
⇒ B = 900
Required difference between the customers = 1500 – 900 = 600

QUESTION: 57

A train travelling at 38 kmph crosses a bus having 1/4th its length and travelling in the same direction at 20 kmph, in 60 seconds. It also crosses a railway platform in 72 seconds then the length of the platform is –

Solution:

Let the length of the train be A meters.
Length of the bus = A/4 meters
Relative speed = 38 – 20 = 18 kmph
⇒ 18 × 5/18 = 5 m/sec

Given,
⇒ (A + A/4)/5 = 60
⇒ A = 240 m
Let the length of the platform be B meter.
Speed of the train = 38 × 5/18 = 95/9 m/sec

Then,
⇒ (240 + B) × 9/95 = 72
⇒ 240 + B = 760
⇒ B = 760 – 240
⇒ B = 520 m
∴ Length of platform is 520 m.

QUESTION: 58

Directions: The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of questions in a competitive question paper. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow.

Q. If the total number of questions in the paper is 80, find the number of current affairs questions.

Solution:

Percentage of current affairs questions = 5%
∴ No. of current affairs questions = 0.05 × 80 = 4

QUESTION: 59

Directions: The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of questions in a competitive question paper. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow.

Q. The number of General English questions is what percentage of the number of Mathematics questions?

Solution:

Percentage of Mathematics questions = 15%
Percentage of General English questions = 5%
∴ Required percentage = (5/15) × 100 = 33.3%

QUESTION: 60

Directions: The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of questions in a competitive question paper. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow.

Q. What is the ratio of Logical Reasoning questions to Quantitative Aptitude questions?

Solution:

Percentage of logical reasoning questions = 5%
Percentage of quantitative aptitude questions = 10%
∴ Required ratio = 5 ∶ 10 = 1 ∶ 2

QUESTION: 61

Directions: The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of questions in a competitive question paper. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow.

Q. The number of Mathematics questions is what percentage of the number of Technical questions?

Solution:

Percentage of Mathematics questions = 15%
Percentage of Technical questions = 60%
∴ Required percentage = (15/60) × 100 = 25%

QUESTION: 62

If 3x2 = 102 – 52, find the value of x.

Solution:

3x2 = 102 – 52
Using ⇒ a2 – b2 = (a – b) (a + b)
⇒ 3x2 = (10 – 5) (10 + 5)
⇒ 3x2 = 5 × 15
⇒ 3x2 = 75
⇒ x2 = 25
∴ x = +5 or -5
Based on options, x = 5

QUESTION: 63

The base of a right – angled triangle is 7 units and hypotenuse is 25 units. The area is -

Solution:

If base of triangle is 7 units and hypotenuse is 25 units, then the height of triangle must be 24 units, because (7, 24, 25) forms a Pythagorean triplet.
∴ Area of Δ = 1/2 × 7 × 24 = 84 sq. Units

QUESTION: 64

Find three consecutive integers whose sum is equal to 636.

Solution:

Let three consecutive integers be a, b and c.
If three numbers are consecutive then the middle number will always be their average
⇒ b = 636 ÷ 3
⇒ b = 212
⇒ a = b – 1 = 212 – 1 = 211
∴ c = b + 1 = 212 + 1 = 213

QUESTION: 65

The brother is elder to his sister by 7 years. Five years ago, the product of their ages was 30, what is the present age of the brother?

Solution:

Let the present age of sister be x
Present age of brother = x + 7
Sister’s age 5 years ago = x – 5
Brother’s age 5 years ago = x + 2
⇒ (x – 5)(x + 2) = 30
⇒ x2 – 3x – 10 = 30
⇒ x2 – 3x – 40 = 0
⇒ (x – 8)(x + 5) = 0
⇒ x = 8
∴ Present age of brother = 8 + 7 = 15 years

QUESTION: 66

The cost of C is thrice that of B and the cost of B is half that of A. If the cost of each type increases by 50%, then the overall percentage increase in the sum of the cost of A, B and C.

Solution:

Topper's approach:
Let the cost of A, B and C be 20, 10, 30.
According to the question,
New cost will be 30, 15, 45 after increasing 50% each.
Total percentage increase of their sum = [(90 – 60)/60] × 100 = 50%

Detailed solution:
Let a, b and c be the respective costs of A, B and C respectively.
According to the question,
b = a/2 and c = 3b
So, c = 3a/2
As the cost of A, B and C increases by 50%
New costs of A, B and C = 3a/2, 3a/4, 9a/4 respectively
Thus the total percentage increase
= (((3a/2 + 3a/4 + 9a/4) – (a + a/2 + 3a/2))/(a + a/2 + 3a/2)) × 100
= 50%

QUESTION: 67

If the cost price of 20 articles is equal to the selling price of 15 articles, find gain %.

Solution:

Let CP of one article = x
CP of 20 articles = 20x
SP of 15 articles = 20x
SP of 1 article = 20x/15 = 4x/3
Gain = SP - CP = 4x/3 - x = x/3
Gain% = (x/3)/x × 100 = 33.33%

QUESTION: 68

A train of 500 meters crosses a dog moving at the speed of 5 km/h in same direction in 40 seconds. Find the approximate speed of the train.

Solution:

Here length of train = 500 meters
Speed of train = v m/s
Speed of dog = 5 × 5/18 = 25/18 m/s
Time taken to cross the dog = 40sec
Here relative speed of train = v – (25/18)
Relative distance = 500 
As we know that,
Relative speed = Relative distance/Time
⇒ v – (25/18) = 500/40
⇒ v  ≈ 14 m/s

QUESTION: 69

If the average age of four siblings is 14 years and the average age of these children and their fathers’ is 20 years, what is the age of the father?

Solution:

Let the age of father be x years and total of 4 children is y.
We know that, average age = sum of ages of n persons/ number of persons
∴ 14 = y/4
⇒ y = 56 years
Now as given in the question, 

⇒ x = 100 – 56
⇒ x = 44 years

QUESTION: 70

If a + b = 8 and ab = 15, then what is the value of a3 + b3?

Solution:

Applying formula; (a + b)= a+ b+ 3ab (a + b)
∴ a+ b= (a + b)3 – 3 ab (a + b) = (8) 3 – 3 × 15(8) = 512 – 360 = 152

QUESTION: 71

The marked price of a cycle is Rs. 5600. If two successive discounts of 10% and 15% are given, then what will be the selling price (in Rs) of the cycle?

Solution:

The selling price of the cycle


= Rs. 4284/-

QUESTION: 72

A sum of money (P) doubles in 10 years. How much would it be in 20 years at the same rate of simple interest?

Solution:

Simple interest = P × T × R/100
P = Principle
R = Rate
T = Time period
From the given data,
When time is 10 years
⇒ Simple interest = R × 10 × P/100
⇒ P = R × P/10
R = 10
When time is 20 years
⇒ Simple interest = R × T × P/100
⇒ Simple interest = 10 × 20 × P/100
Simple interest = 2P
Amount = P + 2P = 3P

QUESTION: 73

Which of the following statement is true?

Solution:

Case I
⇒ 38 > 93
Clearly the above statement is correct.

Case II
⇒ 29 > 28
Clearly, the above statement is correct.
∴ Both I and II are correct.

QUESTION: 74

The diameter of a wheel is 6 cm. The wheel revolves 42 times in a minute. How much time will it take to cover the distance of 10.296 meter?

Solution:

⇒ Diameter = 6 cm
⇒ Radius = 6/2 = 3 cm
⇒ Circumference = 2πr = 2 × 22/7 × 3
⇒ 132/7 cm
⇒ Distance covered by wheel in 1 min = 42 × Circumference
⇒ 42 × 132/7
⇒ 792 cm = 7.92 meters
∴ Time taken = 10.296/7.92 = 1.3 min

QUESTION: 75

A number leaves a remainder of 13 when divided by 16. Find the remainder when the number is divided by 8.

Solution:

Let the number and the quotient be ‘x’ and ‘q’ respectively
⇒ x = 16q + 13
⇒ x = 8(2q) + 8 + 5
⇒ x = 8(2q + 1) + 5
∴ When the number is divided by 8, the remainder is 5

QUESTION: 76

Sriharikota is a barrier island located off the coast of Bay of Bengal in which among the following states in India?

Solution:
  • Sriharikota is a barrier island that is situated off the coast of Bay of Bengal in Nellore District in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. 
  • This island has the Satish Dhawan Space Research Centre which is used for launching of satellites by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). 
QUESTION: 77

Most of the temples of Nagara-style consisted of which of the following?

Solution:
  • Nagara-style or Northern style temples consist of Shikharas, Garbhagriha, Kalasha, Amalaka, Antarala, Vahana, Jagati, and Mandapa.
  • The Garbhagriha houses the main icon, Shikaras are mountain like spire, and Mandapa is the entrance of the temple.
QUESTION: 78

Which process is used to separate a mixture of alcohol and water?

Solution:
  • A mixture of water and alcohol is homogenous, that is, the two components cannot be distinguished from each other which is why methods like filtration and centrifugation cannot be employed.
  • To separate a mixture of water and alcohol, fractional distillation is used which is based on the boiling point of the two liquids. Since, alcohol has a lower boiling point than water, when the mixture is heated at the boiling point of alcohol, all the alcohol gets vaporized while the water remains liquid.
QUESTION: 79

A body is called as hypersonic if the mach number is ________. 

Solution:
  • Mach Number is defined as the ratio of the speed of the body to the speed of sound in the same medium under the same condition of temperature and pressure. 
  • If the Mach Number is >1, the body is called as Supersonic whereas, if the Mach Number is <1, it is known as the Subsonic Body. 
  • A Body is known as Hypersonic Body if the Mach Number is >5. 
QUESTION: 80

Who had built the 'Amer Fort'?

Solution:

Amer Fort:

  •  located in Amer, Rajasthan.
  •  built in 1592 by Raja Man Singh.
  •  known for its large ramparts and series of gates and cobbled paths.
  • was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site as part of the group Hill Forts of Rajasthan. 
QUESTION: 81

Connective tissue which stores fat is called ________.

Solution:
  • Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue which stores fat to provide insulation to the body and protect major organs.
  • It is the cells of the adipose tissue, called adipocyte,s which store fat in the form of triglycerides.
  • Connective tissue is a type of animal tissue which is responsible for connecting the various parts of the body. There are 3 types of connective tissue:
    1. Loose Connective Tissue - attaches epithelial tissues to the underlying tissue and holds the organs in their places.
    2. Dense Connective Tissue - links bones to joints and attaches muscles to bones.
    3. Specialized Connective Tissue - specialized tissue which performs different functions. Adipose tissue is a specialized connective tissue.
QUESTION: 82

Which one of the following Sikh Gurus was beheaded by Aurangzeb?

Solution:
  • Guru Teg Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru, was beheaded by Aurangzeb publically on 11 November 1675 in Delhi.
  • 116 poetic hymns of Guru Teg Bahadur are registered in the Guru Granth Sahib, a religious scripture of Sikhs.
QUESTION: 83

Who headed the 35th GST Council Meeting held in June 2019?

Solution:
  • The 35th GST Council Meeting was held on 21 June 2019 under the chairmanship of Union Finance & Corporate Affairs Minister Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman.
  • Altogether, 12 Agenda items were discussed during the Council meeting.
  • Some of these items were of regular nature like confirmation of the Minutes of the 34th GST Council Meeting, deemed ratification by the Council of notifications.
QUESTION: 84

How many railway stations have been developed under the Adarsh Station Scheme (ASS)?

Solution:
  • Railway Minister Piyush Goyal said that 1,253 stations have been identified for development under Adarsh Station Scheme (ASS).
  • Out of which 1,103 railway stations have been developed so far.
  • Modernisation and upgradation of railway stations in Indian Railways is being under various modernisation schemes such as Model Station Scheme, Modern Station Scheme and Adarsh Station Scheme.
QUESTION: 85

Which organisation was established by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866 in London?

Solution:

QUESTION: 86

The goods which have negative relation with income are known as ________. 

Solution:
  • Inferior goods are such that the relation between the income and the demand is negative i.e. when the income rises, the demand is reduced. 
  • Complementary goods are such that an increase in the price of one will cause a decrease in demand for the other. 
  • Substitute goods are such that an increase in the price of one will cause an increase in demand for the other. 
  • Veblen Goods are such that the increase in price will increase demand also. Examples are expensive wines, sports cars etc. 
QUESTION: 87

What is the center of the kidney called?

Solution:
  • The renal pelvis is the center of the kidney and is continuous with the urethra. All the renal pyramids from the renal medulla have their tubes join together at the renal pelvis. This then continues all the way to the urethra after joining together with the ureter of the other kidney.
  • The renal cortex is the outer portion of the kidney which lies between the renal medulla and renal capsule.
  • The innermost part of the kidney is renal medulla which is split up into a number of sections known as the renal pyramids.
  • The Loop of Henle, in the kidney, is a portion of a nephron which leads to the distal convoluted tube from the proximal convoluted tube.
QUESTION: 88

Which one of the following elements is polyatomic?

Solution:
  • Sulphur is polyatomic in given elements.
  • Polyatomic is used when a molecule contains more than two atoms.
  • Here Sulphur is polyatomic as each Sulphur molecule contains 8 Sulphur atoms and denoted as S8.
  • Helium is monoatomic, oxygen is diatomic and Phosphorus is tetra-atomic.
QUESTION: 89

Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Solution:

QUESTION: 90

What is the rank of K. Srikanth in the HSBC Race to Guangzhou Rankings released in 2019?

Solution:
  • K. Srikanth is ranked 6th in the HSBC Race to Guangzhou Rankings, which will determine the qualifiers to the HSBC BWF World Tour Finals.
  • Sindhu and Saina are ranked 13th and 12th in the women’s singles list headed by Thailand’s Ratchanok Inthanon.
  • Srikanth is the only Indian in the HSBC Race to Guangzhou Rankings which is being headed by Jonatan Christie.
QUESTION: 91

In which of the following parts, the emergency provisions are placed in Indian constitution?

Solution:

QUESTION: 92

The judges of a High court hold office till the age of _____________.

Solution:
  • The Judges of the High Courts in India holds office till they attain the age of 62.
  • Judges of the high court are appointed by the President of India.
  • The judges of the High Court are appointed on the recommendation of the Collegium.
  • The Judges of the High Court are removed on the same grounds as of the Supreme Court Judges.
  • The Judges of the Supreme Court of India holds office till they attain the age of 65.
QUESTION: 93

Which of the following hormones is called the fight-or-flight hormone?

Solution:
  • Adrenaline hormone is called the fight-or-flight hormone.
  • Adrenaline is secreted by Adrenal Gland.  
  • Adrenal Gland has two tissues, they are called the Adrenal Medulla and Adrenal Cortex.
  • Adrenal Medulla secretes two hormones called Adrenaline and noradrenaline in response to any kind of stress or emergency situation.
  • Hence they are called Emergency Hormones or Stress Hormones.

QUESTION: 94

Who clinched the 35th men's Asian Snooker Championship in Doha?

Solution:
  • Pankaj Advani clinched the 35th men's Asian Snooker Championship in Doha to complete a career grand slam in cue sports.
  • He defeated Thanawat Tirapongpaiboon 6-3 in the final to become the only one to win the Asian and World championships in all formats.
QUESTION: 95

Chuliya falls in Kota district of Rajasthan are formed on which river?

Solution:
  • Chuliya falls is formed on Chambal River.
  • The Chambal River is a tributary of the Yamuna River in central India.
  • It originates from south of Mhow town of Madhya Pradesh on the south slope of Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh.
QUESTION: 96

Nail polish remover contains ________.

Solution:
  • Acetone (C3H6O), also known as propanone, is a ketone and it is the main constituent of nail polish remover.
  • It is a colorless liquid that is also used in the manufacturing of plastics and fibres, in laboratories, and in medicines and cosmetics.
QUESTION: 97

Tipu Sultan planted the Tree of Liberty in ________.

Solution:
  • Tipu Sultan was a great warrior, born in November 1750. He was known as the ‘Tiger of Mysore’.
  • He planted the Tree of Liberty at Seringapatam. He is also known as the ‘pioneer of rocket technology’ in India.
QUESTION: 98

When is the International Yoga Day celebrated?

Solution:
  • 5th International Yoga Day is celebrated on 21 June 2019.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi led the nation in celebrating yoga day from Ranchi in Jharkhand.
  • The theme for the year 2019 is Yoga for Heart Care(India).
  • The theme for the year 2019 for international yoga day is “Yoga for Climate Action”
  • The idea of the International Day of Yoga was first proposed by PM Modi during his speech at the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) on September 27, 2014.
QUESTION: 99

The Government of India has set up how many Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK)?

Solution:
  • The Government has set up 713 Krishi Vigyan Kendras and 684 Agricultural Technology Management Agencies at the district level in the country for dissemination of technologies among the farming community.
  • This is aimed at meeting the target of doubling the farmers' income by 2022.
  • An Inter-Ministerial Committee has been constituted to examine issues relating to the doubling of farmers' income.
QUESTION: 100

Which among the following is also known as Aggregative Economics?

Solution:
  • Macroeconomics is defined as the economic behaviour of the of the whole system or the country. 
  • This is also known as aggregative economics. 
  • On the other hand, microeconomics is defined as the study of the individual sectors such as industry, firms, households etc. 
  • Welfare economics is the branch which studies the effect of the microeconomic activities to evaluate the welfare at the macro level. 

Related tests