SSC MTS Mock Test -8


100 Questions MCQ Test SSC MTS Mock Test Series | SSC MTS Mock Test -8


Description
This mock test of SSC MTS Mock Test -8 for SSC helps you for every SSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for SSC SSC MTS Mock Test -8 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this SSC MTS Mock Test -8 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. SSC students definitely take this SSC MTS Mock Test -8 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other SSC MTS Mock Test -8 extra questions, long questions & short questions for SSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

Q. They all ran after the (1)/ farmer's wife, who cut (2)/ off there tails with a carving knife. (3)/ No Error (4)

Solution:

'There' means 'that place'. For example, 'Do you hear that dog barking over there?'. 'Their' is a word which is used to indicate a thing which belongs to 'them'. For example, 'Their cars were parked on the street while they were having their driveway repaved.' Therefore, instead of the word 'there' in the (3) part of the statement, the word 'their' should be used.

QUESTION: 2

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

Q. The streets of (1)/ some of our cities (2)/ our noted for their crookedness. (3)/ No Error (4)

Solution:

The word 'our' is used to indicate something that belongs to the speaker and maybe one or more people. For example, 'Our school holiday is two weeks long'. However, the word 'are' is a verb which is usually used with plural subjects. For example, 'The cats are eating all of their food'. Therefore, instead of the word 'our' in the (3) part of the statement, the word 'are' should be used.

QUESTION: 3

Which of the following words/phrases given below in the options should replace the phrase in underline in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given then mark 'No error'.

Q. Hari is inferior to Rama on intelligence.

Solution:

The preposition ‘on’ disturbs the grammatical arrangement of the sentence, as the phrase ‘inferior to Rama on intelligence’ does not convey any meaning. The preposition ‘to’ is used to express direction towards something or someone, which does not fit the context. Out of the given options, ‘for intelligence’ do not convey any meaning, making ‘in intelligence’ as the correct answer, as it fits the sentence correctly from the grammatical as well as the meaning standpoint. 

QUESTION: 4

Which of the following words/phrases given below in the options should replace the phrase in underline in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given then mark 'no error'.

Q. My cousin pulled thought the examination.

Solution:

The word ‘thought’ disturbs the grammatical arrangement of the sentence, as the phrase ‘pulled thought the examination’ does not convey any meaning. The word ‘though’ is used for expressions like ‘despite the fact’, or ‘although’, which does not fit the context. The word ‘throw’ does not convey any meaning, making ‘through’ as the correct answer, as it fits the sentence correctly from the grammatical as well as the meaning standpoint. 

QUESTION: 5

In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Q. I cannot put _______ with his insolence. ​

Solution:

The phrase ‘put on’ means to ‘wear a piece of clothing or jewellery’. Therefore, it gets rejected as it does not fit the context. The words 'among' and ‘with’ cannot be used as it would be grammatically incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is ‘up’.

QUESTION: 6

In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Q. Recently he _______ taken to opium eating.​​

Solution:

The word 'have' is used along with pronouns like 'I', 'you', 'we' and 'they'. The word 'having' is just another form of the word 'have'. Therefore, both of them get omitted as they do not fit here grammatically. The word 'had' cannot be used since it is used to indicate the past tense but the sentence provided to us is in the present tense. Therefore, the correct answer is 'has'.

QUESTION: 7

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Desirous

Solution:

‘Desirous’ refers to a person who is characterised by desire. Out of the given options, ‘Faithful’ refers to a person who is loyal, ‘Beautiful’ refers to a thing or person which is good to look at and 'Helpful' refers to a person who is very giving or is always ready to help. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Wishful' as it carries the same meaning as 'Desirous'.

QUESTION: 8

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Generosity

Solution:

‘Generosity’ refers to the virtue of being kind. ‘Meanness’ refers to the lack of generosity. These are exact opposites. ‘Liberality’ is ‘to be open to new ideas or other people's point of view’. ‘Extinguish’ means 'cease to burn' and ‘Ambush’ means 'surprise attack'.

QUESTION: 9

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'.

Q. Either my neighbour (1) /or her children (2) /is coming for dinner. (3) / No error (4)

Solution:

The phrase 'is coming for dinner' is grammatically incorrect.
When using either-or / neither-nor the verb agrees with the second subject.
If replaced with 'are coming for dinner' it would make the meaning of the sentence more appropriate, thus, making option 3 as the correct answer.

QUESTION: 10

From the given alternatives, 1, 2, 3 or 4, choose the option which may be used to improve the sentence by replacing the word in underline

Q. Nobody could come up with a satisfactory explanation for the illness.

Solution:

'Come up with' means thinking of a solution, excuse, etc.
Thus, no improvement is needed making option 4 as the correct answer.

QUESTION: 11

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Q. A place or scene of activity, debate, or conflict

Solution:

Out of the options mentioned above,
'Archives' means a collection of historical documents or records providing information about a place, institution, or group of people.

'Aviary' means a large, building, or enclosure for keeping birds.

'Abattoir' means a building where animals are butchered.

While
'Arena' means a place or scene of activity, debate, or conflictthus, making option 4 as the correct answer.

QUESTION: 12

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Q. A person who speaks more than one language

Solution:

Out of the options mentioned above,
'Recluse' means one who lives in solitude.
'Stoic' means a person who is indifferent to the pains and pleasures of life.
'Termagant' means a scolding nagging bad-tempered woman.

While
'Polyglot' means a person who speaks more than one language, thus, making option 2 as the correct answer.

QUESTION: 13

In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and indicate the number of that meaning as your answer.

Sit on the fence

Solution:

This idiom is used when someone does not want to choose or make a decision, thus making option 1 as the correct answer.

For example, The weakness of the book is that it sits on the fence on important issues.

QUESTION: 14

Choose the correctly spelt word from the given options.

Solution:

'Playwright' is a person who writes plays.
The appropriate spelling of the same is in option 1.
For example, A later playwright, James Hurdis, made More's career the subject of a play in 1792.

QUESTION: 15

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.

Environmental Pollution is an international journal that seeks to publish papers
P: new knowledge to science
Q: that addresses significant environmental pollution issues and problems and contribute
R: that report results from original, novel research

Solution:

R is the second part of the sentence as it continues to tell us what is reported by publishing papers by the journal.

Q is the third part of the sentence as it tells what is the aim of publishing the papers.

P is the fourth part of the sentence as it discusses the contribution of the international journal apart from addressing significant environmental issues and problems.

Thus, making the order of the rearranged sentences as RQP making option 3 as the correct answer.

QUESTION: 16

Choose the correctly spelt word from the given options.

Solution:

'Conscience' means a person's moral sense of right and wrong, viewed as acting as a guide to one's behaviour.
The appropriate spelling of the same is in option 2.
For example, He did the task for the sake of his conscience.

QUESTION: 17

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.

Considered to be one of the most
P: important roads in India, Rajpath,
Q: is where the annual Republic Day parade
R: takes place on 26 January

Solution:

P is the second part of the sentence as it continues to tell us what is considered what.

Q is the third part of the sentence as it tells what is Rajpath.

P is the fourth part of the sentence as it talks about when the annual Republic parade usually occurs. 

Thus, making the order of the rearranged sentences as PQR making option 1 as the correct answer.

QUESTION: 18

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

Q. The genie has granted Alladin three wishes.

Solution:

Since present perfect tense has been used in the active voice  ⇒ has/have been will be used in the passive voice. Option 2) is the most appropriate choice.

QUESTION: 19

In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

You were testing her.

Solution:

It is clear from the continuous form of the sentence that being will be used. He/she always goes with was, not were. Hence, Option 3) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 20

In the following question, a sentence has been given in direct/indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in indirect/direct speech.

Sumi said,"I love travelling alone."

Solution:

The correct form of tense to be used here is simple present as it is a habitual action . The complete sentence becomes :
Sumi said that she loves travelling alone.
As this is considered as the habitual activity so we do not have to change love into loved.
Option 2 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 21

In the following question, a sentence has been given in direct/indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in indirect/direct speech.

Q. Geeta asked Fatima if she would go out with her.

Solution:

The sentence is in indirect speech. The pronouns and the tense need to be changed accordingly. The words of the speaker should be mentioned in inverted commas. The word should be 'will' instead of 'would' in direct speech. Thus option 2 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 22

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Choose the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

The characteristics of functional illiteracy _____(1) from one culture to another, as some cultures _____(2) better reading and writing skills than others. A reading level that might be sufficient to _____(3) a farmer functionally literate in a rural area of a developing country might qualify as functional illiteracy ______(4) an urban area of a technologically advanced country. 

Q. Which of the following fits correctly in the blank(1)?

Solution:

The sentence gives a tone of change or a difference in the characteristics of functional literacy in various cultures. Thus the word 'vary' which means 'differ or alter' fits here the best. The word 'change' is less appropriate than option 3. The word 'dominate' means 'to have the maximum influence' and does not fit here. The word 'eliminates' means 'removes' and fails to convey any meaning here.

QUESTION: 23

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Choose the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

The characteristics of functional illiteracy _____(1) from one culture to another, as some cultures _____(2) better reading and writing skills than others. A reading level that might be sufficient to _____(3) a farmer functionally literate in a rural area of a developing country might qualify as functional illiteracy ______(4) an urban area of a technologically advanced country. 

Q. Which of the following fits correctly in the blank(2)?

Solution:

The correct form of the verb here should be 'require' as the tense here must be simple present. The whole sentence is in simple present tense thus option 1 and 3 are rejected. The subject here is plural which is 'some cultures' so the verb must be plural too, agreeing with the subject. Thus option 2 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 24

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Choose the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

The characteristics of functional illiteracy _____(1) from one culture to another, as some cultures _____(2) better reading and writing skills than others. A reading level that might be sufficient to _____(3) a farmer functionally literate in a rural area of a developing country might qualify as functional illiteracy ______(4) an urban area of a technologically advanced country. 

Q. Which of the following fits correctly in the blank(3)?

Solution:

The correct form of the verb here must be transitive form 'to make' as the preposition 'to' is already present before the blank. The verb in the participle form would be incorrect so option 1 is incorrect. Option 2 cannot fit as well. The verb in past perfect is incorrect too. Thus 3 is eliminated. Option 4 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 25

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Choose the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

The characteristics of functional illiteracy _____(1) from one culture to another, as some cultures _____(2) better reading and writing skills than others. A reading level that might be sufficient to _____(3) a farmer functionally literate in a rural area of a developing country might qualify as functional illiteracy ______(4) an urban area of a technologically advanced country. 

Q. Which of the following fits correctly in the blank(4)?

Solution:

The preposition here must refer to the location of a place thus 'in' is the correct preposition. 'In' is used to refer to a location or a place. 'Of' is used to indicate a reference or connection to something which cannot fit here. 'Within' means 'inside something' or 'in a particular time period'. 'At' is used to refer to a smaller place and is rejected. Thus 3 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 26

In the following question, select the one which is different from the other three responses.

Solution:

Here, all the symbols are logo of the respective Organizations except the image given below.

The above image is the logo of World Health Organization not BRICS.
Hence, the above image is different among the given alternatives.

QUESTION: 27

Using the expression VWY9PONI5FSLUDTG61AJ, find the missing term from the following series.

9WA, OOD, _______ , FD9

Solution:

The logic here is as follows,
9 + 2 = O; O + 2 = I; I + 2 = F
W + 4 = O; O + 4 = F; F + 4 = D
A – 5 = D; D – 5 = 5; 5 – 5 = 9
Thus, the missing term in the series is IF5.

QUESTION: 28

Select the set that does NOT belong in the following group of sets.

(2, 14, 16), (6, 30, 36), (5, 35, 40), (3, 21, 24)

Solution:

Set 1:
2 × 7 = 14
2 × 8 = 16

Set 2:
6 × 5 = 30
6 × 6 = 36

Set 3:
5 × 7 = 35
5 × 8 = 40

Set 4:
3 × 7 = 21
3 × 8 = 24

So in each set of numbers, the first number is multiplied by 7 and 8 to get second and third numbers respectively. But in set 2 first number is multiplied by 5 and 6 to get second and third number respectively.
Thus, set 2 does not belongs to the group.

QUESTION: 29

If C $ B means C is the brother of B. C % B means C is the father of B. C * B means C is the sister of B. C & B means C is the mother of B. Then how J is related to P, in expression "P * Q $ T % J & V”?

Solution:

Members: P, Q, T, J and V.
Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.


Expression: P * Q $ T % J & V means that,


Hence, J is the niece of P.

QUESTION: 30

Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

TLM : WRV :: VGI : ?

Solution:

The logic followed here is,


Hence, “YMR” is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 31

In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:
P < Q < R; R = S ≤ T

Conclusions:
I. Q > T
II. S > P

Solution:

Given statements: P < Q < R; R = S ≤ T
On combining: P < Q < R = S ≤ T

Conclusions:
I. Q > T → False (as Q < R and R = S ≤ T → Q < R = S ≤ T → Q ≤ T)
II. S > P → True (as P < Q < R; R = S → P < Q < R = S → P < S)
Hence, only conclusion II is true.

QUESTION: 32

Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain pattern. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 8 × 3 = 4690, then 14 × 16 = ?

Solution:

Data given is 82 × 32 = 4690,

82 = 64, interchange the numbers of square of 8, becomes 46.

32 = 9, interchange the numbers of square of 3, becomes 90.

Now, combining the interchanged square of numbers gives 4690

Similarly, 142 = 196, 162 = 256,

Combining the numbers after interchanging give 691652.

Hence, 691652 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 33

In a certain code ‘BUILT’ is written as ‘5#32@’ and ‘TRIBE’ is written as ‘@935©’. How is ‘RULE’ written in that code?

Solution:


So, the code for R is 9, U is #, L is 2 and E is ©
⇒ RULE is coded as 9#2©.

QUESTION: 34

Directions: In each of the following question, statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can be drawn definitely from the given statement.

Statement: 
Mr. F is one of the candidates shortlisted for the post of principal of our school.

Conclusions:
I. Mr. F will be selected as the principal of our school.
II. Mr. F will not be selected as the principal of our school.

Solution:

From the given statement, we can conclude the first thing that the post of principal in the school is vacant. There are some shortlisted candidates and Mr. F is one of the shortlisted candidates. So, it is a type of election for the post of the principal. The first conclusion states that Mr. F would be selected as the principal which either can be true or false. The reason is that we cannot predict the outcome of an election. Same goes for the second conclusion which states Mr. F would not be selected as the principal which is also either true or false. Therefore either of the conclusions follows.

QUESTION: 35

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow:

Admission in FIIT-JEE is going on for the IIT aspirants. To be eligible to take admission in the course, a candidate must fulfil the following requirements.
i) Score of the candidate in Class 12th must not be less than 85%.
ii) Candidate must have studied Maths as a subject in Class 12th.
iii) Candidate must score at least 65% in admission test.
iv) Candidate must score at least 50% in interview taken for admission test.

In the question below, detail of one candidate is provided. You have to take one of the following course of actions based on the conditions given above and the information provided in each question and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question.

Q. Aman has scored 96% in his 12th board exams, 65% in admission test and 70% in interview.

Solution:

Hence, Data is not sufficient to take any decision. 

QUESTION: 36

Select the jumbled word which is different from the other three alternative.

Solution:

1) URABB → BABUR
2) NUMAHYU → HUMAYUN
3) BARKA → AKBAR
4) HOASKA → ASHOKA
Except ‘ASHOKA’ all belong to the Mughal dynasty whereas ASHOKA does not.
Hence, “ASHOKA” is the odd one out.

QUESTION: 37

‘Battery' is related to 'Terminals' in the same way as ‘Magnet’ is related to ______.

Solution:

Two ends of a battery is called terminals. While two ends of a magnet is called poles.
Thus, ‘Magnet’ is related to ‘Poles’.

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following answer figure patterns when combined cannot make the question figure?

Solution:



Hence, the image in option 3 cannot make the question figure.

QUESTION: 39

A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in the question figure. From the given answer figure, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Solution:


Therefore, this will be the final image after folding and cutting.

QUESTION: 40

If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the correct image of the given figure?

Solution:

If a mirror is placed along AB line, then only the right and left part of the given image will be interchanged in the mirror image while everything else will remain the same. Thus, we will get the following mirror image:


Hence, we can say that option 2 is the correct mirror image of the image given in the question.

QUESTION: 41

If three group could be formed using the given figures only once, these group would be _____.

Solution:

In figure 1, 6 and 9 each half portion is covered with slanted straight lines.

In figures 2, 4 and 7 each shape is divided into equal parts.

In figures 3, 5 and 8 each figure has some shaded portion.

Thus, the required set is, (1, 9, 6), (2, 4, 7), and (3, 5, 8).

QUESTION: 42

Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A boy starts walking from point P and walks 1 km towards the south and stops at point Q. Now, he turns 45° to his left and walks 1 km to reach a point R. Now, he takes 135° left turn and walks 1 km to reach a point S. Finally, he turns 45° to his left and walks 1 km.

Q. What is the final position of the boy?

Solution:

Thus, the boy is standing at the starting point P.

QUESTION: 43

In the following question, select from the given alternatives the word which CAN be formed using the letters of the given word.

ENROLLMENT

Solution:

1) Tunnel → ENROLLMENT (Letter U is not present)
2) Rolled → ENROLLMENT (Letter D is not present)
3) Mention → ENROLLMENT (Letter I is not present)
4) Molten → ENROLLMENT (the word can be formed)
Hence, ‘Molten’ is the correct alternative.

QUESTION: 44

Which one of the given responses would be a general knowledge order of the following?

1. World Book Day
2. Children’s Day
3. Martyrs Day
4. Earth Day

Solution:

We know that,
World book day is on April 23.
Children’s day is on November 14.
Martyrs day is on January 30.
Earth day is on April 22.
The pattern followed here is:
3. Martyrs Day
4. Earth Day
1. World Book Day
2. Children’s Day
Hence, the answer is 3412.

QUESTION: 45

The present ages of P and Q are 15 years and 21 years respectively. What will be the respective ratio of the ages of P and Q after 6 years?

Solution:

Age of P after 6 years = 15 + 6 = 21
Age of Q after 6 years = 21 + 6 = 27
Required ratio = 21 : 27 = 7 : 9
Hence, the answer is ‘7 : 9’.

QUESTION: 46

In the following question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

p _ r s p q _ s p _ r _ p q r s

Solution:

Let’s check each option for any pattern,

The by letters in option 4 the pattern ‘pqrs’ is formed.

Thus, the correct set of letters which completes the pattern are ‘qrqs’

QUESTION: 47

Select the number missing from the given number series.

4, 9, 20, 44, ?

Solution:

Here series follows the following pattern,


5 × 2 + 1 = 11;
11 × 2 + 2 = 24;
24 × 2 + 3 = 51;
44 + 51 = 95
Hence 95 will complete the series.

QUESTION: 48

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Solution:

Clearly, fig.3 will complete the pattern when placed in the blank space of question figure as shown below:


Thus, figure 3 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 49

Direction: Arrange the given words in the order in which they will be arranged in a dictionary and choose the one that comes third.

i) Homeopathy
ii) Habitation
iii) Herbicide
iv) Herbivores
v) Hazardous

Solution:

The correct dictionary order is,

ii) Habitation
v) Hazardous
iii) Herbicide
iv) Herbivores
i) Homeopathy
Thus, the third word according to the dictionary is Herbicide.

QUESTION: 50

Three positions of a cubical dice are shown below. Find the number opposite to 5.

Solution:

From dice 1 and 3 (from left to right) we conclude that 6 and 4 lie adjacent to 5 and 2 both. Therefore, 2 must lie opposite 5.
Hence, the answer is ‘2’.

QUESTION: 51

Directions: The following chart shows types of movie liked by people.

Total number of people = 900

Q. What is the ratio between the number of people who likes comedy and thriller movies and number of people who likes Romance and Action movies?

Solution:

Total number of people = 900
∴ Number of people who like comedy movies = 900 × 10/100 = 90
∴ Number of people who likes Thriller movies = 900 × 30/100 = 270
∴ Number of people who likes Romance movies = 900 × 20/100 = 180
∴ Number of people who likes Action movies = 900 × 25/100 = 225
∴ Required Ratio = (90 + 270) ∶ (180 + 225) = 8 ∶ 9

QUESTION: 52

Directions: The following chart shows types of movie liked by people.

Total number of people = 900

Q. The number of people who like comedy movies is what percent of number of people who like action movies?

Solution:

Total number of people = 900
∴ Number of people who like comedy movies = 900 × 10/100 = 90
∴ Number of people who likes Action movies = 900 × 25/100 = 225
∴ Required Percentage = (90/225) × 100% = 40%

QUESTION: 53

Directions: The following chart shows types of movie liked by people.

Total number of people = 900

Q. What is the central angle corresponding to the sector of comedy movies?

Solution:

Total angle = 360°
∴ Angle corresponding to comedy movies = 360° × 10/100 = 36°

QUESTION: 54

Directions: The following chart shows types of movie liked by people.

Total number of people = 900

Q. What is the difference between the number of people who likes romance and action movies together and number of people who likes thriller movies?

Solution:

Total number of people = 900
∴ Number of people who likes Romance Movies,
⇒ 900 × 20/100 = 180
∴ Number of people who likes Action movies,
⇒ 900 × 25/100 = 225
∴ Number of people who likes Thriller movies,
⇒ 900 × 30/100 = 270
∴ Required difference = (180 + 225) – 270 = 135

QUESTION: 55

ABCD is a trapezium, AB and CD are two parallel sides. Diagonals AC and BD intersect at E. If AE = 4 cm, ED = 5 cm, BE = x – 5 cm and EC = x + 3 cm, find the value of x.

Solution:

According to the question,
AE × DE = BE × EC
⇒ 4/(x + 3) = (x – 5)/5
⇒ x2 – 2x – 35 = 0
⇒ x2 – 7x + 5x – 35 = 0
⇒ (x – 7)(x + 5) = 0
⇒ x = 7

QUESTION: 56

If A, B and C do a piece of work in 10, 15 and 18 days, respectively. Find the ratio of work done by them in a day.

Solution:

As we know, efficiency is inversely proportion to time.
∴ Required ratio = 1/10 : 1/ 15 : 1/18 = 9 : 6 : 5

QUESTION: 57

If A = √(7 + √48) and B = 1/A then find the value of (A – B).

Solution:

⇒ A = √(7 + √48)
⇒ A = √(7 + 4√3) = √{22 + (√3)2 + 2 × 2 × √3} = √(2 + √3)2 = (2 + √3)
⇒ A = 1/B = 1/(2 + √3)
⇒ {1/(2 + √3)} × [(2 – √3) / (2 – √3)] = (2 – √3)
⇒ A – B = (2 + √3) – (2 – √3) = 2√3

QUESTION: 58

If the price of a book is the first increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net change in the price of the book?

Solution:

Short Trick:
Net percentage change = 20 – 20 + 20 × (-20)/100 = -4%
∴ There is a decrease of 4%.

Detailed solution:
Let the original price of the book be Rs x.
∴ After increase of 20% in price
⇒ x + [x × (20/100)] = Rs 1.2x
∴ After decrease of 20% in price
⇒ 1.2x – [1.2x × (20/100)] = 0.96x
∴ Net decrease in the price of book
⇒ [(x – 0.96x)/x] × 100% = 4%
∴ Price of the book is decreased 4%.

QUESTION: 59

What are the factors of x+ 4x- 11x - 30?

Solution:

x+ 4x- 11x - 30, since the constant (-30) is negative, so product of constant numbers of factors must be negative also,
Option 1: -30 = -30
Option 2: +30 ≠ -30
Option 3: +30 ≠ -30
Option 4: -30 = -30
⇒ Answer is either option 1 or 4
On substituting the values of factors from option 1 and option 4, option 4 gives the required equation,
∴ (x + 2), (x - 3) and (x + 5) are the factors of x+ 4x- 11x - 30.

QUESTION: 60

A man gives 20% discount and earns 20% profit by selling an article for Rs. 1000. Had he sold the article at 10% discount, then what would be the profit percentage?

Solution:

A man gives 20% discount,
⇒ ratio of MP ∶ SP = 5 ∶ 4      ---- 1
and he earns 20% profit,
⇒ ratio of CP ∶ SP = 5 ∶ 6      ---- 2
From equation 1 and 2,
⇒ CP ∶ SP ∶ MP = 10 ∶ 12 ∶ 15      ----- 3
Had he sold the article at 10% discount,
⇒ SP = 13.5
∴ Profit percent = 3.5/10 × 100 = 35%

QUESTION: 61

There are two cans, out of which one can contains 30% diesel and the rest is kerosene and the other can contains 20% diesel and the rest is kerosene. Find the difference between the amounts of kerosene that should be mixed from containers to get 35 litres of kerosene so that the ratio of diesel to kerosene is 2 : 5.

Solution:

Let the cost of 1 litre kerosene be Rs.100
Kerosene in 1 litre mix in 1st can = 7/10
Cost price of 1 litre kerosene in 1st can = 70
Kerosene in 1 litre mix in 2nd can = 8/10
Cost price of 1 litre kerosene in 2nd can = 80
Kerosene in 1 litre of mixture = 5/7 litres
Mean price of mixture = 500/7
By rule of Alligation,
Ratio of kerosene mixed from containers
= (500/7 – 70) : (80 – 500/7) = 1 : 6
Total mixture = 35 litres
Required difference in amount = 35 × 6/7 – 35 × 1/7 = 25 litres 

QUESTION: 62

A spherical metal ball of radius 12 cm is melted and recast into three spherical balls. The radii of two of these balls is 6 cm and 10 cm. What is the radius of the third ball?

Solution:

Let the radius of the third ball be x cm
According to the question,
⇒ 4/3 π × 123 = 4/3 π × 63 + 4/3 π × 103 + 4/3 π × x3
⇒ 1728 = 216 + 1000 + x3
⇒ x3 = 512
⇒ x = 8
∴ Radius of the third ball = 8 cm

QUESTION: 63

The salary of Mahesh, Ramesh, Suresh and Rakesh is in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. Mahesh invested his all salary at 10% simple interest rate and earned a profit of 1000 rupees. Find the combined salary of Suresh and Rakesh.

Solution:

Let the salary of Mahesh be x.
⇒ x × (1 + 10%) = x + 1000
⇒ 1.1x = x + 1000
⇒ x = 10000
Combined salaries of Suresh and Rakesh
⇒ (10000/1) × (3 + 4) = 70000

QUESTION: 64

What is the difference between the average of the first 79 natural numbers and the average of the first 39 natural numbers?

Solution:

∵ Sum of the first n natural numbers = n(n + 1)/2
⇒ Average of the first n natural numbers = n(n + 1)/2 × 1/n = (n + 1)/2

Hence,
Average of the first 79 natural numbers = (79 + 1)/2 = 80/2 = 40
Average of the first 39 natural numbers = (39 + 1)/2 = 40/2 = 20
∴ Required difference = 40 - 20 = 20

QUESTION: 65

If a : (b + c) = 1 : 3, c : (a + b) = 5 : 7, then find the value of b : (a + c).

Solution:

a : (b + c) = 1 : 3       ----(1)
c : (a + b) = 5 : 7       ----(2)
From equation 2, a + b + c = 12,
Equation 1 can be written as, a : (b + c) = 3 : 9       ----(3)
⇒ a = 3, b = 4 and c = 5
∴ b : (a + c) = 4 : 8 = 1 : 2

QUESTION: 66

The sum of three consecutive numbers is 123. What is the largest number?

Solution:

Let the smallest number be x.
The middle number = x + 1
The largest number = x + 2
According to the question,
⇒ x + x + 1 + x + 2 = 123
⇒ 3x + 3 = 123
⇒ x = 40
∴ The largest number = 40 + 2 = 42

QUESTION: 67

What will be the remainder when we divide ((27)32 + 29) by 28?

Solution:

Remainder when (27)32 divided by 28 = (-1)32 = 1
Remainder when 29 divided by 28 = 1
Total remainder = 2

QUESTION: 68

A and B are running from the same place in the same direction at the speed of 7 km/hr and 4 km/hr respectively. After 20 minutes what will be the distance between them?

Solution:

⇒ Relative speed of A and B = (7 – 4) = 3 km/hr
∴ Distance between them after 20 min = 3 × (20/60)
⇒ 1 km = 1000 m

QUESTION: 69

If (a + b) = 5 and (a - b) = 3, find the value of (a3 + 3ab2).

Solution:

a + b = 5      ---- (1)
a - b = 3      ----(2)
Solving equation (1) and (2)
a = 4 and b = 1
⇒ (a3 + 3ab2) = [43 + 3 × 4 × 12] = 64 + 12 = 76

QUESTION: 70

The average of 20 numbers is 30 and that of other 30 numbers is 50. What is the average of all the numbers?

Solution:

Sum of the first 20 numbers = No. of numbers × Average = 20 × 30 = 600

Sum of the next 30 numbers = No. of numbers × Average = 30 × 50 = 1500

Total Sum of both the sets of numbers = 2100

Total numbers = 50

Average = Total Sum of both the sets of numbers/Total numbers = 2100/50 = 42

QUESTION: 71

Kaushik bought a toy for Rs. 160 and sold it for Rs. 180. The rate of profit was _______%

Solution:

CP = Rs. 160 and SP = Rs. 180
Profit percentage = [(180 - 160)/160] × 100 = 12.5%

QUESTION: 72

Roshan’s current age is three years less than 1.5 times Usha’s age. 12 years ago, Usha's age was three years more than half of Roshan’s age. What is Roshan’s present age in years?

Solution:

Let, Roshan and Usha age be M and N years respectively

Roshan’s current age is three years less than 1.5 times Usha’s age,
⇒ M = 1.5 N – 3
⇒ N = (M + 3)/1.5

12 years ago, Usha's age was three years more than half of Roshan’s age,
⇒ (N – 12) = (M – 12)/2 + 3
⇒ 2 N – 24 = M – 12 + 6
⇒ 2 N – M = 18
⇒ 2(3 + M)/1.5 – M = 18
⇒ 6 + 2 M – 1.5 M = 27
⇒ 0.5 M = 21
⇒ M = 42
∴ Roshan age is 42 years.

QUESTION: 73

 

If A = 2 then find the value of 

Solution:


put A = 2


QUESTION: 74

The price of sugar is decreased by 20%, due to which a family purchases 20 kg more sugar for Rs. 400. Find the original price per kg of the sugar.

Solution:

Let the original price of the sugar be 100x,
⇒ After 20% decrease, price would be 80x
⇒ Ratio = 100x ∶ 80x = 5x ∶ 4x
Due to this a family purchases 20 kg more sugar for Rs. 400,
⇒ x = 20
⇒ original consumption of sugar = 20 × 4 = 80 kg
∴ original price of sugar = 400/80 = Rs. 5/kg

Alternative solution:

Let the original price of 1 kg sugar be x and quantity purchased for Rs. 400 be y kg
So, xy = 400

When price is reduced by 20%, price of 1 kg sugar = 0.8x and the quantity of sugar purchased for Rs. 400 will be y + 20 kg
So, (0.8x) × (y + 20) = 400
0.8xy + 16x = 400
320 + 16x = 400
16x = 80
∴ x = Rs. 5/Kg

QUESTION: 75

If the sum of two numbers be multiplied by each number separately, the products so obtained are 247 and 114. What is the sum of the numbers?

Solution:

Let the two numbers be x and y
Sum of numbers = (x + y)
Product of numbers = x × (x + y)and y × (x + y)
(x2 + xy) = 247
(y2 + xy) = 114
Dividing both the equations, we get
x/y = 247/114
y = (6/13)x
Substituting the value of y in first equation we get
x2 + (6x2/13) = 247
(19/13)x2 = 247 ⇒ x = 13
y = (6/13) × 13 = 6
Sum of numbers = (x + y) = (13 + 6) = 19

QUESTION: 76

Who has built the Vijay Stambha (tower of victory) in Chittorgarh?

Solution:

The Vijaya Stambha is a victory monument which is located inside the premises of Chittorgarh fort in Chittorgarh, Rajasthan. The tower was constructed by the Mewar king, Rana Kumbha, in 1448 to commemorate his victory over the armies of Malwa and Gujarat led by Mahmud Khilji.

QUESTION: 77

An adiabatic process occurs at constant ________.

Solution:
  • An adiabatic process is a thermodynamic process in which there is no exchange of heat between the system and surrounding, that is, the heat remains constant.
  • The thermodynamic process in which temperature remains constant is called isothermal process.
  • An isobaric process is a thermodynamic process in which the pressure remains constant.
QUESTION: 78

The number of electrons present in H+ is ________.

Solution:
  • With atomic number 1, hydrogen, H, has 1 electron and 1 proton in its atom.
  • When this atom loses its one electron, it has zero electrons left and it becomes an H+ ion in which the '+' sign indicates the loss of an electron.
QUESTION: 79

Malaria is caused by ________.

Solution:
  • Transmitted through the bite of a female anopheles mosquito, malaria is a life-threatening disease that is caused by a parasitic protozoan of genus Plasmodium.
  • Once in the blood, the parasite travels to the liver where it transforms into different stages and on maturation, the parasite leaves the liver and the blood cells.
  • Symptoms of malaria include headache, fever, chills, muscle pain, nausea, and in severe cases, seizures, coma, and even death. 
QUESTION: 80

Who was the Governor General of India during the Revolt of 1857?

Solution:
  • Lord Canning was the Governor General of India during the Revolt of 1857 and he is admired for his calm demeanor and for ensuring that the various government departments and the administration worked smoothly even during the revolt.
  • He succeeded Lord Dalhousie as the Governor-general and was in the office from 1856 to 1862.
  • He also became the first Viceroy of India in 1858.
QUESTION: 81

"The Idea of Justice" is written by ______.

Solution:
  • THE IDEA OF JUSTICE is written by economist Amartya Sen in 2009.
  • Other books by Amartya Sen are:-

The Argumentative Indian, Inequality Reexamined, The country of First boys, Rationality, and Freedom. etc

QUESTION: 82

Who was the first proponent of the creation of the Pakistan?

Solution:
  • Choudhry Rahmat Ali was a Pakistani nationalist.
  • He is known as the first proponent of the creation of Pakistan.
  • He is also credited with coining the term 'Pakistan'.
  • Famous slogan given by him - 'Now or Never; Are We to Live or Perish Forever".
QUESTION: 83

Who was the first female Judge of India?

Solution:
  • Justice Anna Chandy became the first female judge of India.
  • She also became the first woman in India to become a High Court judge.
  • Fathima Beevi was the first female judge to be a part of the Supreme Court of India.
QUESTION: 84

Who wrote the book “The God of Small Things”?

Solution:
  • ‘The God of small things’ was written by Arundhati Roy.
  • She was also awarded man Booker prize for this book in the year 1997. 
QUESTION: 85

Who secured a record-breaking 7th win at the 2019 Canadian Grand Prix?.

Solution:
  • Lewis Hamilton secured a record-breaking 7th win at the 2019 Canadian Grand Prix after Sebastian Vettel was penalised for dangerous driving.
  • A five-second race time penalty was given to Vettel.
  • Ferrari will appeal against the decision over the five-second penalty given to Vettel which costed him the race.
QUESTION: 86

Which of the following is used in the preparation of tincture iodine, cough syrup and many tonics?

Solution:
  • Ethanol is used in the preparation of tincture iodine, cough syrup and many tonics.
  • Because it is a good solvent, it is used in many medicines such as tincture of iodine, cough syrup and tonics.
  • It is used as an antiseptic cream or lotion for the purpose of hand sanitizer and clinical practice.
  • It is also used as an antidote to methanol poisoning.
  • It is volatile and colourless liquid with a mild odour.

QUESTION: 87

How many members can be nominated in Rajya Sabha?

Solution:

Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha as 250, out of which 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are representatives of the States and of the two Union Territories.

QUESTION: 88

Buland Darwaza built by Akbar is in which city?

Solution:

Buland Darwaza, or the "Gate of Magnificence", was built in 1601 A.D. by Akbar to commemorate his victory over Gujarat. It is the main entrance to the palace at Fatehpur Sikri, a town which is 43 km from Agra, India. Buland Darwaza is the highest gateway in the world and is an example of Mughal architecture. It displays Akbar's empire.

QUESTION: 89

All changes in climate and weather take place in which layer of the atmosphere?

Solution:

The atmosphere is the gaseous envelope surrounding the Earth. There are five different layers of atmosphere:

QUESTION: 90

In which country the starting of Rath Yatra was celebrated at a number of places in July 2019?

Solution:
  • In Bangladesh, the starting of Rath Yatra was celebrated at a number of places on 4 July 2019.
  • In Dhaka ISKCON and other religious bodies celebrated the Rath Yatra with several programmes in the city.
  • The centuries-old Rath Yatra started from the Madhav Temple at Dhamrai in Bangladesh with devotees singing Kirtans in the praise of Lord Jagannath
QUESTION: 91

What does a lux meter measure?

Solution:
  • Commonly used in photography, a lux meter or light meter is a device that is used to measure the intensity of light.
  • Equipped with digital and analog circuits, a lux meter allows the photographer to determine the proper exposure for photography.
QUESTION: 92

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Solution:
  • Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is famous for the phumdis floating over it. The lake is located near Moirang in Manipur state, India
  • The Sambhar Salt Lake, India's largest inland Salt Lake, is located 96 km southwest of the city of Jaipur and 64 km northeast of Ajmer along National Highway 8 in Rajasthan.
  • Lonar Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument saline soda lake located at Lonar in Buldhana district, Maharashtra, India.
  • Hussain Sagar is a heart-shaped lake in Hyderabad built by Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah and named after Hussain Shah Wali. It is spread across an area of 5.7 square kilometers and is fed by River Musi.
QUESTION: 93

Who became the World Boxing Council (WBC) Asia silver welterweight champion in 2019?

Solution:
  • Indian pro boxer Vaibhav Yadav became the World Boxing Council (WBC) Asia silver welterweight champion.
  • He defeated Thailand's Fahpetch Singmanassak in the title bout held in Pattaya, Thailand.
  • The fight, which took place, was conducted by the Asian Boxing Council and approved by the WBC.
QUESTION: 94

Saturated Hydrocarbons are called ________.

Solution:
  • Saturated Hydrocarbons are called alkanes.
  • Alkanes are saturated compounds because they have a single bond between Carbon and Hydrogen.
  • Every Carbon is bounded by 4 Hydrogen atoms, hence the valency of carbon is zero.
  • Among alkane, alkyne, alkene, the alkanes are the least reactive and thus alkanes are called saturated compounds.
QUESTION: 95

Which of the following worms causes elephantiasis?

Solution:
  • Lymphatic Filariasis commonly known as Elephantiasis is one of the oldest tropical Diseases which is caused by Filarial worms.
  • Filarial worms are the human parasitic roundworm known as Wuchereria Bancrofti.
  • Elephantiasis is spread by a mosquito named Culex, which mainly grows in dirty accumulated water.
QUESTION: 96

The famous Brihadishvara Temple was built by which emperor?

Solution:
  • The famous Brihadishvara Temple was built by Rajaraja Chola I (reign 985 - 1014 CE) of the Chola Dynasty (848 CE - 1279 CE) of the Tamil Nadu.
  • The temple is located in Thanjavur and is one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
  • Narsimha Deva I (reign 1238 - 1264 A.D) of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty built the Konark Sun Temple of Odisha.
  • Deva Raya II (reign 1425-1446 CE) was one of the greatest ruler of the Sangama Dynasty.
  • Maravarman Sundara Pandyan I (reign 1216 - 1238 CE) led to the revival of the Pandyans after Cholas dominated for several centuries.
QUESTION: 97

Who has won the Miss Universe Australia title for 2019?

Solution:
  • Priya Serrao has won the Miss Universe Australia title for 2019.
  • She will now represent Australia in the Miss Universe competition later this year.
  • Western Australia’s Bella Kasimba and another Victorian Marijana Radmanovic rounded out 2019’s top three, placing second and third.
QUESTION: 98

Who broke the record for the first wicket partnership for India at the ICC cricket World Cups in July 2019?

Solution:
  • Rohit Sharma and KL Rahul broke the record for the first wicket partnership for India at the ICC cricket World Cups.
  • The duo added 180 for the first wicket against Bangladesh at Edgbaston which is the record for India at the World Cups.
  • Previous best was between Rohit Sharma and Shikhar Dhawan at Seddon Park in Hamilton during the 2015 World Cup.
  • India went on to win the match by 8 wickets
QUESTION: 99

The Nahargarh Fort is located in ________.

Solution:
  • The Nahargarh Fort is located in Jaipur, on the edge of the Aravalli range.
  • It was mainly built by Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh in 1734 and along with the Jaigarh Fort and the Amer Fort, it formed a defence ring around the city.
QUESTION: 100

Implantation is the process of ________.

Solution:
  • Implantation is the process of attachment of zygote to the lining of a uterus.
  • When the fertilized egg pushes itself into the tissue on the wall of the uterus, it is called implantation.
  • The fertilized egg implants itself in the wall.
  • The egg is fertilized up in the fallopian tube then travels to the uterus but floats for many days.
  • When it implants in the tissue lining the uterus, it is the beginning of pregnancy. 

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