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Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 1

Over the past century, life expectancy has increased dramatically and the world will soon have more old people than children. This social transformation represents both challenges and opportunities.

Countries and health care systems will need to find innovative and sustainable ways to cope with the demographic shift. John Beard, director of the WHO Department of Ageing and Life Course, says that "with the rapid ageing of populations, finding the right model for long-term care becomes more and more urgent." The Madrid International Plan of Action on Ageing (MIPAA) is a resource for policy-makers, suggesting ways for governments, non-governmental organizations and other stakeholders to reorient the ways in which their societies perceive, interact with and care for their older citizens, as two billion people will be aged 60 and above by 2050.

Old age consists of ages nearing or surpassing the average life span of human beings. The United Nations World Assembly on Ageing, held in Vienna in 1982, formulated a package of recommendations which gives high priority to research related to developmental and humanitarian aspects of ageing (United Nations, 1987).

The plan of action specifically recommends that "international exchange and research cooperation as well as data collection should be promoted in all the fields having a bearing on ageing, in order to provide a rational basis for future social policies and action. Special emphasis should be placed on comparative and cross cultural studies in ageing."

Many people develop disabilities in later life related to the wear and tear of ageing (e.g., arthritis) or the onset of a chronic disease, (e.g., lung cancer, diabetes and peripheral vascular disease) or a degenerative illness (e.g., dementia). But disabilities associated with ageing and the onset of chronic disease can be prevented or delayed.

The traditional Indian society and the age-old joint family system have been instrumental in safeguarding the social and economic security of the elderly people. However, with rapid changes in society and the emergence of nuclear families in India in recent years, the elderly are likely to be exposed to emotional, physical and financial insecurity in the years to come.

Q. Why will the world soon have more old people than children?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 1 The answer is stated in the first paragraph where the author says that there has been a rather dramatic increase in life expectancy and therefore, there will soon come a time when there will be more old people in the world than children. Hence, the correct answer is option (b).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 2

Over the past century, life expectancy has increased dramatically and the world will soon have more old people than children. This social transformation represents both challenges and opportunities.

Countries and health care systems will need to find innovative and sustainable ways to cope with the demographic shift. John Beard, director of the WHO Department of Ageing and Life Course, says that "with the rapid ageing of populations, finding the right model for long-term care becomes more and more urgent." The Madrid International Plan of Action on Ageing (MIPAA) is a resource for policy-makers, suggesting ways for governments, non-governmental organizations and other stakeholders to reorient the ways in which their societies perceive, interact with and care for their older citizens, as two billion people will be aged 60 and above by 2050.

Old age consists of ages nearing or surpassing the average life span of human beings. The United Nations World Assembly on Ageing, held in Vienna in 1982, formulated a package of recommendations which gives high priority to research related to developmental and humanitarian aspects of ageing (United Nations, 1987).

The plan of action specifically recommends that "international exchange and research cooperation as well as data collection should be promoted in all the fields having a bearing on ageing, in order to provide a rational basis for future social policies and action. Special emphasis should be placed on comparative and cross cultural studies in ageing."

Many people develop disabilities in later life related to the wear and tear of ageing (e.g., arthritis) or the onset of a chronic disease, (e.g., lung cancer, diabetes and peripheral vascular disease) or a degenerative illness (e.g., dementia). But disabilities associated with ageing and the onset of chronic disease can be prevented or delayed.

The traditional Indian society and the age-old joint family system have been instrumental in safeguarding the social and economic security of the elderly people. However, with rapid changes in society and the emergence of nuclear families in India in recent years, the elderly are likely to be exposed to emotional, physical and financial insecurity in the years to come.

Q. Which of the following forms the central theme of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 2 Right from the first paragraph, the passage talks about old people, ageing and old age. Therefore, the best answer is option (a).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 3

Over the past century, life expectancy has increased dramatically and the world will soon have more old people than children. This social transformation represents both challenges and opportunities.

Countries and health care systems will need to find innovative and sustainable ways to cope with the demographic shift. John Beard, director of the WHO Department of Ageing and Life Course, says that "with the rapid ageing of populations, finding the right model for long-term care becomes more and more urgent." The Madrid International Plan of Action on Ageing (MIPAA) is a resource for policy-makers, suggesting ways for governments, non-governmental organizations and other stakeholders to reorient the ways in which their societies perceive, interact with and care for their older citizens, as two billion people will be aged 60 and above by 2050.

Old age consists of ages nearing or surpassing the average life span of human beings. The United Nations World Assembly on Ageing, held in Vienna in 1982, formulated a package of recommendations which gives high priority to research related to developmental and humanitarian aspects of ageing (United Nations, 1987).

The plan of action specifically recommends that "international exchange and research cooperation as well as data collection should be promoted in all the fields having a bearing on ageing, in order to provide a rational basis for future social policies and action. Special emphasis should be placed on comparative and cross cultural studies in ageing."

Many people develop disabilities in later life related to the wear and tear of ageing (e.g., arthritis) or the onset of a chronic disease, (e.g., lung cancer, diabetes and peripheral vascular disease) or a degenerative illness (e.g., dementia). But disabilities associated with ageing and the onset of chronic disease can be prevented or delayed.

The traditional Indian society and the age-old joint family system have been instrumental in safeguarding the social and economic security of the elderly people. However, with rapid changes in society and the emergence of nuclear families in India in recent years, the elderly are likely to be exposed to emotional, physical and financial insecurity in the years to come.

Q. What is the meaning of the word 'demographic' as used in the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 3 'Demographic' is an adjective. It is in related to the structure of populations. Thus, option (a) is the correct choice.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 4

Over the past century, life expectancy has increased dramatically and the world will soon have more old people than children. This social transformation represents both challenges and opportunities.

Countries and health care systems will need to find innovative and sustainable ways to cope with the demographic shift. John Beard, director of the WHO Department of Ageing and Life Course, says that "with the rapid ageing of populations, finding the right model for long-term care becomes more and more urgent." The Madrid International Plan of Action on Ageing (MIPAA) is a resource for policy-makers, suggesting ways for governments, non-governmental organizations and other stakeholders to reorient the ways in which their societies perceive, interact with and care for their older citizens, as two billion people will be aged 60 and above by 2050.

Old age consists of ages nearing or surpassing the average life span of human beings. The United Nations World Assembly on Ageing, held in Vienna in 1982, formulated a package of recommendations which gives high priority to research related to developmental and humanitarian aspects of ageing (United Nations, 1987).

The plan of action specifically recommends that "international exchange and research cooperation as well as data collection should be promoted in all the fields having a bearing on ageing, in order to provide a rational basis for future social policies and action. Special emphasis should be placed on comparative and cross cultural studies in ageing."

Many people develop disabilities in later life related to the wear and tear of ageing (e.g., arthritis) or the onset of a chronic disease, (e.g., lung cancer, diabetes and peripheral vascular disease) or a degenerative illness (e.g., dementia). But disabilities associated with ageing and the onset of chronic disease can be prevented or delayed.

The traditional Indian society and the age-old joint family system have been instrumental in safeguarding the social and economic security of the elderly people. However, with rapid changes in society and the emergence of nuclear families in India in recent years, the elderly are likely to be exposed to emotional, physical and financial insecurity in the years to come.

Q. Which of the following is a disease NOT associated with ageing?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 4 All of the diseases except for option (c) are mentioned in the passage. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 5

Over the past century, life expectancy has increased dramatically and the world will soon have more old people than children. This social transformation represents both challenges and opportunities.

Countries and health care systems will need to find innovative and sustainable ways to cope with the demographic shift. John Beard, director of the WHO Department of Ageing and Life Course, says that "with the rapid ageing of populations, finding the right model for long-term care becomes more and more urgent." The Madrid International Plan of Action on Ageing (MIPAA) is a resource for policy-makers, suggesting ways for governments, non-governmental organizations and other stakeholders to reorient the ways in which their societies perceive, interact with and care for their older citizens, as two billion people will be aged 60 and above by 2050.

Old age consists of ages nearing or surpassing the average life span of human beings. The United Nations World Assembly on Ageing, held in Vienna in 1982, formulated a package of recommendations which gives high priority to research related to developmental and humanitarian aspects of ageing (United Nations, 1987).

The plan of action specifically recommends that "international exchange and research cooperation as well as data collection should be promoted in all the fields having a bearing on ageing, in order to provide a rational basis for future social policies and action. Special emphasis should be placed on comparative and cross cultural studies in ageing."

Many people develop disabilities in later life related to the wear and tear of ageing (e.g., arthritis) or the onset of a chronic disease, (e.g., lung cancer, diabetes and peripheral vascular disease) or a degenerative illness (e.g., dementia). But disabilities associated with ageing and the onset of chronic disease can be prevented or delayed.

The traditional Indian society and the age-old joint family system have been instrumental in safeguarding the social and economic security of the elderly people. However, with rapid changes in society and the emergence of nuclear families in India in recent years, the elderly are likely to be exposed to emotional, physical and financial insecurity in the years to come.

Q. What is the tone of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 5 The passage is very neutral and mostly talks about facts. It is unbiased and does not have the author's opinion and therefore, the tone can be said to be option (a) - 'objective'.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 6

Weaver sees hypocrisy in the World Bank as a predictable feature in a large international organization especially when viewed using resource dependency (viewing the competitive environment) and sociological institutionalism (the authorising environment). The Bank's emphasis on organizational survival and legitimacy shows itself in its interactions with multiple actors in its competitive and authoritarian environments. Many critics of the Bank simply see the Bank as unable to achieve the goals it sets and help its client states. Weaver however launches into an in-depth description of two "worlds"-the World's Bank and the Bank's World. The former indicates the complex structure of the Bank including its donor states, client states, its private capital markets and the watchdog Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs). Weaver's examination reveals the various pressures exerted on the Bank and the degree of American influence on the bank.

In as much as the Bank is pressured from many sides, Weaver notes a strong degree of operational authority and autonomy in the "Bank's World". This stems from the complexity of its operations, some which are not open to extensive review. Second the diversity of member states allows the Bank some autonomy and most importantly, the Bank holds a strong monopoly over development related knowledge. This control of ideas is coupled with a technocratic and economic rationality, reinforced with the influx of Western trained neo-classical economists. Bank ideological coherence is also maintained by the editing of reports to align with neoliberal beliefs. It is within these strong intellectual norms that Weaver examines World Bank reforms. Contrary to some critics, the Bank did engage in reforms in the 1990s. The Strategic Compact arose as a need to transform the Bank back as an effort to re-orientate itself as the premier development agency, after external criticism and an internal evaluation. The first aim of streamlining bureaucracy was easily reached however the aim of being more "poverty focused and accountable" came at odds with the technical, economic and apolitical rationality. New efforts such as listening to clients and conducting consultations clashed with the existing approval culture. Overall, changes occurred but still the approval culture remained strong.

Similarly, the focus on good governance was not that effective with apolitical stances amongst staff.

Furthermore, the dominating neo-liberal mindset resulted in governance issues framed with economic objectives in mind. Just as with the Strategic Compact, Weaver notes that governance reform challenged the Bank's conventional method of conducting business.

Weaver does qualify that the constant need to placate the demands of various external groups also hampered Bank reform. She however noted that the Bank deep culture will prevent any productive change. Weaver thus delves away from the normal criticism of the World Bank to explain the reasons of Bank actions and activities.

She shed a new light noting that such hypocrisy is a tenet in any large international organisation. In order for any improvement to the World Bank, it is not simply the initiation of change but the need to re work the internal settings of one of the world's most important development groups.

Q. Under which environments does Weaver assess World Bank's hypocrisy?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 6 The answer is (d) and this has been given in the first paragraph. Combative is a synonym of competitive but with a negative connotation and it does not fit into the context of the paragraph.

Democratic is an antonym for authoritarian.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 7

Weaver sees hypocrisy in the World Bank as a predictable feature in a large international organization especially when viewed using resource dependency (viewing the competitive environment) and sociological institutionalism (the authorising environment). The Bank's emphasis on organizational survival and legitimacy shows itself in its interactions with multiple actors in its competitive and authoritarian environments. Many critics of the Bank simply see the Bank as unable to achieve the goals it sets and help its client states. Weaver however launches into an in-depth description of two "worlds"-the World's Bank and the Bank's World. The former indicates the complex structure of the Bank including its donor states, client states, its private capital markets and the watchdog Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs). Weaver's examination reveals the various pressures exerted on the Bank and the degree of American influence on the bank.

In as much as the Bank is pressured from many sides, Weaver notes a strong degree of operational authority and autonomy in the "Bank's World". This stems from the complexity of its operations, some which are not open to extensive review. Second the diversity of member states allows the Bank some autonomy and most importantly, the Bank holds a strong monopoly over development related knowledge. This control of ideas is coupled with a technocratic and economic rationality, reinforced with the influx of Western trained neo-classical economists. Bank ideological coherence is also maintained by the editing of reports to align with neoliberal beliefs. It is within these strong intellectual norms that Weaver examines World Bank reforms. Contrary to some critics, the Bank did engage in reforms in the 1990s. The Strategic Compact arose as a need to transform the Bank back as an effort to re-orientate itself as the premier development agency, after external criticism and an internal evaluation. The first aim of streamlining bureaucracy was easily reached however the aim of being more "poverty focused and accountable" came at odds with the technical, economic and apolitical rationality. New efforts such as listening to clients and conducting consultations clashed with the existing approval culture. Overall, changes occurred but still the approval culture remained strong.

Similarly, the focus on good governance was not that effective with apolitical stances amongst staff.

Furthermore, the dominating neo-liberal mindset resulted in governance issues framed with economic objectives in mind. Just as with the Strategic Compact, Weaver notes that governance reform challenged the Bank's conventional method of conducting business.

Weaver does qualify that the constant need to placate the demands of various external groups also hampered Bank reform. She however noted that the Bank deep culture will prevent any productive change. Weaver thus delves away from the normal criticism of the World Bank to explain the reasons of Bank actions and activities.

She shed a new light noting that such hypocrisy is a tenet in any large international organisation. In order for any improvement to the World Bank, it is not simply the initiation of change but the need to re work the internal settings of one of the world's most important development groups.

Q. It can be inferred that Weaver's attitude to the World Bank is best reflected in which of the following statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 7 The question asks for the statement which most reflects Weaver's attitude. In the first and last paragraphs of the passage, Weaver agrees that the World Bank is a hypocritical organization she also moves away from this to look at how it can move away from this. Option (a) does not answer this question entirely and instead criticizes the bank.

Option (b) is the best answer in the context of the entire passage. Option (c) has never been stated nor implied by Weaver, it is what other critics have said about the Bank. Option (d) has to do with the failed reforms of the 1990s and not the time period the author is writing in.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 8

Weaver sees hypocrisy in the World Bank as a predictable feature in a large international organization especially when viewed using resource dependency (viewing the competitive environment) and sociological institutionalism (the authorising environment). The Bank's emphasis on organizational survival and legitimacy shows itself in its interactions with multiple actors in its competitive and authoritarian environments. Many critics of the Bank simply see the Bank as unable to achieve the goals it sets and help its client states. Weaver however launches into an in-depth description of two "worlds"-the World's Bank and the Bank's World. The former indicates the complex structure of the Bank including its donor states, client states, its private capital markets and the watchdog Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs). Weaver's examination reveals the various pressures exerted on the Bank and the degree of American influence on the bank.

In as much as the Bank is pressured from many sides, Weaver notes a strong degree of operational authority and autonomy in the "Bank's World". This stems from the complexity of its operations, some which are not open to extensive review. Second the diversity of member states allows the Bank some autonomy and most importantly, the Bank holds a strong monopoly over development related knowledge. This control of ideas is coupled with a technocratic and economic rationality, reinforced with the influx of Western trained neo-classical economists. Bank ideological coherence is also maintained by the editing of reports to align with neoliberal beliefs. It is within these strong intellectual norms that Weaver examines World Bank reforms. Contrary to some critics, the Bank did engage in reforms in the 1990s. The Strategic Compact arose as a need to transform the Bank back as an effort to re-orientate itself as the premier development agency, after external criticism and an internal evaluation. The first aim of streamlining bureaucracy was easily reached however the aim of being more "poverty focused and accountable" came at odds with the technical, economic and apolitical rationality. New efforts such as listening to clients and conducting consultations clashed with the existing approval culture. Overall, changes occurred but still the approval culture remained strong.

Similarly, the focus on good governance was not that effective with apolitical stances amongst staff.

Furthermore, the dominating neo-liberal mindset resulted in governance issues framed with economic objectives in mind. Just as with the Strategic Compact, Weaver notes that governance reform challenged the Bank's conventional method of conducting business.

Weaver does qualify that the constant need to placate the demands of various external groups also hampered Bank reform. She however noted that the Bank deep culture will prevent any productive change. Weaver thus delves away from the normal criticism of the World Bank to explain the reasons of Bank actions and activities.

She shed a new light noting that such hypocrisy is a tenet in any large international organisation. In order for any improvement to the World Bank, it is not simply the initiation of change but the need to re work the internal settings of one of the world's most important development groups.

Q. Consider the following statements:

  1. The World Bank engaged in reforms in the 1980s.

  2. Every operation of the World Bank is open to extensive reviews.

According to the above passage, which of the statements is/are valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 8 Both the statements are incorrect. Refer to the third paragraph for the answers.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 9

Weaver sees hypocrisy in the World Bank as a predictable feature in a large international organization especially when viewed using resource dependency (viewing the competitive environment) and sociological institutionalism (the authorising environment). The Bank's emphasis on organizational survival and legitimacy shows itself in its interactions with multiple actors in its competitive and authoritarian environments. Many critics of the Bank simply see the Bank as unable to achieve the goals it sets and help its client states. Weaver however launches into an in-depth description of two "worlds"-the World's Bank and the Bank's World. The former indicates the complex structure of the Bank including its donor states, client states, its private capital markets and the watchdog Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs). Weaver's examination reveals the various pressures exerted on the Bank and the degree of American influence on the bank.

In as much as the Bank is pressured from many sides, Weaver notes a strong degree of operational authority and autonomy in the "Bank's World". This stems from the complexity of its operations, some which are not open to extensive review. Second the diversity of member states allows the Bank some autonomy and most importantly, the Bank holds a strong monopoly over development related knowledge. This control of ideas is coupled with a technocratic and economic rationality, reinforced with the influx of Western trained neo-classical economists. Bank ideological coherence is also maintained by the editing of reports to align with neoliberal beliefs. It is within these strong intellectual norms that Weaver examines World Bank reforms. Contrary to some critics, the Bank did engage in reforms in the 1990s. The Strategic Compact arose as a need to transform the Bank back as an effort to re-orientate itself as the premier development agency, after external criticism and an internal evaluation. The first aim of streamlining bureaucracy was easily reached however the aim of being more "poverty focused and accountable" came at odds with the technical, economic and apolitical rationality. New efforts such as listening to clients and conducting consultations clashed with the existing approval culture. Overall, changes occurred but still the approval culture remained strong.

Similarly, the focus on good governance was not that effective with apolitical stances amongst staff.

Furthermore, the dominating neo-liberal mindset resulted in governance issues framed with economic objectives in mind. Just as with the Strategic Compact, Weaver notes that governance reform challenged the Bank's conventional method of conducting business.

Weaver does qualify that the constant need to placate the demands of various external groups also hampered Bank reform. She however noted that the Bank deep culture will prevent any productive change. Weaver thus delves away from the normal criticism of the World Bank to explain the reasons of Bank actions and activities.

She shed a new light noting that such hypocrisy is a tenet in any large international organisation. In order for any improvement to the World Bank, it is not simply the initiation of change but the need to re work the internal settings of one of the world's most important development groups.

Q. What changes does Weaver feel the bank needs to bring in for true reform?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 9 The author discusses the two sides of the bank -external pressures and the internal environment -in the context of reforms. However, it is clearly inferred from paragraph 3, 4, 5 and 6 that she feels that bank reform has not taken place because of its strong internal culture. The last paragraph clinches the answer as option (c). Option (a) is incorrect as this was part of the failed efforts for reforms in the 1990s. Option (b) is incorrect as indicated from the first line of paragraph 3. The external reforms are not seen as important when compared with the failed efforts of the bank in changing its internal environment. Option (d) is an end objective for the bank but it does not reflect the changes that need to be made thereby not answering the question. Option (c) is the correct answer.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 10

Weaver sees hypocrisy in the World Bank as a predictable feature in a large international organization especially when viewed using resource dependency (viewing the competitive environment) and sociological institutionalism (the authorising environment). The Bank's emphasis on organizational survival and legitimacy shows itself in its interactions with multiple actors in its competitive and authoritarian environments. Many critics of the Bank simply see the Bank as unable to achieve the goals it sets and help its client states. Weaver however launches into an in-depth description of two "worlds"-the World's Bank and the Bank's World. The former indicates the complex structure of the Bank including its donor states, client states, its private capital markets and the watchdog Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs). Weaver's examination reveals the various pressures exerted on the Bank and the degree of American influence on the bank.

In as much as the Bank is pressured from many sides, Weaver notes a strong degree of operational authority and autonomy in the "Bank's World". This stems from the complexity of its operations, some which are not open to extensive review. Second the diversity of member states allows the Bank some autonomy and most importantly, the Bank holds a strong monopoly over development related knowledge. This control of ideas is coupled with a technocratic and economic rationality, reinforced with the influx of Western trained neo-classical economists. Bank ideological coherence is also maintained by the editing of reports to align with neoliberal beliefs. It is within these strong intellectual norms that Weaver examines World Bank reforms. Contrary to some critics, the Bank did engage in reforms in the 1990s. The Strategic Compact arose as a need to transform the Bank back as an effort to re-orientate itself as the premier development agency, after external criticism and an internal evaluation. The first aim of streamlining bureaucracy was easily reached however the aim of being more "poverty focused and accountable" came at odds with the technical, economic and apolitical rationality. New efforts such as listening to clients and conducting consultations clashed with the existing approval culture. Overall, changes occurred but still the approval culture remained strong.

Similarly, the focus on good governance was not that effective with apolitical stances amongst staff.

Furthermore, the dominating neo-liberal mindset resulted in governance issues framed with economic objectives in mind. Just as with the Strategic Compact, Weaver notes that governance reform challenged the Bank's conventional method of conducting business.

Weaver does qualify that the constant need to placate the demands of various external groups also hampered Bank reform. She however noted that the Bank deep culture will prevent any productive change. Weaver thus delves away from the normal criticism of the World Bank to explain the reasons of Bank actions and activities.

She shed a new light noting that such hypocrisy is a tenet in any large international organisation. In order for any improvement to the World Bank, it is not simply the initiation of change but the need to re work the internal settings of one of the world's most important development groups.

Q. What is the tone of the author?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 10 The author's tone is incisive or analytical.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 11

The Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme Court can be invoked under Article 32 of the Constitution for the violation of fundamental rights guaranteed under Part – III of the Constitution. Any provision in any Constitution for Fundamental Rights is meaningless unless there are adequate safeguards to ensure enforcement of such provisions. Since the reality of such rights is tested only through the judiciary, the safeguards assume even more importance. In addition, enforcement also depends upon the degree of independence of the Judiciary and the availability of relevant instruments with the executive authority. Indian Constitution, like most of Western Constitutions, lays down certain provisions to ensure the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

However, Article 32 is referred to as the “Constitutional Remedy” for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. This provision itself has been included in the Fundamental Rights and hence it cannot be denied to any person. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the most important one, without which the Constitution would be reduced to nullity. It is also referred to as the heart and soul of the Constitution. By including Article 32 in the Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has been made the protector and guarantor of these Rights. An application made under Article 32 of the Constitution before the Supreme Court, cannot be refused on technical grounds. In addition to the prescribed five types of writs, the Supreme Court may pass any other appropriate order. Moreover, only the questions pertaining to the Fundamental Rights can be determined in proceedings against Article 32. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court may issue a Writ against any person or government within the territory of India. Where the infringement of a Fundamental Right has been established, the Supreme Court cannot refuse relief on the ground that the aggrieved person may have remedy before some other court or under the ordinary law.

The relief can also not be denied on the ground that the disputed facts have to be investigated or some evidence has to be collected. Even if an aggrieved person has not asked for a particular Writ, the Supreme Court, after considering the facts and circumstances, may grant the appropriate Writ and may even modify it to suit the exigencies of the case. Normally, only the aggrieved person is allowed to move the Court. But it has been held by the Supreme Court that in social or public interest matters, any one may move the Court. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed before the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution or before the High Court of a State under Article 226 of the Constitution under their respective Writ Jurisdictions.

Q. The main purpose of the passage is to

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 11 The passage is primarily concerned with telling us about article 32. It does talk about the Supreme Court and Fundamental Rights, but the primary emphasis is on article 32. Hence, option (a) is the correct choice.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 12

The Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme Court can be invoked under Article 32 of the Constitution for the violation of fundamental rights guaranteed under Part – III of the Constitution. Any provision in any Constitution for Fundamental Rights is meaningless unless there are adequate safeguards to ensure enforcement of such provisions. Since the reality of such rights is tested only through the judiciary, the safeguards assume even more importance. In addition, enforcement also depends upon the degree of independence of the Judiciary and the availability of relevant instruments with the executive authority. Indian Constitution, like most of Western Constitutions, lays down certain provisions to ensure the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

However, Article 32 is referred to as the “Constitutional Remedy” for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. This provision itself has been included in the Fundamental Rights and hence it cannot be denied to any person. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the most important one, without which the Constitution would be reduced to nullity. It is also referred to as the heart and soul of the Constitution. By including Article 32 in the Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has been made the protector and guarantor of these Rights. An application made under Article 32 of the Constitution before the Supreme Court, cannot be refused on technical grounds. In addition to the prescribed five types of writs, the Supreme Court may pass any other appropriate order. Moreover, only the questions pertaining to the Fundamental Rights can be determined in proceedings against Article 32. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court may issue a Writ against any person or government within the territory of India. Where the infringement of a Fundamental Right has been established, the Supreme Court cannot refuse relief on the ground that the aggrieved person may have remedy before some other court or under the ordinary law.

The relief can also not be denied on the ground that the disputed facts have to be investigated or some evidence has to be collected. Even if an aggrieved person has not asked for a particular Writ, the Supreme Court, after considering the facts and circumstances, may grant the appropriate Writ and may even modify it to suit the exigencies of the case. Normally, only the aggrieved person is allowed to move the Court. But it has been held by the Supreme Court that in social or public interest matters, any one may move the Court. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed before the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution or before the High Court of a State under Article 226 of the Constitution under their respective Writ Jurisdictions.

Q. According to the passage, article 32 has which of the following characteristics?

A. it is used for enforcement of fundamental rights.

B. The Supreme Court may issue a writ against any person or government of India.

C. Article 32 defines a fundamental right.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 12 A and B are mentioned in the passage. It is mentioned that article 32 refers to the “Constitutional Remedy” for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and is in itself a Fundamental Right. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 13

The Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme Court can be invoked under Article 32 of the Constitution for the violation of fundamental rights guaranteed under Part – III of the Constitution. Any provision in any Constitution for Fundamental Rights is meaningless unless there are adequate safeguards to ensure enforcement of such provisions. Since the reality of such rights is tested only through the judiciary, the safeguards assume even more importance. In addition, enforcement also depends upon the degree of independence of the Judiciary and the availability of relevant instruments with the executive authority. Indian Constitution, like most of Western Constitutions, lays down certain provisions to ensure the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

However, Article 32 is referred to as the “Constitutional Remedy” for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. This provision itself has been included in the Fundamental Rights and hence it cannot be denied to any person. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the most important one, without which the Constitution would be reduced to nullity. It is also referred to as the heart and soul of the Constitution. By including Article 32 in the Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has been made the protector and guarantor of these Rights. An application made under Article 32 of the Constitution before the Supreme Court, cannot be refused on technical grounds. In addition to the prescribed five types of writs, the Supreme Court may pass any other appropriate order. Moreover, only the questions pertaining to the Fundamental Rights can be determined in proceedings against Article 32. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court may issue a Writ against any person or government within the territory of India. Where the infringement of a Fundamental Right has been established, the Supreme Court cannot refuse relief on the ground that the aggrieved person may have remedy before some other court or under the ordinary law.

The relief can also not be denied on the ground that the disputed facts have to be investigated or some evidence has to be collected. Even if an aggrieved person has not asked for a particular Writ, the Supreme Court, after considering the facts and circumstances, may grant the appropriate Writ and may even modify it to suit the exigencies of the case. Normally, only the aggrieved person is allowed to move the Court. But it has been held by the Supreme Court that in social or public interest matters, any one may move the Court. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed before the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution or before the High Court of a State under Article 226 of the Constitution under their respective Writ Jurisdictions.

Q. What is the correct meaning of the word ‘infringement’?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 13 Violation means a failure to uphold the requirements of law, duty, or obligation. Thus, violation is the correct word.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 14

The Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme Court can be invoked under Article 32 of the Constitution for the violation of fundamental rights guaranteed under Part – III of the Constitution. Any provision in any Constitution for Fundamental Rights is meaningless unless there are adequate safeguards to ensure enforcement of such provisions. Since the reality of such rights is tested only through the judiciary, the safeguards assume even more importance. In addition, enforcement also depends upon the degree of independence of the Judiciary and the availability of relevant instruments with the executive authority. Indian Constitution, like most of Western Constitutions, lays down certain provisions to ensure the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

However, Article 32 is referred to as the “Constitutional Remedy” for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. This provision itself has been included in the Fundamental Rights and hence it cannot be denied to any person. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the most important one, without which the Constitution would be reduced to nullity. It is also referred to as the heart and soul of the Constitution. By including Article 32 in the Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has been made the protector and guarantor of these Rights. An application made under Article 32 of the Constitution before the Supreme Court, cannot be refused on technical grounds. In addition to the prescribed five types of writs, the Supreme Court may pass any other appropriate order. Moreover, only the questions pertaining to the Fundamental Rights can be determined in proceedings against Article 32. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court may issue a Writ against any person or government within the territory of India. Where the infringement of a Fundamental Right has been established, the Supreme Court cannot refuse relief on the ground that the aggrieved person may have remedy before some other court or under the ordinary law.

The relief can also not be denied on the ground that the disputed facts have to be investigated or some evidence has to be collected. Even if an aggrieved person has not asked for a particular Writ, the Supreme Court, after considering the facts and circumstances, may grant the appropriate Writ and may even modify it to suit the exigencies of the case. Normally, only the aggrieved person is allowed to move the Court. But it has been held by the Supreme Court that in social or public interest matters, any one may move the Court. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed before the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution or before the High Court of a State under Article 226 of the Constitution under their respective Writ Jurisdictions.

Q. All of the following can be inferred from the passage except:-

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 14 Refer to the line, “An application made under Article 32...technical grounds.” This line does not suggest that an application made under Article 32 of the Constitution before the Supreme Court, cannot be refused under any circumstances as the given line only mentions technical grounds. All the other options can be deduced from the passage.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 15

The Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme Court can be invoked under Article 32 of the Constitution for the violation of fundamental rights guaranteed under Part – III of the Constitution. Any provision in any Constitution for Fundamental Rights is meaningless unless there are adequate safeguards to ensure enforcement of such provisions. Since the reality of such rights is tested only through the judiciary, the safeguards assume even more importance. In addition, enforcement also depends upon the degree of independence of the Judiciary and the availability of relevant instruments with the executive authority. Indian Constitution, like most of Western Constitutions, lays down certain provisions to ensure the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

However, Article 32 is referred to as the “Constitutional Remedy” for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. This provision itself has been included in the Fundamental Rights and hence it cannot be denied to any person. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the most important one, without which the Constitution would be reduced to nullity. It is also referred to as the heart and soul of the Constitution. By including Article 32 in the Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has been made the protector and guarantor of these Rights. An application made under Article 32 of the Constitution before the Supreme Court, cannot be refused on technical grounds. In addition to the prescribed five types of writs, the Supreme Court may pass any other appropriate order. Moreover, only the questions pertaining to the Fundamental Rights can be determined in proceedings against Article 32. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court may issue a Writ against any person or government within the territory of India. Where the infringement of a Fundamental Right has been established, the Supreme Court cannot refuse relief on the ground that the aggrieved person may have remedy before some other court or under the ordinary law.

The relief can also not be denied on the ground that the disputed facts have to be investigated or some evidence has to be collected. Even if an aggrieved person has not asked for a particular Writ, the Supreme Court, after considering the facts and circumstances, may grant the appropriate Writ and may even modify it to suit the exigencies of the case. Normally, only the aggrieved person is allowed to move the Court. But it has been held by the Supreme Court that in social or public interest matters, any one may move the Court. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed before the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution or before the High Court of a State under Article 226 of the Constitution under their respective Writ Jurisdictions.

Q. What is the tone of the author?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 15 The author has stated various facts and figures in a factual/objective tone. He neither expresses his opinions nor analyzes the issue. Thus, option (d) is the correct choice.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 16

The world marvels at how well the Indian Constitution has kept a diverse country together for more than 70 years. Its robustness and durability rest on its many built-in safeguards securing citizens' rights to freedom and justice and fair play which no government, however powerful, can hope to effectively recast within the space of a single or even multiple tenures in office.

Mistakenly, however, this lengthy founding document of the Indian Republic is believed to have been completed solely by the Constituent Assembly, working flat out in just two years, eleven months and 17 days. In fact, the Constitution's long history stretches to over 40 years before its enactment, going all the way back to the Indian Councils Act of 1909. This law, for the first time, brought Indians into governance at central and provincial levels, albeit in a very limited way, through a highly restricted and unrepresentative electorate split on communal lines.

The Government of India Act, 1919 was a vast improvement on the Indian Councils Act but remained unrepresentative. It also persisted with communal representation, which had earlier been endorsed by the Congress and the Muslim League through the Lucknow Pact of 1916. In its report submitted in 1930, the Simon Commission, constituted to evaluate the Government of India Act of 1919, recommended much greater Indian involvement in the governance of the country. What followed its report were three extraordinary roundtable conferences - in 1930, 1931 and 1932 - all held in London to see how best Indians could administer their country.

Deliberations in these conferences brought out the concerns of different communities, especially the Depressed Classes of which Ambedkar was the de facto leader, and the Muslims led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah.

Except the second conference, which Gandhi attended, the other two were boycotted by the Congress. These conferences gave voice to other interest groups too -those representing women and Anglo-Indians, for instance - and led to the passage of the Government of India Act of 1935, much of which found its way into the Constitution.

Q. Which of the following is a quality that the world admires about India?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 16 Option (c) is correct as the first line of the passage mentions the marvelous feat of India's constitution to keep its diverse citizens united, which is admired by the world.

All other options are incorrect as they indirectly relate to the constitution by mentioning other factors and aspects of the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 17

The world marvels at how well the Indian Constitution has kept a diverse country together for more than 70 years. Its robustness and durability rest on its many built-in safeguards securing citizens' rights to freedom and justice and fair play which no government, however powerful, can hope to effectively recast within the space of a single or even multiple tenures in office.

Mistakenly, however, this lengthy founding document of the Indian Republic is believed to have been completed solely by the Constituent Assembly, working flat out in just two years, eleven months and 17 days. In fact, the Constitution's long history stretches to over 40 years before its enactment, going all the way back to the Indian Councils Act of 1909. This law, for the first time, brought Indians into governance at central and provincial levels, albeit in a very limited way, through a highly restricted and unrepresentative electorate split on communal lines.

The Government of India Act, 1919 was a vast improvement on the Indian Councils Act but remained unrepresentative. It also persisted with communal representation, which had earlier been endorsed by the Congress and the Muslim League through the Lucknow Pact of 1916. In its report submitted in 1930, the Simon Commission, constituted to evaluate the Government of India Act of 1919, recommended much greater Indian involvement in the governance of the country. What followed its report were three extraordinary roundtable conferences - in 1930, 1931 and 1932 - all held in London to see how best Indians could administer their country.

Deliberations in these conferences brought out the concerns of different communities, especially the Depressed Classes of which Ambedkar was the de facto leader, and the Muslims led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah.

Except the second conference, which Gandhi attended, the other two were boycotted by the Congress. These conferences gave voice to other interest groups too -those representing women and Anglo-Indians, for instance - and led to the passage of the Government of India Act of 1935, much of which found its way into the Constitution.

Q. Which of the following was one of the major flaws of the "Government of India Act, 1919"?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 17 Option (a) is correct as the passage mentions that the Government of India Act was not adequately ensuring the participation of Indians in the sphere of governance.

Option (b) is incorrect as it mentions the point of communal structure without associating it with participation as used in the passage.

Options (c) and (d) are incorrect as they offer no particular point that could be related to the passage as a demerit of the Act.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 18

The world marvels at how well the Indian Constitution has kept a diverse country together for more than 70 years. Its robustness and durability rest on its many built-in safeguards securing citizens' rights to freedom and justice and fair play which no government, however powerful, can hope to effectively recast within the space of a single or even multiple tenures in office.

Mistakenly, however, this lengthy founding document of the Indian Republic is believed to have been completed solely by the Constituent Assembly, working flat out in just two years, eleven months and 17 days. In fact, the Constitution's long history stretches to over 40 years before its enactment, going all the way back to the Indian Councils Act of 1909. This law, for the first time, brought Indians into governance at central and provincial levels, albeit in a very limited way, through a highly restricted and unrepresentative electorate split on communal lines.

The Government of India Act, 1919 was a vast improvement on the Indian Councils Act but remained unrepresentative. It also persisted with communal representation, which had earlier been endorsed by the Congress and the Muslim League through the Lucknow Pact of 1916. In its report submitted in 1930, the Simon Commission, constituted to evaluate the Government of India Act of 1919, recommended much greater Indian involvement in the governance of the country. What followed its report were three extraordinary roundtable conferences - in 1930, 1931 and 1932 - all held in London to see how best Indians could administer their country.

Deliberations in these conferences brought out the concerns of different communities, especially the Depressed Classes of which Ambedkar was the de facto leader, and the Muslims led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah.

Except the second conference, which Gandhi attended, the other two were boycotted by the Congress. These conferences gave voice to other interest groups too -those representing women and Anglo-Indians, for instance - and led to the passage of the Government of India Act of 1935, much of which found its way into the Constitution.

Q. Which of the following chiefly advocates the primary idea of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 18 Option (c) is correct as the passage argues that the Constitution was not a result of two years of hard work but rather a product of decades of events unfolding through Indian history.

All other options are incorrect as they do not emphasize on the period that it took to formulate the Indian Constitution.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 19

The world marvels at how well the Indian Constitution has kept a diverse country together for more than 70 years. Its robustness and durability rest on its many built-in safeguards securing citizens' rights to freedom and justice and fair play which no government, however powerful, can hope to effectively recast within the space of a single or even multiple tenures in office.

Mistakenly, however, this lengthy founding document of the Indian Republic is believed to have been completed solely by the Constituent Assembly, working flat out in just two years, eleven months and 17 days. In fact, the Constitution's long history stretches to over 40 years before its enactment, going all the way back to the Indian Councils Act of 1909. This law, for the first time, brought Indians into governance at central and provincial levels, albeit in a very limited way, through a highly restricted and unrepresentative electorate split on communal lines.

The Government of India Act, 1919 was a vast improvement on the Indian Councils Act but remained unrepresentative. It also persisted with communal representation, which had earlier been endorsed by the Congress and the Muslim League through the Lucknow Pact of 1916. In its report submitted in 1930, the Simon Commission, constituted to evaluate the Government of India Act of 1919, recommended much greater Indian involvement in the governance of the country. What followed its report were three extraordinary roundtable conferences - in 1930, 1931 and 1932 - all held in London to see how best Indians could administer their country.

Deliberations in these conferences brought out the concerns of different communities, especially the Depressed Classes of which Ambedkar was the de facto leader, and the Muslims led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah.

Except the second conference, which Gandhi attended, the other two were boycotted by the Congress. These conferences gave voice to other interest groups too -those representing women and Anglo-Indians, for instance - and led to the passage of the Government of India Act of 1935, much of which found its way into the Constitution.

Q. What does the phase "working flat out" as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 19 Option (b) is correct as the phrase “working flat out” means working with full energy or potential, which is consistent with the context of the passage.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 20

The world marvels at how well the Indian Constitution has kept a diverse country together for more than 70 years. Its robustness and durability rest on its many built-in safeguards securing citizens' rights to freedom and justice and fair play which no government, however powerful, can hope to effectively recast within the space of a single or even multiple tenures in office.

Mistakenly, however, this lengthy founding document of the Indian Republic is believed to have been completed solely by the Constituent Assembly, working flat out in just two years, eleven months and 17 days. In fact, the Constitution's long history stretches to over 40 years before its enactment, going all the way back to the Indian Councils Act of 1909. This law, for the first time, brought Indians into governance at central and provincial levels, albeit in a very limited way, through a highly restricted and unrepresentative electorate split on communal lines.

The Government of India Act, 1919 was a vast improvement on the Indian Councils Act but remained unrepresentative. It also persisted with communal representation, which had earlier been endorsed by the Congress and the Muslim League through the Lucknow Pact of 1916. In its report submitted in 1930, the Simon Commission, constituted to evaluate the Government of India Act of 1919, recommended much greater Indian involvement in the governance of the country. What followed its report were three extraordinary roundtable conferences - in 1930, 1931 and 1932 - all held in London to see how best Indians could administer their country.

Deliberations in these conferences brought out the concerns of different communities, especially the Depressed Classes of which Ambedkar was the de facto leader, and the Muslims led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah.

Except the second conference, which Gandhi attended, the other two were boycotted by the Congress. These conferences gave voice to other interest groups too -those representing women and Anglo-Indians, for instance - and led to the passage of the Government of India Act of 1935, much of which found its way into the Constitution.

Q. Which of the following serves as an evidence for the participation of the Congress in the second conference?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 20 Option (d) is correct as the sequence of facts mentioned in the passage point to its validity.

The fact that Gandhi attended the second conference makes it evident that Congress participated in the second conference, as the ones he didn't attend were considered boycotted by the Congress.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 21

The growth in the index of industrial production (IIP) fell to 1.7 per cent in January compared with 7.5 per cent a year ago. The growth fell because of a subdued performance by the manufacturing sector, especially capital and consumer goods. The growth was also lower on a sequential basis from 2.4 per cent in December to 1.7 per cent in January, according to CSO data.

Manufacturing output expanded 1.3 per cent on a yearly basis, mining grew 3.9 per cent and electricity generation rose 0.8 per cent in January. Electricity had grown 7.6 per cent in the year-ago period. Rating agency CARE said lower growth in manufacturing was expected because of a high base effect. Besides, production was less because of a higher stock built-up from the second quarter as demand did not materialise fully in the third quarter.

CARE expects IIP growth for the year "to be around 5 per cent from 4.4 percent cumulative till January. While base effect will be there, it will diminish in size as companies also expand on production to meet annual targets". Data showed 11 of the 23 industry groups in the manufacturing sector witnessed positive growth.

However, furniture and paper products, excluding machines and equipment, declined the most. The production of infrastructure goods rose 7.9 per cent compared with 10.1 per cent in December. The output of intermediate goods contracted 3 per cent in January compared with a 5.4 per cent rise in the year-ago period.

Consumer as well as non-consumer durables output rose 1.8 per cent compared with a 7.6 per cent rise in January 2018. IIP growth stood at 4.4 per cent compared with 4.1 per cent in the same period a year ago.

Economic growth slowed to a five-quarter low of 6.6 per cent in the October-December period. The government estimate for the financial year ending this month has been revised down to a five-year low of 7 per cent from 7.2 percent. The IIP numbers come ahead of the RBI's monetary policy statement on April 4 and may increase the clamour for a cut in interest rates to boost economic activity.

Q. Out of the following options, which one can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 21 Refer to the following lines from the passage, 'The IIP numbers come ahead of the RBI's monetary policy statement on April 4 and may increase the clamour for a cut in interest rates to boost economic activity". This clearly makes option d the correct answer.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 22

The growth in the index of industrial production (IIP) fell to 1.7 per cent in January compared with 7.5 per cent a year ago. The growth fell because of a subdued performance by the manufacturing sector, especially capital and consumer goods. The growth was also lower on a sequential basis from 2.4 per cent in December to 1.7 per cent in January, according to CSO data.

Manufacturing output expanded 1.3 per cent on a yearly basis, mining grew 3.9 per cent and electricity generation rose 0.8 per cent in January. Electricity had grown 7.6 per cent in the year-ago period. Rating agency CARE said lower growth in manufacturing was expected because of a high base effect. Besides, production was less because of a higher stock built-up from the second quarter as demand did not materialise fully in the third quarter.

CARE expects IIP growth for the year "to be around 5 per cent from 4.4 percent cumulative till January. While base effect will be there, it will diminish in size as companies also expand on production to meet annual targets". Data showed 11 of the 23 industry groups in the manufacturing sector witnessed positive growth.

However, furniture and paper products, excluding machines and equipment, declined the most. The production of infrastructure goods rose 7.9 per cent compared with 10.1 per cent in December. The output of intermediate goods contracted 3 per cent in January compared with a 5.4 per cent rise in the year-ago period.

Consumer as well as non-consumer durables output rose 1.8 per cent compared with a 7.6 per cent rise in January 2018. IIP growth stood at 4.4 per cent compared with 4.1 per cent in the same period a year ago.

Economic growth slowed to a five-quarter low of 6.6 per cent in the October-December period. The government estimate for the financial year ending this month has been revised down to a five-year low of 7 per cent from 7.2 percent. The IIP numbers come ahead of the RBI's monetary policy statement on April 4 and may increase the clamour for a cut in interest rates to boost economic activity.

Q. Out of the following options, which one can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 22 Refer to the first paragraph of the passage where the answer is given.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 23

The growth in the index of industrial production (IIP) fell to 1.7 per cent in January compared with 7.5 per cent a year ago. The growth fell because of a subdued performance by the manufacturing sector, especially capital and consumer goods. The growth was also lower on a sequential basis from 2.4 per cent in December to 1.7 per cent in January, according to CSO data.

Manufacturing output expanded 1.3 per cent on a yearly basis, mining grew 3.9 per cent and electricity generation rose 0.8 per cent in January. Electricity had grown 7.6 per cent in the year-ago period. Rating agency CARE said lower growth in manufacturing was expected because of a high base effect. Besides, production was less because of a higher stock built-up from the second quarter as demand did not materialise fully in the third quarter.

CARE expects IIP growth for the year "to be around 5 per cent from 4.4 percent cumulative till January. While base effect will be there, it will diminish in size as companies also expand on production to meet annual targets". Data showed 11 of the 23 industry groups in the manufacturing sector witnessed positive growth.

However, furniture and paper products, excluding machines and equipment, declined the most. The production of infrastructure goods rose 7.9 per cent compared with 10.1 per cent in December. The output of intermediate goods contracted 3 per cent in January compared with a 5.4 per cent rise in the year-ago period.

Consumer as well as non-consumer durables output rose 1.8 per cent compared with a 7.6 per cent rise in January 2018. IIP growth stood at 4.4 per cent compared with 4.1 per cent in the same period a year ago.

Economic growth slowed to a five-quarter low of 6.6 per cent in the October-December period. The government estimate for the financial year ending this month has been revised down to a five-year low of 7 per cent from 7.2 percent. The IIP numbers come ahead of the RBI's monetary policy statement on April 4 and may increase the clamour for a cut in interest rates to boost economic activity.

Q. The author of the passage is most likely to agree with which of the following.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 23 None of the options can be inferred from the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option d.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 24

The growth in the index of industrial production (IIP) fell to 1.7 per cent in January compared with 7.5 per cent a year ago. The growth fell because of a subdued performance by the manufacturing sector, especially capital and consumer goods. The growth was also lower on a sequential basis from 2.4 per cent in December to 1.7 per cent in January, according to CSO data.

Manufacturing output expanded 1.3 per cent on a yearly basis, mining grew 3.9 per cent and electricity generation rose 0.8 per cent in January. Electricity had grown 7.6 per cent in the year-ago period. Rating agency CARE said lower growth in manufacturing was expected because of a high base effect. Besides, production was less because of a higher stock built-up from the second quarter as demand did not materialise fully in the third quarter.

CARE expects IIP growth for the year "to be around 5 per cent from 4.4 percent cumulative till January. While base effect will be there, it will diminish in size as companies also expand on production to meet annual targets". Data showed 11 of the 23 industry groups in the manufacturing sector witnessed positive growth.

However, furniture and paper products, excluding machines and equipment, declined the most. The production of infrastructure goods rose 7.9 per cent compared with 10.1 per cent in December. The output of intermediate goods contracted 3 per cent in January compared with a 5.4 per cent rise in the year-ago period.

Consumer as well as non-consumer durables output rose 1.8 per cent compared with a 7.6 per cent rise in January 2018. IIP growth stood at 4.4 per cent compared with 4.1 per cent in the same period a year ago.

Economic growth slowed to a five-quarter low of 6.6 per cent in the October-December period. The government estimate for the financial year ending this month has been revised down to a five-year low of 7 per cent from 7.2 percent. The IIP numbers come ahead of the RBI's monetary policy statement on April 4 and may increase the clamour for a cut in interest rates to boost economic activity.

Q. Out of the following options, which one is an appropriate title of the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 24 The other options are out of scope. Only option (d) captures the essence of the passage.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 25

Since 2005, the NGO Pratham's Annual Status of Education Reports (ASER) have shone a light on a critical failure of India's education system: A large number of school-going children across the country are short on basic learning skills. These reports have led to debates on seminal policy interventions such as the Right to Education Act and have been catalysts for meaningful conversations on the pedagogical deficiencies of the formal school system. The latest edition of ASER, released on Tuesday, directs attention to children between four and eight years of age, and suggests that India's learning crisis could be linked to the weakness of the country's pre-primary system.

More than 20 per cent of students in Standard I are less than six, ASER 2019 reveals - they should ideally be in pre-school. At the same time, 36 per cent students in Standard 1 are older than the RTE-mandated age of six. "Even within Standard I, children's performance on cognitive, early language, early numeracy, and social and emotional learning tasks is strongly related to their age. Older children do better on all tasks," the report says. This is a significant finding and should be the starting point for a substantive debate on the ideal entrylevel age to primary school. In this context, policymakers would also do well to go back to the pedagogical axiom which underlines that children between four and eight are best taught cognitive skills through play-based activities. The emphasis, as ASER 2019 emphasises, should be on "developing problem-solving faculties and building memory of children, and not content knowledge".

ASER 2019 talks about leveraging the existing network of anganwadi centres to implement school readiness.

The core structure of the anganwadis was developed more than 40 years ago as part of the Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS). Pre-school education is part of their mandate. But at the best of times, these centres do no more than implement the government's child nutrition schemes. A number of health crises -including last year's AES outbreak in Bihar - have bared the inadequacies of the system. A growing body of scholarly work has also shown that the anganwadi worker is poorly-paid, demoralised and lacks the autonomy to be an effective nurturer. The ASER report is alive to such shortcomings. "There is a need to expand and upgrade anganwadis to ensure that children get adequate and correct educational inputs of the kind that are not modeled after the formal school," it notes. The government would do well to act on this recommendation - especially since the Draft Education Policy that was put up for public discussion last year, also stresses on the pre-school system.

Q. Each of the following is a reason as to why anganwadi workers are not as effective as they should be EXCEPT:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 25 The question asks to identify something that is NOT a reason as to why anganwadi workers are not effective. The passage DOES NOT say that the workers are not concerned with the welfare of the students. Hence answer choice (c) is the correct answer to the question.

Incorrect Answers

(a), (b) and (d) - The passage mentions the following: "A growing body of scholarly work has also shown that the anganwadi worker is poorly-paid, demoralised and lacks the autonomy to be an effective nurturer."

The reasons are that they are poorly paid (captured in answer choice (b)), they are demoralised (captured in answer choice (a)) and they lack autonomy (captured in answered choice (d)).

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 26

Since 2005, the NGO Pratham's Annual Status of Education Reports (ASER) have shone a light on a critical failure of India's education system: A large number of school-going children across the country are short on basic learning skills. These reports have led to debates on seminal policy interventions such as the Right to Education Act and have been catalysts for meaningful conversations on the pedagogical deficiencies of the formal school system. The latest edition of ASER, released on Tuesday, directs attention to children between four and eight years of age, and suggests that India's learning crisis could be linked to the weakness of the country's pre-primary system.

More than 20 per cent of students in Standard I are less than six, ASER 2019 reveals - they should ideally be in pre-school. At the same time, 36 per cent students in Standard 1 are older than the RTE-mandated age of six. "Even within Standard I, children's performance on cognitive, early language, early numeracy, and social and emotional learning tasks is strongly related to their age. Older children do better on all tasks," the report says. This is a significant finding and should be the starting point for a substantive debate on the ideal entrylevel age to primary school. In this context, policymakers would also do well to go back to the pedagogical axiom which underlines that children between four and eight are best taught cognitive skills through play-based activities. The emphasis, as ASER 2019 emphasises, should be on "developing problem-solving faculties and building memory of children, and not content knowledge".

ASER 2019 talks about leveraging the existing network of anganwadi centres to implement school readiness.

The core structure of the anganwadis was developed more than 40 years ago as part of the Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS). Pre-school education is part of their mandate. But at the best of times, these centres do no more than implement the government's child nutrition schemes. A number of health crises -including last year's AES outbreak in Bihar - have bared the inadequacies of the system. A growing body of scholarly work has also shown that the anganwadi worker is poorly-paid, demoralised and lacks the autonomy to be an effective nurturer. The ASER report is alive to such shortcomings. "There is a need to expand and upgrade anganwadis to ensure that children get adequate and correct educational inputs of the kind that are not modeled after the formal school," it notes. The government would do well to act on this recommendation - especially since the Draft Education Policy that was put up for public discussion last year, also stresses on the pre-school system.

Q. Which one of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 26 Refer: "In this context, policymakers would also do well to go back to the pedagogical axiom which underlines that children between four and eight are best taught cognitive skills through play-based activities. The emphasis, as ASER 2019 emphasises, should be on "developing problem solving faculties and building memory of children, and not content knowledge""

The author proposes play-based activities based on the ASER 2019 report which says that the focus should be on developing problem-solving faculties and not content knowledge. The author assumes that play-based activities are based on problem solving skill and not on content knowledge. This makes answer choice (c) the correct answer.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - The author mentions that the children between 4 and 8 should be taught cognitive skills through play-based activities. That does NOT mean that the play-based activities are not applicable for children above 8.

(b) - The problem in this answer choice is "strengthen their knowledge". It is clearly mentioned that the focus should not be on content knowledge.

(d) - Just because play-based activities are a good approach for younger children, that does not mean that younger children would be better at it than older children.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 27

Since 2005, the NGO Pratham's Annual Status of Education Reports (ASER) have shone a light on a critical failure of India's education system: A large number of school-going children across the country are short on basic learning skills. These reports have led to debates on seminal policy interventions such as the Right to Education Act and have been catalysts for meaningful conversations on the pedagogical deficiencies of the formal school system. The latest edition of ASER, released on Tuesday, directs attention to children between four and eight years of age, and suggests that India's learning crisis could be linked to the weakness of the country's pre-primary system.

More than 20 per cent of students in Standard I are less than six, ASER 2019 reveals - they should ideally be in pre-school. At the same time, 36 per cent students in Standard 1 are older than the RTE-mandated age of six. "Even within Standard I, children's performance on cognitive, early language, early numeracy, and social and emotional learning tasks is strongly related to their age. Older children do better on all tasks," the report says. This is a significant finding and should be the starting point for a substantive debate on the ideal entrylevel age to primary school. In this context, policymakers would also do well to go back to the pedagogical axiom which underlines that children between four and eight are best taught cognitive skills through play-based activities. The emphasis, as ASER 2019 emphasises, should be on "developing problem-solving faculties and building memory of children, and not content knowledge".

ASER 2019 talks about leveraging the existing network of anganwadi centres to implement school readiness.

The core structure of the anganwadis was developed more than 40 years ago as part of the Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS). Pre-school education is part of their mandate. But at the best of times, these centres do no more than implement the government's child nutrition schemes. A number of health crises -including last year's AES outbreak in Bihar - have bared the inadequacies of the system. A growing body of scholarly work has also shown that the anganwadi worker is poorly-paid, demoralised and lacks the autonomy to be an effective nurturer. The ASER report is alive to such shortcomings. "There is a need to expand and upgrade anganwadis to ensure that children get adequate and correct educational inputs of the kind that are not modeled after the formal school," it notes. The government would do well to act on this recommendation - especially since the Draft Education Policy that was put up for public discussion last year, also stresses on the pre-school system.

Q. What does the word "seminal" mean as used in the first paragraph passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 27 The meaning of seminal is something that has a great influence on later developments.

This can be inferred from the passage as well. "These reports have led to debates on seminal policy interventions such as the Right to Education Act and have been catalysts for meaningful conversations on the pedagogical deficiencies of the formal school system."

The author mentions that the ASER reports have led to something positive. (Note the term -meaningful). So, the word must have a positive connotation. The only answer choice that has a positive connotation is answer choice (c).

Incorrect Answers

(a), (b) and (d) - all have negative connotation and go against the tone in which the author has used the word.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 28

Since 2005, the NGO Pratham's Annual Status of Education Reports (ASER) have shone a light on a critical failure of India's education system: A large number of school-going children across the country are short on basic learning skills. These reports have led to debates on seminal policy interventions such as the Right to Education Act and have been catalysts for meaningful conversations on the pedagogical deficiencies of the formal school system. The latest edition of ASER, released on Tuesday, directs attention to children between four and eight years of age, and suggests that India's learning crisis could be linked to the weakness of the country's pre-primary system.

More than 20 per cent of students in Standard I are less than six, ASER 2019 reveals - they should ideally be in pre-school. At the same time, 36 per cent students in Standard 1 are older than the RTE-mandated age of six. "Even within Standard I, children's performance on cognitive, early language, early numeracy, and social and emotional learning tasks is strongly related to their age. Older children do better on all tasks," the report says. This is a significant finding and should be the starting point for a substantive debate on the ideal entrylevel age to primary school. In this context, policymakers would also do well to go back to the pedagogical axiom which underlines that children between four and eight are best taught cognitive skills through play-based activities. The emphasis, as ASER 2019 emphasises, should be on "developing problem-solving faculties and building memory of children, and not content knowledge".

ASER 2019 talks about leveraging the existing network of anganwadi centres to implement school readiness.

The core structure of the anganwadis was developed more than 40 years ago as part of the Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS). Pre-school education is part of their mandate. But at the best of times, these centres do no more than implement the government's child nutrition schemes. A number of health crises -including last year's AES outbreak in Bihar - have bared the inadequacies of the system. A growing body of scholarly work has also shown that the anganwadi worker is poorly-paid, demoralised and lacks the autonomy to be an effective nurturer. The ASER report is alive to such shortcomings. "There is a need to expand and upgrade anganwadis to ensure that children get adequate and correct educational inputs of the kind that are not modeled after the formal school," it notes. The government would do well to act on this recommendation - especially since the Draft Education Policy that was put up for public discussion last year, also stresses on the pre-school system.

Q. In the last paragraph, why does the author states that the government should act on the recommendation based on the ASER report?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 28 The answer can be found in the last sentence of the passage. "The government would do well to act on this recommendation - especially since the Draft Education Policy that was put up for public discussion last year, also stresses on the preschool system."

The author reasons that the Draft Education Policy that was put for public discussion had raised the same issue. Hence, the government should act on the recommendation. This makes answer choice (a) the correct answer.

Incorrect Answers

(b) and (c) - The reason given in each of the answer choices (b) and (c) is not mentioned in the passage.

What is mentioned in the passage is that the report was created by an NGO called Pratham. Nowhere in the passage does the author say that the report was endorsed by various NGOs.

Similarly, nowhere in the passage does the author talks about taxpayers' money. (d) - While it is true that the anganwadis were developed as a part of ICDS, it is not the reason given for endorsing the recommendation.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 29

If Peggy Young, who was a driver for United Parcel Service, had had an accident that limited her ability to lift heavy packages, or even lost her license because of driving while intoxicated, U.P.S. would have allowed her to go on "light duty" or assigned her another type of work. But Ms. Young got pregnant. When her doctors told her not to lift packages over 20 pounds to avoid jeopardizing the pregnancy, U.P.S. refused to accommodate her and effectively compelled her to go on unpaid medical leave.

Her case, which has implications for millions of American women and their families, will be argued before the Supreme Court on Wednesday. It is an opportunity for the court to strike a blow against discriminatory treatment and the resulting economic harm that are too often imposed on women who get pregnant - as the vast majority of women entering the work force eventually do.

Although many women can work through an entire pregnancy without job modifications, some - especially those in low-wage jobs requiring long hours, prolonged standing and heavy lifting - may require temporary help to safeguard their own health and their pregnancies.

U.P.S. claims it has a legal right to deny pregnant workers who have temporary physical limitations the flexibility it shows workers with other conditions that similarly affect the tasks they are able to perform. It said its collective bargaining agreement limited work modifications to only three categories: those with injuries that occur on the job; people covered by the Americans With Disabilities Act; and those who lose their Department of Transportation certification because of a legal impediment, like a license revoked for driving while intoxicated. Sorry, pregnancy is not included.

Ms. Young argued in her lawsuit that the policy violated the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, the 1978 law that requires employers to give women affected by pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions the same accommodations it gives other employees who are "similar in their ability or inability to work."

The language is plain and clear, as is the statute's history, but the United States Court of Appeals for the Fourth Circuit rejected Ms. Young's complaint. It said that respecting the act's "unambiguous" text would create "anomalous consequences," allegedly giving pregnant women preferential treatment. That is preposterous. To avoid systematically forcing pregnant workers out of their jobs, the law merely requires employers to treat them as they would treat employees eligible for a change in duty for other reasons.

In a brief filed in October, U.P.S. said it is discontinuing its policy of not accommodating pregnant workers as a matter of "corporate discretion," but claims the policy was legal and denies any liability for damages. It is good that, beginning on Jan. 1, pregnant U.P.S. employees will be treated better. But the notion that the better treatment is optional should not be allowed to stand.

U.P.S. said it was merely following the same pregnancy policy observed by the United States Postal Service and defended in the past by the Justice Department.

But, in a brief supporting Ms. Young's claim, Solicitor General Donald Verrilli Jr. renounced the Justice Department's stance and said the Postal Service was reviewing its policy. Someone in the Obama administration needs to check how many other parts of the federal government have been following the same unfair policy for pregnant workers and put a stop to it.

Under a plain reading of the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, and also as a matter of fairness, pregnant workers should be treated no worse than employees who are injured on the job, and the Supreme Court should use the Young case to say so.

Q. What is the central idea of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 29 The author does not mention efficiency of pregnant women, gender bias or enhanced compensation, hence (a) is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 30

If Peggy Young, who was a driver for United Parcel Service, had had an accident that limited her ability to lift heavy packages, or even lost her license because of driving while intoxicated, U.P.S. would have allowed her to go on "light duty" or assigned her another type of work. But Ms. Young got pregnant. When her doctors told her not to lift packages over 20 pounds to avoid jeopardizing the pregnancy, U.P.S. refused to accommodate her and effectively compelled her to go on unpaid medical leave.

Her case, which has implications for millions of American women and their families, will be argued before the Supreme Court on Wednesday. It is an opportunity for the court to strike a blow against discriminatory treatment and the resulting economic harm that are too often imposed on women who get pregnant - as the vast majority of women entering the work force eventually do.

Although many women can work through an entire pregnancy without job modifications, some - especially those in low-wage jobs requiring long hours, prolonged standing and heavy lifting - may require temporary help to safeguard their own health and their pregnancies.

U.P.S. claims it has a legal right to deny pregnant workers who have temporary physical limitations the flexibility it shows workers with other conditions that similarly affect the tasks they are able to perform. It said its collective bargaining agreement limited work modifications to only three categories: those with injuries that occur on the job; people covered by the Americans With Disabilities Act; and those who lose their Department of Transportation certification because of a legal impediment, like a license revoked for driving while intoxicated. Sorry, pregnancy is not included.

Ms. Young argued in her lawsuit that the policy violated the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, the 1978 law that requires employers to give women affected by pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions the same accommodations it gives other employees who are "similar in their ability or inability to work."

The language is plain and clear, as is the statute's history, but the United States Court of Appeals for the Fourth Circuit rejected Ms. Young's complaint. It said that respecting the act's "unambiguous" text would create "anomalous consequences," allegedly giving pregnant women preferential treatment. That is preposterous. To avoid systematically forcing pregnant workers out of their jobs, the law merely requires employers to treat them as they would treat employees eligible for a change in duty for other reasons.

In a brief filed in October, U.P.S. said it is discontinuing its policy of not accommodating pregnant workers as a matter of "corporate discretion," but claims the policy was legal and denies any liability for damages. It is good that, beginning on Jan. 1, pregnant U.P.S. employees will be treated better. But the notion that the better treatment is optional should not be allowed to stand.

U.P.S. said it was merely following the same pregnancy policy observed by the United States Postal Service and defended in the past by the Justice Department.

But, in a brief supporting Ms. Young's claim, Solicitor General Donald Verrilli Jr. renounced the Justice Department's stance and said the Postal Service was reviewing its policy. Someone in the Obama administration needs to check how many other parts of the federal government have been following the same unfair policy for pregnant workers and put a stop to it.

Under a plain reading of the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, and also as a matter of fairness, pregnant workers should be treated no worse than employees who are injured on the job, and the Supreme Court should use the Young case to say so.

Q. As per the passage which of the following is not true?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 30 All of the above are mentioned.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 31

If Peggy Young, who was a driver for United Parcel Service, had had an accident that limited her ability to lift heavy packages, or even lost her license because of driving while intoxicated, U.P.S. would have allowed her to go on "light duty" or assigned her another type of work. But Ms. Young got pregnant. When her doctors told her not to lift packages over 20 pounds to avoid jeopardizing the pregnancy, U.P.S. refused to accommodate her and effectively compelled her to go on unpaid medical leave.

Her case, which has implications for millions of American women and their families, will be argued before the Supreme Court on Wednesday. It is an opportunity for the court to strike a blow against discriminatory treatment and the resulting economic harm that are too often imposed on women who get pregnant - as the vast majority of women entering the work force eventually do.

Although many women can work through an entire pregnancy without job modifications, some - especially those in low-wage jobs requiring long hours, prolonged standing and heavy lifting - may require temporary help to safeguard their own health and their pregnancies.

U.P.S. claims it has a legal right to deny pregnant workers who have temporary physical limitations the flexibility it shows workers with other conditions that similarly affect the tasks they are able to perform. It said its collective bargaining agreement limited work modifications to only three categories: those with injuries that occur on the job; people covered by the Americans With Disabilities Act; and those who lose their Department of Transportation certification because of a legal impediment, like a license revoked for driving while intoxicated. Sorry, pregnancy is not included.

Ms. Young argued in her lawsuit that the policy violated the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, the 1978 law that requires employers to give women affected by pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions the same accommodations it gives other employees who are "similar in their ability or inability to work."

The language is plain and clear, as is the statute's history, but the United States Court of Appeals for the Fourth Circuit rejected Ms. Young's complaint. It said that respecting the act's "unambiguous" text would create "anomalous consequences," allegedly giving pregnant women preferential treatment. That is preposterous. To avoid systematically forcing pregnant workers out of their jobs, the law merely requires employers to treat them as they would treat employees eligible for a change in duty for other reasons.

In a brief filed in October, U.P.S. said it is discontinuing its policy of not accommodating pregnant workers as a matter of "corporate discretion," but claims the policy was legal and denies any liability for damages. It is good that, beginning on Jan. 1, pregnant U.P.S. employees will be treated better. But the notion that the better treatment is optional should not be allowed to stand.

U.P.S. said it was merely following the same pregnancy policy observed by the United States Postal Service and defended in the past by the Justice Department.

But, in a brief supporting Ms. Young's claim, Solicitor General Donald Verrilli Jr. renounced the Justice Department's stance and said the Postal Service was reviewing its policy. Someone in the Obama administration needs to check how many other parts of the federal government have been following the same unfair policy for pregnant workers and put a stop to it.

Under a plain reading of the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, and also as a matter of fairness, pregnant workers should be treated no worse than employees who are injured on the job, and the Supreme Court should use the Young case to say so.

Q. Which of the following type of women workers may require additional assistance while pregnant?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 31 As giv en in the passage: "Although many women can work through an entire pregnancy without job modifications, some - especially those in low-wage jobs requiring long hours, prolonged standing and heavy lifting - may require temporary help to safeguard their own health and their pregnancies".
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 32

If Peggy Young, who was a driver for United Parcel Service, had had an accident that limited her ability to lift heavy packages, or even lost her license because of driving while intoxicated, U.P.S. would have allowed her to go on "light duty" or assigned her another type of work. But Ms. Young got pregnant. When her doctors told her not to lift packages over 20 pounds to avoid jeopardizing the pregnancy, U.P.S. refused to accommodate her and effectively compelled her to go on unpaid medical leave.

Her case, which has implications for millions of American women and their families, will be argued before the Supreme Court on Wednesday. It is an opportunity for the court to strike a blow against discriminatory treatment and the resulting economic harm that are too often imposed on women who get pregnant - as the vast majority of women entering the work force eventually do.

Although many women can work through an entire pregnancy without job modifications, some - especially those in low-wage jobs requiring long hours, prolonged standing and heavy lifting - may require temporary help to safeguard their own health and their pregnancies.

U.P.S. claims it has a legal right to deny pregnant workers who have temporary physical limitations the flexibility it shows workers with other conditions that similarly affect the tasks they are able to perform. It said its collective bargaining agreement limited work modifications to only three categories: those with injuries that occur on the job; people covered by the Americans With Disabilities Act; and those who lose their Department of Transportation certification because of a legal impediment, like a license revoked for driving while intoxicated. Sorry, pregnancy is not included.

Ms. Young argued in her lawsuit that the policy violated the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, the 1978 law that requires employers to give women affected by pregnancy, childbirth or related medical conditions the same accommodations it gives other employees who are "similar in their ability or inability to work."

The language is plain and clear, as is the statute's history, but the United States Court of Appeals for the Fourth Circuit rejected Ms. Young's complaint. It said that respecting the act's "unambiguous" text would create "anomalous consequences," allegedly giving pregnant women preferential treatment. That is preposterous. To avoid systematically forcing pregnant workers out of their jobs, the law merely requires employers to treat them as they would treat employees eligible for a change in duty for other reasons.

In a brief filed in October, U.P.S. said it is discontinuing its policy of not accommodating pregnant workers as a matter of "corporate discretion," but claims the policy was legal and denies any liability for damages. It is good that, beginning on Jan. 1, pregnant U.P.S. employees will be treated better. But the notion that the better treatment is optional should not be allowed to stand.

U.P.S. said it was merely following the same pregnancy policy observed by the United States Postal Service and defended in the past by the Justice Department.

But, in a brief supporting Ms. Young's claim, Solicitor General Donald Verrilli Jr. renounced the Justice Department's stance and said the Postal Service was reviewing its policy. Someone in the Obama administration needs to check how many other parts of the federal government have been following the same unfair policy for pregnant workers and put a stop to it.

Under a plain reading of the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, and also as a matter of fairness, pregnant workers should be treated no worse than employees who are injured on the job, and the Supreme Court should use the Young case to say so.

Q. Which of the following is the strongest rebuttal of the author's argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 32 Options a and d are speculative. Freedom of hiring and firing must co-exist with the employability rights of the workers.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 33

Constitutional changes allowing Vladimir Putin to run for President again in 2024 sailed through Russia’s lower house of Parliament on Wednesday, opening the way for him to potentially stay in power until 2036. Mr. Putin, a former KGB officer, is currently required by the Constitution to step down in 2024 when his second sequential and fourth presidential term ends. But the amendment would formally reset his presidential term tally to zero. The 450-seat State Duma, the lower house of Parliament, on Wednesday voted in favour of the change, along with other amendments to the Constitution, by 383 votes. Nobody voted against it, but 43 lawmakers abstained. Twenty-four lawmakers were absent. If, as Mr. Putin critics expect, the constitutional court now gives its blessing to the amendment and it is backed in a nationwide vote on April 22, Mr. Putin would have the option to run again for President in 2024. Kremlin critic and opposition politician Alexei Navalny has said he believes Mr. Putin will now try to become President for life. Two people staged lone pickets outside the State Duma on Wednesday.

Q. The President of Russia, flags a referendum for major constitutional changes, Which are?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 33 The amendments include sweeping changes to the constitution, including allowing Putin to run again for two more six-year presidential terms and enshrining social measures on pensions and welfare state as well as conservative ones such as constitutionally banning same-sex marriage,ensuring patriotic education in schools,[citation needed] and placing the constitution above international law.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 34

Constitutional changes allowing Vladimir Putin to run for President again in 2024 sailed through Russia’s lower house of Parliament on Wednesday, opening the way for him to potentially stay in power until 2036. Mr. Putin, a former KGB officer, is currently required by the Constitution to step down in 2024 when his second sequential and fourth presidential term ends. But the amendment would formally reset his presidential term tally to zero. The 450-seat State Duma, the lower house of Parliament, on Wednesday voted in favour of the change, along with other amendments to the Constitution, by 383 votes. Nobody voted against it, but 43 lawmakers abstained. Twenty-four lawmakers were absent. If, as Mr. Putin critics expect, the constitutional court now gives its blessing to the amendment and it is backed in a nationwide vote on April 22, Mr. Putin would have the option to run again for President in 2024. Kremlin critic and opposition politician Alexei Navalny has said he believes Mr. Putin will now try to become President for life. Two people staged lone pickets outside the State Duma on Wednesday.

Q. Since which year is Vladmir Putin is holding the office of President of Russia?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 34 Vladimir Vladimirovich Putin is a Russian politician and former intelligence officer who is the president of Russia, a position he has filled since 2012, and previously from 2000 until 2008. He was also the prime minister from 1999 to 2000, and again from 2008 to 2012.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 35

Constitutional changes allowing Vladimir Putin to run for President again in 2024 sailed through Russia’s lower house of Parliament on Wednesday, opening the way for him to potentially stay in power until 2036. Mr. Putin, a former KGB officer, is currently required by the Constitution to step down in 2024 when his second sequential and fourth presidential term ends. But the amendment would formally reset his presidential term tally to zero. The 450-seat State Duma, the lower house of Parliament, on Wednesday voted in favour of the change, along with other amendments to the Constitution, by 383 votes. Nobody voted against it, but 43 lawmakers abstained. Twenty-four lawmakers were absent. If, as Mr. Putin critics expect, the constitutional court now gives its blessing to the amendment and it is backed in a nationwide vote on April 22, Mr. Putin would have the option to run again for President in 2024. Kremlin critic and opposition politician Alexei Navalny has said he believes Mr. Putin will now try to become President for life. Two people staged lone pickets outside the State Duma on Wednesday.

Q. What is the term of office of President in Russia?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 35 The president is elected directly through a popular vote to a six-year term. The Constitution of the Russian Federation established term limits for the presidency restricting the officeholder to serve no more than two terms.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 36

Constitutional changes allowing Vladimir Putin to run for President again in 2024 sailed through Russia’s lower house of Parliament on Wednesday, opening the way for him to potentially stay in power until 2036. Mr. Putin, a former KGB officer, is currently required by the Constitution to step down in 2024 when his second sequential and fourth presidential term ends. But the amendment would formally reset his presidential term tally to zero. The 450-seat State Duma, the lower house of Parliament, on Wednesday voted in favour of the change, along with other amendments to the Constitution, by 383 votes. Nobody voted against it, but 43 lawmakers abstained. Twenty-four lawmakers were absent. If, as Mr. Putin critics expect, the constitutional court now gives its blessing to the amendment and it is backed in a nationwide vote on April 22, Mr. Putin would have the option to run again for President in 2024. Kremlin critic and opposition politician Alexei Navalny has said he believes Mr. Putin will now try to become President for life. Two people staged lone pickets outside the State Duma on Wednesday.

Q. Who is the current Prime Minister of Russia?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 36 Mikhail Vladimirovich Mishustin is a Russian politician and economist serving as the prime minister of Russia since 16 January 2020. He previously served as the director of the Federal Taxation Service from 2010 to 2020
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 37

Constitutional changes allowing Vladimir Putin to run for President again in 2024 sailed through Russia’s lower house of Parliament on Wednesday, opening the way for him to potentially stay in power until 2036. Mr. Putin, a former KGB officer, is currently required by the Constitution to step down in 2024 when his second sequential and fourth presidential term ends. But the amendment would formally reset his presidential term tally to zero. The 450-seat State Duma, the lower house of Parliament, on Wednesday voted in favour of the change, along with other amendments to the Constitution, by 383 votes. Nobody voted against it, but 43 lawmakers abstained. Twenty-four lawmakers were absent. If, as Mr. Putin critics expect, the constitutional court now gives its blessing to the amendment and it is backed in a nationwide vote on April 22, Mr. Putin would have the option to run again for President in 2024. Kremlin critic and opposition politician Alexei Navalny has said he believes Mr. Putin will now try to become President for life. Two people staged lone pickets outside the State Duma on Wednesday.

Q. Which is the most populous nation in Europe?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 37 Russia is the largest and most populous country in Europe with over 110 million citizens.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 38

India continues to be on the [1] of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) for lack of adequate intellectual property (IP) rights protection and enforcement, the USTR said in its Annual [2]. India remained one of the most challenging economies for IP enforcement and protection and the country’s overall IP enforcement was inadequate, it said.

The annual [2] identifies trade barriers to US companies due to IP laws of other countries. The US placed [x] countries, including some of its major trading partners like India and China, on the list, alleging that enforcement of the intellectual properties have deteriorated or remained at inadequate levels and the Americans who rely on their protection have difficulty with fair and equitable market access.

Despite India’s justifications of limiting IP protections as a way to promote access to technologies, the report noted that India maintains extremely high customs duties directed to IP-intensive products such as medical devices, pharmaceuticals, Information and Communications Technology (ICT) products, solar energy equipment, and capital goods.

Q. Which of the following categories has been redacted by [1]?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 38 The United States Trade Representative (USTR) again placed India on the 'Priority Watch List' along with China, Russia and four others, for lack of adequate intellectual property rights (IPR) protection and enforcement.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 39

India continues to be on the [1] of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) for lack of adequate intellectual property (IP) rights protection and enforcement, the USTR said in its Annual [2]. India remained one of the most challenging economies for IP enforcement and protection and the country’s overall IP enforcement was inadequate, it said.

The annual [2] identifies trade barriers to US companies due to IP laws of other countries. The US placed [x] countries, including some of its major trading partners like India and China, on the list, alleging that enforcement of the intellectual properties have deteriorated or remained at inadequate levels and the Americans who rely on their protection have difficulty with fair and equitable market access.

Despite India’s justifications of limiting IP protections as a way to promote access to technologies, the report noted that India maintains extremely high customs duties directed to IP-intensive products such as medical devices, pharmaceuticals, Information and Communications Technology (ICT) products, solar energy equipment, and capital goods.

Q. Which of the following countries has been excluded from the [1] category this year?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 39 USTR removed three countries Saudi Arabia, Kuwait and Romania from the list for taking significant actions to improve IP protection and enforcement, the statement added.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 40

India continues to be on the [1] of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) for lack of adequate intellectual property (IP) rights protection and enforcement, the USTR said in its Annual [2]. India remained one of the most challenging economies for IP enforcement and protection and the country’s overall IP enforcement was inadequate, it said.

The annual [2] identifies trade barriers to US companies due to IP laws of other countries. The US placed [x] countries, including some of its major trading partners like India and China, on the list, alleging that enforcement of the intellectual properties have deteriorated or remained at inadequate levels and the Americans who rely on their protection have difficulty with fair and equitable market access.

Despite India’s justifications of limiting IP protections as a way to promote access to technologies, the report noted that India maintains extremely high customs duties directed to IP-intensive products such as medical devices, pharmaceuticals, Information and Communications Technology (ICT) products, solar energy equipment, and capital goods.

Q. The report has specifically highlighted a section of the Indian Patent Act that denies patents on items that are not significantly different from their older versions. Which is the section that has been mentioned?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 40 This section states that inventions that are mere "discovery" of a "new form" of a "known substance" and do not result in increased efficacy of that substance are not patentable.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 41

India continues to be on the [1] of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) for lack of adequate intellectual property (IP) rights protection and enforcement, the USTR said in its Annual [2]. India remained one of the most challenging economies for IP enforcement and protection and the country’s overall IP enforcement was inadequate, it said.

The annual [2] identifies trade barriers to US companies due to IP laws of other countries. The US placed [x] countries, including some of its major trading partners like India and China, on the list, alleging that enforcement of the intellectual properties have deteriorated or remained at inadequate levels and the Americans who rely on their protection have difficulty with fair and equitable market access.

Despite India’s justifications of limiting IP protections as a way to promote access to technologies, the report noted that India maintains extremely high customs duties directed to IP-intensive products such as medical devices, pharmaceuticals, Information and Communications Technology (ICT) products, solar energy equipment, and capital goods.

Q. What is the name of the report that has been redacted by [2]?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 41 In its Annual Special 301 Report that identifies trade barriers to American companies due to IP laws of other countries, the USTR said that India remained one of the most challenging economies for IP enforcement and protection and the country’s overall IP enforcement was inadequate.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 42

India continues to be on the [1] of the United States Trade Representative (USTR) for lack of adequate intellectual property (IP) rights protection and enforcement, the USTR said in its Annual [2]. India remained one of the most challenging economies for IP enforcement and protection and the country’s overall IP enforcement was inadequate, it said.

The annual [2] identifies trade barriers to US companies due to IP laws of other countries. The US placed [x] countries, including some of its major trading partners like India and China, on the list, alleging that enforcement of the intellectual properties have deteriorated or remained at inadequate levels and the Americans who rely on their protection have difficulty with fair and equitable market access.

Despite India’s justifications of limiting IP protections as a way to promote access to technologies, the report noted that India maintains extremely high customs duties directed to IP-intensive products such as medical devices, pharmaceuticals, Information and Communications Technology (ICT) products, solar energy equipment, and capital goods.

Q. How many countries have been placed in the category of [1] this year?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 42 India, China, Russia, and four other countries were added to the US’s annual ‘Priority Watch List’ for intellectual property protection and enforcement. Argentina, Chile, Indonesia, and Venezuela are among the other countries on the Office of the United States Trade Representative’s list.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 43

Observations of the [1] system made a few years ago with the ALMA provided the first hints of ongoing planet formation. In the ALMA images, astronomers spotted two spiral arms of dust and gas within in the inner region of the [1] disk. Then, in 2019 and early 2020, Dr. Boccaletti and his colleagues from France, Taiwan, the United States and Belgium used the [2] instrument to perform imaging of [1] in polarized and unpolarized near-infrared light in order to study the morphology of its disk and search for signs of planet formation.

The astronomers confirmed the presence of the spiral arms first detected by ALMA. “Spirals of this type signal the presence of baby planets, which ‘kick’ the gas, creating disturbances in the disk in the form of a wave, somewhat like the wake of a boat on a lake,” said co-author Dr. Emmanuel Di Folco, an astronomer in the Astrophysics Laboratory of Bordeaux.“As the planet rotates around the central star, this wave gets shaped into a spiral arm.”

Q. Which of the following systems has been redacted by [1]?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 43 AB Aurigae is a young Herbig Ae star in the Auriga constellation. It is located at a distance of approximately 531 light years from the Sun based on stellar parallax. This pre-main-sequence star has a stellar classification of A0Ve, matching an A-type main-sequence star with emission lines in the spectrum.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 44

Observations of the [1] system made a few years ago with the ALMA provided the first hints of ongoing planet formation. In the ALMA images, astronomers spotted two spiral arms of dust and gas within in the inner region of the [1] disk. Then, in 2019 and early 2020, Dr. Boccaletti and his colleagues from France, Taiwan, the United States and Belgium used the [2] instrument to perform imaging of [1] in polarized and unpolarized near-infrared light in order to study the morphology of its disk and search for signs of planet formation.

The astronomers confirmed the presence of the spiral arms first detected by ALMA. “Spirals of this type signal the presence of baby planets, which ‘kick’ the gas, creating disturbances in the disk in the form of a wave, somewhat like the wake of a boat on a lake,” said co-author Dr. Emmanuel Di Folco, an astronomer in the Astrophysics Laboratory of Bordeaux.“As the planet rotates around the central star, this wave gets shaped into a spiral arm.”

Q. What does the ALMA stand for?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 44 The Atacama Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array is an astronomical interferometer of 66 radio telescopes in the Atacama Desert of northern Chile, which observe electromagnetic radiation at millimeter and submillimeter wavelengths
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 45

Observations of the [1] system made a few years ago with the ALMA provided the first hints of ongoing planet formation. In the ALMA images, astronomers spotted two spiral arms of dust and gas within in the inner region of the [1] disk. Then, in 2019 and early 2020, Dr. Boccaletti and his colleagues from France, Taiwan, the United States and Belgium used the [2] instrument to perform imaging of [1] in polarized and unpolarized near-infrared light in order to study the morphology of its disk and search for signs of planet formation.

The astronomers confirmed the presence of the spiral arms first detected by ALMA. “Spirals of this type signal the presence of baby planets, which ‘kick’ the gas, creating disturbances in the disk in the form of a wave, somewhat like the wake of a boat on a lake,” said co-author Dr. Emmanuel Di Folco, an astronomer in the Astrophysics Laboratory of Bordeaux.“As the planet rotates around the central star, this wave gets shaped into a spiral arm.”

Q. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 45 Planetary atmospheric circulation models for WASP-76b suggest a dense cloud layers formed of aluminum oxide, neutral iron, or magnesium orthosilicate, but no significant nightside condensation of iron
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 46

Observations of the [1] system made a few years ago with the ALMA provided the first hints of ongoing planet formation. In the ALMA images, astronomers spotted two spiral arms of dust and gas within in the inner region of the [1] disk. Then, in 2019 and early 2020, Dr. Boccaletti and his colleagues from France, Taiwan, the United States and Belgium used the [2] instrument to perform imaging of [1] in polarized and unpolarized near-infrared light in order to study the morphology of its disk and search for signs of planet formation.

The astronomers confirmed the presence of the spiral arms first detected by ALMA. “Spirals of this type signal the presence of baby planets, which ‘kick’ the gas, creating disturbances in the disk in the form of a wave, somewhat like the wake of a boat on a lake,” said co-author Dr. Emmanuel Di Folco, an astronomer in the Astrophysics Laboratory of Bordeaux.“As the planet rotates around the central star, this wave gets shaped into a spiral arm.”

Q. Which of the following instruments has been redacted by [2]?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 46 Spectro-Polarimetric High-contrast Exoplanet REsearch is an adaptive optics system and coronagraphic facility at the Very Large Telescope. It provides direct imaging as well as spectroscopic and polarimetric characterization of exoplanet systems.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 47

Observations of the [1] system made a few years ago with the ALMA provided the first hints of ongoing planet formation. In the ALMA images, astronomers spotted two spiral arms of dust and gas within in the inner region of the [1] disk. Then, in 2019 and early 2020, Dr. Boccaletti and his colleagues from France, Taiwan, the United States and Belgium used the [2] instrument to perform imaging of [1] in polarized and unpolarized near-infrared light in order to study the morphology of its disk and search for signs of planet formation.

The astronomers confirmed the presence of the spiral arms first detected by ALMA. “Spirals of this type signal the presence of baby planets, which ‘kick’ the gas, creating disturbances in the disk in the form of a wave, somewhat like the wake of a boat on a lake,” said co-author Dr. Emmanuel Di Folco, an astronomer in the Astrophysics Laboratory of Bordeaux.“As the planet rotates around the central star, this wave gets shaped into a spiral arm.”

Q. Recently Wasp-76b was in news. Which of the following reasons brought it in news?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 47 WASP-76b is a Hot Jupiter exoplanet in the constellation Pisces. Discovered on October 21, 2013, it orbits an F-type star BD+01 316, and its mass is 0.92 times mass of the Jupiter.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 48

During the winter session of Parliament last December, Law Minister Kiren Rijiju, in response to a written question, said “the matter is sub-judice”.

However, answering a query by the BJP’s Nishikant Dubey on the same issue around the same time, the Law Minister said the matter required in-depth study of the personal laws governing different communities.

“The matter may be taken up by the 22nd Law Commission of India,” Mr. Rijiju said in his letter to Mr. Dubey.

But the irony is that even after two years since the Union Cabinet approved the constitution of the 22nd Law Commission in February 2020, its chairperson and members are yet to be appointed.

The report of the Parliamentary Committee on Law and Justice, headed by BJP leader Sushil Kumar Modi and tabled in both Houses of Parliament last month, pointed out the “snail’s pace in appointing the members of the Law Commission”.

Q. Idea of UCC is given in which DPSP?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 48 The idea comes from Article 44 (one of the Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Constitution, which provides that the State shall endeavour to secure for all citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 49

During the winter session of Parliament last December, Law Minister Kiren Rijiju, in response to a written question, said “the matter is sub-judice”.

However, answering a query by the BJP’s Nishikant Dubey on the same issue around the same time, the Law Minister said the matter required in-depth study of the personal laws governing different communities.

“The matter may be taken up by the 22nd Law Commission of India,” Mr. Rijiju said in his letter to Mr. Dubey.

But the irony is that even after two years since the Union Cabinet approved the constitution of the 22nd Law Commission in February 2020, its chairperson and members are yet to be appointed.

The report of the Parliamentary Committee on Law and Justice, headed by BJP leader Sushil Kumar Modi and tabled in both Houses of Parliament last month, pointed out the “snail’s pace in appointing the members of the Law Commission”.

Q. Which law commission is given the responsibility for UCC research?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 49 The Centre has requested the Law Commission of India (21st) to undertake examination of various issues relating to UCC and to make recommendations thereof.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 50

During the winter session of Parliament last December, Law Minister Kiren Rijiju, in response to a written question, said “the matter is sub-judice”.

However, answering a query by the BJP’s Nishikant Dubey on the same issue around the same time, the Law Minister said the matter required in-depth study of the personal laws governing different communities.

“The matter may be taken up by the 22nd Law Commission of India,” Mr. Rijiju said in his letter to Mr. Dubey.

But the irony is that even after two years since the Union Cabinet approved the constitution of the 22nd Law Commission in February 2020, its chairperson and members are yet to be appointed.

The report of the Parliamentary Committee on Law and Justice, headed by BJP leader Sushil Kumar Modi and tabled in both Houses of Parliament last month, pointed out the “snail’s pace in appointing the members of the Law Commission”.

Q. Which article provides special status to Mizoram state?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 50 Relating to the north-eastern states of Nagaland and Mizoram, emanates from Articles 371A and 371G of the Constitution, decreeing that no parliamentary legislation will replace the customary law and religion-based system for its administration.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 51

During the winter session of Parliament last December, Law Minister Kiren Rijiju, in response to a written question, said “the matter is sub-judice”.

However, answering a query by the BJP’s Nishikant Dubey on the same issue around the same time, the Law Minister said the matter required in-depth study of the personal laws governing different communities.

“The matter may be taken up by the 22nd Law Commission of India,” Mr. Rijiju said in his letter to Mr. Dubey.

But the irony is that even after two years since the Union Cabinet approved the constitution of the 22nd Law Commission in February 2020, its chairperson and members are yet to be appointed.

The report of the Parliamentary Committee on Law and Justice, headed by BJP leader Sushil Kumar Modi and tabled in both Houses of Parliament last month, pointed out the “snail’s pace in appointing the members of the Law Commission”.

Q. Hindu Marriage Act was enacted in ___

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 51 The Hindu Marriage Act is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted in 1955. Three other important acts were also enacted as part of the Hindu Code Bills during this time: the Hindu Succession Act, the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 52

During the winter session of Parliament last December, Law Minister Kiren Rijiju, in response to a written question, said “the matter is sub-judice”.

However, answering a query by the BJP’s Nishikant Dubey on the same issue around the same time, the Law Minister said the matter required in-depth study of the personal laws governing different communities.

“The matter may be taken up by the 22nd Law Commission of India,” Mr. Rijiju said in his letter to Mr. Dubey.

But the irony is that even after two years since the Union Cabinet approved the constitution of the 22nd Law Commission in February 2020, its chairperson and members are yet to be appointed.

The report of the Parliamentary Committee on Law and Justice, headed by BJP leader Sushil Kumar Modi and tabled in both Houses of Parliament last month, pointed out the “snail’s pace in appointing the members of the Law Commission”.

Q. Which famous case of 1995 dealt with bigamy?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 52 Sarla Mudgal Case (1995), which dealt with issue of bigamy and conflict between the personal laws existing on matters of marriage.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 53

Manipur black rice, popularly known as ‘[1]’ by the locals, has bagged the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, according to official sources. Other than this [2] Terracotta and Kadalai Mittai of [3] bagged Geographical Indication tag.

A GI or Geographical Indication (GI) tag is used on the products having specific geographical origin to prevent its misuse by other people. The tag assures the quality and distinctiveness of the products. It also attributable the geographical origin of the product and the owner has exclusive rights over the products. The GI Tag right enables the right holders to use the indication to prevent its use by a third party whose product does not belong to the particular region and doesn't have the required quality and standards.

Worth mentioning that, a protected geographical indication does not enable the right holder to prevent someone from making a product using the same techniques as used by the right holder. In India, more than 350 products have got GI tag.

Q. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 53 Chak-Hao is a scented glutinous (sticky) rice which has been in cultivation in Manipur over centuries, and is characterised by its special aroma.

The rice is black in colour and takes the longest cooking time of 40-45 minutes due to the presence of a fibrous bran layer and higher crude fibre content.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 54

Manipur black rice, popularly known as ‘[1]’ by the locals, has bagged the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, according to official sources. Other than this [2] Terracotta and Kadalai Mittai of [3] bagged Geographical Indication tag.

A GI or Geographical Indication (GI) tag is used on the products having specific geographical origin to prevent its misuse by other people. The tag assures the quality and distinctiveness of the products. It also attributable the geographical origin of the product and the owner has exclusive rights over the products. The GI Tag right enables the right holders to use the indication to prevent its use by a third party whose product does not belong to the particular region and doesn't have the required quality and standards.

Worth mentioning that, a protected geographical indication does not enable the right holder to prevent someone from making a product using the same techniques as used by the right holder. In India, more than 350 products have got GI tag.

Q. Which of the following places has been redacted by [3]?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 54 The famous Kovilpatti kadalai mittai has been granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. The application was filed by the Kovilpatti Regional Kadalaimittai Manufacturers. Kovilpatti kadalai mittai is manufactured in Kovilpatti and adjacent towns and villages in Thoothukudi district.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 55

Manipur black rice, popularly known as ‘[1]’ by the locals, has bagged the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, according to official sources. Other than this [2] Terracotta and Kadalai Mittai of [3] bagged Geographical Indication tag.

A GI or Geographical Indication (GI) tag is used on the products having specific geographical origin to prevent its misuse by other people. The tag assures the quality and distinctiveness of the products. It also attributable the geographical origin of the product and the owner has exclusive rights over the products. The GI Tag right enables the right holders to use the indication to prevent its use by a third party whose product does not belong to the particular region and doesn't have the required quality and standards.

Worth mentioning that, a protected geographical indication does not enable the right holder to prevent someone from making a product using the same techniques as used by the right holder. In India, more than 350 products have got GI tag.

Q. What are the Kadalai Mittais of [3]?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 55 Kovilpatti kadalai mittai is a candy made of groundnuts, jaggery and dyed coconut wisps. It is manufactured in Kovilpatti region in Thoothukudi district of Tamil Nadu. The traditional candy is prepared during village festivals. The GI tag recognition of the candy will help take the product to an international market.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 56

Manipur black rice, popularly known as ‘[1]’ by the locals, has bagged the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, according to official sources. Other than this [2] Terracotta and Kadalai Mittai of [3] bagged Geographical Indication tag.

A GI or Geographical Indication (GI) tag is used on the products having specific geographical origin to prevent its misuse by other people. The tag assures the quality and distinctiveness of the products. It also attributable the geographical origin of the product and the owner has exclusive rights over the products. The GI Tag right enables the right holders to use the indication to prevent its use by a third party whose product does not belong to the particular region and doesn't have the required quality and standards.

Worth mentioning that, a protected geographical indication does not enable the right holder to prevent someone from making a product using the same techniques as used by the right holder. In India, more than 350 products have got GI tag.

Q. Which of the following places has been redacted by [2]?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 56 The terracotta work of Gorakhpur is a centuries-old traditional art form.

The entire work is done with bare hands.

The clay used in the terracotta products is ‘Kabis’ clay which is found in the ponds of Aurangabad, Bharwalia and Budhadih village areas.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 57

Manipur black rice, popularly known as ‘[1]’ by the locals, has bagged the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, according to official sources. Other than this [2] Terracotta and Kadalai Mittai of [3] bagged Geographical Indication tag.

A GI or Geographical Indication (GI) tag is used on the products having specific geographical origin to prevent its misuse by other people. The tag assures the quality and distinctiveness of the products. It also attributable the geographical origin of the product and the owner has exclusive rights over the products. The GI Tag right enables the right holders to use the indication to prevent its use by a third party whose product does not belong to the particular region and doesn't have the required quality and standards.

Worth mentioning that, a protected geographical indication does not enable the right holder to prevent someone from making a product using the same techniques as used by the right holder. In India, more than 350 products have got GI tag.

Q. Which of the following was the first product to get GI Tag in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 57 Darjeeling tea became the first GI tagged product in India, in 2004–2005.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 58

Into the second week of the amendments to Motor Vehicles Act kicking in, the step to sharply increase fines for violations remains controversial. Gujarat this week reduced some of the fines set by the Centre on humanitarian grounds. The overarching aim of the amendments has wide support. Given that India has a shameful record of fatalities on account of road accidents, even when compared to other developing countries, some of the measures in the amendments, particularly the one relating to encouraging good Samaritans, are welcome. The debate is over a steep hike in fines. For example, the penalty for jumping a traffic light has gone from Rs 100 to Rs 5,000. Will a harsh measure be the game changer?

The newly passed Act increases the minimum compensation for hit and run cases as follows: (i) in case of death, from Rs 25,000 to two lakh rupees, and (ii) in case of grievous injury, from Rs 12,500 to Rs 50,000.The Act also allows the central government to order for recall of motor vehicles if a defect in the vehicle may cause damage to the environment, or the driver, or other road users. The manufacturer of the recalled vehicle will be required toreimburse the buyers for the full cost of the vehicle.

The record across the world is decidedly mixed but fine remains a popular tool, with Finland going so far as to link it to a violator's disposable income. What is unambiguous is that the problem of fatalities is more pronounced in the developing world, which WHO says accounts for 93% of fatalities with around 60% of vehicles.

Richer countries have created safer roads over the last four decades. There are two solutions and both are needed. One, is to strengthen the regulatory and enforcement framework. Two, significantly improve road design in India which is also a cause of fatalities.

Will stiff fines improve driving habits? Yes, if the violator is fairly sure that it's difficult to escape. However, enforcement has been India's weakness. Once the current fuss dies, our record suggests it will be business as usual. It may also encourage petty corruption. Therefore, instead of fixing fines at a level where even a relatively wealthy BJP-administered state feels pressured to lower it, focus on consistent enforcement. A model where most fines escalate with repeat offences with the possibility of flying below the radar minimised is the way forward.

Q. With which of the following steps, according to the passage, would the author most likely to agree with?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 58 Correct Answer is (c)

The government orders that any construction of road must be only after consulting architects for its design and layout. In the 3rd paragraph, the author mentions that road accidents are also because of faulty designs of roads and therefore prior consultation with architects would reduce the chances of faulty designs (…. Two, significantly improve road design in India which is also a cause of fatalities).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) is incorrect as nowhere does the passage discuss benefits of private contractors in road construction.

  • Option (b) is incorrect as toll collection is not discussed in the passage.

  • Option (d) is incorrect as the passage does not mention any delays in road construction projects.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 59

Into the second week of the amendments to Motor Vehicles Act kicking in, the step to sharply increase fines for violations remains controversial. Gujarat this week reduced some of the fines set by the Centre on humanitarian grounds. The overarching aim of the amendments has wide support. Given that India has a shameful record of fatalities on account of road accidents, even when compared to other developing countries, some of the measures in the amendments, particularly the one relating to encouraging good Samaritans, are welcome. The debate is over a steep hike in fines. For example, the penalty for jumping a traffic light has gone from Rs 100 to Rs 5,000. Will a harsh measure be the game changer?

The newly passed Act increases the minimum compensation for hit and run cases as follows: (i) in case of death, from Rs 25,000 to two lakh rupees, and (ii) in case of grievous injury, from Rs 12,500 to Rs 50,000.The Act also allows the central government to order for recall of motor vehicles if a defect in the vehicle may cause damage to the environment, or the driver, or other road users. The manufacturer of the recalled vehicle will be required toreimburse the buyers for the full cost of the vehicle.

The record across the world is decidedly mixed but fine remains a popular tool, with Finland going so far as to link it to a violator's disposable income. What is unambiguous is that the problem of fatalities is more pronounced in the developing world, which WHO says accounts for 93% of fatalities with around 60% of vehicles.

Richer countries have created safer roads over the last four decades. There are two solutions and both are needed. One, is to strengthen the regulatory and enforcement framework. Two, significantly improve road design in India which is also a cause of fatalities.

Will stiff fines improve driving habits? Yes, if the violator is fairly sure that it's difficult to escape. However, enforcement has been India's weakness. Once the current fuss dies, our record suggests it will be business as usual. It may also encourage petty corruption. Therefore, instead of fixing fines at a level where even a relatively wealthy BJP-administered state feels pressured to lower it, focus on consistent enforcement. A model where most fines escalate with repeat offences with the possibility of flying below the radar minimised is the way forward.

Q. Suppose, the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act is not passed. Chandu, in an inebriated condition is driving back home when he runs over Gujan. Gunjan suffers left leg and right arm fractures besides major bruises on her head. Chandu had fled the spot.

Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 59 Correct Answer is (a)

Gunjan will get Rs. 12500 from the government.

Please note we have to answer keeping in mind that the new Act is not passed. Hence, provision of old Act will apply in this case. In the 2nd paragraph, enhancement of penalties in hit and run cases is mentioned (…The newly passed Act increases the minimum compensation for hit and run cases as…in case of grievous injury, from Rs 12,500 to Rs 50,000).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (b) is incorrect as government pays compensation and not Chandu who anyways ran away. He may however, be liable under IPC for rash and negligent driving but that is outside the information given in the passage.

  • Options (c) and (d) are incorrect as in the old Act minimum compensation was Rs.12500 and not Rs.50000.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 60

Into the second week of the amendments to Motor Vehicles Act kicking in, the step to sharply increase fines for violations remains controversial. Gujarat this week reduced some of the fines set by the Centre on humanitarian grounds. The overarching aim of the amendments has wide support. Given that India has a shameful record of fatalities on account of road accidents, even when compared to other developing countries, some of the measures in the amendments, particularly the one relating to encouraging good Samaritans, are welcome. The debate is over a steep hike in fines. For example, the penalty for jumping a traffic light has gone from Rs 100 to Rs 5,000. Will a harsh measure be the game changer?

The newly passed Act increases the minimum compensation for hit and run cases as follows: (i) in case of death, from Rs 25,000 to two lakh rupees, and (ii) in case of grievous injury, from Rs 12,500 to Rs 50,000.The Act also allows the central government to order for recall of motor vehicles if a defect in the vehicle may cause damage to the environment, or the driver, or other road users. The manufacturer of the recalled vehicle will be required toreimburse the buyers for the full cost of the vehicle.

The record across the world is decidedly mixed but fine remains a popular tool, with Finland going so far as to link it to a violator's disposable income. What is unambiguous is that the problem of fatalities is more pronounced in the developing world, which WHO says accounts for 93% of fatalities with around 60% of vehicles.

Richer countries have created safer roads over the last four decades. There are two solutions and both are needed. One, is to strengthen the regulatory and enforcement framework. Two, significantly improve road design in India which is also a cause of fatalities.

Will stiff fines improve driving habits? Yes, if the violator is fairly sure that it's difficult to escape. However, enforcement has been India's weakness. Once the current fuss dies, our record suggests it will be business as usual. It may also encourage petty corruption. Therefore, instead of fixing fines at a level where even a relatively wealthy BJP-administered state feels pressured to lower it, focus on consistent enforcement. A model where most fines escalate with repeat offences with the possibility of flying below the radar minimised is the way forward.

Q. X industry manufactures passenger cars. It launched a new model which uese a new engine technology resulting in greater power and better driving experience. Shashank purchase one of this model cars for Rs. 10 Lakhs. A month later some scientific studies found emissions containing large amounts of heavy metals in the exhaust of the car. The government ordered the entire new stock to be called back. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 60 Correct Answer is (b)

Shashank has to be paid back Rs. 10 Lakhs by the X industry. In the 2nd paragraph, the author mentions the power of the government to recall a vehicle if it did not meet environment norms (…The Act also allows the central government to order for recall of motor vehicles if a defect in the vehicle may cause damage to the environment…The manufacturer of the recalled vehicle will be required toreimburse the buyers for the full cost of the vehicle).

Since the manufacturer is required to reimburse the buyer, X industry will be required to give Rs. 10 Lakhs, the cost of the defective vehicle, to Shashank.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.Options (a), (c) and (d) are therefore incorrect.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 61

Into the second week of the amendments to Motor Vehicles Act kicking in, the step to sharply increase fines for violations remains controversial. Gujarat this week reduced some of the fines set by the Centre on humanitarian grounds. The overarching aim of the amendments has wide support. Given that India has a shameful record of fatalities on account of road accidents, even when compared to other developing countries, some of the measures in the amendments, particularly the one relating to encouraging good Samaritans, are welcome. The debate is over a steep hike in fines. For example, the penalty for jumping a traffic light has gone from Rs 100 to Rs 5,000. Will a harsh measure be the game changer?

The newly passed Act increases the minimum compensation for hit and run cases as follows: (i) in case of death, from Rs 25,000 to two lakh rupees, and (ii) in case of grievous injury, from Rs 12,500 to Rs 50,000.The Act also allows the central government to order for recall of motor vehicles if a defect in the vehicle may cause damage to the environment, or the driver, or other road users. The manufacturer of the recalled vehicle will be required toreimburse the buyers for the full cost of the vehicle.

The record across the world is decidedly mixed but fine remains a popular tool, with Finland going so far as to link it to a violator's disposable income. What is unambiguous is that the problem of fatalities is more pronounced in the developing world, which WHO says accounts for 93% of fatalities with around 60% of vehicles.

Richer countries have created safer roads over the last four decades. There are two solutions and both are needed. One, is to strengthen the regulatory and enforcement framework. Two, significantly improve road design in India which is also a cause of fatalities.

Will stiff fines improve driving habits? Yes, if the violator is fairly sure that it's difficult to escape. However, enforcement has been India's weakness. Once the current fuss dies, our record suggests it will be business as usual. It may also encourage petty corruption. Therefore, instead of fixing fines at a level where even a relatively wealthy BJP-administered state feels pressured to lower it, focus on consistent enforcement. A model where most fines escalate with repeat offences with the possibility of flying below the radar minimised is the way forward.

Q. According to the author, why would the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act be a failure or be less efficacious?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 61 Correct Answer is (b)

The Act ignores the problem of tepid enforcement in India. In the last paragraph, the author mentions the problem, the Act will face (…However, enforcement has been India's weakness). Therefore, despite increase in fines, there will be no or less deterrence on public.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) is incorrect as the author uses the case of Finland only as a running example to mention how far a country may go in imposing harsher fines.

  • Option (c) is incorrect as the Act on the contrary prescribes harsher penalties.

  • Option (d) seems factually correct given that Gujarat has lessened the fine, giving an impression that State governments weren't taken onboard. This may be a failure of federal policy, but the author does not use this argument as a criticism of the Act. So, comparatively option (b) is more appropriate.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 62

Into the second week of the amendments to Motor Vehicles Act kicking in, the step to sharply increase fines for violations remains controversial. Gujarat this week reduced some of the fines set by the Centre on humanitarian grounds. The overarching aim of the amendments has wide support. Given that India has a shameful record of fatalities on account of road accidents, even when compared to other developing countries, some of the measures in the amendments, particularly the one relating to encouraging good Samaritans, are welcome. The debate is over a steep hike in fines. For example, the penalty for jumping a traffic light has gone from Rs 100 to Rs 5,000. Will a harsh measure be the game changer?

The newly passed Act increases the minimum compensation for hit and run cases as follows: (i) in case of death, from Rs 25,000 to two lakh rupees, and (ii) in case of grievous injury, from Rs 12,500 to Rs 50,000.The Act also allows the central government to order for recall of motor vehicles if a defect in the vehicle may cause damage to the environment, or the driver, or other road users. The manufacturer of the recalled vehicle will be required toreimburse the buyers for the full cost of the vehicle.

The record across the world is decidedly mixed but fine remains a popular tool, with Finland going so far as to link it to a violator's disposable income. What is unambiguous is that the problem of fatalities is more pronounced in the developing world, which WHO says accounts for 93% of fatalities with around 60% of vehicles.

Richer countries have created safer roads over the last four decades. There are two solutions and both are needed. One, is to strengthen the regulatory and enforcement framework. Two, significantly improve road design in India which is also a cause of fatalities.

Will stiff fines improve driving habits? Yes, if the violator is fairly sure that it's difficult to escape. However, enforcement has been India's weakness. Once the current fuss dies, our record suggests it will be business as usual. It may also encourage petty corruption. Therefore, instead of fixing fines at a level where even a relatively wealthy BJP-administered state feels pressured to lower it, focus on consistent enforcement. A model where most fines escalate with repeat offences with the possibility of flying below the radar minimised is the way forward.

Q. Kalyan hits his car against a cycler Ranga, as a result of which Ranga dies. Kalyan noticing no one at the accident spot, sped away. Decide based on the passage.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 62 Correct Answer is (d)

Ranga is to be paid a compensation of Rs. 2 Lakhs by the government. Again this is a hit and run case.

In the 2nd paragraph, the author mentions compensation in different cases (…The newly passed Act increases the minimum compensation for hit and run cases as follows: (i) in case of death, from Rs 25,000 to two lakh rupees). Ranga dies and so he is eligible for Rs. 2 Lakhs compensation from the government.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Options (b) and (c) are therefore incorrect.

  • Option (a) is not based on information supplied in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 63

The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2019, which seeks to ban commercial surrogacy, was passed by the Lok Sabha in the Monsoon Session and was moved for consideration and passage in the Rajya Sabha. During the debate on the bill, some of the members sought its review as over a dozen major recommendations by a standing committee were incorporated in the draft law.

Surrogacy is an arrangement wherein a surrogate mother bears and delivers a child for a couple or person.

In gestational surrogacy, an embryo, which is fertilised by in vitro fertilisation, is implanted into the uterus of the surrogate mother who carries and delivers the baby. In traditional surrogacy, the surrogate mother is impregnated with the sperms of the intended father. Surrogacy may be commercial or altruistic.Altruistic surrogacy does not involve monetary considerations, except medical expenses and insurance.In commercial surrogacy, the woman who gives birth to a child for the intending couple is rewarded for it in cash or kind.According to the Bill, if an individual is found advertising or undertaking surrogacy, exploiting the surrogate mother, selling, importing, purchasing or trading human embryos or gametes for surrogacy, conducting sex selection for surrogacy, or has abandoned, exploited or disowned a surrogate child, he/she can be imprisoned for up to 10 years and fined of up to Rs 10 lakh.

According to the Bill, only altruistic surrogacy will be permitted in India, in cases where either one or both the members making up the couple suffer from infertility, of which the certificate of essentiality is proof. Additionally, a certificate of eligibility is issued to the intending couple and is proof that the couple has been married for at least five years, and are Indian citizens. The wife must be in the age group of 23-50, and the husband in the age group of 26-55.

In case abortion of a surrogate foetus is considered, only the consent of the surrogate mother is required, according to the provisions under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971. The intending couple has no say in this decision. On the other hand, after being born, the child is considered to be the biological child of the intending couple and the surrogate mother losses all rights to the child.The intending couple should not have any surviving biological child, through adoption or through surrogacy. An exception is made if the intending couple has a surviving child who is mentally or physically challenged, or is suffering from a fatal illness with no permanent cure.

Q. Which of the following, according to the passage, most correctly describe the present status of the Surrogacy Bill?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 63 Correct Answer is (a)

The Bill has been passed only in one house of the Parliament. The 1st paragraph mentions this (…The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2019, which seeks to ban commercial surrogacy, was passed by the Lok Sabha in the Monsoon Session and was moved for consideration and passage in the Rajya Sabha).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.Options (a), (c) and (d) are therefore incorrect.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 64

The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2019, which seeks to ban commercial surrogacy, was passed by the Lok Sabha in the Monsoon Session and was moved for consideration and passage in the Rajya Sabha. During the debate on the bill, some of the members sought its review as over a dozen major recommendations by a standing committee were incorporated in the draft law.

Surrogacy is an arrangement wherein a surrogate mother bears and delivers a child for a couple or person.

In gestational surrogacy, an embryo, which is fertilised by in vitro fertilisation, is implanted into the uterus of the surrogate mother who carries and delivers the baby. In traditional surrogacy, the surrogate mother is impregnated with the sperms of the intended father. Surrogacy may be commercial or altruistic.Altruistic surrogacy does not involve monetary considerations, except medical expenses and insurance.In commercial surrogacy, the woman who gives birth to a child for the intending couple is rewarded for it in cash or kind.According to the Bill, if an individual is found advertising or undertaking surrogacy, exploiting the surrogate mother, selling, importing, purchasing or trading human embryos or gametes for surrogacy, conducting sex selection for surrogacy, or has abandoned, exploited or disowned a surrogate child, he/she can be imprisoned for up to 10 years and fined of up to Rs 10 lakh.

According to the Bill, only altruistic surrogacy will be permitted in India, in cases where either one or both the members making up the couple suffer from infertility, of which the certificate of essentiality is proof. Additionally, a certificate of eligibility is issued to the intending couple and is proof that the couple has been married for at least five years, and are Indian citizens. The wife must be in the age group of 23-50, and the husband in the age group of 26-55.

In case abortion of a surrogate foetus is considered, only the consent of the surrogate mother is required, according to the provisions under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971. The intending couple has no say in this decision. On the other hand, after being born, the child is considered to be the biological child of the intending couple and the surrogate mother losses all rights to the child.The intending couple should not have any surviving biological child, through adoption or through surrogacy. An exception is made if the intending couple has a surviving child who is mentally or physically challenged, or is suffering from a fatal illness with no permanent cure.

Q. Suppose the Bill becomes a law. Rama makes a website offering her services for surrogacy for a very nominal amount. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 64 Correct Answer is (c)

Rama is liable for imprisonment and fine. We have to answer presuming that the Bill is now a law. In the 2nd paragraph, advertising of surrogacy is banned (…if an individual is found advertising or undertaking surrogacy…he/she can be imprisoned for up to 10 years and fined of up to Rs 10 lakh).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) is therefore, incorrect.

  • Option (b) is incorrect as whatever amount Rama is charging is irrelevant, as in whichever case, she cannot advertise surrogacy.

  • Option (d) is incorrect for the same reason as it is irrelevant whether she is doing altruistic or commercial surrogacy as long as she is advertising, she is liable.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 65

The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2019, which seeks to ban commercial surrogacy, was passed by the Lok Sabha in the Monsoon Session and was moved for consideration and passage in the Rajya Sabha. During the debate on the bill, some of the members sought its review as over a dozen major recommendations by a standing committee were incorporated in the draft law.

Surrogacy is an arrangement wherein a surrogate mother bears and delivers a child for a couple or person.

In gestational surrogacy, an embryo, which is fertilised by in vitro fertilisation, is implanted into the uterus of the surrogate mother who carries and delivers the baby. In traditional surrogacy, the surrogate mother is impregnated with the sperms of the intended father. Surrogacy may be commercial or altruistic.Altruistic surrogacy does not involve monetary considerations, except medical expenses and insurance.In commercial surrogacy, the woman who gives birth to a child for the intending couple is rewarded for it in cash or kind.According to the Bill, if an individual is found advertising or undertaking surrogacy, exploiting the surrogate mother, selling, importing, purchasing or trading human embryos or gametes for surrogacy, conducting sex selection for surrogacy, or has abandoned, exploited or disowned a surrogate child, he/she can be imprisoned for up to 10 years and fined of up to Rs 10 lakh.

According to the Bill, only altruistic surrogacy will be permitted in India, in cases where either one or both the members making up the couple suffer from infertility, of which the certificate of essentiality is proof. Additionally, a certificate of eligibility is issued to the intending couple and is proof that the couple has been married for at least five years, and are Indian citizens. The wife must be in the age group of 23-50, and the husband in the age group of 26-55.

In case abortion of a surrogate foetus is considered, only the consent of the surrogate mother is required, according to the provisions under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971. The intending couple has no say in this decision. On the other hand, after being born, the child is considered to be the biological child of the intending couple and the surrogate mother losses all rights to the child.The intending couple should not have any surviving biological child, through adoption or through surrogacy. An exception is made if the intending couple has a surviving child who is mentally or physically challenged, or is suffering from a fatal illness with no permanent cure.

Q. Suppose the Surrogacy Bill becomes a law. X and Y are infertile couple. They get a child from a surrogate mother Z. A year later Z wants the child back. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 65 Correct Answer is (d)

Z cannot get the child back as X and Y are the child's legal parents now. In the last paragraph, it is mentioned that the couple become the surrogate child's parents and the surrogate mother loses all rights (…On the other hand, after being born, the child is considered to be the biological child of the intending couple and the surrogate mother losses all rights to the child).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) is therefore, incorrect.

  • Option (b) is incorrect as nowhere in the passage such a condition is mentioned.

  • Option (c) is incorrect on the same reasoning.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 66

The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2019, which seeks to ban commercial surrogacy, was passed by the Lok Sabha in the Monsoon Session and was moved for consideration and passage in the Rajya Sabha. During the debate on the bill, some of the members sought its review as over a dozen major recommendations by a standing committee were incorporated in the draft law.

Surrogacy is an arrangement wherein a surrogate mother bears and delivers a child for a couple or person.

In gestational surrogacy, an embryo, which is fertilised by in vitro fertilisation, is implanted into the uterus of the surrogate mother who carries and delivers the baby. In traditional surrogacy, the surrogate mother is impregnated with the sperms of the intended father. Surrogacy may be commercial or altruistic.Altruistic surrogacy does not involve monetary considerations, except medical expenses and insurance.In commercial surrogacy, the woman who gives birth to a child for the intending couple is rewarded for it in cash or kind.According to the Bill, if an individual is found advertising or undertaking surrogacy, exploiting the surrogate mother, selling, importing, purchasing or trading human embryos or gametes for surrogacy, conducting sex selection for surrogacy, or has abandoned, exploited or disowned a surrogate child, he/she can be imprisoned for up to 10 years and fined of up to Rs 10 lakh.

According to the Bill, only altruistic surrogacy will be permitted in India, in cases where either one or both the members making up the couple suffer from infertility, of which the certificate of essentiality is proof. Additionally, a certificate of eligibility is issued to the intending couple and is proof that the couple has been married for at least five years, and are Indian citizens. The wife must be in the age group of 23-50, and the husband in the age group of 26-55.

In case abortion of a surrogate foetus is considered, only the consent of the surrogate mother is required, according to the provisions under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971. The intending couple has no say in this decision. On the other hand, after being born, the child is considered to be the biological child of the intending couple and the surrogate mother losses all rights to the child.The intending couple should not have any surviving biological child, through adoption or through surrogacy. An exception is made if the intending couple has a surviving child who is mentally or physically challenged, or is suffering from a fatal illness with no permanent cure.

Q. X agrees to be a surrogate mother for a couple for Rs.25 Lakhs besides Rupees Twenty Thousand towards medical costs. Choose the most appropriate option.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 66 Correct Answer is (a)

X is contracting for commercial surrogacy. Note that X is charging Rs.25 Lakhs which is besides the medical costs. Refer 2nd paragraph (…In commercial surrogacy, the woman who gives birth to a child for the intending couple is rewarded for it in cash or kind). Refer last paragraph (…On the other hand, after being born, the child is considered to be the biological child of the intending couple and the surrogate mother losses all rights to the child).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (b) is therefore incorrect.

  • Option (c) is incorrect as the Bill is banning only commercial surrogacy and not 'any kind' of surrogacy.

  • Option (d) is incorrect as X being a surrogate mother loses all rights to the child.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 67

The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2019, which seeks to ban commercial surrogacy, was passed by the Lok Sabha in the Monsoon Session and was moved for consideration and passage in the Rajya Sabha. During the debate on the bill, some of the members sought its review as over a dozen major recommendations by a standing committee were incorporated in the draft law.

Surrogacy is an arrangement wherein a surrogate mother bears and delivers a child for a couple or person.

In gestational surrogacy, an embryo, which is fertilised by in vitro fertilisation, is implanted into the uterus of the surrogate mother who carries and delivers the baby. In traditional surrogacy, the surrogate mother is impregnated with the sperms of the intended father. Surrogacy may be commercial or altruistic.Altruistic surrogacy does not involve monetary considerations, except medical expenses and insurance.In commercial surrogacy, the woman who gives birth to a child for the intending couple is rewarded for it in cash or kind.According to the Bill, if an individual is found advertising or undertaking surrogacy, exploiting the surrogate mother, selling, importing, purchasing or trading human embryos or gametes for surrogacy, conducting sex selection for surrogacy, or has abandoned, exploited or disowned a surrogate child, he/she can be imprisoned for up to 10 years and fined of up to Rs 10 lakh.

According to the Bill, only altruistic surrogacy will be permitted in India, in cases where either one or both the members making up the couple suffer from infertility, of which the certificate of essentiality is proof. Additionally, a certificate of eligibility is issued to the intending couple and is proof that the couple has been married for at least five years, and are Indian citizens. The wife must be in the age group of 23-50, and the husband in the age group of 26-55.

In case abortion of a surrogate foetus is considered, only the consent of the surrogate mother is required, according to the provisions under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971. The intending couple has no say in this decision. On the other hand, after being born, the child is considered to be the biological child of the intending couple and the surrogate mother losses all rights to the child.The intending couple should not have any surviving biological child, through adoption or through surrogacy. An exception is made if the intending couple has a surviving child who is mentally or physically challenged, or is suffering from a fatal illness with no permanent cure.

Q. Suppose the Surrogacy Bill is passed. Ramesh is married to Madhu. They have a biological child Rohan, aged 5 years. Madhu is pregnant with their 2nd child when due to an accident she suffers a miscarriage. Her ovaries and uterus were also removed making her unable to ever conceive in future.

Can Ramesh and Madhu go for surrogacy ?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 67 Correct Answer is (c)

No, as they already have a child. In the last paragraph the author mentions that only couple who don't have any child whether biological or adopted can opt for surrogacy (…The intending couple should not have any surviving biological child, through adoption or through surrogacy). Ramesh and Madhu already have a 5 year old child, Rohan.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.Options (a), (b) and (d) are therefore incorrect.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 68

The suicide of an actress in Mumbai had grabbed newspaper headlines. As the interpersonal relationship of the victim and her boyfriend was put under the microscope, details of the relationship began to emerge, where it was alleged that the actress was fine the day before, was subjected to controlling behavior of the boyfriend on previous occasions. However, amidst the minutiae of the personal story, suicide was never construed as an act of domestic violence.

In contrast, when a man walked on the streets of Pune with the chopped head of his wife in his hand, the act was immediately reported as a murder or an act of violence. Public condemnation and outrage was widespread in denouncing the insane act of the husband.

However, what happens when a man walks out of an interpersonal relationship killing a woman, but without the head of a woman in his hand? In this circumstance, the death of a woman is instantly labeled as a suicide rather than a result of domestic violence. This trend of labeling "deaths under mysterious circumstances" as suicides negates the experiences of violence endured by women in the intimate relationship and contributes to the invisibility of domestic violence in intimate relationships.

Treating the suicide as an unnatural death rather than as violence is out of sync with the current literature on domestic violence as well as the legal definition of domestic violence provided under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act (PWDVA), 2005.

We must adopt a socio-legal perspective to critically examine the social phenomenon of systematically downgrading the death of women in intimate relationships to a suicide as an outcome of a personal or private affair of two individuals. When the death in intimate relationships is termed as a suicide, the label ignores the social context of the correlation between the interpersonal realm and the act of death. It mitigates the personal circumstances of the women, who experience different forms of violence from their intimate partners over a period.

Q. According to the passage select the statement that can be most plausibly inferred from the author's reasoning:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 68 Refer to the last sentence of the 1st paragraph.

Other options therefore are all factually incorrect. "…our collective conscience was blinded by the categories of Indian criminal law, which allowed us to see the "suicide," but dissociated it from domestic violence."

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 69

The suicide of an actress in Mumbai had grabbed newspaper headlines. As the interpersonal relationship of the victim and her boyfriend was put under the microscope, details of the relationship began to emerge, where it was alleged that the actress was fine the day before, was subjected to controlling behavior of the boyfriend on previous occasions. However, amidst the minutiae of the personal story, suicide was never construed as an act of domestic violence.

In contrast, when a man walked on the streets of Pune with the chopped head of his wife in his hand, the act was immediately reported as a murder or an act of violence. Public condemnation and outrage was widespread in denouncing the insane act of the husband.

However, what happens when a man walks out of an interpersonal relationship killing a woman, but without the head of a woman in his hand? In this circumstance, the death of a woman is instantly labeled as a suicide rather than a result of domestic violence. This trend of labeling "deaths under mysterious circumstances" as suicides negates the experiences of violence endured by women in the intimate relationship and contributes to the invisibility of domestic violence in intimate relationships.

Treating the suicide as an unnatural death rather than as violence is out of sync with the current literature on domestic violence as well as the legal definition of domestic violence provided under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act (PWDVA), 2005.

We must adopt a socio-legal perspective to critically examine the social phenomenon of systematically downgrading the death of women in intimate relationships to a suicide as an outcome of a personal or private affair of two individuals. When the death in intimate relationships is termed as a suicide, the label ignores the social context of the correlation between the interpersonal realm and the act of death. It mitigates the personal circumstances of the women, who experience different forms of violence from their intimate partners over a period.

Q. If domestic violence under the Protection of W omen from Domestic Violence Act (PWDVA), 2005 is defined as actual abuse or the threat of abuse whether physical, sexual, verbal, emotional or economic; and if the allegations in the case mentioned in the first paragraph is true, then under the act what the husband did would be:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 69 The question asks you to apply an ex t ernal information to a situation mentioned in the passage.

You will have to understand the definition given and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.

From the passage, what is mentioned is that the husband had controlling behavior. In the definition of domestic violence there must be either an abuse or a threat of abuse. Therefore, if controlling behavior is a form of abuse then it will be considered as domestic violence.

Incorrect answers

Choice (a) - The passage is silent as to whether the husband committed physical violence or not.

Choice (b) - The definition of domestic violence is not based on a death. Therefore, the death alone cannot be a reason for the act committed by the husband being one of domestic violence cannot be

Choice (d) - "only if" suggests a necessary condition. Physical abuse is not a necessary condition for the definition of domestic violence.

Other acts of abuse also come under the definition of domestic violence.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 70

The suicide of an actress in Mumbai had grabbed newspaper headlines. As the interpersonal relationship of the victim and her boyfriend was put under the microscope, details of the relationship began to emerge, where it was alleged that the actress was fine the day before, was subjected to controlling behavior of the boyfriend on previous occasions. However, amidst the minutiae of the personal story, suicide was never construed as an act of domestic violence.

In contrast, when a man walked on the streets of Pune with the chopped head of his wife in his hand, the act was immediately reported as a murder or an act of violence. Public condemnation and outrage was widespread in denouncing the insane act of the husband.

However, what happens when a man walks out of an interpersonal relationship killing a woman, but without the head of a woman in his hand? In this circumstance, the death of a woman is instantly labeled as a suicide rather than a result of domestic violence. This trend of labeling "deaths under mysterious circumstances" as suicides negates the experiences of violence endured by women in the intimate relationship and contributes to the invisibility of domestic violence in intimate relationships.

Treating the suicide as an unnatural death rather than as violence is out of sync with the current literature on domestic violence as well as the legal definition of domestic violence provided under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act (PWDVA), 2005.

We must adopt a socio-legal perspective to critically examine the social phenomenon of systematically downgrading the death of women in intimate relationships to a suicide as an outcome of a personal or private affair of two individuals. When the death in intimate relationships is termed as a suicide, the label ignores the social context of the correlation between the interpersonal realm and the act of death. It mitigates the personal circumstances of the women, who experience different forms of violence from their intimate partners over a period.

Q. Following an intimate relationship, Roxana was married to Ricky. After their marriage, Roxana began to reside with Ricky. After about one year of the marriage relationship began to turn sour. Roxana was even assaulted by her husband. Two days later after the assault she commits suicide. Now the case is before the consideration of the Supreme Court. Going by the essence of the passage, which of the following statement can be termed incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 70 Option (a) is a correct statement which is the message of the passage. Options (b) and (c) are also correct statements which can be drawn from the passage. Option (d) is the only inconsistent statement. The passage never claims that 'Suicides are always preceded by an act of domestic violence or domestic violence always leads to suicides'.

Hence option d is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 71

The suicide of an actress in Mumbai had grabbed newspaper headlines. As the interpersonal relationship of the victim and her boyfriend was put under the microscope, details of the relationship began to emerge, where it was alleged that the actress was fine the day before, was subjected to controlling behavior of the boyfriend on previous occasions. However, amidst the minutiae of the personal story, suicide was never construed as an act of domestic violence.

In contrast, when a man walked on the streets of Pune with the chopped head of his wife in his hand, the act was immediately reported as a murder or an act of violence. Public condemnation and outrage was widespread in denouncing the insane act of the husband.

However, what happens when a man walks out of an interpersonal relationship killing a woman, but without the head of a woman in his hand? In this circumstance, the death of a woman is instantly labeled as a suicide rather than a result of domestic violence. This trend of labeling "deaths under mysterious circumstances" as suicides negates the experiences of violence endured by women in the intimate relationship and contributes to the invisibility of domestic violence in intimate relationships.

Treating the suicide as an unnatural death rather than as violence is out of sync with the current literature on domestic violence as well as the legal definition of domestic violence provided under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act (PWDVA), 2005.

We must adopt a socio-legal perspective to critically examine the social phenomenon of systematically downgrading the death of women in intimate relationships to a suicide as an outcome of a personal or private affair of two individuals. When the death in intimate relationships is termed as a suicide, the label ignores the social context of the correlation between the interpersonal realm and the act of death. It mitigates the personal circumstances of the women, who experience different forms of violence from their intimate partners over a period.

Q. Which one of the following views can be attributed to the author of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 71 This question asks you to identify the author reasoning and the option that align with that reasoning. The author, in the last paragraph argues that when the death in intimate relationship is termed as suicide, the label ignores the correlation between interpersonal realm and the death.

Therefore, the author would consider that the label in the case of death in intimate relationship is erroneous. This makes answer choice (a) the correct answer.

Incorrect answers

Choice (b) - this statement says that the label of suicide should be avoided completely. The author does not argue that the label of suicide does not make sense in every situation. The label is a problem when it comes to the specific case of deaths in intimate relationship.

Choice (c) - The problem with this option is that it broadens the context. The option takes about all situations when a woman causes her own death.

The author specifically looks at a situation where there is an intimate relationship. For instance, if a woman commits suicides because of depression, then the author would not have an issue labelling it suicide.

Choice (d) - This twists the author's argument completely. The other is not arguing that the label of suicide should be applicable for only one gender.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 72

The suicide of an actress in Mumbai had grabbed newspaper headlines. As the interpersonal relationship of the victim and her boyfriend was put under the microscope, details of the relationship began to emerge, where it was alleged that the actress was fine the day before, was subjected to controlling behavior of the boyfriend on previous occasions. However, amidst the minutiae of the personal story, suicide was never construed as an act of domestic violence.

In contrast, when a man walked on the streets of Pune with the chopped head of his wife in his hand, the act was immediately reported as a murder or an act of violence. Public condemnation and outrage was widespread in denouncing the insane act of the husband.

However, what happens when a man walks out of an interpersonal relationship killing a woman, but without the head of a woman in his hand? In this circumstance, the death of a woman is instantly labeled as a suicide rather than a result of domestic violence. This trend of labeling "deaths under mysterious circumstances" as suicides negates the experiences of violence endured by women in the intimate relationship and contributes to the invisibility of domestic violence in intimate relationships.

Treating the suicide as an unnatural death rather than as violence is out of sync with the current literature on domestic violence as well as the legal definition of domestic violence provided under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act (PWDVA), 2005.

We must adopt a socio-legal perspective to critically examine the social phenomenon of systematically downgrading the death of women in intimate relationships to a suicide as an outcome of a personal or private affair of two individuals. When the death in intimate relationships is termed as a suicide, the label ignores the social context of the correlation between the interpersonal realm and the act of death. It mitigates the personal circumstances of the women, who experience different forms of violence from their intimate partners over a period.

Q. Saraswathy and Bhim, a powerful and resource rich businessman, are married to each other. Under the pressure of dowry demand she brought 50 sovereign gold ornaments and 1 kg silver articles. After four months of the marriage, Bhim and his family demanded more dowry in the form of cash and jewels.

The appellant was not able to satisfy the said demand and had to face violence from her in-law. Out of mental agony and pain, she committed suicide. Based on the author's reasoning in the passage above:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 72 This question asks you to apply a facts situation based on the author's argument. All the four answer choices are concerned with how the death should or should not be considered. You must look at the relevant reasoning made by the author while evaluating the answer choices.

In the third paragraph, the author reasons that treating the suicide as an unnatural death rather than as violence is out of sync with the current literature on domestic violence. The author is arguing that in the case of domestic violence, the deaths should be treated as violence. This makes answer choice (d) the correct answer

Incorrect answers

Answer choices (a). (b), and (c) talks about homicide and murder. The author does not mention anywhere in the passage as to whether or not these deaths should be considered as homicide or murder.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 73

Proposed in 2007, the Lisbon Treaty was ratified by most member states in 2008, but a referendum in Ireland-the only country that put the Lisbon agreement to a public vote-rejected it on June 12, 2008, thus jeopardizing the entire treaty. More than a year later, on October 2, 2009, Ireland held a second referendum, which passed.

Poland's government also had expressed reservations, but it ratified the treaty a week after the Irish vote, after securing opt-outs from EU policy on some social issues, such as abortion. The Czech Republic was the last remaining holdout: though its Parliament had ratified the treaty, the country's president, Václav Klaus, withheld his signature. Finally, after the Czech courts ruled that the treaty did not violate the country's constitution; Klaus signed it on November 3, 2009. The Lisbon Treaty, thus ratified by all 27 member states, entered into force on December 1, 2009.

While it was not explicitly called a European constitution, the treaty addressed a number of issues that had been central to the 2004 EU draft constitution, an initiative that was scuttled after voters in France and the Netherlands rejected it in 2005. Under the amendments of the Lisbon Treaty, the European Community-which had provided the economic framework upon which the EU was built, disappeared, and its powers and structure were incorporated into the EU. Moreover, the office of a permanent EU president was created, with the president chosen by the leaders of the member countries from a pool of candidates that they had selected. The leader holding this two-and-a-half-year post, officially called the president of the European Council, would provide a "face" for the EU in matters of Union policy. The rotating EU presidency, whereby each member country assumes a leadership role for a period of six months, was retained, although its mandate would be narrowed. Another new position that of high representative for foreign affairs and security policy, gathered the EU's two foreign affairs portfolios into a single office, with the goal of creating a more robust and unified European foreign policy. The power of the European Parliament also was enhanced and its number of seats revised. Additionally, the Charter of Fundamental Rights, initially proposed at the Council of Nice in 2000, entered into force as part of the Lisbon Treaty. It spelled out a host of civil, political, economic, and social rights guaranteed to all citizens of the EU.

For most of the decisions, 55 percent of member states, provided they represented 65 percent of the EU's population, would be able to approve a measure. This "double majority" voting rule, which represents a simplification of the former system of weighted votes, would be phased in over time. Matters of defence, foreign policy, social security, and taxation require the "double majority (DM)" rule. DM was designed to streamline decision making at the highest levels, and critics argued that it would reduce the influence of smaller countries at the expense of larger ones.

Q. Which of the following views can be correctly attributed to the author's criticism of the double majority rule?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 73 This question asks you to identify the author reasoning and the option that align with that reasoning.

Correct Answer

According to the last paragraph the criticism of the double majority rule is the neglecting of smaller nations by the larger nations. This makes (b) the correct answer.

Incorrect answers

Option (a), (c) and (d) are not criticisms but features of the said rule.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 74

Proposed in 2007, the Lisbon Treaty was ratified by most member states in 2008, but a referendum in Ireland-the only country that put the Lisbon agreement to a public vote-rejected it on June 12, 2008, thus jeopardizing the entire treaty. More than a year later, on October 2, 2009, Ireland held a second referendum, which passed.

Poland's government also had expressed reservations, but it ratified the treaty a week after the Irish vote, after securing opt-outs from EU policy on some social issues, such as abortion. The Czech Republic was the last remaining holdout: though its Parliament had ratified the treaty, the country's president, Václav Klaus, withheld his signature. Finally, after the Czech courts ruled that the treaty did not violate the country's constitution; Klaus signed it on November 3, 2009. The Lisbon Treaty, thus ratified by all 27 member states, entered into force on December 1, 2009.

While it was not explicitly called a European constitution, the treaty addressed a number of issues that had been central to the 2004 EU draft constitution, an initiative that was scuttled after voters in France and the Netherlands rejected it in 2005. Under the amendments of the Lisbon Treaty, the European Community-which had provided the economic framework upon which the EU was built, disappeared, and its powers and structure were incorporated into the EU. Moreover, the office of a permanent EU president was created, with the president chosen by the leaders of the member countries from a pool of candidates that they had selected. The leader holding this two-and-a-half-year post, officially called the president of the European Council, would provide a "face" for the EU in matters of Union policy. The rotating EU presidency, whereby each member country assumes a leadership role for a period of six months, was retained, although its mandate would be narrowed. Another new position that of high representative for foreign affairs and security policy, gathered the EU's two foreign affairs portfolios into a single office, with the goal of creating a more robust and unified European foreign policy. The power of the European Parliament also was enhanced and its number of seats revised. Additionally, the Charter of Fundamental Rights, initially proposed at the Council of Nice in 2000, entered into force as part of the Lisbon Treaty. It spelled out a host of civil, political, economic, and social rights guaranteed to all citizens of the EU.

For most of the decisions, 55 percent of member states, provided they represented 65 percent of the EU's population, would be able to approve a measure. This "double majority" voting rule, which represents a simplification of the former system of weighted votes, would be phased in over time. Matters of defence, foreign policy, social security, and taxation require the "double majority (DM)" rule. DM was designed to streamline decision making at the highest levels, and critics argued that it would reduce the influence of smaller countries at the expense of larger ones.

Q. A committee has been set up to review the working of the Lisbon Treaty. If this is true, then, based on the information provided in the passage which of the following feature will not be encountered during the review of the treaty?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 74 The question asks you to apply an ex t ernal information to a situation mentioned in the passage.

You will have to understand the definition given and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.

Correct Answer

As per the passage, the office of the European Union President was permanent. So, (b) is the correct answer. Passage is silent on this option.

Incorrect answers

Option (a), (c) and (d) are mentioned in the passage.

Features such as European Union draft constitution, European community's structure and post of high representative for foreign affairs and security policy find their mention in the paragraphs.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 75

Proposed in 2007, the Lisbon Treaty was ratified by most member states in 2008, but a referendum in Ireland-the only country that put the Lisbon agreement to a public vote-rejected it on June 12, 2008, thus jeopardizing the entire treaty. More than a year later, on October 2, 2009, Ireland held a second referendum, which passed.

Poland's government also had expressed reservations, but it ratified the treaty a week after the Irish vote, after securing opt-outs from EU policy on some social issues, such as abortion. The Czech Republic was the last remaining holdout: though its Parliament had ratified the treaty, the country's president, Václav Klaus, withheld his signature. Finally, after the Czech courts ruled that the treaty did not violate the country's constitution; Klaus signed it on November 3, 2009. The Lisbon Treaty, thus ratified by all 27 member states, entered into force on December 1, 2009.

While it was not explicitly called a European constitution, the treaty addressed a number of issues that had been central to the 2004 EU draft constitution, an initiative that was scuttled after voters in France and the Netherlands rejected it in 2005. Under the amendments of the Lisbon Treaty, the European Community-which had provided the economic framework upon which the EU was built, disappeared, and its powers and structure were incorporated into the EU. Moreover, the office of a permanent EU president was created, with the president chosen by the leaders of the member countries from a pool of candidates that they had selected. The leader holding this two-and-a-half-year post, officially called the president of the European Council, would provide a "face" for the EU in matters of Union policy. The rotating EU presidency, whereby each member country assumes a leadership role for a period of six months, was retained, although its mandate would be narrowed. Another new position that of high representative for foreign affairs and security policy, gathered the EU's two foreign affairs portfolios into a single office, with the goal of creating a more robust and unified European foreign policy. The power of the European Parliament also was enhanced and its number of seats revised. Additionally, the Charter of Fundamental Rights, initially proposed at the Council of Nice in 2000, entered into force as part of the Lisbon Treaty. It spelled out a host of civil, political, economic, and social rights guaranteed to all citizens of the EU.

For most of the decisions, 55 percent of member states, provided they represented 65 percent of the EU's population, would be able to approve a measure. This "double majority" voting rule, which represents a simplification of the former system of weighted votes, would be phased in over time. Matters of defence, foreign policy, social security, and taxation require the "double majority (DM)" rule. DM was designed to streamline decision making at the highest levels, and critics argued that it would reduce the influence of smaller countries at the expense of larger ones.

Q. A bill has been introduced in the Polish Parliament to delay the signing of the Lisbon Treaty. Members of Parliament cited the reasons that the Treaty would limit Warsaw's ability to maintain its traditional Roman Catholic family policy, which only recognises marriages between a man and a woman. Additionally, it could also open the door for Germans to reclaim individual ownership rights on land granted to Poland after World War II. If this is true, then, based on the author's reasoning what could be the best defence against the delay by Poland for ratifying the Lisbon Treaty?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 75 This question asks you to identify the author reasoning and the option that align with that reasoning.

Correct Answer

According to 1st paragraph of the passage Poland had expressed reservations against the treaty but it ratified it after securing opt-outs from EU policy on some social issues. Therefore (c) is the correct answer.

Incorrect answers

Option (a), (b) and (d) are not mentioned in the passage. Passage is silent on these options.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 76

Proposed in 2007, the Lisbon Treaty was ratified by most member states in 2008, but a referendum in Ireland-the only country that put the Lisbon agreement to a public vote-rejected it on June 12, 2008, thus jeopardizing the entire treaty. More than a year later, on October 2, 2009, Ireland held a second referendum, which passed.

Poland's government also had expressed reservations, but it ratified the treaty a week after the Irish vote, after securing opt-outs from EU policy on some social issues, such as abortion. The Czech Republic was the last remaining holdout: though its Parliament had ratified the treaty, the country's president, Václav Klaus, withheld his signature. Finally, after the Czech courts ruled that the treaty did not violate the country's constitution; Klaus signed it on November 3, 2009. The Lisbon Treaty, thus ratified by all 27 member states, entered into force on December 1, 2009.

While it was not explicitly called a European constitution, the treaty addressed a number of issues that had been central to the 2004 EU draft constitution, an initiative that was scuttled after voters in France and the Netherlands rejected it in 2005. Under the amendments of the Lisbon Treaty, the European Community-which had provided the economic framework upon which the EU was built, disappeared, and its powers and structure were incorporated into the EU. Moreover, the office of a permanent EU president was created, with the president chosen by the leaders of the member countries from a pool of candidates that they had selected. The leader holding this two-and-a-half-year post, officially called the president of the European Council, would provide a "face" for the EU in matters of Union policy. The rotating EU presidency, whereby each member country assumes a leadership role for a period of six months, was retained, although its mandate would be narrowed. Another new position that of high representative for foreign affairs and security policy, gathered the EU's two foreign affairs portfolios into a single office, with the goal of creating a more robust and unified European foreign policy. The power of the European Parliament also was enhanced and its number of seats revised. Additionally, the Charter of Fundamental Rights, initially proposed at the Council of Nice in 2000, entered into force as part of the Lisbon Treaty. It spelled out a host of civil, political, economic, and social rights guaranteed to all citizens of the EU.

For most of the decisions, 55 percent of member states, provided they represented 65 percent of the EU's population, would be able to approve a measure. This "double majority" voting rule, which represents a simplification of the former system of weighted votes, would be phased in over time. Matters of defence, foreign policy, social security, and taxation require the "double majority (DM)" rule. DM was designed to streamline decision making at the highest levels, and critics argued that it would reduce the influence of smaller countries at the expense of larger ones.

Q. According to the passage above, which of the following would be most incorrect:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 76 This question asks you to identify the author reasoning and the option that align with that reasoning.

Correct Answer

As per the passage, only (b) is incorrect. The Czech Republic was the last country to accept the Lisbon treaty. The Charter of Fundamental Rights was first proposed at the Council of Nice in 2000. The Lisbon Treaty became effective much later. It was the Charter of Fundamental Rights that 'spelled out a host of civil, political, economic, and social rights guaranteed to all citizens of the EU.' Refer to the line, "Within the Council of the European Union-the EU's main decision-making body..." So, (b) is the clear answer.

Incorrect answers

Option (a), (b) and (d) are the fundamental features of the treaty. They are an integral part of the Treaty.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 77

The Judiciary has been assigned active role under the constitution. Judicial activism and judicial restraint are facets of that uncourageous creativity and pragmatic wisdom. The concept of Judicial activism is thus the polar opposite of Judicial restraint. Judicial activism and Judicial restraint are the two terms used to describe the philosophy and motivation behind some judicial decision.

At most level, judicial activism refers to a theory of judgment that takes into account the spirit of the law and the changing times, while judicial restraint relies on a strict interpretation of the law and the importance of legal precedent. There is broad (though not absolute) separation of powers in the Indian Constitution. The Constitution of India did not provide for the judiciary to be a super legislature or a substitute for the failure of the other two organs. When Judges start thinking they can solve all the problems in society and start performing legislative and executive functions (because the legislature and executive have in their perception failed in their duties), all kinds of problems are bound to arise.

Judges can no doubt intervene in some extreme cases, but otherwise they neither have the expertise nor resources to solve major problems in society. Also, such encroachment by the judiciary into the domain of the legislature or executive will almost invariably have a strong reaction from politicians and others.

Thus, the need arises for the judiciary to lay down its own limitations. The Constitution has clearly defined the duties and responsibilities of every organ of the state. It has established the ancient Indian ethos of "Maryada" as far as Authorities and Institutions of State power are concerned. The spirit of the Constitution has to be upheld by adherence to this "Maryada" by the functionaries in the discharge of their duties.

Q. Aluminium Co. Ltd. (ALCO) is a Public Sector Undertaking engaged in the bauxite ore extraction.

Employees of ALCO were deprived of their salaries.

It took more than ten years for the judiciary to take notice. A newspaper report showed that hundreds of employees of various State- owned corporations, public undertakings or other statutory bodies had died due to starvation or committed suicide owing to acute financial crisis resulting in non- payment of salaries for a long time. Based on the author's reasoning in the passage above, does the aforesaid case deserves judicial intervention?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 77 Correct Answer is (c).

Option c is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author. In the second paragraph of the passage, where the author says "Judges can no doubt intervene in some extreme cases, but otherwise they neither have the expertise nor resources to solve major problems in society."

Incorrect Answers

  • Option (a) is irrelevant, since it does not even reflect the idea of the passage.

  • Option (b) cannot be the correct answer, since it is against basic argument that Judiciary should operate in a limited sphere.

  • Option (d) cannot be the correct answer, since this is an extreme case judicial non-intervention and delay will only contribute in violation of the rights.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 78

The Judiciary has been assigned active role under the constitution. Judicial activism and judicial restraint are facets of that uncourageous creativity and pragmatic wisdom. The concept of Judicial activism is thus the polar opposite of Judicial restraint. Judicial activism and Judicial restraint are the two terms used to describe the philosophy and motivation behind some judicial decision.

At most level, judicial activism refers to a theory of judgment that takes into account the spirit of the law and the changing times, while judicial restraint relies on a strict interpretation of the law and the importance of legal precedent. There is broad (though not absolute) separation of powers in the Indian Constitution. The Constitution of India did not provide for the judiciary to be a super legislature or a substitute for the failure of the other two organs. When Judges start thinking they can solve all the problems in society and start performing legislative and executive functions (because the legislature and executive have in their perception failed in their duties), all kinds of problems are bound to arise.

Judges can no doubt intervene in some extreme cases, but otherwise they neither have the expertise nor resources to solve major problems in society. Also, such encroachment by the judiciary into the domain of the legislature or executive will almost invariably have a strong reaction from politicians and others.

Thus, the need arises for the judiciary to lay down its own limitations. The Constitution has clearly defined the duties and responsibilities of every organ of the state. It has established the ancient Indian ethos of "Maryada" as far as Authorities and Institutions of State power are concerned. The spirit of the Constitution has to be upheld by adherence to this "Maryada" by the functionaries in the discharge of their duties.

Q. Which of the following views can be correctly attributed to the author of the above passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 78 Correct Answer is (a)

Option (a) follows from the passage. Passage says "Thus, the need arises for the judiciary to lay down its own limitations". Therefore option (a) is the most logical explanation as it calls for limitation, caution and restrain on the judiciary when it comes to those matters beyond judicial remit.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (b) cannot be a correct answer, since it is against the basic argument that Judiciary should operate in a limited sphere.

  • Choice (c) - Political weakness and Bureaucratic delays cannot be taken as a justification for judicial activism considering the call for judicial restraint in the passage.

  • Option (d) is irrelevant and should not even be considered. Statements given in the passage must be assumed true and authentic irrespective of availability of compelling external evidences pointing otherwise.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 79

The Judiciary has been assigned active role under the constitution. Judicial activism and judicial restraint are facets of that uncourageous creativity and pragmatic wisdom. The concept of Judicial activism is thus the polar opposite of Judicial restraint. Judicial activism and Judicial restraint are the two terms used to describe the philosophy and motivation behind some judicial decision.

At most level, judicial activism refers to a theory of judgment that takes into account the spirit of the law and the changing times, while judicial restraint relies on a strict interpretation of the law and the importance of legal precedent. There is broad (though not absolute) separation of powers in the Indian Constitution. The Constitution of India did not provide for the judiciary to be a super legislature or a substitute for the failure of the other two organs. When Judges start thinking they can solve all the problems in society and start performing legislative and executive functions (because the legislature and executive have in their perception failed in their duties), all kinds of problems are bound to arise.

Judges can no doubt intervene in some extreme cases, but otherwise they neither have the expertise nor resources to solve major problems in society. Also, such encroachment by the judiciary into the domain of the legislature or executive will almost invariably have a strong reaction from politicians and others.

Thus, the need arises for the judiciary to lay down its own limitations. The Constitution has clearly defined the duties and responsibilities of every organ of the state. It has established the ancient Indian ethos of "Maryada" as far as Authorities and Institutions of State power are concerned. The spirit of the Constitution has to be upheld by adherence to this "Maryada" by the functionaries in the discharge of their duties.

Q. A petition is filed for the protection and welfare of animals declaring "all members of the animal kingdom including birds and aquatic life have similar rights as humans" and animals throughout the state as "legal entities having a distinct persona with corresponding rights, duties and liabilities of a living person." Based on the author's reasoning in the passage above, if the court takes conservative stance, which of the following would be most correct:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 79 Correct Answer is (d)

The author's tone in the entire passage is to justify Judicial Activism born out of impatience and helplessness due to the failings of Parliament and Executive. Only option (a) aligns with the author's reasoning concerning administration of justice in view of the utter failure of other institutions.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) cannot be a correct answer, since the choice is taking a liberal stance.

  • Choice (b) - is an irrelevant choice because no such consistent information is provided in the passage.

  • Option (c) is a choice which can be eliminated right away.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 80

The Judiciary has been assigned active role under the constitution. Judicial activism and judicial restraint are facets of that uncourageous creativity and pragmatic wisdom. The concept of Judicial activism is thus the polar opposite of Judicial restraint. Judicial activism and Judicial restraint are the two terms used to describe the philosophy and motivation behind some judicial decision.

At most level, judicial activism refers to a theory of judgment that takes into account the spirit of the law and the changing times, while judicial restraint relies on a strict interpretation of the law and the importance of legal precedent. There is broad (though not absolute) separation of powers in the Indian Constitution. The Constitution of India did not provide for the judiciary to be a super legislature or a substitute for the failure of the other two organs. When Judges start thinking they can solve all the problems in society and start performing legislative and executive functions (because the legislature and executive have in their perception failed in their duties), all kinds of problems are bound to arise.

Judges can no doubt intervene in some extreme cases, but otherwise they neither have the expertise nor resources to solve major problems in society. Also, such encroachment by the judiciary into the domain of the legislature or executive will almost invariably have a strong reaction from politicians and others.

Thus, the need arises for the judiciary to lay down its own limitations. The Constitution has clearly defined the duties and responsibilities of every organ of the state. It has established the ancient Indian ethos of "Maryada" as far as Authorities and Institutions of State power are concerned. The spirit of the Constitution has to be upheld by adherence to this "Maryada" by the functionaries in the discharge of their duties.

Q. Corporate veil is a legal concept that separates the personality of a corporation from the personalities of its shareholders, and protects them from being personally liable for the company's debts and other obligations. Corporate veil can be pierced if corporate personality is found to be opposed to justice, convenience and interest of workmen or against public interest. An MNC is operating in India came under scanner due to gross violation of Human Rights of labors across their supply chains. In such a situation, according to the author, should the veil be pierced?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 80 Correct Answer is (c)

Option c is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author. Legal principle in the question says "Corporate veil can be pierced if corporate personality is found to be opposed to justice, convenience and interest of workmen or against public interest."

Incorrect Answers

  • Option (a) is incorrect, since the corporate veil can be pierced if corporate personality is found to be opposed to justice, convenience and interest of workmen or against public interest.

    In this case it is the case.

  • Option (b) is irrelevant because no such information is provided in the passage regarding the role of Human Rights Commission.

  • Option (d) is irrelevant because no such information is provided in the passage the role of Serious Fraud Investigation Office.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 81

The Judiciary has been assigned active role under the constitution. Judicial activism and judicial restraint are facets of that uncourageous creativity and pragmatic wisdom. The concept of Judicial activism is thus the polar opposite of Judicial restraint. Judicial activism and Judicial restraint are the two terms used to describe the philosophy and motivation behind some judicial decision.

At most level, judicial activism refers to a theory of judgment that takes into account the spirit of the law and the changing times, while judicial restraint relies on a strict interpretation of the law and the importance of legal precedent. There is broad (though not absolute) separation of powers in the Indian Constitution. The Constitution of India did not provide for the judiciary to be a super legislature or a substitute for the failure of the other two organs. When Judges start thinking they can solve all the problems in society and start performing legislative and executive functions (because the legislature and executive have in their perception failed in their duties), all kinds of problems are bound to arise.

Judges can no doubt intervene in some extreme cases, but otherwise they neither have the expertise nor resources to solve major problems in society. Also, such encroachment by the judiciary into the domain of the legislature or executive will almost invariably have a strong reaction from politicians and others.

Thus, the need arises for the judiciary to lay down its own limitations. The Constitution has clearly defined the duties and responsibilities of every organ of the state. It has established the ancient Indian ethos of "Maryada" as far as Authorities and Institutions of State power are concerned. The spirit of the Constitution has to be upheld by adherence to this "Maryada" by the functionaries in the discharge of their duties.

Q. Based on the author's arguments in the passage above, which of the following statements is least essential as a part of the argument made in the above passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 81 Correct Answer is (c)

Option (c) is the correct choice as it suggests that despite the ethos of Maryada the system would not function properly. The other options strengthen the argument made in the passage.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 82

Equality before the law does not only signify equal access to the law, but also equal exposure to the law. This is one of the principles followed by the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court, which has struck down as unconstitutional Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code that had criminalised adultery for 158 years. Section 198(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure is also struck down. In both cases, the court has found that the woman was robbed of agency and reduced to a chattel. Law which allows only men to have agency and the right to be aggrieved is unacceptable at a time when sexual relations are understood to be between equals.

Section 497 dates from the patriarchal era and criminalised men who knowingly had relations with the wife of another man, "without the consent or connivance of that man". The woman was not punishable as an abettor, while her husband was automatically the wronged party. Section 198(2) clarified that only the woman's husband can be the aggrieved party or, in his absence, "someone who had care of the woman". One gender was granted ownership of the other, which was deemed to be too innocent to look after itself. At the time when these laws came into force, the same logic was used to justify the colonial project - "natives" could not possibly develop modernity except as wards of European power.

Just as colonialism is morally repugnant by contemporary ethical standards, the law of adultery is insupportable.

Following the SC intervention, adultery is now a civil matter between individuals. But a criminal residue remains - Section 306 of the IPC will be invoked if a suicide results from adultery. This will hopefully be corrected in the future, now that the court has strongly repudiated the criminality of adultery. This reform is part of a process of change in constitutional morality, which has acquired an inexorable momentum. The striking down of Section 377, which had decriminalised gay sex, may be the most celebrated legal reform, but the trail goes back to 2015, when the Supreme Court found a longterm live-in relationship to be indistinguishable from marriage, even for inheritance. In recent times, the triple talaq ruling and the right to privacy have maintained the trend. It would not be unreasonable now to look forward to the criminalisation of marital rape, where the husband is legally allowed to have physical relations with his wife even if she is unwilling, which is the next milestone on a road being rapidly travelled.

Q. Based on the author’s argument, what similarity does the author draw between European colonialism and the law criminalizing adultery ?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 82 Correct Answer is (b)

In both cases, the party acted upon was understood as not having their own brains. The author clearly draws a link between adultery and colonialism. The wife was seen as her husband's property and therefore any sexual wrong against the wife was actually against the husband as she was his property. Similarly in case of colonialism, the people being colonized was shown to be lacking enough mental acumen to lead a life and therefore necessary to be taught/ instructed by colonialism.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) is not correct as colonialism is a wrong by Europeans against Indian and other nations men and women both.

  • Option (d) is incorrect. Colonialism was never given legal sanctity. Therefore

  • Option (c) is patently absurd.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 83

Equality before the law does not only signify equal access to the law, but also equal exposure to the law. This is one of the principles followed by the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court, which has struck down as unconstitutional Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code that had criminalised adultery for 158 years. Section 198(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure is also struck down. In both cases, the court has found that the woman was robbed of agency and reduced to a chattel. Law which allows only men to have agency and the right to be aggrieved is unacceptable at a time when sexual relations are understood to be between equals.

Section 497 dates from the patriarchal era and criminalised men who knowingly had relations with the wife of another man, "without the consent or connivance of that man". The woman was not punishable as an abettor, while her husband was automatically the wronged party. Section 198(2) clarified that only the woman's husband can be the aggrieved party or, in his absence, "someone who had care of the woman". One gender was granted ownership of the other, which was deemed to be too innocent to look after itself. At the time when these laws came into force, the same logic was used to justify the colonial project - "natives" could not possibly develop modernity except as wards of European power.

Just as colonialism is morally repugnant by contemporary ethical standards, the law of adultery is insupportable.

Following the SC intervention, adultery is now a civil matter between individuals. But a criminal residue remains - Section 306 of the IPC will be invoked if a suicide results from adultery. This will hopefully be corrected in the future, now that the court has strongly repudiated the criminality of adultery. This reform is part of a process of change in constitutional morality, which has acquired an inexorable momentum. The striking down of Section 377, which had decriminalised gay sex, may be the most celebrated legal reform, but the trail goes back to 2015, when the Supreme Court found a longterm live-in relationship to be indistinguishable from marriage, even for inheritance. In recent times, the triple talaq ruling and the right to privacy have maintained the trend. It would not be unreasonable now to look forward to the criminalisation of marital rape, where the husband is legally allowed to have physical relations with his wife even if she is unwilling, which is the next milestone on a road being rapidly travelled.

Q. Presume adultery law was not struck down. Mohan was married to Sweta. Mohan had physical relations with Bhola’s wife, Meena. Meena enjoyed Mohan's company. Bhola was unaware about this. Who all in this scenario are liable for adultery ?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 83 Correct Answer is (d)

Only Mohan is liable for adultery. Mohan was in physical relation with Meena who was Bhola's wife without Bhola's knowledge or consent. The consent of Meena is irrelavent.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Bhola is not liable as he did not do any wrongful act. Hence, option (A) and (B) are not correct.

  • A woman is not liable for adultery as given in the passage (paragraph 2). Hence, option (C) is incorrect.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 84

Equality before the law does not only signify equal access to the law, but also equal exposure to the law. This is one of the principles followed by the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court, which has struck down as unconstitutional Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code that had criminalised adultery for 158 years. Section 198(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure is also struck down. In both cases, the court has found that the woman was robbed of agency and reduced to a chattel. Law which allows only men to have agency and the right to be aggrieved is unacceptable at a time when sexual relations are understood to be between equals.

Section 497 dates from the patriarchal era and criminalised men who knowingly had relations with the wife of another man, "without the consent or connivance of that man". The woman was not punishable as an abettor, while her husband was automatically the wronged party. Section 198(2) clarified that only the woman's husband can be the aggrieved party or, in his absence, "someone who had care of the woman". One gender was granted ownership of the other, which was deemed to be too innocent to look after itself. At the time when these laws came into force, the same logic was used to justify the colonial project - "natives" could not possibly develop modernity except as wards of European power.

Just as colonialism is morally repugnant by contemporary ethical standards, the law of adultery is insupportable.

Following the SC intervention, adultery is now a civil matter between individuals. But a criminal residue remains - Section 306 of the IPC will be invoked if a suicide results from adultery. This will hopefully be corrected in the future, now that the court has strongly repudiated the criminality of adultery. This reform is part of a process of change in constitutional morality, which has acquired an inexorable momentum. The striking down of Section 377, which had decriminalised gay sex, may be the most celebrated legal reform, but the trail goes back to 2015, when the Supreme Court found a longterm live-in relationship to be indistinguishable from marriage, even for inheritance. In recent times, the triple talaq ruling and the right to privacy have maintained the trend. It would not be unreasonable now to look forward to the criminalisation of marital rape, where the husband is legally allowed to have physical relations with his wife even if she is unwilling, which is the next milestone on a road being rapidly travelled.

Q. Rajeev has physical relations with Saloni. Both are unmarried. Based on the passage, choose the most appropriate option.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 84

Correct Answer is (d)

No one is liable for adultery - whether before the Supreme Court ruling or after it. Adultery is only attracted in cases of extra-marital physical relations.

In this case, both Rajeev and Saloni are unmarried.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

No one is liable for adultery - whether before the Supreme Court ruling or after it. Adultery is only attracted in cases of extra-marital physical relations.

  •  

    In this case, both Rajeev and Saloni are unmarried. So, options (A) and (B) are incorrect.

  •  

    Section 377 deals with gay sex which is not applicable in this case. So, option (C) is incorrect.

 

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 85

Equality before the law does not only signify equal access to the law, but also equal exposure to the law. This is one of the principles followed by the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court, which has struck down as unconstitutional Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code that had criminalised adultery for 158 years. Section 198(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure is also struck down. In both cases, the court has found that the woman was robbed of agency and reduced to a chattel. Law which allows only men to have agency and the right to be aggrieved is unacceptable at a time when sexual relations are understood to be between equals.

Section 497 dates from the patriarchal era and criminalised men who knowingly had relations with the wife of another man, "without the consent or connivance of that man". The woman was not punishable as an abettor, while her husband was automatically the wronged party. Section 198(2) clarified that only the woman's husband can be the aggrieved party or, in his absence, "someone who had care of the woman". One gender was granted ownership of the other, which was deemed to be too innocent to look after itself. At the time when these laws came into force, the same logic was used to justify the colonial project - "natives" could not possibly develop modernity except as wards of European power.

Just as colonialism is morally repugnant by contemporary ethical standards, the law of adultery is insupportable.

Following the SC intervention, adultery is now a civil matter between individuals. But a criminal residue remains - Section 306 of the IPC will be invoked if a suicide results from adultery. This will hopefully be corrected in the future, now that the court has strongly repudiated the criminality of adultery. This reform is part of a process of change in constitutional morality, which has acquired an inexorable momentum. The striking down of Section 377, which had decriminalised gay sex, may be the most celebrated legal reform, but the trail goes back to 2015, when the Supreme Court found a longterm live-in relationship to be indistinguishable from marriage, even for inheritance. In recent times, the triple talaq ruling and the right to privacy have maintained the trend. It would not be unreasonable now to look forward to the criminalisation of marital rape, where the husband is legally allowed to have physical relations with his wife even if she is unwilling, which is the next milestone on a road being rapidly travelled.

Q. Based on the author’s argument, which is the most plausible ground to strike down Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 85 Correct Answer is (a)

The provision treated women as not equal to men.

In the first paragraph towards the end, the author mentions that women and men are equal and therefore sexual relations between them should be seen in this light.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (b) is incorrect as though the provision was passed during British regime, this was not the reason Supreme Court struck it down.

  • Option (c) is incorrect as though the provision reflected colonial era sentiments, this is not the reason for Supreme Court sticking it down.

  • Option (d) is out of context.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 86

Equality before the law does not only signify equal access to the law, but also equal exposure to the law. This is one of the principles followed by the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court, which has struck down as unconstitutional Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code that had criminalised adultery for 158 years. Section 198(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure is also struck down. In both cases, the court has found that the woman was robbed of agency and reduced to a chattel. Law which allows only men to have agency and the right to be aggrieved is unacceptable at a time when sexual relations are understood to be between equals.

Section 497 dates from the patriarchal era and criminalised men who knowingly had relations with the wife of another man, "without the consent or connivance of that man". The woman was not punishable as an abettor, while her husband was automatically the wronged party. Section 198(2) clarified that only the woman's husband can be the aggrieved party or, in his absence, "someone who had care of the woman". One gender was granted ownership of the other, which was deemed to be too innocent to look after itself. At the time when these laws came into force, the same logic was used to justify the colonial project - "natives" could not possibly develop modernity except as wards of European power.

Just as colonialism is morally repugnant by contemporary ethical standards, the law of adultery is insupportable.

Following the SC intervention, adultery is now a civil matter between individuals. But a criminal residue remains - Section 306 of the IPC will be invoked if a suicide results from adultery. This will hopefully be corrected in the future, now that the court has strongly repudiated the criminality of adultery. This reform is part of a process of change in constitutional morality, which has acquired an inexorable momentum. The striking down of Section 377, which had decriminalised gay sex, may be the most celebrated legal reform, but the trail goes back to 2015, when the Supreme Court found a longterm live-in relationship to be indistinguishable from marriage, even for inheritance. In recent times, the triple talaq ruling and the right to privacy have maintained the trend. It would not be unreasonable now to look forward to the criminalisation of marital rape, where the husband is legally allowed to have physical relations with his wife even if she is unwilling, which is the next milestone on a road being rapidly travelled.

Q. X forces his wife to have physical relations with him.

What offence, if any, has X committed after the adultery ruling ?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 86 Correct Answer is (c)

X has not committed any offence. The case falls within the definition of marital rape which the author mentions in last paragraph is still not criminalized.

Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

X has not committed any offence.

  • The case falls within the definition of marital rape which the author mentions in last paragraph is still not criminalized. Hence, options (A) and (B) are incorrect.

  • X has physical relation with his own wife. The question of adultery is not attracted here. So, option (D) is incorrect.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 87

Eliminating Black Money was one of the objectives of demonetization as stated in the Government of India's 'Press Release' dated 8th November, 2016 in this regard.

Action against black money stashed abroad is an on-going process. Such actions include putting in place appropriate legislative and administrative frameworks and processes along-with effective enforcement actions.

Recent major steps to bring back black money stashed abroad include -

I. Constitution of the Special Investigation Team (SIT) on Black Money

II. Enactment of a comprehensive law - 'The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015' to specifically deal with black money stashed away abroad

III. Renegotiation of tax treaties to bring the Article on Exchange of Information to International Standards and expanding India's treaty network by signing tax treaties with many jurisdictions to facilitate the exchange of information and to bring transparency

IV. Enabling attachment and confiscation of property equivalent in value held within the country where the property/proceeds of crime is taken or held outside the country by amending the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 through the Finance Act, 2015.

V. The Benami prohibition law which remained inoperative for last 28 years was made operational through a comprehensive amendment with effect from November, 2016.

VI. Relevant laws and rules have been streamlined & tightened, plugging the loopholes and strengthening the penal provisions.

VII. Crackdown against thousands of shell companies engaged in nefarious activities was effected through enforcement actions (searches, surveys, arrests, prosecutions).

Thus, there had been co-coordination and monitoring of the actions taken by departments concerned with the objective of eliminating the conduits of black money generation and application.

Q. Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 enables the attachment and confiscation of property where the property/proceeds of crime is taken or held outside the country. Revenue Minister Alex amassed huge properties through the proceeds of crime and deposited in Indian banks. During enquiry no trail of money was found in the foreign countries. In the given case when complaint was filed, should the court proceed with the attachment and confiscation of the property?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 87 Correct Answer is (c)

Option (c) flows from the given principle of law and the factual matrix while other options are based on external knowledge. Thus, Option (c) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author and principle of law.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author and principle of law in the passage above. Other options are based on external knowledge making them irrelevant to choose.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 88

Eliminating Black Money was one of the objectives of demonetization as stated in the Government of India's 'Press Release' dated 8th November, 2016 in this regard.

Action against black money stashed abroad is an on-going process. Such actions include putting in place appropriate legislative and administrative frameworks and processes along-with effective enforcement actions.

Recent major steps to bring back black money stashed abroad include -

I. Constitution of the Special Investigation Team (SIT) on Black Money

II. Enactment of a comprehensive law - 'The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015' to specifically deal with black money stashed away abroad

III. Renegotiation of tax treaties to bring the Article on Exchange of Information to International Standards and expanding India's treaty network by signing tax treaties with many jurisdictions to facilitate the exchange of information and to bring transparency

IV. Enabling attachment and confiscation of property equivalent in value held within the country where the property/proceeds of crime is taken or held outside the country by amending the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 through the Finance Act, 2015.

V. The Benami prohibition law which remained inoperative for last 28 years was made operational through a comprehensive amendment with effect from November, 2016.

VI. Relevant laws and rules have been streamlined & tightened, plugging the loopholes and strengthening the penal provisions.

VII. Crackdown against thousands of shell companies engaged in nefarious activities was effected through enforcement actions (searches, surveys, arrests, prosecutions).

Thus, there had been co-coordination and monitoring of the actions taken by departments concerned with the objective of eliminating the conduits of black money generation and application.

Q. Money laundering is concealing or disguising the identity of illegally obtained proceeds so that they appear to have originated from legitimate sources.

Reddy has adopted several ingenious ways to amass illegal wealth. He abused his public office and floated a number of companies. He was appointed as a Director and Chairman of M/s Jagathi Pvt. Ltd. with an objective of conducting media business with the ill-gotten wealth. It is further revealed that Reddy laundered the bribe money by routing it through various individuals and companies and getting investments made by them in his companies at a high premium. Decide whether Reddy is guilty of money laundering.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 88 Correct Answer is (a)

Principle of law says "Money laundering is concealing or disguising the identity of illegally obtained proceeds so that they appear to have originated from legitimate sources." Facts show Reddy is involved in money laundering by disguising the identity of ill-gotten money. Thus, Option (a) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author and principle of law.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author and principle of law in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 89

Eliminating Black Money was one of the objectives of demonetization as stated in the Government of India's 'Press Release' dated 8th November, 2016 in this regard.

Action against black money stashed abroad is an on-going process. Such actions include putting in place appropriate legislative and administrative frameworks and processes along-with effective enforcement actions.

Recent major steps to bring back black money stashed abroad include -

I. Constitution of the Special Investigation Team (SIT) on Black Money

II. Enactment of a comprehensive law - 'The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015' to specifically deal with black money stashed away abroad

III. Renegotiation of tax treaties to bring the Article on Exchange of Information to International Standards and expanding India's treaty network by signing tax treaties with many jurisdictions to facilitate the exchange of information and to bring transparency

IV. Enabling attachment and confiscation of property equivalent in value held within the country where the property/proceeds of crime is taken or held outside the country by amending the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 through the Finance Act, 2015.

V. The Benami prohibition law which remained inoperative for last 28 years was made operational through a comprehensive amendment with effect from November, 2016.

VI. Relevant laws and rules have been streamlined & tightened, plugging the loopholes and strengthening the penal provisions.

VII. Crackdown against thousands of shell companies engaged in nefarious activities was effected through enforcement actions (searches, surveys, arrests, prosecutions).

Thus, there had been co-coordination and monitoring of the actions taken by departments concerned with the objective of eliminating the conduits of black money generation and application.

Q. If shell companies are found to be engaged in financial crimes then crackdown is effected through enforcement actions. Dhawan incorporated multiple companies having no assets. By the use of web of shell companies and layering of proceeds of crime, he used to launder money.

Enforcement Authority identified these shell companies. Based on the essence of the passage and given principle of law, decide the validity of crackdown?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 89 Correct Answer is (d)

Principle of law says "If shell companies are found to be engaged in financial crimes crackdown is effected through enforcement actions." Facts show Dhawan through web of shell companies used to launder money Option (d) flows from the passage.

Thus, Option (d) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author and principle of law.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author and principle of law in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 90

Eliminating Black Money was one of the objectives of demonetization as stated in the Government of India's 'Press Release' dated 8th November, 2016 in this regard.

Action against black money stashed abroad is an on-going process. Such actions include putting in place appropriate legislative and administrative frameworks and processes along-with effective enforcement actions.

Recent major steps to bring back black money stashed abroad include -

I. Constitution of the Special Investigation Team (SIT) on Black Money

II. Enactment of a comprehensive law - 'The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015' to specifically deal with black money stashed away abroad

III. Renegotiation of tax treaties to bring the Article on Exchange of Information to International Standards and expanding India's treaty network by signing tax treaties with many jurisdictions to facilitate the exchange of information and to bring transparency

IV. Enabling attachment and confiscation of property equivalent in value held within the country where the property/proceeds of crime is taken or held outside the country by amending the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 through the Finance Act, 2015.

V. The Benami prohibition law which remained inoperative for last 28 years was made operational through a comprehensive amendment with effect from November, 2016.

VI. Relevant laws and rules have been streamlined & tightened, plugging the loopholes and strengthening the penal provisions.

VII. Crackdown against thousands of shell companies engaged in nefarious activities was effected through enforcement actions (searches, surveys, arrests, prosecutions).

Thus, there had been co-coordination and monitoring of the actions taken by departments concerned with the objective of eliminating the conduits of black money generation and application.

Q. Benami transaction is committed where a property transaction is carried out under a fictitious name without his knowledge. A property is purchased and registered in the name of Mr A, a fictitious entity. Mr B creates some paper showing Mr. A has agreed to hold the property for Mr B. This makes Mr B the beneficial owner of the property. Whether the offence committed by Mr B is a Benami transaction?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 90 Correct Answer is (a)

Principle of law says "Benami transaction is committed where a property transaction is carried out under a fictitious name without his knowledge." Factual matrix is that Mr. B has property purchased in the name of Mr A, a fictitious entity by forging fake documents without legal consideration. Thus, Option (a) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author and principle of law.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author and principle of law in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 91

In his historic address to the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893, Swami Vivekananda declared, "I am proud to belong to a nation which has sheltered the persecuted and the refugees of all religions and all nations of the earth." It is ironical that a political party which conspicuously proclaims its allegiance to Swami Vivekananda has restricted by law, about 127 years later, citizenship to people on the grounds of both religion and nation.

Looking back, it is pertinent to ask why Jawaharlal Nehru, an international statesperson and a leading moral voice in the community of nations, refused to sign the 1951 Refugee Convention relating to the Status of Refugees.

Scholars suggest that whereas he was committed to the principles enshrined in the Convention, he was unwilling to legally bind the country to its obligations.

The Convention first defines refugees as persons fleeing persecution on grounds of race, religion, nationality, social group or political opinion. Refugees get legal rights, most important of which are "non-refoulement", which prevents states from sending back refugees to persecution in their home countries. They also get secondary rights, such as to education, work and property.

India needs to bring in a refugee law which conforms to international conventions. This would, first, recognise eligible undocumented immigrants as refugees, based on evidence determined by due process of their persecution in their home countries. This would also assure them a set of binding rights. The most important of these is the guarantee that they would not be forced to return to the conditions of persecution, threatening their lives and liberty, which they escaped. The second is that they would be assured lives of dignity within India, with education, health care and livelihoods. Only then would India become the country which Swami Vivekananda was so proud of: a haven to the persecuted of the world, untainted by discrimination based on religion or nation.

Q. India has long argued that even without signing the Convention, in practice it is one of the leading refugee receiving countries. Refugees include Sri Lankan Tamils, Tibetans from China, Chin minorities from Burma/Myanmar, and Hindus from Bangladesh and Pakistan. Based on the essence of the passage, will the author welcome the stand of India in not signing the Convention?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 91 Correct Answer is C

Third paragraph says "The Convention first defines refugees as persons fleeing persecution on grounds of race, religion, nationality, social group or political opinion. Refugees get legal rights, most important of which are "non-refoulement", which prevents states from sending back refugees to persecution in their home countries. They also get secondary rights, such as to education, work and property."

Only option which is aligned is option c.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - Passage is completely silent about the given indication regarding cost to Government of India.

  • Choice (b) - It seems to be an appropriate option.

    There is nothing in the passage to support the argument that International pressure cannot force any country to become a signatory to any convention.

  • Choice (d) - Given statement is inaccurate and inappropriate to choose since it involves application of external knowledge.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 92

In his historic address to the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893, Swami Vivekananda declared, "I am proud to belong to a nation which has sheltered the persecuted and the refugees of all religions and all nations of the earth." It is ironical that a political party which conspicuously proclaims its allegiance to Swami Vivekananda has restricted by law, about 127 years later, citizenship to people on the grounds of both religion and nation.

Looking back, it is pertinent to ask why Jawaharlal Nehru, an international statesperson and a leading moral voice in the community of nations, refused to sign the 1951 Refugee Convention relating to the Status of Refugees.

Scholars suggest that whereas he was committed to the principles enshrined in the Convention, he was unwilling to legally bind the country to its obligations.

The Convention first defines refugees as persons fleeing persecution on grounds of race, religion, nationality, social group or political opinion. Refugees get legal rights, most important of which are "non-refoulement", which prevents states from sending back refugees to persecution in their home countries. They also get secondary rights, such as to education, work and property.

India needs to bring in a refugee law which conforms to international conventions. This would, first, recognise eligible undocumented immigrants as refugees, based on evidence determined by due process of their persecution in their home countries. This would also assure them a set of binding rights. The most important of these is the guarantee that they would not be forced to return to the conditions of persecution, threatening their lives and liberty, which they escaped. The second is that they would be assured lives of dignity within India, with education, health care and livelihoods. Only then would India become the country which Swami Vivekananda was so proud of: a haven to the persecuted of the world, untainted by discrimination based on religion or nation.

Q. Refugees' accounts of the latest wave of violence in Beleriand have typically described shootings by soldiers and arson attacks on villages, but there are at least several cases that point to anti-personnel mines or other explosives. Reporters from Associated Press on the Eriadorside of the border said they had seen an elderly woman with devastating leg wounds: one leg with the calf apparently blown off and the other also badly injured. Relatives said she had stepped on a landmine. If the above paragraph is true, which one of the following must necessarily be true?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 92 Only (b) is true according to the passage. Option (a) is too generic. Option (c) is not factually supported as the passage doesn't mention when the conflict started. Option (d) is similarly logically not correct.

Amon Hen has not been mentioned in the passage.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 93

In his historic address to the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893, Swami Vivekananda declared, "I am proud to belong to a nation which has sheltered the persecuted and the refugees of all religions and all nations of the earth." It is ironical that a political party which conspicuously proclaims its allegiance to Swami Vivekananda has restricted by law, about 127 years later, citizenship to people on the grounds of both religion and nation.

Looking back, it is pertinent to ask why Jawaharlal Nehru, an international statesperson and a leading moral voice in the community of nations, refused to sign the 1951 Refugee Convention relating to the Status of Refugees.

Scholars suggest that whereas he was committed to the principles enshrined in the Convention, he was unwilling to legally bind the country to its obligations.

The Convention first defines refugees as persons fleeing persecution on grounds of race, religion, nationality, social group or political opinion. Refugees get legal rights, most important of which are "non-refoulement", which prevents states from sending back refugees to persecution in their home countries. They also get secondary rights, such as to education, work and property.

India needs to bring in a refugee law which conforms to international conventions. This would, first, recognise eligible undocumented immigrants as refugees, based on evidence determined by due process of their persecution in their home countries. This would also assure them a set of binding rights. The most important of these is the guarantee that they would not be forced to return to the conditions of persecution, threatening their lives and liberty, which they escaped. The second is that they would be assured lives of dignity within India, with education, health care and livelihoods. Only then would India become the country which Swami Vivekananda was so proud of: a haven to the persecuted of the world, untainted by discrimination based on religion or nation.

Q. Under International Law on Refugees it is the moral obligation of state to admit refugees who have no other place of residence subject to security of the state. Rohingyas are a group of Muslim refugees from Myanmar. They have settled in Bangladesh, India and other nearby countries due to violence by other groups against them. They have been official indicted by intelligence agencies in terrorist activities in collusion with some militant organizations. The government of India passed an executive order banning their further entry. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 93 Correct Answer is (a)

The action is justified.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 94

In his historic address to the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893, Swami Vivekananda declared, "I am proud to belong to a nation which has sheltered the persecuted and the refugees of all religions and all nations of the earth." It is ironical that a political party which conspicuously proclaims its allegiance to Swami Vivekananda has restricted by law, about 127 years later, citizenship to people on the grounds of both religion and nation.

Looking back, it is pertinent to ask why Jawaharlal Nehru, an international statesperson and a leading moral voice in the community of nations, refused to sign the 1951 Refugee Convention relating to the Status of Refugees.

Scholars suggest that whereas he was committed to the principles enshrined in the Convention, he was unwilling to legally bind the country to its obligations.

The Convention first defines refugees as persons fleeing persecution on grounds of race, religion, nationality, social group or political opinion. Refugees get legal rights, most important of which are "non-refoulement", which prevents states from sending back refugees to persecution in their home countries. They also get secondary rights, such as to education, work and property.

India needs to bring in a refugee law which conforms to international conventions. This would, first, recognise eligible undocumented immigrants as refugees, based on evidence determined by due process of their persecution in their home countries. This would also assure them a set of binding rights. The most important of these is the guarantee that they would not be forced to return to the conditions of persecution, threatening their lives and liberty, which they escaped. The second is that they would be assured lives of dignity within India, with education, health care and livelihoods. Only then would India become the country which Swami Vivekananda was so proud of: a haven to the persecuted of the world, untainted by discrimination based on religion or nation.

Q. In a historic move, Parliament gave its assent to the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 as it passed in the Rajya Sabha violent public protests broke out in the north-eastern states of Assam and Tripura over opposition to the bill. The Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 proposes to accord citizenship to illegal non-muslim migrants from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan. In the northeastern states of India, the reasons behind the widespread protest against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 is/are

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 94 Correct Answer is (b)

There is fear in the northeast that granting citizenship to ordinary refugees will undermine the ethnic communities living in these regions.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 95

In his historic address to the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893, Swami Vivekananda declared, "I am proud to belong to a nation which has sheltered the persecuted and the refugees of all religions and all nations of the earth." It is ironical that a political party which conspicuously proclaims its allegiance to Swami Vivekananda has restricted by law, about 127 years later, citizenship to people on the grounds of both religion and nation.

Looking back, it is pertinent to ask why Jawaharlal Nehru, an international statesperson and a leading moral voice in the community of nations, refused to sign the 1951 Refugee Convention relating to the Status of Refugees.

Scholars suggest that whereas he was committed to the principles enshrined in the Convention, he was unwilling to legally bind the country to its obligations.

The Convention first defines refugees as persons fleeing persecution on grounds of race, religion, nationality, social group or political opinion. Refugees get legal rights, most important of which are "non-refoulement", which prevents states from sending back refugees to persecution in their home countries. They also get secondary rights, such as to education, work and property.

India needs to bring in a refugee law which conforms to international conventions. This would, first, recognise eligible undocumented immigrants as refugees, based on evidence determined by due process of their persecution in their home countries. This would also assure them a set of binding rights. The most important of these is the guarantee that they would not be forced to return to the conditions of persecution, threatening their lives and liberty, which they escaped. The second is that they would be assured lives of dignity within India, with education, health care and livelihoods. Only then would India become the country which Swami Vivekananda was so proud of: a haven to the persecuted of the world, untainted by discrimination based on religion or nation.

Q. The principle of non-refoulement forbids deportation of the convict due to well-founded fear of persecution.

Chandra Kumar is a Sri Lankan Tamil refugee who has been staying at a refugee camp in India.

He was apprehended by the immigration authorities as he did not possess valid travel documents.

The convict has a well-founded fear of persecution in case he is deported to Sri Lanka. Central Government has ordered the deportation. Based on the essence of the passage and given principle of law, decide the validity of the deportation order passed against Chandra Kumar.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 95 Correct Answer is (d)

Option (d) flows from the passage. Thus, Option (d) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 96

In his historic address to the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893, Swami Vivekananda declared, "I am proud to belong to a nation which has sheltered the persecuted and the refugees of all religions and all nations of the earth." It is ironical that a political party which conspicuously proclaims its allegiance to Swami Vivekananda has restricted by law, about 127 years later, citizenship to people on the grounds of both religion and nation.

Looking back, it is pertinent to ask why Jawaharlal Nehru, an international statesperson and a leading moral voice in the community of nations, refused to sign the 1951 Refugee Convention relating to the Status of Refugees.

Scholars suggest that whereas he was committed to the principles enshrined in the Convention, he was unwilling to legally bind the country to its obligations.

The Convention first defines refugees as persons fleeing persecution on grounds of race, religion, nationality, social group or political opinion. Refugees get legal rights, most important of which are "non-refoulement", which prevents states from sending back refugees to persecution in their home countries. They also get secondary rights, such as to education, work and property.

India needs to bring in a refugee law which conforms to international conventions. This would, first, recognise eligible undocumented immigrants as refugees, based on evidence determined by due process of their persecution in their home countries. This would also assure them a set of binding rights. The most important of these is the guarantee that they would not be forced to return to the conditions of persecution, threatening their lives and liberty, which they escaped. The second is that they would be assured lives of dignity within India, with education, health care and livelihoods. Only then would India become the country which Swami Vivekananda was so proud of: a haven to the persecuted of the world, untainted by discrimination based on religion or nation.

Q. Every Citizen has the right to settle and reside in any part of the territory of India. A civil war occurred in Sri Lanka where the local Tamilians were being lynched and massacred. In order to save their life they migrated to the Indian state of Tamil Nadu to seek refuge. The state government passed a law to oust these immigrants. The order was challenged to be unconstitutional. Decide

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 96 Correct Answer is b

The right is only available to citizens' of India and so the order is constitutional.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 97

Ellen Fein and Sherrie Schneider ask, ''Whatever happened to working for a living and marrying for love?''

People get married for many reasons. Marriage is a social and moral contract, a matter of practicality, convenience and self-interest. There are those who love and never get married, and there are those who marry without love and have a lasting and functional marriage. If you marry without love, it does not mean you will not later come to love the person you marry. And if you marry the person you love, it does not mean that you will always love that person or have a successful marriage. The divorce rate is very low in many countries that have pre-arranged marriage. The divorce rate is very high in countries where people base their marriage decisions on love.

Q. Which of the following is one of the central assumptions made by the arguer?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 97 This is an interesting argum ent. Look at the secondary conclusions, "If you marry without love…" and "If you marry for love…" While the former conclusion is based on the premise "The divorce rate is very low…", the latter is based on the premise "The divorce rate is very high…" So the argument has assumed a low divorce rate as an indicator of later falling in love and a high rate as an indicator of falling out of it. Hence, (b). Option (a) is a premise and not an assumption. Option (c) is not in the nature of an assumption, it is in the nature of a definitive conclusion that can't be drawn from this argument. Option (d) is not an assumption made by the author. They have simply stated that people get married for many reasons. They haven't said or implied anywhere that love is not one of them.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 98

Ellen Fein and Sherrie Schneider ask, ''Whatever happened to working for a living and marrying for love?''

People get married for many reasons. Marriage is a social and moral contract, a matter of practicality, convenience and self-interest. There are those who love and never get married, and there are those who marry without love and have a lasting and functional marriage. If you marry without love, it does not mean you will not later come to love the person you marry. And if you marry the person you love, it does not mean that you will always love that person or have a successful marriage. The divorce rate is very low in many countries that have pre-arranged marriage. The divorce rate is very high in countries where people base their marriage decisions on love.

Q. What is the role played by the statement "If you marry without love, it does not mean you will not later come to love the person you marry." in the argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 98 As explained in Answer 1, this argument has two secondary conclusions, that in turn support the main conclusion that it is not essential that love be the reason for marriage. Hence, (d).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 99

Ellen Fein and Sherrie Schneider ask, ''Whatever happened to working for a living and marrying for love?''

People get married for many reasons. Marriage is a social and moral contract, a matter of practicality, convenience and self-interest. There are those who love and never get married, and there are those who marry without love and have a lasting and functional marriage. If you marry without love, it does not mean you will not later come to love the person you marry. And if you marry the person you love, it does not mean that you will always love that person or have a successful marriage. The divorce rate is very low in many countries that have pre-arranged marriage. The divorce rate is very high in countries where people base their marriage decisions on love.

Q. Which of the following arguments follows a similar reasoning as the argument above?

The opposite was found true for countries where parents had procreated looking for this support.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 99 The argument's structure is that secondary conclusions along with some premises, support the main conclusion. This structure is seen only in (a). (a) looks tempting, but it has only the following as the main conclusion- "If the reasons are selfish, it will eventually harm them. If they are not selfish, then they will be happy." Supported by data.

Options (b) and (c) are not close.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 100

Ellen Fein and Sherrie Schneider ask, ''Whatever happened to working for a living and marrying for love?''

People get married for many reasons. Marriage is a social and moral contract, a matter of practicality, convenience and self-interest. There are those who love and never get married, and there are those who marry without love and have a lasting and functional marriage. If you marry without love, it does not mean you will not later come to love the person you marry. And if you marry the person you love, it does not mean that you will always love that person or have a successful marriage. The divorce rate is very low in many countries that have pre-arranged marriage. The divorce rate is very high in countries where people base their marriage decisions on love.

Q. Which of the following statements would be consistent with the author's position?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 100 Option (a) goes beyond the scope of the argument. (d) talks about 'separation' rate, which is different from divorce rate. (b) is neither consistent nor inconsistent with the argument. The argument simply says that there are those who love and never get married. These could be a minority or a majority. (c) is the answer because by using divorce rate as a proxy for lack of love in marriages, the author has stated love prior to marriage may not translate to love in a marriage. (c) strengthens this idea.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 101

Ellen Fein and Sherrie Schneider ask, ''Whatever happened to working for a living and marrying for love?''

People get married for many reasons. Marriage is a social and moral contract, a matter of practicality, convenience and self-interest. There are those who love and never get married, and there are those who marry without love and have a lasting and functional marriage. If you marry without love, it does not mean you will not later come to love the person you marry. And if you marry the person you love, it does not mean that you will always love that person or have a successful marriage. The divorce rate is very low in many countries that have pre-arranged marriage. The divorce rate is very high in countries where people base their marriage decisions on love.

Q. Which of the following undermines the above argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 101 A talks about happiness, which is beyond the scope of the argument. Because (c) talks about '40%' of the people, it leaves the scope for 60% of the people to believe that there can be other reasons. (d) doesn't undermine the argument because the author themselves admit that there are countries where people base their marriage decisions on love. (b) challenges the idea that people who are in love prior to marriage m
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 102

Many of the ostensibly neutral American labour laws (e.g., licensing laws, minimum wage laws, and collective bargaining laws) were either directly aimed at stymieing black economic and social advancement or, if not so aimed, were quickly turned to that use. A huge swath of the American labour market was handed over to labour unions from which blacks, with few exceptions, were totally excluded. The now longstanding gap between black and white unemployment rates dates precisely from the moment of government intervention on labour's behalf.

In short, the victories of American labour were the undoing of American blacks.

Q. Which of the following is consistent with the above argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 102 (a) is false as it uses the word 'widened'. The argument says that the gap 'dates from' that time.

We don't know whether a gap existed earlier or not. (b) is inconsistent, because nowhere does the author has been critical of these laws from the beginning. Nowhere does he imply that these laws were necessary. (c) is false because the author calls the laws 'ostensibly neutral'. (d) is consistent with the first and the second statement of the argument.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 103

Many of the ostensibly neutral American labour laws (e.g., licensing laws, minimum wage laws, and collective bargaining laws) were either directly aimed at stymieing black economic and social advancement or, if not so aimed, were quickly turned to that use. A huge swath of the American labour market was handed over to labour unions from which blacks, with few exceptions, were totally excluded. The now longstanding gap between black and white unemployment rates dates precisely from the moment of government intervention on labour's behalf.

In short, the victories of American labour were the undoing of American blacks.

Q. Which of the following would strengthen the author's argument the most?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 103 This is an easy question. To strengthen the argument, we have to support the idea that the laws stymied the economic and social advancement of black labourers. (a) strengthens the argument in the sense that while both blacks and whites were at an equal footing prior to the laws, they allowed whites to go one level up, but not blacks. But (c) does this even more strongly, as it indicates that because of "huge swaths" of labour market passing to labour unions from which they were excluded, they were made to go a level down. (d) weakens the author's argument. (b), in the absence of information about whether white labourers had an influence earlier and to what extent, fails to strengthen the argument.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 104

Many of the ostensibly neutral American labour laws (e.g., licensing laws, minimum wage laws, and collective bargaining laws) were either directly aimed at stymieing black economic and social advancement or, if not so aimed, were quickly turned to that use. A huge swath of the American labour market was handed over to labour unions from which blacks, with few exceptions, were totally excluded. The now longstanding gap between black and white unemployment rates dates precisely from the moment of government intervention on labour's behalf.

In short, the victories of American labour were the undoing of American blacks.

Q. What is the role played by the first sentence in this argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 104 The sentence is the main conclusion, the author's viewpoint. It is supported by the two premises that come after it. The author then reiterates this viewpoint in the last sentence. In a way, the last sentence summarises the author's conclusion.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 105

Many of the ostensibly neutral American labour laws (e.g., licensing laws, minimum wage laws, and collective bargaining laws) were either directly aimed at stymieing black economic and social advancement or, if not so aimed, were quickly turned to that use. A huge swath of the American labour market was handed over to labour unions from which blacks, with few exceptions, were totally excluded. The now longstanding gap between black and white unemployment rates dates precisely from the moment of government intervention on labour's behalf.

In short, the victories of American labour were the undoing of American blacks.

Q. Which of the following would weaken the author's argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 105 A doesn't weaken the argument. Just because the black American labourers haven't stated it, doesn't mean that it didn't happen. Even if (c) is true, the labour laws could be aimed at or used for stymieing black labourers' economic and social advancement and thus result in their undoing. (d) doesn't weaken because the author has admitted that even if the laws were not aimed at stymieing economic and social advancement, they were used to that end. (b) weakens the argument because if America didn't maintain records of the unemployment rate prior to the government intervention, then we can't say that there was no gap in the unemployment rate between black and white earlier and that it was because of the laws.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 106

Ricky: Celebrities have no moral right to comment on the issue of climate change. These privileged fools don't think twice before jet-setting across the globe over the flimsiest of reasons. Their individual carbon footprint is higher than that of a normal working-class person. They, thus, have no right to tweet their outrage at the fires in Australia or rains in Jakarta as their concern reeks of hypocrisy.

Tom: It may be true that celebrities cause more carbon footprints. But so do many other rich people. At least, celebrities fly in private jets mostly due to their security concerns. However, their support for the cause also results in increasing funding for the cause. Last month alone, celebrities managed to raise millions of dollars to fight the fires in Australia.

Q. In response to Ricky's criticism, Tom does all of the following EXCEPT:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 106 Tom gives evidence and an alternate reasoning process (raising money is a worthwhile effort in itself). Tom is also objective and logical in his counter argument. He never makes the issue personal. So, option (d) is the correct answer.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 107

Ricky: Celebrities have no moral right to comment on the issue of climate change. These privileged fools don't think twice before jet-setting across the globe over the flimsiest of reasons. Their individual carbon footprint is higher than that of a normal working-class person. They, thus, have no right to tweet their outrage at the fires in Australia or rains in Jakarta as their concern reeks of hypocrisy.

Tom: It may be true that celebrities cause more carbon footprints. But so do many other rich people. At least, celebrities fly in private jets mostly due to their security concerns. However, their support for the cause also results in increasing funding for the cause. Last month alone, celebrities managed to raise millions of dollars to fight the fires in Australia.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would be the best response for Ricky to Tom's assertion?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 107 The main accusation of Ricky is that celebrities cause higher than average carbon footprint. Tom's response is that they at least raise money. Tom never denies Ricky's central accusation. So, the best response for Ricky would be to challenge Tom's assumption that just raising funds for a cause (while damaging the cause) is acceptable. Option (b) challenges this. Option (a) talks about fighting in the field which is vague. Option (c) is weak because it is not stated by Tom that these celebrities haven't personally donated too. Option (d) is irrelevant.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 108

Ricky: Celebrities have no moral right to comment on the issue of climate change. These privileged fools don't think twice before jet-setting across the globe over the flimsiest of reasons. Their individual carbon footprint is higher than that of a normal working-class person. They, thus, have no right to tweet their outrage at the fires in Australia or rains in Jakarta as their concern reeks of hypocrisy.

Tom: It may be true that celebrities cause more carbon footprints. But so do many other rich people. At least, celebrities fly in private jets mostly due to their security concerns. However, their support for the cause also results in increasing funding for the cause. Last month alone, celebrities managed to raise millions of dollars to fight the fires in Australia.

Q. Which of the following is the main conclusion of Tom?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 108 Ricky starts by stating that celebrities have no moral right to speak on the issue of climate change. Tom counters that point by giving evidence to the contrary. So, option (b) is the gist of Tom's reaction.

Options (a) and (c) are too generic. These apply to situations other than climate change too. So, these can't be justified. Option (d) is irrelevant.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 109

There have been dozens of high-profile mass shootings in recent decades. The impact of these incidents can be devastating. First, mass shootings evoke large policy responses. A single mass shooting leads to a 15% increase in the number of firearm bills introduced within a state in the year after a mass shooting. This effect increases with the extent of media coverage. Second, mass shootings account for a small portion of all gun deaths, but have an outsized influence relative to other homicides. Third, when looking at bills that were actually enacted into law, the impact of mass shootings depends on the party in power.

Q. Which of the following is consistent with the main argument of the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 109 This is a conclusion question. W e need to find an option that matches the evidence given in the paragraph. Option (a) is wrong. The paragraph says that with more media coverage, the number of bills introduced in the aftermath increase. We can't conclude that the government is 'almost certain' to pass these laws. Option (b) is also factually not supported by the passage. It is stated in the passage that mass shootings constitute a small portion of all gun related deaths. But option (b) talks about the share of gun related deaths in homicide.

So, this is not correct. Option (c) is the answer.

The three findings mentioned do suggest a complex issue. Option (d) is wrong as this is a very extreme prediction about 'gun related deaths' (too generic), not mass shootings (the crux of the paragraph).

So, option (c) is the best choice.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 110

There have been dozens of high-profile mass shootings in recent decades. The impact of these incidents can be devastating. First, mass shootings evoke large policy responses. A single mass shooting leads to a 15% increase in the number of firearm bills introduced within a state in the year after a mass shooting. This effect increases with the extent of media coverage. Second, mass shootings account for a small portion of all gun deaths, but have an outsized influence relative to other homicides. Third, when looking at bills that were actually enacted into law, the impact of mass shootings depends on the party in power.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the impact of mass shootings on homicides as hinted by the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 110 The clue for this question is the sentence 'Second, mass shootings account for a small portion of all gun deaths, but have an outsized influence relative to other homicides.' The correct option has to provide a reason for this. Options (a) and b are illogical. Option (c) is not hinted by the passage.

Option (d) provides a valid reason for the possible influence of mass shootings. Hence, option (d) is the best answer.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 111

There have been dozens of high-profile mass shootings in recent decades. The impact of these incidents can be devastating. First, mass shootings evoke large policy responses. A single mass shooting leads to a 15% increase in the number of firearm bills introduced within a state in the year after a mass shooting. This effect increases with the extent of media coverage. Second, mass shootings account for a small portion of all gun deaths, but have an outsized influence relative to other homicides. Third, when looking at bills that were actually enacted into law, the impact of mass shootings depends on the party in power.

Q. Which of the following, if true, would be the least effective way of preventing mass shootings?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 111 The most helpful measures will be options a and d.

These are directly supported by the passage. Option (c) is also supported by the passage. Option (b) is both impractical and vague. The third point is not clarified by the passage. So, option (b) is the correct answer.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 112

“That’s simply not true,” the members of my family frequently tell me when they come up against my memory of a shared event. “The party was not for you, the spider was not a black widow, it wasn’t that way at all.” Very likely they are right, for not only have I always had trouble distinguishing between what happened and what merely might have happened, but I remain unconvinced that the distinction, for my purposes, matters. The cracked crab that I recall having for lunch the day my father came home from Detroit in 1945 must certainly be embroidery, worked into the day’s pattern to lend verisimilitude; I was ten years old and would not now remember the cracked crab. The day’s events did not turn on cracked crab. And yet it is precisely that fictitious crab that makes me see the afternoon all over again, a home movie run all too often, the father bearing gifts, the child weeping, an exercise in family love and guilt. Or that is what it was to me. Similarly, perhaps it never did snow that August in Vermont; perhaps there never were flurries in the night wind, and maybe no one else felt the ground hardening and summer already dead even as we pretended to bask in it, but that was how it felt to me, and it might as well have snowed, could have snowed, did snow.

Q. Which of the following can be described as the tone of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 112 From the abov e paragraph we see that the author is constantly recalling his past. He recalls a party, he recalls events of 1945, he recalls events when he was 10 year old and thinks deeply on his thoughts. Thus the appropriate tone of the passage is Reminiscing. The author isn’t seeing a false image infront of his eyes which is looking real to him so option (a) is incorrect. He isn’t regretting any fact. Hence option (b) is false. Option (d) is incorrect as the above passage shows that the author, after recalling his past is being judgemental.

Hence Option (d) is incorrect too. Therefore option (c).

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 113

“That’s simply not true,” the members of my family frequently tell me when they come up against my memory of a shared event. “The party was not for you, the spider was not a black widow, it wasn’t that way at all.” Very likely they are right, for not only have I always had trouble distinguishing between what happened and what merely might have happened, but I remain unconvinced that the distinction, for my purposes, matters. The cracked crab that I recall having for lunch the day my father came home from Detroit in 1945 must certainly be embroidery, worked into the day’s pattern to lend verisimilitude; I was ten years old and would not now remember the cracked crab. The day’s events did not turn on cracked crab. And yet it is precisely that fictitious crab that makes me see the afternoon all over again, a home movie run all too often, the father bearing gifts, the child weeping, an exercise in family love and guilt. Or that is what it was to me. Similarly, perhaps it never did snow that August in Vermont; perhaps there never were flurries in the night wind, and maybe no one else felt the ground hardening and summer already dead even as we pretended to bask in it, but that was how it felt to me, and it might as well have snowed, could have snowed, did snow.

Q. Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 113 Author mentions the cracked crab as the identify mark of a childhood memory, therefore he/she will agree with option (a). From the passage it seems that there are small variations in the recollections of author and others, and also author is dismissive of the truthfulness of each such recollection, therefore he/she will agree with (b). Example of cracked crab shows that he/she will agree with (c).

Author does not really recommend talking to others to have a clear picture, so he may not agree with (d). Hence (d)

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 114

“That’s simply not true,” the members of my family frequently tell me when they come up against my memory of a shared event. “The party was not for you, the spider was not a black widow, it wasn’t that way at all.” Very likely they are right, for not only have I always had trouble distinguishing between what happened and what merely might have happened, but I remain unconvinced that the distinction, for my purposes, matters. The cracked crab that I recall having for lunch the day my father came home from Detroit in 1945 must certainly be embroidery, worked into the day’s pattern to lend verisimilitude; I was ten years old and would not now remember the cracked crab. The day’s events did not turn on cracked crab. And yet it is precisely that fictitious crab that makes me see the afternoon all over again, a home movie run all too often, the father bearing gifts, the child weeping, an exercise in family love and guilt. Or that is what it was to me. Similarly, perhaps it never did snow that August in Vermont; perhaps there never were flurries in the night wind, and maybe no one else felt the ground hardening and summer already dead even as we pretended to bask in it, but that was how it felt to me, and it might as well have snowed, could have snowed, did snow.

Q. Which of the following will most weaken the author’s argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 114 Author appreciates the childhood memories for the emotional value, so if that gets affected, then the argument in favour of the insignificance of the details is most weakened. Hence (a)
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 115

“That’s simply not true,” the members of my family frequently tell me when they come up against my memory of a shared event. “The party was not for you, the spider was not a black widow, it wasn’t that way at all.” Very likely they are right, for not only have I always had trouble distinguishing between what happened and what merely might have happened, but I remain unconvinced that the distinction, for my purposes, matters. The cracked crab that I recall having for lunch the day my father came home from Detroit in 1945 must certainly be embroidery, worked into the day’s pattern to lend verisimilitude; I was ten years old and would not now remember the cracked crab. The day’s events did not turn on cracked crab. And yet it is precisely that fictitious crab that makes me see the afternoon all over again, a home movie run all too often, the father bearing gifts, the child weeping, an exercise in family love and guilt. Or that is what it was to me. Similarly, perhaps it never did snow that August in Vermont; perhaps there never were flurries in the night wind, and maybe no one else felt the ground hardening and summer already dead even as we pretended to bask in it, but that was how it felt to me, and it might as well have snowed, could have snowed, did snow.

Q. Which of the following can be best inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 115 Option (a) cannot be inferred as the passage mentions only significant events like return of the father etc. Option (b) says “cannot recall events” which isn’t what the author is saying. Option (d) is unrelated. Option (c) mentions the main point of the passage. Hence ©
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 116

“That’s simply not true,” the members of my family frequently tell me when they come up against my memory of a shared event. “The party was not for you, the spider was not a black widow, it wasn’t that way at all.” Very likely they are right, for not only have I always had trouble distinguishing between what happened and what merely might have happened, but I remain unconvinced that the distinction, for my purposes, matters. The cracked crab that I recall having for lunch the day my father came home from Detroit in 1945 must certainly be embroidery, worked into the day’s pattern to lend verisimilitude; I was ten years old and would not now remember the cracked crab. The day’s events did not turn on cracked crab. And yet it is precisely that fictitious crab that makes me see the afternoon all over again, a home movie run all too often, the father bearing gifts, the child weeping, an exercise in family love and guilt. Or that is what it was to me. Similarly, perhaps it never did snow that August in Vermont; perhaps there never were flurries in the night wind, and maybe no one else felt the ground hardening and summer already dead even as we pretended to bask in it, but that was how it felt to me, and it might as well have snowed, could have snowed, did snow.

Q. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 116 Option (b) isn’t mentioned at all. Option (c) is a presented as a general truth, but author has mentioned only one event. Also (c) is a distortion of what author has said. Option (d) cannot be really inferred. Author will definitely agree with option (a) because he says it doesn’t matter if it snowed or not etc. Hence (a)
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 117

The Peter Principle states that all people are promoted to the level of their incompetence. It is based on the assumption that future promotions are based on past performance. The Peter Principle is wrong for the simple reason that executives aren’t that stupid, and because there isn’t that much room in an upward-narrowing pyramid. They know what it takes for a promotion candidate to perform at the top level. So if they are promoting people beyond their competence anyway, under conditions of opportunity scarcity, there must be a good reason.

Q. Which of the following example supports the idea mentioned in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 117 The above paragraph critically analyses Peter Principle which says that “all people are promoted to the level of their incompetence”. The author says that the principle is wrong as the executives are smart enough to know that as the designation goes up, the number of people required in that position dwindles to a few only. Therefore (b) supports the idea as it talks of a certain person who is not the most suitable candidate for promotion, gets it nevertheless. of course, the highly proficient assistants would make sure that the work is not hampered. The other option i.e (a), (c) and (d) talk about similar things, but all of them either give the example of the ‘Scion of a business family’ or ‘The naïve and gullible accounts manager’ or ‘Rita’ who is promoted ‘as a show of affirmative action for gender equality’, which the passage does not indicate. Hence (b).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 118

The Peter Principle states that all people are promoted to the level of their incompetence. It is based on the assumption that future promotions are based on past performance. The Peter Principle is wrong for the simple reason that executives aren’t that stupid, and because there isn’t that much room in an upward-narrowing pyramid. They know what it takes for a promotion candidate to perform at the top level. So if they are promoting people beyond their competence anyway, under conditions of opportunity scarcity, there must be a good reason.

Q. Which of the following will be the ideal title for the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 118 Passage says that if someone is promoted, then it is for a good reason, though it may not be apparent to the others. Hence (d)
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 119

The Peter Principle states that all people are promoted to the level of their incompetence. It is based on the assumption that future promotions are based on past performance. The Peter Principle is wrong for the simple reason that executives aren’t that stupid, and because there isn’t that much room in an upward-narrowing pyramid. They know what it takes for a promotion candidate to perform at the top level. So if they are promoting people beyond their competence anyway, under conditions of opportunity scarcity, there must be a good reason.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 119 As mentioned in the passage: “It is based on the assumption that future promotions are based on past performance.”. Hence (d)
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 120

The Peter Principle states that all people are promoted to the level of their incompetence. It is based on the assumption that future promotions are based on past performance. The Peter Principle is wrong for the simple reason that executives aren’t that stupid, and because there isn’t that much room in an upward-narrowing pyramid. They know what it takes for a promotion candidate to perform at the top level. So if they are promoting people beyond their competence anyway, under conditions of opportunity scarcity, there must be a good reason.

Q. Which of the following best captures the approach of top executives towards promoting candidates?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 120 Conv enience indicates taking an easy decision, independent of the situation. Passage mentions scarcity of good candidates and some obscure “good” reason, all pointing towards an exigent approach. Hence (c)
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 5 - Question 121

The Peter Principle states that all people are promoted to the level of their incompetence. It is based on the assumption that future promotions are based on past performance. The Peter Principle is wrong for the simple reason that executives aren’t that stupid, and because there isn’t that much room in an upward-narrowing pyramid. They know what it takes for a promotion candidate to perform at the top level. So if they are promoting people beyond their competence anyway, under conditions o