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150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT | Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6

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Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 1

India's foreign policy is undergoing a series of fundamental transformations in terms of its underlying narratives, processes and desired endgames. There is a conscious and consistent effort to break with the past, no matter how the outcomes might look eventually.

What could potentially make this change last longer than initially thought is that Prime Minister Narendra Modi has the mandate, the capability and the willingness to effect major changes and re-conceptualise the country's external security orientation. And yet, one must ask: Does this really mark a fundamental policy shift, or does it just amount to a slew of optics-friendly acts that are well-choreographed but not visionary?

One of the most striking features of the Modi government's foreign policy is its propensity for risk-taking - quite unlike most previous governments, barring perhaps that of Indira Gandhi. Armed with a clear majority, the government is keen to play offensive, undoing the decades-old defensive Indian strategic behaviour. New Delhi's actions at Doklam; its surgical strikes against Pakistan in 2016 after the Uri terror attacks; and the Balakot air strikes in the wake of Pulwama attacks this February - notwithstanding the questionable material outcomes in all these cases - are examples of this new-found offensive streak and risktaking tendency.

Q. According to the author, the undergoing change in India's foreign policy can be concisely described as

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 1 Correct answer is option (c). Option (d) is incorrect as surgical strikes are just a part of the foreign policy and don't represent the latter in entirety.

Option (a) is incorrect as the author clearly mentions that present actions being taken irrespective of how the outcome may look. Option (b) is incorrect as finding new avenues of national security doesn't denote a policy change. Option (c) is the correct option as the author gives various examples that point towards the risk-taking tendency which is unprecedented.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 2

India's foreign policy is undergoing a series of fundamental transformations in terms of its underlying narratives, processes and desired endgames. There is a conscious and consistent effort to break with the past, no matter how the outcomes might look eventually.

What could potentially make this change last longer than initially thought is that Prime Minister Narendra Modi has the mandate, the capability and the willingness to effect major changes and re-conceptualise the country's external security orientation. And yet, one must ask: Does this really mark a fundamental policy shift, or does it just amount to a slew of optics-friendly acts that are well-choreographed but not visionary?

One of the most striking features of the Modi government's foreign policy is its propensity for risk-taking - quite unlike most previous governments, barring perhaps that of Indira Gandhi. Armed with a clear majority, the government is keen to play offensive, undoing the decades-old defensive Indian strategic behaviour. New Delhi's actions at Doklam; its surgical strikes against Pakistan in 2016 after the Uri terror attacks; and the Balakot air strikes in the wake of Pulwama attacks this February - notwithstanding the questionable material outcomes in all these cases - are examples of this new-found offensive streak and risktaking tendency.

Q. The phrase "break with the past" refers to

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 2 Option (d) is the correct answer as the author clearly talks about a change that is taking place currently and the phrase has been used with reference to this change. Option (a) is incorrect as the duration of the change is not talked about in the passage.

Option (b) is out of context and option (c) is antithetical to the theme of the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 3

India's foreign policy is undergoing a series of fundamental transformations in terms of its underlying narratives, processes and desired endgames. There is a conscious and consistent effort to break with the past, no matter how the outcomes might look eventually.

What could potentially make this change last longer than initially thought is that Prime Minister Narendra Modi has the mandate, the capability and the willingness to effect major changes and re-conceptualise the country's external security orientation. And yet, one must ask: Does this really mark a fundamental policy shift, or does it just amount to a slew of optics-friendly acts that are well-choreographed but not visionary?

One of the most striking features of the Modi government's foreign policy is its propensity for risk-taking - quite unlike most previous governments, barring perhaps that of Indira Gandhi. Armed with a clear majority, the government is keen to play offensive, undoing the decades-old defensive Indian strategic behaviour. New Delhi's actions at Doklam; its surgical strikes against Pakistan in 2016 after the Uri terror attacks; and the Balakot air strikes in the wake of Pulwama attacks this February - notwithstanding the questionable material outcomes in all these cases - are examples of this new-found offensive streak and risktaking tendency.

Q. What is the basic nature of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 3 Option (a) is the correct answer as the author raises various questions, which shows his skeptical nature towards the matter. Option(d) is incorrect as it is out of context. Option (b) is incorrect as the author doesn't outright reject the possibility of the changes being genuine. Option (c) is incorrect as there isn't any evidence to conclude about the passage being optimistic in nature.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 4

India's foreign policy is undergoing a series of fundamental transformations in terms of its underlying narratives, processes and desired endgames. There is a conscious and consistent effort to break with the past, no matter how the outcomes might look eventually.

What could potentially make this change last longer than initially thought is that Prime Minister Narendra Modi has the mandate, the capability and the willingness to effect major changes and re-conceptualise the country's external security orientation. And yet, one must ask: Does this really mark a fundamental policy shift, or does it just amount to a slew of optics-friendly acts that are well-choreographed but not visionary?

One of the most striking features of the Modi government's foreign policy is its propensity for risk-taking - quite unlike most previous governments, barring perhaps that of Indira Gandhi. Armed with a clear majority, the government is keen to play offensive, undoing the decades-old defensive Indian strategic behaviour. New Delhi's actions at Doklam; its surgical strikes against Pakistan in 2016 after the Uri terror attacks; and the Balakot air strikes in the wake of Pulwama attacks this February - notwithstanding the questionable material outcomes in all these cases - are examples of this new-found offensive streak and risktaking tendency.

Q. With reference to the change in character of our foreign policy, the mandate that our present PM enjoys is

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 4 The correct answer is (b). Option (d) doesn't make complete sense, as per the passage. Option (c) and option (a) are not mentioned in the passage.

Option (b) is the correct answer as the passage states the PM's mandate as one of the reasons that could potentially make this change last longer.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 5

India's foreign policy is undergoing a series of fundamental transformations in terms of its underlying narratives, processes and desired endgames. There is a conscious and consistent effort to break with the past, no matter how the outcomes might look eventually.

What could potentially make this change last longer than initially thought is that Prime Minister Narendra Modi has the mandate, the capability and the willingness to effect major changes and re-conceptualise the country's external security orientation. And yet, one must ask: Does this really mark a fundamental policy shift, or does it just amount to a slew of optics-friendly acts that are well-choreographed but not visionary?

One of the most striking features of the Modi government's foreign policy is its propensity for risk-taking - quite unlike most previous governments, barring perhaps that of Indira Gandhi. Armed with a clear majority, the government is keen to play offensive, undoing the decades-old defensive Indian strategic behaviour. New Delhi's actions at Doklam; its surgical strikes against Pakistan in 2016 after the Uri terror attacks; and the Balakot air strikes in the wake of Pulwama attacks this February - notwithstanding the questionable material outcomes in all these cases - are examples of this new-found offensive streak and risktaking tendency.

Q. The phrase "Optics-friendly" in the passage, means

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 5 Option (c) is the correct answer as the passage states that author is skeptical whether the changes actually are actually fundamental for just to put up for mass appeasement. Options (a) and (d) are out of context. Option (b) is wrong as the passage states optics-friendly and lacking vision.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 6

In large part as a consequence of the feminist movement, historians have focused a great deal of attention in recent years on determining more accurately the status of women in various periods. Although much has been accomplished for the modern period, premodern cultures have proved more difficult: sources are restricted in number, fragmentary, difficult to interpret, and often contradictory. Thus it is not particularly surprising that some earlier scholarship concerning such cultures has so far gone unchallenged. An example is Johann Bachofen's 1861 treatise on Amazons, women-ruled societies of questionable existence contemporary with ancient Greece.

Starting from the premise that mythology and legend preserve at least a nucleus of historical art, Bachofen argued that women were dominant in many ancient societies. His work was based on a comprehensive survey of references in the ancient sources to Amazonian and other societies with matrilineal customs - societies in which descent and property rights are traced through the female line. Some support for his theory can be found in evidence such as that drawn from Herodotus, the Greek historian of the fifth century B.C., who speaks of an Amazonian society, the Sauromatae, where the women hunted and fought in wars. A woman in this society was not allowed to marry until she had killed a person in battle.

Nonetheless, this assumption that the first recorders of ancient myths have preserved facts is problematic.

If one begins by examining why ancients refer to Amazons, it becomes clear that ancient Greek descriptions of such societies were meant not so much to represent observed historical fact - real Amazonian societies - but rather to offer moral lessons on the supposed outcome of women's rule in their own society.

The Amazons were often characterized, for example, as the equivalents of giants and centaurs, enemies to be slain by Greek heroes. Their customs were presented not as those of a respectable society, but as the very antithesis of ordinary Greek practices.

Thus I would argue, the purpose of accounts of the Amazons for their male Greek recorders is didactic, to teach both male and female Greeks that all-female groups, formed by withdrawal from traditional society, are destructive and dangerous. Myths about the Amazons were used in arguments for the male dominated status quo, in which groups composed exclusively of either sex were not permitted to segregate themselves permanently from society. Bachofen was thus misled in his reliance on myths for information about the status of women. Social documents like gravestones, wills and marriage contracts will probably tell contemporary historians most about women in the ancient world. Studies of such documents have already began to show how mistaken we are when we try to derive our picture of the ancient world exclusively from literary sources especially myths.

Q. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 6 The very first paragraph and the last line of the passage talk about the theme of the passage. Refer to the first sentence. The same thing is spoken about in option (d).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 7

In large part as a consequence of the feminist movement, historians have focused a great deal of attention in recent years on determining more accurately the status of women in various periods. Although much has been accomplished for the modern period, premodern cultures have proved more difficult: sources are restricted in number, fragmentary, difficult to interpret, and often contradictory. Thus it is not particularly surprising that some earlier scholarship concerning such cultures has so far gone unchallenged. An example is Johann Bachofen's 1861 treatise on Amazons, women-ruled societies of questionable existence contemporary with ancient Greece.

Starting from the premise that mythology and legend preserve at least a nucleus of historical art, Bachofen argued that women were dominant in many ancient societies. His work was based on a comprehensive survey of references in the ancient sources to Amazonian and other societies with matrilineal customs - societies in which descent and property rights are traced through the female line. Some support for his theory can be found in evidence such as that drawn from Herodotus, the Greek historian of the fifth century B.C., who speaks of an Amazonian society, the Sauromatae, where the women hunted and fought in wars. A woman in this society was not allowed to marry until she had killed a person in battle.

Nonetheless, this assumption that the first recorders of ancient myths have preserved facts is problematic.

If one begins by examining why ancients refer to Amazons, it becomes clear that ancient Greek descriptions of such societies were meant not so much to represent observed historical fact - real Amazonian societies - but rather to offer moral lessons on the supposed outcome of women's rule in their own society.

The Amazons were often characterized, for example, as the equivalents of giants and centaurs, enemies to be slain by Greek heroes. Their customs were presented not as those of a respectable society, but as the very antithesis of ordinary Greek practices.

Thus I would argue, the purpose of accounts of the Amazons for their male Greek recorders is didactic, to teach both male and female Greeks that all-female groups, formed by withdrawal from traditional society, are destructive and dangerous. Myths about the Amazons were used in arguments for the male dominated status quo, in which groups composed exclusively of either sex were not permitted to segregate themselves permanently from society. Bachofen was thus misled in his reliance on myths for information about the status of women. Social documents like gravestones, wills and marriage contracts will probably tell contemporary historians most about women in the ancient world. Studies of such documents have already began to show how mistaken we are when we try to derive our picture of the ancient world exclusively from literary sources especially myths.

Q. Which of the following is presented in the passage as evidence supporting the author's view of the ancient Greek's description of the Amazons?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 7 Refer to the sentence, "the Amazons…...the equivalents of giants and centaurs" of the third paragraph. Hence (c).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 8

In large part as a consequence of the feminist movement, historians have focused a great deal of attention in recent years on determining more accurately the status of women in various periods. Although much has been accomplished for the modern period, premodern cultures have proved more difficult: sources are restricted in number, fragmentary, difficult to interpret, and often contradictory. Thus it is not particularly surprising that some earlier scholarship concerning such cultures has so far gone unchallenged. An example is Johann Bachofen's 1861 treatise on Amazons, women-ruled societies of questionable existence contemporary with ancient Greece.

Starting from the premise that mythology and legend preserve at least a nucleus of historical art, Bachofen argued that women were dominant in many ancient societies. His work was based on a comprehensive survey of references in the ancient sources to Amazonian and other societies with matrilineal customs - societies in which descent and property rights are traced through the female line. Some support for his theory can be found in evidence such as that drawn from Herodotus, the Greek historian of the fifth century B.C., who speaks of an Amazonian society, the Sauromatae, where the women hunted and fought in wars. A woman in this society was not allowed to marry until she had killed a person in battle.

Nonetheless, this assumption that the first recorders of ancient myths have preserved facts is problematic.

If one begins by examining why ancients refer to Amazons, it becomes clear that ancient Greek descriptions of such societies were meant not so much to represent observed historical fact - real Amazonian societies - but rather to offer moral lessons on the supposed outcome of women's rule in their own society.

The Amazons were often characterized, for example, as the equivalents of giants and centaurs, enemies to be slain by Greek heroes. Their customs were presented not as those of a respectable society, but as the very antithesis of ordinary Greek practices.

Thus I would argue, the purpose of accounts of the Amazons for their male Greek recorders is didactic, to teach both male and female Greeks that all-female groups, formed by withdrawal from traditional society, are destructive and dangerous. Myths about the Amazons were used in arguments for the male dominated status quo, in which groups composed exclusively of either sex were not permitted to segregate themselves permanently from society. Bachofen was thus misled in his reliance on myths for information about the status of women. Social documents like gravestones, wills and marriage contracts will probably tell contemporary historians most about women in the ancient world. Studies of such documents have already began to show how mistaken we are when we try to derive our picture of the ancient world exclusively from literary sources especially myths.

Q. The author suggests that the main reason for the persisting influence of Bachofen's work is that

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 8 Refer to the first paragraph, "In large part as a consequence of the feminist movement, historians have focused a great deal of attention in recent years on determining more accurately the status of women in various periods….. An example is Johann Bachofen's 1861 treatise on Amazons, women-ruled societies of questionable existence contemporary with ancient Greece." Hence (c).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 9

In large part as a consequence of the feminist movement, historians have focused a great deal of attention in recent years on determining more accurately the status of women in various periods. Although much has been accomplished for the modern period, premodern cultures have proved more difficult: sources are restricted in number, fragmentary, difficult to interpret, and often contradictory. Thus it is not particularly surprising that some earlier scholarship concerning such cultures has so far gone unchallenged. An example is Johann Bachofen's 1861 treatise on Amazons, women-ruled societies of questionable existence contemporary with ancient Greece.

Starting from the premise that mythology and legend preserve at least a nucleus of historical art, Bachofen argued that women were dominant in many ancient societies. His work was based on a comprehensive survey of references in the ancient sources to Amazonian and other societies with matrilineal customs - societies in which descent and property rights are traced through the female line. Some support for his theory can be found in evidence such as that drawn from Herodotus, the Greek historian of the fifth century B.C., who speaks of an Amazonian society, the Sauromatae, where the women hunted and fought in wars. A woman in this society was not allowed to marry until she had killed a person in battle.

Nonetheless, this assumption that the first recorders of ancient myths have preserved facts is problematic.

If one begins by examining why ancients refer to Amazons, it becomes clear that ancient Greek descriptions of such societies were meant not so much to represent observed historical fact - real Amazonian societies - but rather to offer moral lessons on the supposed outcome of women's rule in their own society.

The Amazons were often characterized, for example, as the equivalents of giants and centaurs, enemies to be slain by Greek heroes. Their customs were presented not as those of a respectable society, but as the very antithesis of ordinary Greek practices.

Thus I would argue, the purpose of accounts of the Amazons for their male Greek recorders is didactic, to teach both male and female Greeks that all-female groups, formed by withdrawal from traditional society, are destructive and dangerous. Myths about the Amazons were used in arguments for the male dominated status quo, in which groups composed exclusively of either sex were not permitted to segregate themselves permanently from society. Bachofen was thus misled in his reliance on myths for information about the status of women. Social documents like gravestones, wills and marriage contracts will probably tell contemporary historians most about women in the ancient world. Studies of such documents have already began to show how mistaken we are when we try to derive our picture of the ancient world exclusively from literary sources especially myths.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the myths recorded by the ancient Greeks?

I. They sometimes included portrayals of women holding positions of power.

II. They some times contained elaborate explanations of inheritance customs.

III. They comprised almost all of the material available to historians about ancient Greece.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 9 Statement I is can be inferred from the second paragraph. II is not mentioned at all in the passage.

III contradicts the third paragraph. Hence (a).

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 10

In large part as a consequence of the feminist movement, historians have focused a great deal of attention in recent years on determining more accurately the status of women in various periods. Although much has been accomplished for the modern period, premodern cultures have proved more difficult: sources are restricted in number, fragmentary, difficult to interpret, and often contradictory. Thus it is not particularly surprising that some earlier scholarship concerning such cultures has so far gone unchallenged. An example is Johann Bachofen's 1861 treatise on Amazons, women-ruled societies of questionable existence contemporary with ancient Greece.

Starting from the premise that mythology and legend preserve at least a nucleus of historical art, Bachofen argued that women were dominant in many ancient societies. His work was based on a comprehensive survey of references in the ancient sources to Amazonian and other societies with matrilineal customs - societies in which descent and property rights are traced through the female line. Some support for his theory can be found in evidence such as that drawn from Herodotus, the Greek historian of the fifth century B.C., who speaks of an Amazonian society, the Sauromatae, where the women hunted and fought in wars. A woman in this society was not allowed to marry until she had killed a person in battle.

Nonetheless, this assumption that the first recorders of ancient myths have preserved facts is problematic.

If one begins by examining why ancients refer to Amazons, it becomes clear that ancient Greek descriptions of such societies were meant not so much to represent observed historical fact - real Amazonian societies - but rather to offer moral lessons on the supposed outcome of women's rule in their own society.

The Amazons were often characterized, for example, as the equivalents of giants and centaurs, enemies to be slain by Greek heroes. Their customs were presented not as those of a respectable society, but as the very antithesis of ordinary Greek practices.

Thus I would argue, the purpose of accounts of the Amazons for their male Greek recorders is didactic, to teach both male and female Greeks that all-female groups, formed by withdrawal from traditional society, are destructive and dangerous. Myths about the Amazons were used in arguments for the male dominated status quo, in which groups composed exclusively of either sex were not permitted to segregate themselves permanently from society. Bachofen was thus misled in his reliance on myths for information about the status of women. Social documents like gravestones, wills and marriage contracts will probably tell contemporary historians most about women in the ancient world. Studies of such documents have already began to show how mistaken we are when we try to derive our picture of the ancient world exclusively from literary sources especially myths.

Q. It can be inferred that the probable reactions of many males in ancient Greece to the idea of a society ruled by women could best be characterized as

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 10 Refer to the concluding paragraph. It talks about the Greek male-dominated society that viewed all female groups as destructive and dangerous. So it can be inferred from the last paragraph that many males' probable reactions to the idea of a society ruled by women in ancient Greece could best be characterized as adverse and hostile. Hence (b).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 11

While the rhetoric of collective responsibility to achieve "ambitious outcomes" in terms of climate action to address the "climate emergency" stands questioned in the 25th Conference of Parties, the grim realities of the inequalities between countries and the evasion of responsibilities and commitments by the developed countries point towards the fundamental role and continued importance of the United Nations Framework

Convention on Climate Change that remains wider in its scope and broader in its vision than the Paris Agreement.

The developed countries are also seeking to manipulate the science policy interface in an attempt to sideline the equity and climate justice-related perspectives of the developing countries.

The 25th Conference of Parties of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, the annual climate summit of the countries that are signatories to the Convention, recently concluded at Madrid in December 2019. Instead of being hailed as a milestone, almost universally, it has been held to be a failure. A remarkable range of opinions appears to concur on this view, from the United Nations Secretary General to a number of governments, including the European Union and some of the small island states, and a range of nongovernmental organizations, including some of the biggest international players.

Referring to the year-long wave of public action preceding COP25, especially by students and youth in the developed countries, this narrative of failure has held all countries responsible for the lack of "ambitious" outcomes adequate to dealing with the "climate emergency." While some accounts have justifiably noted the role of the United States in the overall outcome, others have also targeted Brazil, and China, and even India by innuendo. This narrative of collective responsibility for the outcome has dominated the global media too and has been uncritically echoed in the national media in countries like India.

But if COP25 was indeed the failure it is perhaps justifiably held to be, why indeed did it fail and what precisely was the anatomy of the failure? Despite the incessant rhetoric of "ambition" to face the "climate emergency," why indeed were the outcomes so meagre, and where does the responsibility lie?

Unfortunately, the understanding of the challenge of global warming has been made considerably more difficult by the widespread tendency to ignore the reality of the grossly unequal world in which we live. The UNFCCC recognizes this in its explicit articulation of the principles of equity and common but differentiated responsibilities as the basis for climate action, and thus, calls on the developed countries to take the lead. However, all too often the argument is made that these principles and their implementation in the differentiation between developed and developing countries in climate action has somehow become outdated.

Q. Which of the following did not hail the 25th Conference of Parties of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change as a failure?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 11 Option (c) is the correct answer as IMF does not find mention in the list of organizations which have hailed the 25th Conference of Parties of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change as a failure. All the other options are incorrect as they are mentioned in the passage as organizations which have termed the convention as a failure.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 12

While the rhetoric of collective responsibility to achieve "ambitious outcomes" in terms of climate action to address the "climate emergency" stands questioned in the 25th Conference of Parties, the grim realities of the inequalities between countries and the evasion of responsibilities and commitments by the developed countries point towards the fundamental role and continued importance of the United Nations Framework

Convention on Climate Change that remains wider in its scope and broader in its vision than the Paris Agreement.

The developed countries are also seeking to manipulate the science policy interface in an attempt to sideline the equity and climate justice-related perspectives of the developing countries.

The 25th Conference of Parties of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, the annual climate summit of the countries that are signatories to the Convention, recently concluded at Madrid in December 2019. Instead of being hailed as a milestone, almost universally, it has been held to be a failure. A remarkable range of opinions appears to concur on this view, from the United Nations Secretary General to a number of governments, including the European Union and some of the small island states, and a range of nongovernmental organizations, including some of the biggest international players.

Referring to the year-long wave of public action preceding COP25, especially by students and youth in the developed countries, this narrative of failure has held all countries responsible for the lack of "ambitious" outcomes adequate to dealing with the "climate emergency." While some accounts have justifiably noted the role of the United States in the overall outcome, others have also targeted Brazil, and China, and even India by innuendo. This narrative of collective responsibility for the outcome has dominated the global media too and has been uncritically echoed in the national media in countries like India.

But if COP25 was indeed the failure it is perhaps justifiably held to be, why indeed did it fail and what precisely was the anatomy of the failure? Despite the incessant rhetoric of "ambition" to face the "climate emergency," why indeed were the outcomes so meagre, and where does the responsibility lie?

Unfortunately, the understanding of the challenge of global warming has been made considerably more difficult by the widespread tendency to ignore the reality of the grossly unequal world in which we live. The UNFCCC recognizes this in its explicit articulation of the principles of equity and common but differentiated responsibilities as the basis for climate action, and thus, calls on the developed countries to take the lead. However, all too often the argument is made that these principles and their implementation in the differentiation between developed and developing countries in climate action has somehow become outdated.

Q. With reference to the passage, what is the meaning of the term 'signatories'?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 12 Option (a) is the correct answer as 'signatory' does not refer to an individual but a nation which has signed and promised to follow the provisions of the convention.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 13

While the rhetoric of collective responsibility to achieve "ambitious outcomes" in terms of climate action to address the "climate emergency" stands questioned in the 25th Conference of Parties, the grim realities of the inequalities between countries and the evasion of responsibilities and commitments by the developed countries point towards the fundamental role and continued importance of the United Nations Framework

Convention on Climate Change that remains wider in its scope and broader in its vision than the Paris Agreement.

The developed countries are also seeking to manipulate the science policy interface in an attempt to sideline the equity and climate justice-related perspectives of the developing countries.

The 25th Conference of Parties of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, the annual climate summit of the countries that are signatories to the Convention, recently concluded at Madrid in December 2019. Instead of being hailed as a milestone, almost universally, it has been held to be a failure. A remarkable range of opinions appears to concur on this view, from the United Nations Secretary General to a number of governments, including the European Union and some of the small island states, and a range of nongovernmental organizations, including some of the biggest international players.

Referring to the year-long wave of public action preceding COP25, especially by students and youth in the developed countries, this narrative of failure has held all countries responsible for the lack of "ambitious" outcomes adequate to dealing with the "climate emergency." While some accounts have justifiably noted the role of the United States in the overall outcome, others have also targeted Brazil, and China, and even India by innuendo. This narrative of collective responsibility for the outcome has dominated the global media too and has been uncritically echoed in the national media in countries like India.

But if COP25 was indeed the failure it is perhaps justifiably held to be, why indeed did it fail and what precisely was the anatomy of the failure? Despite the incessant rhetoric of "ambition" to face the "climate emergency," why indeed were the outcomes so meagre, and where does the responsibility lie?

Unfortunately, the understanding of the challenge of global warming has been made considerably more difficult by the widespread tendency to ignore the reality of the grossly unequal world in which we live. The UNFCCC recognizes this in its explicit articulation of the principles of equity and common but differentiated responsibilities as the basis for climate action, and thus, calls on the developed countries to take the lead. However, all too often the argument is made that these principles and their implementation in the differentiation between developed and developing countries in climate action has somehow become outdated.

Q. What is the reason behind developed countries seeking to manipulate the science policy interface?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 13 Option (d) is the correct answer as it has been mentioned in the passage that developed countries are seeking to manipulate the science policy interface in an attempt to sideline the equity and climate justice-related perspectives of the developing countries.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 14

While the rhetoric of collective responsibility to achieve "ambitious outcomes" in terms of climate action to address the "climate emergency" stands questioned in the 25th Conference of Parties, the grim realities of the inequalities between countries and the evasion of responsibilities and commitments by the developed countries point towards the fundamental role and continued importance of the United Nations Framework

Convention on Climate Change that remains wider in its scope and broader in its vision than the Paris Agreement.

The developed countries are also seeking to manipulate the science policy interface in an attempt to sideline the equity and climate justice-related perspectives of the developing countries.

The 25th Conference of Parties of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, the annual climate summit of the countries that are signatories to the Convention, recently concluded at Madrid in December 2019. Instead of being hailed as a milestone, almost universally, it has been held to be a failure. A remarkable range of opinions appears to concur on this view, from the United Nations Secretary General to a number of governments, including the European Union and some of the small island states, and a range of nongovernmental organizations, including some of the biggest international players.

Referring to the year-long wave of public action preceding COP25, especially by students and youth in the developed countries, this narrative of failure has held all countries responsible for the lack of "ambitious" outcomes adequate to dealing with the "climate emergency." While some accounts have justifiably noted the role of the United States in the overall outcome, others have also targeted Brazil, and China, and even India by innuendo. This narrative of collective responsibility for the outcome has dominated the global media too and has been uncritically echoed in the national media in countries like India.

But if COP25 was indeed the failure it is perhaps justifiably held to be, why indeed did it fail and what precisely was the anatomy of the failure? Despite the incessant rhetoric of "ambition" to face the "climate emergency," why indeed were the outcomes so meagre, and where does the responsibility lie?

Unfortunately, the understanding of the challenge of global warming has been made considerably more difficult by the widespread tendency to ignore the reality of the grossly unequal world in which we live. The UNFCCC recognizes this in its explicit articulation of the principles of equity and common but differentiated responsibilities as the basis for climate action, and thus, calls on the developed countries to take the lead. However, all too often the argument is made that these principles and their implementation in the differentiation between developed and developing countries in climate action has somehow become outdated.

Q. What is the opinion of the author regarding the coverage of COP25 by the Indian media?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 14 Option (b) is the correct answer as by referring the coverage of Indian media as 'uncritical' the author opines that the Indian media lacked opinion on the issue. Options (a) and (c) are incorrect as they are vague and do not elaborate as to how the author has criticized or distinguished the Indian media respectively. Option (d) is incorrect as it is contrary to the information provided in the passage.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 15

While the rhetoric of collective responsibility to achieve "ambitious outcomes" in terms of climate action to address the "climate emergency" stands questioned in the 25th Conference of Parties, the grim realities of the inequalities between countries and the evasion of responsibilities and commitments by the developed countries point towards the fundamental role and continued importance of the United Nations Framework

Convention on Climate Change that remains wider in its scope and broader in its vision than the Paris Agreement.

The developed countries are also seeking to manipulate the science policy interface in an attempt to sideline the equity and climate justice-related perspectives of the developing countries.

The 25th Conference of Parties of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, the annual climate summit of the countries that are signatories to the Convention, recently concluded at Madrid in December 2019. Instead of being hailed as a milestone, almost universally, it has been held to be a failure. A remarkable range of opinions appears to concur on this view, from the United Nations Secretary General to a number of governments, including the European Union and some of the small island states, and a range of nongovernmental organizations, including some of the biggest international players.

Referring to the year-long wave of public action preceding COP25, especially by students and youth in the developed countries, this narrative of failure has held all countries responsible for the lack of "ambitious" outcomes adequate to dealing with the "climate emergency." While some accounts have justifiably noted the role of the United States in the overall outcome, others have also targeted Brazil, and China, and even India by innuendo. This narrative of collective responsibility for the outcome has dominated the global media too and has been uncritically echoed in the national media in countries like India.

But if COP25 was indeed the failure it is perhaps justifiably held to be, why indeed did it fail and what precisely was the anatomy of the failure? Despite the incessant rhetoric of "ambition" to face the "climate emergency," why indeed were the outcomes so meagre, and where does the responsibility lie?

Unfortunately, the understanding of the challenge of global warming has been made considerably more difficult by the widespread tendency to ignore the reality of the grossly unequal world in which we live. The UNFCCC recognizes this in its explicit articulation of the principles of equity and common but differentiated responsibilities as the basis for climate action, and thus, calls on the developed countries to take the lead. However, all too often the argument is made that these principles and their implementation in the differentiation between developed and developing countries in climate action has somehow become outdated.

Q. Why has the author held countries responsible for the failure of COP25?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 15 Option (a) is the correct answer as it has been stated in the passage that all countries are responsible for the failure of COP25 as they have showed lack of ambitious outcomes adequate to dealing with the climate emergency.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 16

While the rhetoric of collective responsibility to achieve "ambitious outcomes" in terms of climate action to address the "climate emergency" stands questioned in the 25th Conference of Parties, the grim realities of the inequalities between countries and the evasion of responsibilities and commitments by the developed countries point towards the fundamental role and continued importance of the United Nations Framework

Convention on Climate Change that remains wider in its scope and broader in its vision than the Paris Agreement.

The developed countries are also seeking to manipulate the science policy interface in an attempt to sideline the equity and climate justice-related perspectives of the developing countries.

The 25th Conference of Parties of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, the annual climate summit of the countries that are signatories to the Convention, recently concluded at Madrid in December 2019. Instead of being hailed as a milestone, almost universally, it has been held to be a failure. A remarkable range of opinions appears to concur on this view, from the United Nations Secretary General to a number of governments, including the European Union and some of the small island states, and a range of nongovernmental organizations, including some of the biggest international players.

Referring to the year-long wave of public action preceding COP25, especially by students and youth in the developed countries, this narrative of failure has held all countries responsible for the lack of "ambitious" outcomes adequate to dealing with the "climate emergency." While some accounts have justifiably noted the role of the United States in the overall outcome, others have also targeted Brazil, and China, and even India by innuendo. This narrative of collective responsibility for the outcome has dominated the global media too and has been uncritically echoed in the national media in countries like India.

But if COP25 was indeed the failure it is perhaps justifiably held to be, why indeed did it fail and what precisely was the anatomy of the failure? Despite the incessant rhetoric of "ambition" to face the "climate emergency," why indeed were the outcomes so meagre, and where does the responsibility lie?

Unfortunately, the understanding of the challenge of global warming has been made considerably more difficult by the widespread tendency to ignore the reality of the grossly unequal world in which we live. The UNFCCC recognizes this in its explicit articulation of the principles of equity and common but differentiated responsibilities as the basis for climate action, and thus, calls on the developed countries to take the lead. However, all too often the argument is made that these principles and their implementation in the differentiation between developed and developing countries in climate action has somehow become outdated.

Q. What is the meaning of the term 'innuendo' as used in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 16 Option (c) is the correct answer as the term innuendo refers to a hint, insinuation or intimation about a person or thing, especially of a denigrating or a derogatory nature.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 17

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells junk is this 35-year-old artist’s favourite hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back home, he painstakingly dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a liveand-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the works whirr.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can distract. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty autorickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. Which of the following would be a suitable title for the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 17 The passage discusses how the artist takes articles of scrap and uses them to make his works of art.

He also has to pay attention to pre-planning his art work without the luxury of a sketch. This needs a lot of focus and also implies the process of reinventing the use for a piece of old scrap. Option (b) is the answer. Option (a) can be ruled out because it indicates that the author is reliving or refreshing past events/ memories. However, there is no evidence for this in the passage. Option (c) can be ruled out because it has a negative connotation – getting rid of art – and its ambiguity as well as its focus on the medium and not on the central idea of the passage makes it an unsuitable answer. Option (d) can be ruled out because it doesn’t bring in the connotation of reuse or reinvention – this is a primary element of Har’s work.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 18

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells junk is this 35-year-old artist’s favourite hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back home, he painstakingly dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a liveand-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the works whirr.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can distract. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty autorickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following statements can be inferred?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 18 The sixth paragraph helps provide the answer. The last line of this paragraph indicates that Har has to make a mental picture of his artwork before he creates it – he states that he does not sketch and so has to maintain sharp focus on the final work he wants to create. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Option (b) can be ruled out because it is directly mentioned in the paragraph and this question demands an answer that is partially indirect. Option (c) cannot be inferred; however, in the third paragraph the author mentions why the artworks are aesthetically appealing without making a reference to colour. Option (d) is incorrect because in the sixth paragraph, Har states that the colours in his artwork can distract but he also goes on to mention that this is why he has to maintain sharp focus during creation. This line indicates that he avoids allowing his artworks to have distracting colour combinations.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 19

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells junk is this 35-year-old artist’s favourite hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back home, he painstakingly dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a liveand-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the works whirr.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can distract. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty autorickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. What does the word 'aesthete' as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 19 Option (d) is very close; however, it cannot be the answer as the word 'aesthete' as used to mean an art lover or a lover of beautiful things. Therefore, option B is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 20

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells junk is this 35-year-old artist’s favourite hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back home, he painstakingly dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a liveand-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the works whirr.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can distract. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty autorickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. According to the author, what makes Har ’s art fun?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 20 The fifth paragraph talks about Har’s artworks being fun. The author states that the observer can visually dismantle the artwork and then again rebuild it (look at it again in the overall context). And one can keep doing this – zooming in on one element and then zooming out to see the whole picture. Option (c) best captures the essence of this paragraph. Option (a) has been mentioned in the third paragraph but in the context of why Har’s artworks are aesthetically appealing. Option (b) is incorrect because there is no mention in the passage about the kind of audience that is targeted through Har’s artwork. Option (d) can be partially inferred from the fourth paragraph that indicates that Har’s artworks have a life in them. However, there isn’t enough information to suggest that an energetic and vivacious quality in the artworks makes them fun.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 21

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells junk is this 35-year-old artist’s favourite hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back home, he painstakingly dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a liveand-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the works whirr.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can distract. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty autorickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 21 The sixth paragraph of the passage says that visualizing demands a lot of attention as it involves a lot of colour combinations. Since Har doesn’t sketch, so he has to keep a sharp focus on the final look without getting distracted. So, option (c) is incorrect and hence, cannot be inferred from the passage. Options (a) and (d) are mentioned in the penultimate paragraph. Option (b) can be inferred from the second and third paragraphs. The author says that his artwork grabs the viewers’ attention at various levels and the material used is so striking that it takes the viewer through a new journey.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 22

Ahmedabad’s Sunday market that sells junk is this 35-year-old artist’s favourite hunting ground. That’s where he picks saw-blades, printer toners, monitors, busted VCDs and hard disks, video players and other castaway gems.

Back home, he painstakingly dismantles his treasure of scrap and segregates it into big pieces (the videoplayer’s outer case), mid-sized (the insides of a hard disk) and small pieces (innards of a mobile).

This is art you can get up, close and personal with. The works grab the viewer’s attention at several levels.

Aesthetically, the creations themselves - such as Frivolity which uses feathers and terracotta diyas painted in dark fossil green that give it a strange life - appeal in a liveand-kicking sort of way.

Look a little closer and hey, you spot a zipper. Then it’s a journey all your own. Your eyes identify hairpins, spray spouts that hairdressers use, paper clips, thread, computer ribbons and the insides of everything from watches to the sliding metal bits that support drawers.

You can almost hear the works whirr.

So Hashissh, constructed from paper clips, backpack clips, a shining CD and twirled thread, may invite you to study its water-blue, pinks and green or Nelumbeshwar may beckon, bathed in acrylic pink and grey-black. But once you’re standing in front of a piece, you spot the zips and the hairpins. Then you simply visually dismantle Har’s work and rebuild it all over again. Zoom in, zoom out. It’s great fun.

Visualising the colour of his work demands a lot of attention, says Har. “During creation, the material is all differently coloured. So there’s a red switch next to a white panel next to a black clip. It can distract. I don’t sketch, so I have to keep a sharp focus on the final look I am working towards.”

As his work evolved, Har discovered laser-cutting on a visit to a factory where he had gone to sand-blast one of his pieces. Hooked by the zingy shapes laser-cutting offered, Har promptly used it to speed up a scooter and lend an unbearable lightness of being to a flighty autorickshaw, his latest works.

The NID-trained animation designer’s scrap quest was first inspired by a spider in his bathroom in Chennai when he was a teenager. He used a table-tennis ball (for the head), a bigger plastic ball (for the body) and twisted clothes hangers to form the legs. His next idea was to create a crab, and his mother obligingly brought one home from the market so that he could study and copy it.

Winning the first Art Positive fellowship offered by Bajaj Capital Arthouse last year gave Har the confidence to believe that he could make it as an artist or ‘aesthete’ as he likes to call himself.

Q. What is the Central idea of the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 22 Options (b) and (c) seem correct but they are not too narrow. Option (d) is too generic. Only option (a) is encompasses the entire passage, hence, it is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 23

Being an English-speaking country is a blessing - and a curse. It is a blessing to be native speakers of the language of Shakespeare - and the language of world science and popular culture. The success of UK science is built not just on its excellence but also its English, which since the decline of the Soviet Union has been the only serious global scientific language. The success of UK universities in recruiting international students also owes a great deal to the language.

But it is also a curse. As the incentives to learn other languages decline year by year, the English-speaking countries are increasingly locked into an Anglophone prison. It may be an advantage to travel almost everywhere and be "understood". But maybe the ability to understand other cultures is declining. The Chinese speak English; not many British speak Mandarin. Maybe there is a wider lesson here: monolingualism inhibits multicultural sensitivity.

This inhibition is expressed in a number of ways. Within the university, the humanities, where such sensitivity is crucial, are hardest hit. Stem subjects may be able to flourish as a monoglot domain (because their language is as much mathematics as English). But that can never be the case with literature, philosophy, history - and even some of the less theoretical social sciences - without a narrowing of perspectives.

In wider society, it is at least possible that the lack of challenge to neo-liberal ideas can be attributed partly to monolingualism. Alternative ideas can only become influential when they are translated into English.

Secondly, we are not really talking about English but "Globlish", a communication tool stripped of most of its cultural resonances. Non-native English speakers can easily become fluent in Globlish. Maybe they can even speak it better because most are not inhibited by faint memories of the King James Bible or Hamlet. For them Globlish is largely a functional language.

Other European countries now offer courses taught in English. In Scandinavia and the Netherlands this has long been routine at postgraduate level. But now Germany and even France have joined in. English, of course, has displaced Russian as the second language across central and eastern Europe.

Most of these courses are in business and management, or science and engineering. While Anglophone students remain in their monolingual prison, other students are becoming increasingly and confidently bilingual - on top of being skilled managers or engineers.

There is another risk - of complacency. Not only is the language premium enjoyed by Anglophone countries likely to decline as Globlish becomes more pervasive, but the current bias may tend to flatter us. The dominance of UK, and American, universities in global league tables may be exaggerated.

Q. What does the author mean when he says "English Speaking countries are locked into an Anglophone prison"?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 23 The passage states that people of English speaking counties, unlike others, speak only one language.

This "monolingualism inhabits their multicultural sensitivity". Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Option (a) is incorrect because it is factually incorrect. Options (c) and (d) cannot be inferred from the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 24

Being an English-speaking country is a blessing - and a curse. It is a blessing to be native speakers of the language of Shakespeare - and the language of world science and popular culture. The success of UK science is built not just on its excellence but also its English, which since the decline of the Soviet Union has been the only serious global scientific language. The success of UK universities in recruiting international students also owes a great deal to the language.

But it is also a curse. As the incentives to learn other languages decline year by year, the English-speaking countries are increasingly locked into an Anglophone prison. It may be an advantage to travel almost everywhere and be "understood". But maybe the ability to understand other cultures is declining. The Chinese speak English; not many British speak Mandarin. Maybe there is a wider lesson here: monolingualism inhibits multicultural sensitivity.

This inhibition is expressed in a number of ways. Within the university, the humanities, where such sensitivity is crucial, are hardest hit. Stem subjects may be able to flourish as a monoglot domain (because their language is as much mathematics as English). But that can never be the case with literature, philosophy, history - and even some of the less theoretical social sciences - without a narrowing of perspectives.

In wider society, it is at least possible that the lack of challenge to neo-liberal ideas can be attributed partly to monolingualism. Alternative ideas can only become influential when they are translated into English.

Secondly, we are not really talking about English but "Globlish", a communication tool stripped of most of its cultural resonances. Non-native English speakers can easily become fluent in Globlish. Maybe they can even speak it better because most are not inhibited by faint memories of the King James Bible or Hamlet. For them Globlish is largely a functional language.

Other European countries now offer courses taught in English. In Scandinavia and the Netherlands this has long been routine at postgraduate level. But now Germany and even France have joined in. English, of course, has displaced Russian as the second language across central and eastern Europe.

Most of these courses are in business and management, or science and engineering. While Anglophone students remain in their monolingual prison, other students are becoming increasingly and confidently bilingual - on top of being skilled managers or engineers.

There is another risk - of complacency. Not only is the language premium enjoyed by Anglophone countries likely to decline as Globlish becomes more pervasive, but the current bias may tend to flatter us. The dominance of UK, and American, universities in global league tables may be exaggerated.

Q. What is the advantage of being one of the native speakers of the language of Shakespeare?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 24 Option (b) is the correct answer because the second paragraph of the passage states that natives of English speaking countries have the advantage of being understood wherever they travel. Options (a) and (c) are not mentioned in the passage. Option (d) is incorrect as per the passage.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 25

Being an English-speaking country is a blessing - and a curse. It is a blessing to be native speakers of the language of Shakespeare - and the language of world science and popular culture. The success of UK science is built not just on its excellence but also its English, which since the decline of the Soviet Union has been the only serious global scientific language. The success of UK universities in recruiting international students also owes a great deal to the language.

But it is also a curse. As the incentives to learn other languages decline year by year, the English-speaking countries are increasingly locked into an Anglophone prison. It may be an advantage to travel almost everywhere and be "understood". But maybe the ability to understand other cultures is declining. The Chinese speak English; not many British speak Mandarin. Maybe there is a wider lesson here: monolingualism inhibits multicultural sensitivity.

This inhibition is expressed in a number of ways. Within the university, the humanities, where such sensitivity is crucial, are hardest hit. Stem subjects may be able to flourish as a monoglot domain (because their language is as much mathematics as English). But that can never be the case with literature, philosophy, history - and even some of the less theoretical social sciences - without a narrowing of perspectives.

In wider society, it is at least possible that the lack of challenge to neo-liberal ideas can be attributed partly to monolingualism. Alternative ideas can only become influential when they are translated into English.

Secondly, we are not really talking about English but "Globlish", a communication tool stripped of most of its cultural resonances. Non-native English speakers can easily become fluent in Globlish. Maybe they can even speak it better because most are not inhibited by faint memories of the King James Bible or Hamlet. For them Globlish is largely a functional language.

Other European countries now offer courses taught in English. In Scandinavia and the Netherlands this has long been routine at postgraduate level. But now Germany and even France have joined in. English, of course, has displaced Russian as the second language across central and eastern Europe.

Most of these courses are in business and management, or science and engineering. While Anglophone students remain in their monolingual prison, other students are becoming increasingly and confidently bilingual - on top of being skilled managers or engineers.

There is another risk - of complacency. Not only is the language premium enjoyed by Anglophone countries likely to decline as Globlish becomes more pervasive, but the current bias may tend to flatter us. The dominance of UK, and American, universities in global league tables may be exaggerated.

Q. How is Globlish different from English?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 25 The passage states that Globlish is English stripped of most of its cultural resonances. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer. Option (a) is factually incorrect because the passage only mentions that it is used as a communication tool. Option (b) is incorrect because the passage does not state that native speakers of English cannot speak Globlish fluently.

Option (d) is not given in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 26

Being an English-speaking country is a blessing - and a curse. It is a blessing to be native speakers of the language of Shakespeare - and the language of world science and popular culture. The success of UK science is built not just on its excellence but also its English, which since the decline of the Soviet Union has been the only serious global scientific language. The success of UK universities in recruiting international students also owes a great deal to the language.

But it is also a curse. As the incentives to learn other languages decline year by year, the English-speaking countries are increasingly locked into an Anglophone prison. It may be an advantage to travel almost everywhere and be "understood". But maybe the ability to understand other cultures is declining. The Chinese speak English; not many British speak Mandarin. Maybe there is a wider lesson here: monolingualism inhibits multicultural sensitivity.

This inhibition is expressed in a number of ways. Within the university, the humanities, where such sensitivity is crucial, are hardest hit. Stem subjects may be able to flourish as a monoglot domain (because their language is as much mathematics as English). But that can never be the case with literature, philosophy, history - and even some of the less theoretical social sciences - without a narrowing of perspectives.

In wider society, it is at least possible that the lack of challenge to neo-liberal ideas can be attributed partly to monolingualism. Alternative ideas can only become influential when they are translated into English.

Secondly, we are not really talking about English but "Globlish", a communication tool stripped of most of its cultural resonances. Non-native English speakers can easily become fluent in Globlish. Maybe they can even speak it better because most are not inhibited by faint memories of the King James Bible or Hamlet. For them Globlish is largely a functional language.

Other European countries now offer courses taught in English. In Scandinavia and the Netherlands this has long been routine at postgraduate level. But now Germany and even France have joined in. English, of course, has displaced Russian as the second language across central and eastern Europe.

Most of these courses are in business and management, or science and engineering. While Anglophone students remain in their monolingual prison, other students are becoming increasingly and confidently bilingual - on top of being skilled managers or engineers.

There is another risk - of complacency. Not only is the language premium enjoyed by Anglophone countries likely to decline as Globlish becomes more pervasive, but the current bias may tend to flatter us. The dominance of UK, and American, universities in global league tables may be exaggerated.

Q. Which of the following is true according to the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 26 Option (b) is the correct answer because the passage states that for non-native speakers of English, Globlish is largely a functional language.

Option (a) is incorrect because the passage states that non-native English speakers may speak Globlish more fluently than native English speakers because the former are not inhibited by memories of the King James Bible or Hamlet. Option (c) is incorrect because the passage nowhere makes this general statement. Option (d) is incorrect because it is only true for central and eastern Europe and not the world.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 27

Being an English-speaking country is a blessing - and a curse. It is a blessing to be native speakers of the language of Shakespeare - and the language of world science and popular culture. The success of UK science is built not just on its excellence but also its English, which since the decline of the Soviet Union has been the only serious global scientific language. The success of UK universities in recruiting international students also owes a great deal to the language.

But it is also a curse. As the incentives to learn other languages decline year by year, the English-speaking countries are increasingly locked into an Anglophone prison. It may be an advantage to travel almost everywhere and be "understood". But maybe the ability to understand other cultures is declining. The Chinese speak English; not many British speak Mandarin. Maybe there is a wider lesson here: monolingualism inhibits multicultural sensitivity.

This inhibition is expressed in a number of ways. Within the university, the humanities, where such sensitivity is crucial, are hardest hit. Stem subjects may be able to flourish as a monoglot domain (because their language is as much mathematics as English). But that can never be the case with literature, philosophy, history - and even some of the less theoretical social sciences - without a narrowing of perspectives.

In wider society, it is at least possible that the lack of challenge to neo-liberal ideas can be attributed partly to monolingualism. Alternative ideas can only become influential when they are translated into English.

Secondly, we are not really talking about English but "Globlish", a communication tool stripped of most of its cultural resonances. Non-native English speakers can easily become fluent in Globlish. Maybe they can even speak it better because most are not inhibited by faint memories of the King James Bible or Hamlet. For them Globlish is largely a functional language.

Other European countries now offer courses taught in English. In Scandinavia and the Netherlands this has long been routine at postgraduate level. But now Germany and even France have joined in. English, of course, has displaced Russian as the second language across central and eastern Europe.

Most of these courses are in business and management, or science and engineering. While Anglophone students remain in their monolingual prison, other students are becoming increasingly and confidently bilingual - on top of being skilled managers or engineers.

There is another risk - of complacency. Not only is the language premium enjoyed by Anglophone countries likely to decline as Globlish becomes more pervasive, but the current bias may tend to flatter us. The dominance of UK, and American, universities in global league tables may be exaggerated.

Q. Neo-liberal ideas are not much challenged because

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 27 The passage states that lack of challenge to neoliberal ideas can be attributed partly to monolingualism as alternative ideas can only become influential when they are translated into English. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

All other options are incorrect because they are not mentioned in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 28

Weaver sees hypocrisy in the World Bank as a predictable feature in a large international organization especially when viewed using resource dependency (viewing the competitive environment) and sociological institutionalism (the authorising environment). The Bank's emphasis on organizational survival and legitimacy shows itself in its interactions with multiple actors in its competitive and authoritarian environments. Many critics of the Bank simply see the Bank as unable to achieve the goals it sets and help its client states. Weaver however launches into an in-depth description of two "worlds"-the World's Bank and the Bank's World. The former indicates the complex structure of the Bank including its donor states, client states, its private capital markets and the watchdog Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs). Weaver's examination reveals the various pressures exerted on the Bank and the degree of American influence on the bank.

In as much as the Bank is pressured from many sides, Weaver notes a strong degree of operational authority and autonomy in the "Bank's World". This stems from the complexity of its operations, some which are not open to extensive review. Second the diversity of member states allows the Bank some autonomy and most importantly, the Bank holds a strong monopoly over development related knowledge. This control of ideas is coupled with a technocratic and economic rationality, reinforced with the influx of Western trained neo-classical economists. Bank ideological coherence is also maintained by the editing of reports to align with neoliberal beliefs. It is within these strong intellectual norms that Weaver examines World Bank reforms. Contrary to some critics, the Bank did engage in reforms in the 1990s. The Strategic Compact arose as a need to transform the Bank back as an effort to re-orientate itself as the premier development agency, after external criticism and an internal evaluation. The first aim of streamlining bureaucracy was easily reached however the aim of being more "poverty focused and accountable" came at odds with the technical, economic and apolitical rationality. New efforts such as listening to clients and conducting consultations clashed with the existing approval culture. Overall, changes occurred but still the approval culture remained strong.

Similarly, the focus on good governance was not that effective with apolitical stances amongst staff.

Furthermore, the dominating neo-liberal mindset resulted in governance issues framed with economic objectives in mind. Just as with the Strategic Compact, Weaver notes that governance reform challenged the Bank's conventional method of conducting business.

Weaver does qualify that the constant need to placate the demands of various external groups also hampered Bank reform. She however noted that the Bank deep culture will prevent any productive change. Weaver thus delves away from the normal criticism of the World Bank to explain the reasons of Bank actions and activities.

She shed a new light noting that such hypocrisy is a tenet in any large international organisation. In order for any improvement to the World Bank, it is not simply the initiation of change but the need to re work the internal settings of one of the world's most important development groups.

Q. Under which environments does Weaver assess World Bank's hypocrisy?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 28 The answer is (d) and this has been given in the first paragraph. Combative is a synonym of competitive but with a negative connotation and it does not fit into the context of the paragraph.

Democratic is an antonym for authoritarian.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 29

Weaver sees hypocrisy in the World Bank as a predictable feature in a large international organization especially when viewed using resource dependency (viewing the competitive environment) and sociological institutionalism (the authorising environment). The Bank's emphasis on organizational survival and legitimacy shows itself in its interactions with multiple actors in its competitive and authoritarian environments. Many critics of the Bank simply see the Bank as unable to achieve the goals it sets and help its client states. Weaver however launches into an in-depth description of two "worlds"-the World's Bank and the Bank's World. The former indicates the complex structure of the Bank including its donor states, client states, its private capital markets and the watchdog Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs). Weaver's examination reveals the various pressures exerted on the Bank and the degree of American influence on the bank.

In as much as the Bank is pressured from many sides, Weaver notes a strong degree of operational authority and autonomy in the "Bank's World". This stems from the complexity of its operations, some which are not open to extensive review. Second the diversity of member states allows the Bank some autonomy and most importantly, the Bank holds a strong monopoly over development related knowledge. This control of ideas is coupled with a technocratic and economic rationality, reinforced with the influx of Western trained neo-classical economists. Bank ideological coherence is also maintained by the editing of reports to align with neoliberal beliefs. It is within these strong intellectual norms that Weaver examines World Bank reforms. Contrary to some critics, the Bank did engage in reforms in the 1990s. The Strategic Compact arose as a need to transform the Bank back as an effort to re-orientate itself as the premier development agency, after external criticism and an internal evaluation. The first aim of streamlining bureaucracy was easily reached however the aim of being more "poverty focused and accountable" came at odds with the technical, economic and apolitical rationality. New efforts such as listening to clients and conducting consultations clashed with the existing approval culture. Overall, changes occurred but still the approval culture remained strong.

Similarly, the focus on good governance was not that effective with apolitical stances amongst staff.

Furthermore, the dominating neo-liberal mindset resulted in governance issues framed with economic objectives in mind. Just as with the Strategic Compact, Weaver notes that governance reform challenged the Bank's conventional method of conducting business.

Weaver does qualify that the constant need to placate the demands of various external groups also hampered Bank reform. She however noted that the Bank deep culture will prevent any productive change. Weaver thus delves away from the normal criticism of the World Bank to explain the reasons of Bank actions and activities.

She shed a new light noting that such hypocrisy is a tenet in any large international organisation. In order for any improvement to the World Bank, it is not simply the initiation of change but the need to re work the internal settings of one of the world's most important development groups.

Q. It can be inferred that Weaver's attitude to the World Bank is best reflected in which of the following statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 29 The question asks for the statement which most reflects Weaver's attitude. In the first and last paragraphs of the passage, Weaver agrees that the World Bank is a hypocritical organization she also moves away from this to look at how it can move away from this. Option (a) does not answer this question entirely and instead criticizes the bank.

Option (b) is the best answer in the context of the entire passage. Option (c) has never been stated nor implied by Weaver, it is what other critics have said about the Bank. Option (d) has to do with the failed reforms of the 1990s and not the time period the author is writing in.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 30

Weaver sees hypocrisy in the World Bank as a predictable feature in a large international organization especially when viewed using resource dependency (viewing the competitive environment) and sociological institutionalism (the authorising environment). The Bank's emphasis on organizational survival and legitimacy shows itself in its interactions with multiple actors in its competitive and authoritarian environments. Many critics of the Bank simply see the Bank as unable to achieve the goals it sets and help its client states. Weaver however launches into an in-depth description of two "worlds"-the World's Bank and the Bank's World. The former indicates the complex structure of the Bank including its donor states, client states, its private capital markets and the watchdog Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs). Weaver's examination reveals the various pressures exerted on the Bank and the degree of American influence on the bank.

In as much as the Bank is pressured from many sides, Weaver notes a strong degree of operational authority and autonomy in the "Bank's World". This stems from the complexity of its operations, some which are not open to extensive review. Second the diversity of member states allows the Bank some autonomy and most importantly, the Bank holds a strong monopoly over development related knowledge. This control of ideas is coupled with a technocratic and economic rationality, reinforced with the influx of Western trained neo-classical economists. Bank ideological coherence is also maintained by the editing of reports to align with neoliberal beliefs. It is within these strong intellectual norms that Weaver examines World Bank reforms. Contrary to some critics, the Bank did engage in reforms in the 1990s. The Strategic Compact arose as a need to transform the Bank back as an effort to re-orientate itself as the premier development agency, after external criticism and an internal evaluation. The first aim of streamlining bureaucracy was easily reached however the aim of being more "poverty focused and accountable" came at odds with the technical, economic and apolitical rationality. New efforts such as listening to clients and conducting consultations clashed with the existing approval culture. Overall, changes occurred but still the approval culture remained strong.

Similarly, the focus on good governance was not that effective with apolitical stances amongst staff.

Furthermore, the dominating neo-liberal mindset resulted in governance issues framed with economic objectives in mind. Just as with the Strategic Compact, Weaver notes that governance reform challenged the Bank's conventional method of conducting business.

Weaver does qualify that the constant need to placate the demands of various external groups also hampered Bank reform. She however noted that the Bank deep culture will prevent any productive change. Weaver thus delves away from the normal criticism of the World Bank to explain the reasons of Bank actions and activities.

She shed a new light noting that such hypocrisy is a tenet in any large international organisation. In order for any improvement to the World Bank, it is not simply the initiation of change but the need to re work the internal settings of one of the world's most important development groups.

Q. Consider the following statements:

  1. The World Bank engaged in reforms in the 1980s.

  2. Every operation of the World Bank is open to extensive reviews.

According to the above passage, which of the statements is/are valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 30 Both the statements are incorrect. Refer to the third paragraph for the answers.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 31

Weaver sees hypocrisy in the World Bank as a predictable feature in a large international organization especially when viewed using resource dependency (viewing the competitive environment) and sociological institutionalism (the authorising environment). The Bank's emphasis on organizational survival and legitimacy shows itself in its interactions with multiple actors in its competitive and authoritarian environments. Many critics of the Bank simply see the Bank as unable to achieve the goals it sets and help its client states. Weaver however launches into an in-depth description of two "worlds"-the World's Bank and the Bank's World. The former indicates the complex structure of the Bank including its donor states, client states, its private capital markets and the watchdog Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs). Weaver's examination reveals the various pressures exerted on the Bank and the degree of American influence on the bank.

In as much as the Bank is pressured from many sides, Weaver notes a strong degree of operational authority and autonomy in the "Bank's World". This stems from the complexity of its operations, some which are not open to extensive review. Second the diversity of member states allows the Bank some autonomy and most importantly, the Bank holds a strong monopoly over development related knowledge. This control of ideas is coupled with a technocratic and economic rationality, reinforced with the influx of Western trained neo-classical economists. Bank ideological coherence is also maintained by the editing of reports to align with neoliberal beliefs. It is within these strong intellectual norms that Weaver examines World Bank reforms. Contrary to some critics, the Bank did engage in reforms in the 1990s. The Strategic Compact arose as a need to transform the Bank back as an effort to re-orientate itself as the premier development agency, after external criticism and an internal evaluation. The first aim of streamlining bureaucracy was easily reached however the aim of being more "poverty focused and accountable" came at odds with the technical, economic and apolitical rationality. New efforts such as listening to clients and conducting consultations clashed with the existing approval culture. Overall, changes occurred but still the approval culture remained strong.

Similarly, the focus on good governance was not that effective with apolitical stances amongst staff.

Furthermore, the dominating neo-liberal mindset resulted in governance issues framed with economic objectives in mind. Just as with the Strategic Compact, Weaver notes that governance reform challenged the Bank's conventional method of conducting business.

Weaver does qualify that the constant need to placate the demands of various external groups also hampered Bank reform. She however noted that the Bank deep culture will prevent any productive change. Weaver thus delves away from the normal criticism of the World Bank to explain the reasons of Bank actions and activities.

She shed a new light noting that such hypocrisy is a tenet in any large international organisation. In order for any improvement to the World Bank, it is not simply the initiation of change but the need to re work the internal settings of one of the world's most important development groups.

Q. What changes does Weaver feel the bank needs to bring in for true reform?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 31 The author discusses the two sides of the bank -external pressures and the internal environment -in the context of reforms. However, it is clearly inferred from paragraph 3, 4, 5 and 6 that she feels that bank reform has not taken place because of its strong internal culture. The last paragraph clinches the answer as option (c). Option (a) is incorrect as this was part of the failed efforts for reforms in the 1990s. Option (b) is incorrect as indicated from the first line of paragraph 3. The external reforms are not seen as important when compared with the failed efforts of the bank in changing its internal environment. Option (d) is an end objective for the bank but it does not reflect the changes that need to be made thereby not answering the question. Option (c) is the correct answer.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 32

Weaver sees hypocrisy in the World Bank as a predictable feature in a large international organization especially when viewed using resource dependency (viewing the competitive environment) and sociological institutionalism (the authorising environment). The Bank's emphasis on organizational survival and legitimacy shows itself in its interactions with multiple actors in its competitive and authoritarian environments. Many critics of the Bank simply see the Bank as unable to achieve the goals it sets and help its client states. Weaver however launches into an in-depth description of two "worlds"-the World's Bank and the Bank's World. The former indicates the complex structure of the Bank including its donor states, client states, its private capital markets and the watchdog Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs). Weaver's examination reveals the various pressures exerted on the Bank and the degree of American influence on the bank.

In as much as the Bank is pressured from many sides, Weaver notes a strong degree of operational authority and autonomy in the "Bank's World". This stems from the complexity of its operations, some which are not open to extensive review. Second the diversity of member states allows the Bank some autonomy and most importantly, the Bank holds a strong monopoly over development related knowledge. This control of ideas is coupled with a technocratic and economic rationality, reinforced with the influx of Western trained neo-classical economists. Bank ideological coherence is also maintained by the editing of reports to align with neoliberal beliefs. It is within these strong intellectual norms that Weaver examines World Bank reforms. Contrary to some critics, the Bank did engage in reforms in the 1990s. The Strategic Compact arose as a need to transform the Bank back as an effort to re-orientate itself as the premier development agency, after external criticism and an internal evaluation. The first aim of streamlining bureaucracy was easily reached however the aim of being more "poverty focused and accountable" came at odds with the technical, economic and apolitical rationality. New efforts such as listening to clients and conducting consultations clashed with the existing approval culture. Overall, changes occurred but still the approval culture remained strong.

Similarly, the focus on good governance was not that effective with apolitical stances amongst staff.

Furthermore, the dominating neo-liberal mindset resulted in governance issues framed with economic objectives in mind. Just as with the Strategic Compact, Weaver notes that governance reform challenged the Bank's conventional method of conducting business.

Weaver does qualify that the constant need to placate the demands of various external groups also hampered Bank reform. She however noted that the Bank deep culture will prevent any productive change. Weaver thus delves away from the normal criticism of the World Bank to explain the reasons of Bank actions and activities.

She shed a new light noting that such hypocrisy is a tenet in any large international organisation. In order for any improvement to the World Bank, it is not simply the initiation of change but the need to re work the internal settings of one of the world's most important development groups.

Q. What is the tone of the author?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 32 The author's tone is incisive or analytical.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 33

The Supreme Court on Thursday wondered how the Union government came up with the ₹ 8 lakh annual income limit within just three days of introducing 10% reservation for the economically weaker sections (EWS) of society.

The Constitution (One Hundred and Third) Amendment Act introducing EWS quota came into force on January 14, 2019. On January 17 the same year, the government released an official memorandum (OM) informing that families earning a gross annual income below ₹ 8 lakh would be identified as EWS for benefit of reservation.

“The Amendment came on January 14. On January 17, the OM comes... So the whole process of consultation, discussion, etc, with Social Justice Ministry was completed and everything was done by January 17?” Justice D.Y. Chandrachud asked Solicitor General Tushar Mehta.

The court said this earlier position in October was quite contrary to the later conclusions of the government's own expert committee headed by former Finance Secretary [1] in December.

Q. The committee was headed by whom who is redacted as [1] in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 33 Ajay Bhushan Pandey (born 2 February 1961; IAST: Ajaya Bhūṣaṇa Pāṇḍeya) is a 1984 batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer belonging to the Maharashtra cadre. He is former Finance Secretary [1] of India.[1] He is also former chief executive officer (CEO) of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), the nodal agency of Government of India responsible for implementing Aadhaar. He also worked as the chairman of GSTN, Goods and Services Tax Network, India. from September 2017 to March 2021
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 34

The Supreme Court on Thursday wondered how the Union government came up with the ₹ 8 lakh annual income limit within just three days of introducing 10% reservation for the economically weaker sections (EWS) of society.

The Constitution (One Hundred and Third) Amendment Act introducing EWS quota came into force on January 14, 2019. On January 17 the same year, the government released an official memorandum (OM) informing that families earning a gross annual income below ₹ 8 lakh would be identified as EWS for benefit of reservation.

“The Amendment came on January 14. On January 17, the OM comes... So the whole process of consultation, discussion, etc, with Social Justice Ministry was completed and everything was done by January 17?” Justice D.Y. Chandrachud asked Solicitor General Tushar Mehta.

The court said this earlier position in October was quite contrary to the later conclusions of the government's own expert committee headed by former Finance Secretary [1] in December.

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. EWS were given a 10% quota in jobs and admissions to educational establishments under 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act

II. It amended Article 15 and 16 and inserted Article15(6) and Article16(6)

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 34 The One Hundred and Third Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as the Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019, introduces 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society for admission to Central Government-run educational institutions and private educational institutions (except for minority educational institutions), and for employment in Central Government jobs.

The Amendment under Article 15(6) enables the State to make special provisions for the advancement of any economically weaker section of citizens, including reservations in educational institutions.

Article 16(6) enables the State to make provisions for reservation in appointments. Again, these provisions will be subject to a 10% ceiling, in addition to the existing reservations.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 35

The Supreme Court on Thursday wondered how the Union government came up with the ₹ 8 lakh annual income limit within just three days of introducing 10% reservation for the economically weaker sections (EWS) of society.

The Constitution (One Hundred and Third) Amendment Act introducing EWS quota came into force on January 14, 2019. On January 17 the same year, the government released an official memorandum (OM) informing that families earning a gross annual income below ₹ 8 lakh would be identified as EWS for benefit of reservation.

“The Amendment came on January 14. On January 17, the OM comes... So the whole process of consultation, discussion, etc, with Social Justice Ministry was completed and everything was done by January 17?” Justice D.Y. Chandrachud asked Solicitor General Tushar Mehta.

The court said this earlier position in October was quite contrary to the later conclusions of the government's own expert committee headed by former Finance Secretary [1] in December.

Q. Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyan was launched was launched on 15th August 2 years back in 272 most vulnerable district by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. As per August 2022 how many will be declared Drug Senitised Districts?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 35 The Centre plans to declare 100 districts as 'Drug Sensitised Districts' by August next year as a part of its campaign to free the country from substance abuse.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 36

The Supreme Court on Thursday wondered how the Union government came up with the ₹ 8 lakh annual income limit within just three days of introducing 10% reservation for the economically weaker sections (EWS) of society.

The Constitution (One Hundred and Third) Amendment Act introducing EWS quota came into force on January 14, 2019. On January 17 the same year, the government released an official memorandum (OM) informing that families earning a gross annual income below ₹ 8 lakh would be identified as EWS for benefit of reservation.

“The Amendment came on January 14. On January 17, the OM comes... So the whole process of consultation, discussion, etc, with Social Justice Ministry was completed and everything was done by January 17?” Justice D.Y. Chandrachud asked Solicitor General Tushar Mehta.

The court said this earlier position in October was quite contrary to the later conclusions of the government's own expert committee headed by former Finance Secretary [1] in December.

Q. Which among the following is not a criteria for reservation under EWS Category?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 36 Candidate's annual family income must be less than Rs. 8 lakhs per annum. Their family must not own more than 5 acres of agriculture land. The residential flat area should be below 1000 sq ft.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 37

The Supreme Court on Thursday wondered how the Union government came up with the ₹ 8 lakh annual income limit within just three days of introducing 10% reservation for the economically weaker sections (EWS) of society.

The Constitution (One Hundred and Third) Amendment Act introducing EWS quota came into force on January 14, 2019. On January 17 the same year, the government released an official memorandum (OM) informing that families earning a gross annual income below ₹ 8 lakh would be identified as EWS for benefit of reservation.

“The Amendment came on January 14. On January 17, the OM comes... So the whole process of consultation, discussion, etc, with Social Justice Ministry was completed and everything was done by January 17?” Justice D.Y. Chandrachud asked Solicitor General Tushar Mehta.

The court said this earlier position in October was quite contrary to the later conclusions of the government's own expert committee headed by former Finance Secretary [1] in December.

Q. 1st state to implement 10% reservation for EWS?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 37 Gujarat became the first state in the country to implement 10 per cent reservation in government jobs and education to economically weaker sections in the general category.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 38

Palestinian President [1] paid a rare visit to Israel on Tuesday for talks with Israel's Defense Minister, the latest in a series of meetings by top Israeli officials with the Palestinian leader.

Israel’s new Prime Minister, Naftali Bennett, opposes Palestinian independence and has ruled out formal peace talks. But he has said he wants to reduce frictions with the Palestinian Authority and improve living conditions in the Israeli-occupied West Bank.

Despite these pledges, the area has experienced an increase in violence in recent weeks, with a series of Palestinian attacks on Israelis in the West Bank and east Jerusalem as well as a surge in violence by Israeli settlers against Palestinian civilians.

Q. Who replaces [1] here in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 38 Mahmoud Abbas, also known by the kunya Abu Mazen, is the president of the State of Palestine and the Palestinian National Authority. He has been the chairman of the Palestine Liberation Organization since 11 November 2004, PNA president since 15 January 2005, and State of Palestine president since 8 May 2005.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 39

Palestinian President [1] paid a rare visit to Israel on Tuesday for talks with Israel's Defense Minister, the latest in a series of meetings by top Israeli officials with the Palestinian leader.

Israel’s new Prime Minister, Naftali Bennett, opposes Palestinian independence and has ruled out formal peace talks. But he has said he wants to reduce frictions with the Palestinian Authority and improve living conditions in the Israeli-occupied West Bank.

Despite these pledges, the area has experienced an increase in violence in recent weeks, with a series of Palestinian attacks on Israelis in the West Bank and east Jerusalem as well as a surge in violence by Israeli settlers against Palestinian civilians.

Q. What was the old name of Jerusalem?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 39 Jerusalem was known as Yerushalayim in Hebrew and as al-Quds in Arabic.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 40

Palestinian President [1] paid a rare visit to Israel on Tuesday for talks with Israel's Defense Minister, the latest in a series of meetings by top Israeli officials with the Palestinian leader.

Israel’s new Prime Minister, Naftali Bennett, opposes Palestinian independence and has ruled out formal peace talks. But he has said he wants to reduce frictions with the Palestinian Authority and improve living conditions in the Israeli-occupied West Bank.

Despite these pledges, the area has experienced an increase in violence in recent weeks, with a series of Palestinian attacks on Israelis in the West Bank and east Jerusalem as well as a surge in violence by Israeli settlers against Palestinian civilians.

Q. What according to Herzl were the boundaries of Greater Israel?

i) from the Brook of Egypt to the Euphrates

ii) South Lebanon up to Sidon and the Litani River

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 40 The concept of a “Greater Israel'', according to the founding father of Zionism Theodore Herzl, is a Jewish State stretching “from the Brook of Egypt to the Euphrates.”
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 41

Palestinian President [1] paid a rare visit to Israel on Tuesday for talks with Israel's Defense Minister, the latest in a series of meetings by top Israeli officials with the Palestinian leader.

Israel’s new Prime Minister, Naftali Bennett, opposes Palestinian independence and has ruled out formal peace talks. But he has said he wants to reduce frictions with the Palestinian Authority and improve living conditions in the Israeli-occupied West Bank.

Despite these pledges, the area has experienced an increase in violence in recent weeks, with a series of Palestinian attacks on Israelis in the West Bank and east Jerusalem as well as a surge in violence by Israeli settlers against Palestinian civilians.

Q. What is the name of Israel's air defense system?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 41 Israel's Air Defense System to intercept missiles is called Iron Dome
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 42

Palestinian President [1] paid a rare visit to Israel on Tuesday for talks with Israel's Defense Minister, the latest in a series of meetings by top Israeli officials with the Palestinian leader.

Israel’s new Prime Minister, Naftali Bennett, opposes Palestinian independence and has ruled out formal peace talks. But he has said he wants to reduce frictions with the Palestinian Authority and improve living conditions in the Israeli-occupied West Bank.

Despite these pledges, the area has experienced an increase in violence in recent weeks, with a series of Palestinian attacks on Israelis in the West Bank and east Jerusalem as well as a surge in violence by Israeli settlers against Palestinian civilians.

Q. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Second Temple

i) King Herod restructured the second Temple

ii) The retaining walls were added to the second temple in 37 BC

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 42 In 37 BC King Herod restructured the second Temple and added retaining walls to it.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 43

National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated every year on April 24 to raise awareness about the panchayats and gram sabhas along with local self-governments in rural India. The Panchayati raj system in India is divided into three levels that include Gram panchayat at the village level, block panchayat or panchayat Samiti at the intermediate level, and Zila panchayat at the district level.

The system gives responsibility to the villages to perform their own activities. Balwant Rai Mehta proposed the decentralisation of gram panchayat and is also known as the ‘Father of Panchayati Raj’. The concept of self-governance has helped in the well functioning of the panchayat system in India.

Q. Which of the following committee recommended for Panchayati Raj System in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 43 Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was made for the Panchayati Raj system in India; which submitted its report in 1957.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 44

National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated every year on April 24 to raise awareness about the panchayats and gram sabhas along with local self-governments in rural India. The Panchayati raj system in India is divided into three levels that include Gram panchayat at the village level, block panchayat or panchayat Samiti at the intermediate level, and Zila panchayat at the district level.

The system gives responsibility to the villages to perform their own activities. Balwant Rai Mehta proposed the decentralisation of gram panchayat and is also known as the ‘Father of Panchayati Raj’. The concept of self-governance has helped in the well functioning of the panchayat system in India.

Q. Which of the following system is established on the basis of the direct election?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 44 The Gram Panchayat is established on the basis of direct election.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 45

National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated every year on April 24 to raise awareness about the panchayats and gram sabhas along with local self-governments in rural India. The Panchayati raj system in India is divided into three levels that include Gram panchayat at the village level, block panchayat or panchayat Samiti at the intermediate level, and Zila panchayat at the district level.

The system gives responsibility to the villages to perform their own activities. Balwant Rai Mehta proposed the decentralisation of gram panchayat and is also known as the ‘Father of Panchayati Raj’. The concept of self-governance has helped in the well functioning of the panchayat system in India.

Q. Which of the following Article is related to Panchayati Raj?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 45 Article 243-Gram Sabha. - A Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 46

National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated every year on April 24 to raise awareness about the panchayats and gram sabhas along with local self-governments in rural India. The Panchayati raj system in India is divided into three levels that include Gram panchayat at the village level, block panchayat or panchayat Samiti at the intermediate level, and Zila panchayat at the district level.

The system gives responsibility to the villages to perform their own activities. Balwant Rai Mehta proposed the decentralisation of gram panchayat and is also known as the ‘Father of Panchayati Raj’. The concept of self-governance has helped in the well functioning of the panchayat system in India.

Q. How many tiers are in the Panchayati Raj system of India?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 46 Three-tier system is arranged i.e. Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 47

National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated every year on April 24 to raise awareness about the panchayats and gram sabhas along with local self-governments in rural India. The Panchayati raj system in India is divided into three levels that include Gram panchayat at the village level, block panchayat or panchayat Samiti at the intermediate level, and Zila panchayat at the district level.

The system gives responsibility to the villages to perform their own activities. Balwant Rai Mehta proposed the decentralisation of gram panchayat and is also known as the ‘Father of Panchayati Raj’. The concept of self-governance has helped in the well functioning of the panchayat system in India.

Q. Which of the following statements is not correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 47 First of all the Panchayati Raj system was established in Rajasthan (2 October 1959) after which Andhra Pradesh adopted this system.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 48

Even as the controversy over the Government of India allegedly deploying Pegasus spyware to snoop on top politicians, journalists, activists etc refuses to die down, the Ministry of Home Affairs has sprung a surprise saying it maintains no data of lawful interceptions made by authorised intelligence/law–enforcing agencies.

In a written submission before the Central Information Commission, the MHA explained its inability to provide information called for by an applicant on the details of phone tapping by 10 agencies during a certain period saying it does not maintain any statistical information/data related to lawful interception and monitoring and that the desired information is not available.

The Union Ministry made it clear that such records were weeded out every six months in compliance with the provisions under Section 5(2) of the Telegraph Act, 1885, and Section 69 of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The subject matter being highly classified information, minimal records were maintained and statistical data was not compiled.

Q. Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 48 Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended even during an emergency.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 49

Even as the controversy over the Government of India allegedly deploying Pegasus spyware to snoop on top politicians, journalists, activists etc refuses to die down, the Ministry of Home Affairs has sprung a surprise saying it maintains no data of lawful interceptions made by authorised intelligence/law–enforcing agencies.

In a written submission before the Central Information Commission, the MHA explained its inability to provide information called for by an applicant on the details of phone tapping by 10 agencies during a certain period saying it does not maintain any statistical information/data related to lawful interception and monitoring and that the desired information is not available.

The Union Ministry made it clear that such records were weeded out every six months in compliance with the provisions under Section 5(2) of the Telegraph Act, 1885, and Section 69 of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The subject matter being highly classified information, minimal records were maintained and statistical data was not compiled.

Q. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Duties?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 49 The Fundamental Duties of citizens are mentioned in Article 51 A of the Indian Constitution.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 50

Even as the controversy over the Government of India allegedly deploying Pegasus spyware to snoop on top politicians, journalists, activists etc refuses to die down, the Ministry of Home Affairs has sprung a surprise saying it maintains no data of lawful interceptions made by authorised intelligence/law–enforcing agencies.

In a written submission before the Central Information Commission, the MHA explained its inability to provide information called for by an applicant on the details of phone tapping by 10 agencies during a certain period saying it does not maintain any statistical information/data related to lawful interception and monitoring and that the desired information is not available.

The Union Ministry made it clear that such records were weeded out every six months in compliance with the provisions under Section 5(2) of the Telegraph Act, 1885, and Section 69 of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The subject matter being highly classified information, minimal records were maintained and statistical data was not compiled.

Q. Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 50 Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 51

Even as the controversy over the Government of India allegedly deploying Pegasus spyware to snoop on top politicians, journalists, activists etc refuses to die down, the Ministry of Home Affairs has sprung a surprise saying it maintains no data of lawful interceptions made by authorised intelligence/law–enforcing agencies.

In a written submission before the Central Information Commission, the MHA explained its inability to provide information called for by an applicant on the details of phone tapping by 10 agencies during a certain period saying it does not maintain any statistical information/data related to lawful interception and monitoring and that the desired information is not available.

The Union Ministry made it clear that such records were weeded out every six months in compliance with the provisions under Section 5(2) of the Telegraph Act, 1885, and Section 69 of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The subject matter being highly classified information, minimal records were maintained and statistical data was not compiled.

Q. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 51 The Fundamental Duties of citizens are mentioned in Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 52

Even as the controversy over the Government of India allegedly deploying Pegasus spyware to snoop on top politicians, journalists, activists etc refuses to die down, the Ministry of Home Affairs has sprung a surprise saying it maintains no data of lawful interceptions made by authorised intelligence/law–enforcing agencies.

In a written submission before the Central Information Commission, the MHA explained its inability to provide information called for by an applicant on the details of phone tapping by 10 agencies during a certain period saying it does not maintain any statistical information/data related to lawful interception and monitoring and that the desired information is not available.

The Union Ministry made it clear that such records were weeded out every six months in compliance with the provisions under Section 5(2) of the Telegraph Act, 1885, and Section 69 of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The subject matter being highly classified information, minimal records were maintained and statistical data was not compiled.

Q. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 52 It shall be the duty of every citizen of India-- (a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem; (b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; (c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; (d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so; (e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; (f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture; (g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures; (h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; (i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence; (j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; (k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 53

Scientifically and emotively, we think every volcano has its own “personality”. However, we’ve discovered that volcanoes share behaviour traits — and this could form the basis for an eruption warning system.

Whakaari White Island, a picturesque volcanic island in the Bay of Plenty, was a tourist magnet, with its alien landscape and spectacular hydrothermal features. This idyll was shattered on December 9, 2019 when high-pressure steam and gas exploded, concentrating in a deadly surge of hot ash down its main access valley. Of the 47 guides and tourists present, 22 died while many others suffered horrific burns.

Since that tragedy, we have been studying past eruptions at Whakaari, and volcanoes like it, to identify the warning signs of an imminent eruption.

Every volcano behaves differently: some have crater lakes while others are “dry”, they have diverse magmas and rise to different elevations. Despite these differences, we think volcanoes such as Whakaari, Ruapehu and Tongariro in New Zealand could be driven to eruption by common processes in the shallow sub-surface below their craters.

Q. Which country is not a part of Ring of Fire

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 53 The Ring of Fire is a region around much of the rim of the Pacific Ocean where many volcanic eruptions and earthquakes occur. The Ring of Fire is a horseshoe-shaped belt about 40,000 km long and up to about 500 km wide

Mauritius is located in Indian Ocean

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 54

Scientifically and emotively, we think every volcano has its own “personality”. However, we’ve discovered that volcanoes share behaviour traits — and this could form the basis for an eruption warning system.

Whakaari White Island, a picturesque volcanic island in the Bay of Plenty, was a tourist magnet, with its alien landscape and spectacular hydrothermal features. This idyll was shattered on December 9, 2019 when high-pressure steam and gas exploded, concentrating in a deadly surge of hot ash down its main access valley. Of the 47 guides and tourists present, 22 died while many others suffered horrific burns.

Since that tragedy, we have been studying past eruptions at Whakaari, and volcanoes like it, to identify the warning signs of an imminent eruption.

Every volcano behaves differently: some have crater lakes while others are “dry”, they have diverse magmas and rise to different elevations. Despite these differences, we think volcanoes such as Whakaari, Ruapehu and Tongariro in New Zealand could be driven to eruption by common processes in the shallow sub-surface below their craters.

Q. Mid oceanic ridge passes through?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 54 The submarine section of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge close to southwest Iceland is known as the Reykjanes Ridge. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge runs through Iceland where the ridge is also known as the Neovolcanic Zone.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 55

Scientifically and emotively, we think every volcano has its own “personality”. However, we’ve discovered that volcanoes share behaviour traits — and this could form the basis for an eruption warning system.

Whakaari White Island, a picturesque volcanic island in the Bay of Plenty, was a tourist magnet, with its alien landscape and spectacular hydrothermal features. This idyll was shattered on December 9, 2019 when high-pressure steam and gas exploded, concentrating in a deadly surge of hot ash down its main access valley. Of the 47 guides and tourists present, 22 died while many others suffered horrific burns.

Since that tragedy, we have been studying past eruptions at Whakaari, and volcanoes like it, to identify the warning signs of an imminent eruption.

Every volcano behaves differently: some have crater lakes while others are “dry”, they have diverse magmas and rise to different elevations. Despite these differences, we think volcanoes such as Whakaari, Ruapehu and Tongariro in New Zealand could be driven to eruption by common processes in the shallow sub-surface below their craters.

Q. Caldera is a type of_____

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 55 A caldera is a large cauldron-like hollow that forms shortly after the emptying of a magma chamber in a volcanic eruption.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 56

Scientifically and emotively, we think every volcano has its own “personality”. However, we’ve discovered that volcanoes share behaviour traits — and this could form the basis for an eruption warning system.

Whakaari White Island, a picturesque volcanic island in the Bay of Plenty, was a tourist magnet, with its alien landscape and spectacular hydrothermal features. This idyll was shattered on December 9, 2019 when high-pressure steam and gas exploded, concentrating in a deadly surge of hot ash down its main access valley. Of the 47 guides and tourists present, 22 died while many others suffered horrific burns.

Since that tragedy, we have been studying past eruptions at Whakaari, and volcanoes like it, to identify the warning signs of an imminent eruption.

Every volcano behaves differently: some have crater lakes while others are “dry”, they have diverse magmas and rise to different elevations. Despite these differences, we think volcanoes such as Whakaari, Ruapehu and Tongariro in New Zealand could be driven to eruption by common processes in the shallow sub-surface below their craters.

Q. Which of the following is not present in a volcano

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 56 The eye is a region of mostly calm weather at the center of tropical cyclones. The eye of a storm is a roughly circular area, typically 30–65 kilometers (19–40 miles) in diameter. It is surrounded by the eyewall, a ring of towering thunderstorms where the most severe weather and highest winds occur.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 57

Scientifically and emotively, we think every volcano has its own “personality”. However, we’ve discovered that volcanoes share behaviour traits — and this could form the basis for an eruption warning system.

Whakaari White Island, a picturesque volcanic island in the Bay of Plenty, was a tourist magnet, with its alien landscape and spectacular hydrothermal features. This idyll was shattered on December 9, 2019 when high-pressure steam and gas exploded, concentrating in a deadly surge of hot ash down its main access valley. Of the 47 guides and tourists present, 22 died while many others suffered horrific burns.

Since that tragedy, we have been studying past eruptions at Whakaari, and volcanoes like it, to identify the warning signs of an imminent eruption.

Every volcano behaves differently: some have crater lakes while others are “dry”, they have diverse magmas and rise to different elevations. Despite these differences, we think volcanoes such as Whakaari, Ruapehu and Tongariro in New Zealand could be driven to eruption by common processes in the shallow sub-surface below their craters.

Q. Recently in January volcano in which country erupted in Pacific?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 57 Recently, a volcano erupted in the southern Pacific Island of Tonga, which triggered Tsunami waves around the Pacific.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 58

Both Houses of Parliament have passed a Bill making instant triple talaq a criminal offence, amidst persistent doubts whether it ought to be treated as a crime or just a civil case. It is true that the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019, is a diluted version of the Bill as it was originally conceived. Earlier, it did not specify who could set the law in motion. Now the offence is cognisable only if the affected wife, or one related to her by blood or marriage, files a police complaint. Thirdly, the offence is compoundable, that is, the parties may arrive at a compromise.

The government says its main objective is to give effect to the Supreme Court's 2017 verdict declaring instant triple talaq illegal. It claims that despite the court ruling, several instances have been reported. Making it an offence, the government says, will deter further resort to triple talaq, and provide redress for women in the form of a subsistence allowance and custody of children, besides getting the erring husband arrested.

In the light of the Supreme Court ruling on its validity, there is really no need to declare instant triple talaq a criminal offence. The practice has no approval in Islamic tenets, and is indeed considered abhorrent. Secondly, once it has been declared illegal, pronouncing talaq obviously does not have the effect of "instantaneous and irrevocable divorce" as this Bill claims in its definition of 'talaq'. The provisions that allow a woman to claim a subsistence allowance from the man and seek custody of her children can be implemented in the event of the husband abandoning her, even without the man's arrest.

If triple talaq, in any form, is void, how the questions of children's custody and subsistence allowance arise while the marriage subsists, is not clear. And then, there is the practical question of how a man can provide a subsistence allowance while he is imprisoned. It has been argued by the Bill's proponents that dowry harassment and cruelty towards wives are treated as criminal offences even while the marriage subsists. It is a patently wrong comparison, as those acts involve violence and cruelty and are rightly treated as criminal offences. The same cannot be said of a man invoking a prohibited form of divorce.

Q. Based on the passage, what legal and ot her challenges the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019 faces?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 58 All of the above. The author clearly mentions the lacunae of the act in the 3rd paragraph. All the three points are numerically mentioned.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 59

Both Houses of Parliament have passed a Bill making instant triple talaq a criminal offence, amidst persistent doubts whether it ought to be treated as a crime or just a civil case. It is true that the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019, is a diluted version of the Bill as it was originally conceived. Earlier, it did not specify who could set the law in motion. Now the offence is cognisable only if the affected wife, or one related to her by blood or marriage, files a police complaint. Thirdly, the offence is compoundable, that is, the parties may arrive at a compromise.

The government says its main objective is to give effect to the Supreme Court's 2017 verdict declaring instant triple talaq illegal. It claims that despite the court ruling, several instances have been reported. Making it an offence, the government says, will deter further resort to triple talaq, and provide redress for women in the form of a subsistence allowance and custody of children, besides getting the erring husband arrested.

In the light of the Supreme Court ruling on its validity, there is really no need to declare instant triple talaq a criminal offence. The practice has no approval in Islamic tenets, and is indeed considered abhorrent. Secondly, once it has been declared illegal, pronouncing talaq obviously does not have the effect of "instantaneous and irrevocable divorce" as this Bill claims in its definition of 'talaq'. The provisions that allow a woman to claim a subsistence allowance from the man and seek custody of her children can be implemented in the event of the husband abandoning her, even without the man's arrest.

If triple talaq, in any form, is void, how the questions of children's custody and subsistence allowance arise while the marriage subsists, is not clear. And then, there is the practical question of how a man can provide a subsistence allowance while he is imprisoned. It has been argued by the Bill's proponents that dowry harassment and cruelty towards wives are treated as criminal offences even while the marriage subsists. It is a patently wrong comparison, as those acts involve violence and cruelty and are rightly treated as criminal offences. The same cannot be said of a man invoking a prohibited form of divorce.

Q. Fiza married Abdul. Abdul wanted to marry Soha who placed a condition that Abdul should first divorce Fiza.

Abdul gave instant triple talaq to Fiza. Fiza's brother, Shoaib, files a criminal case against Abdul. Choose the correct option.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 59 The case is maintainable as Shoaib is a blood relative of Fiza. The 1st paragraph mentions who all may register a case (…Now the offence is cognisable only if the affected wife, or one related to her by blood or marriage, files a police complaint).

Option (a) is therefore incorrect. Option (b) is also incorrect as it is not one of the grounds mentioned.

Option (d) may be morally correct but based on the passage not a valid legal ground.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 60

Both Houses of Parliament have passed a Bill making instant triple talaq a criminal offence, amidst persistent doubts whether it ought to be treated as a crime or just a civil case. It is true that the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019, is a diluted version of the Bill as it was originally conceived. Earlier, it did not specify who could set the law in motion. Now the offence is cognisable only if the affected wife, or one related to her by blood or marriage, files a police complaint. Thirdly, the offence is compoundable, that is, the parties may arrive at a compromise.

The government says its main objective is to give effect to the Supreme Court's 2017 verdict declaring instant triple talaq illegal. It claims that despite the court ruling, several instances have been reported. Making it an offence, the government says, will deter further resort to triple talaq, and provide redress for women in the form of a subsistence allowance and custody of children, besides getting the erring husband arrested.

In the light of the Supreme Court ruling on its validity, there is really no need to declare instant triple talaq a criminal offence. The practice has no approval in Islamic tenets, and is indeed considered abhorrent. Secondly, once it has been declared illegal, pronouncing talaq obviously does not have the effect of "instantaneous and irrevocable divorce" as this Bill claims in its definition of 'talaq'. The provisions that allow a woman to claim a subsistence allowance from the man and seek custody of her children can be implemented in the event of the husband abandoning her, even without the man's arrest.

If triple talaq, in any form, is void, how the questions of children's custody and subsistence allowance arise while the marriage subsists, is not clear. And then, there is the practical question of how a man can provide a subsistence allowance while he is imprisoned. It has been argued by the Bill's proponents that dowry harassment and cruelty towards wives are treated as criminal offences even while the marriage subsists. It is a patently wrong comparison, as those acts involve violence and cruelty and are rightly treated as criminal offences. The same cannot be said of a man invoking a prohibited form of divorce.

Q. Javed is married to Fatima. He gave triple talaq to her. Fatima registers a case against Javed. Later Javed repents and wishes to reunite with Fatima.

Will he be legally absolved?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 60 Yes, if Fatima agrees as the offence is compoundable. This is mentioned in 1st paragraph last line (…Thirdly, the offence is compoundable, that is, the parties may arrive at a compromise).

Option (c) is therefore, incorrect. Option (b) is incorrect as Fatima's wish is relevant. Option (d) does not talk about legal liability of Javed and is anyways not based on information given in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 61

Both Houses of Parliament have passed a Bill making instant triple talaq a criminal offence, amidst persistent doubts whether it ought to be treated as a crime or just a civil case. It is true that the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019, is a diluted version of the Bill as it was originally conceived. Earlier, it did not specify who could set the law in motion. Now the offence is cognisable only if the affected wife, or one related to her by blood or marriage, files a police complaint. Thirdly, the offence is compoundable, that is, the parties may arrive at a compromise.

The government says its main objective is to give effect to the Supreme Court's 2017 verdict declaring instant triple talaq illegal. It claims that despite the court ruling, several instances have been reported. Making it an offence, the government says, will deter further resort to triple talaq, and provide redress for women in the form of a subsistence allowance and custody of children, besides getting the erring husband arrested.

In the light of the Supreme Court ruling on its validity, there is really no need to declare instant triple talaq a criminal offence. The practice has no approval in Islamic tenets, and is indeed considered abhorrent. Secondly, once it has been declared illegal, pronouncing talaq obviously does not have the effect of "instantaneous and irrevocable divorce" as this Bill claims in its definition of 'talaq'. The provisions that allow a woman to claim a subsistence allowance from the man and seek custody of her children can be implemented in the event of the husband abandoning her, even without the man's arrest.

If triple talaq, in any form, is void, how the questions of children's custody and subsistence allowance arise while the marriage subsists, is not clear. And then, there is the practical question of how a man can provide a subsistence allowance while he is imprisoned. It has been argued by the Bill's proponents that dowry harassment and cruelty towards wives are treated as criminal offences even while the marriage subsists. It is a patently wrong comparison, as those acts involve violence and cruelty and are rightly treated as criminal offences. The same cannot be said of a man invoking a prohibited form of divorce.

Q. What all protections, mentioned in the passage, have been given to Muslim women in the unfortunate event of a triple talaq invocation?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 61 She would get subsistence allowance and custody of the child. Besides the husband will be arrested.

The author mentions all these in 2nd paragraph last line. Option (b) is incorrect as no where this is mentioned in the passage. Option (c) is drawing an incorrect analogy with cruelty and dowry harassment. Option (d) is may be a possible outcome but cannot be reasonable derived from information given in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 62

Both Houses of Parliament have passed a Bill making instant triple talaq a criminal offence, amidst persistent doubts whether it ought to be treated as a crime or just a civil case. It is true that the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019, is a diluted version of the Bill as it was originally conceived. Earlier, it did not specify who could set the law in motion. Now the offence is cognisable only if the affected wife, or one related to her by blood or marriage, files a police complaint. Thirdly, the offence is compoundable, that is, the parties may arrive at a compromise.

The government says its main objective is to give effect to the Supreme Court's 2017 verdict declaring instant triple talaq illegal. It claims that despite the court ruling, several instances have been reported. Making it an offence, the government says, will deter further resort to triple talaq, and provide redress for women in the form of a subsistence allowance and custody of children, besides getting the erring husband arrested.

In the light of the Supreme Court ruling on its validity, there is really no need to declare instant triple talaq a criminal offence. The practice has no approval in Islamic tenets, and is indeed considered abhorrent. Secondly, once it has been declared illegal, pronouncing talaq obviously does not have the effect of "instantaneous and irrevocable divorce" as this Bill claims in its definition of 'talaq'. The provisions that allow a woman to claim a subsistence allowance from the man and seek custody of her children can be implemented in the event of the husband abandoning her, even without the man's arrest.

If triple talaq, in any form, is void, how the questions of children's custody and subsistence allowance arise while the marriage subsists, is not clear. And then, there is the practical question of how a man can provide a subsistence allowance while he is imprisoned. It has been argued by the Bill's proponents that dowry harassment and cruelty towards wives are treated as criminal offences even while the marriage subsists. It is a patently wrong comparison, as those acts involve violence and cruelty and are rightly treated as criminal offences. The same cannot be said of a man invoking a prohibited form of divorce.

Q. Ishan is accused of cruelty to his wife Sapna. Sapna file a complaint case against him. Based on the information given in the passage, decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 62 Marriage between Ishan and Sapna does not automatically dissolve. The author mentions this while comparing the legal implication of criminal offence of cruelty with that of triple talaq. Mentioned in last paragraph (…It has been argued by the Bill's proponents that dowry harassment and cruelty towards wives are treated as criminal offences even while the marriage subsists). Option (c) is therefore incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect as cruelty is a criminal offence as mentioned in last paragraph.

Option (b) is incorrect as the fact whether Sapna may file a case against her in-laws cannot be reasonably inferred from the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 63

Under English Law, agreements which restrain marriage are discouraged as they are injurious to the increase in population and the moral welfare of the citizens. Back in 1768, a precedent was set by the Court of King's Bench in Lowe v. Peers where the defendant had entered a promise under seal to marry no one but the promisee, on penalty of paying her 1000 pounds within three months of marrying anyone else. The Court found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side.

According to Chitty, a contract whose object is to restrain or prevent a party from marrying, or a deterrent to marriage in so far it makes any person uncertain whether he may marry or not, is against public policy. English Law, however, does not find agreements which partially restrain marriage to be void and in this, it parts ways with Indian law as stated in the Indian Contracts Act, 1872.

In India, contractual relationships between two or more parties are mainly dealt with by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, enacted by the British imperial government which exercised control over the country at that time. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.

Further, unlike Section 28 which makes agreements only in complete restraint of legal proceedings void, the choice of words of Section 26 keeps its scope rather general without forwarding a difference between partial or complete restraint of marriage and has been interpreted to hold an agreement serving to either result as void.

Q. Which one of the following can be reasonably concluded from the passage above?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 63 Option (c) is the correct answer as English law unlike Indian law observes a contract that partially deals with the restraint of marriage as valid.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 64

Under English Law, agreements which restrain marriage are discouraged as they are injurious to the increase in population and the moral welfare of the citizens. Back in 1768, a precedent was set by the Court of King's Bench in Lowe v. Peers where the defendant had entered a promise under seal to marry no one but the promisee, on penalty of paying her 1000 pounds within three months of marrying anyone else. The Court found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side.

According to Chitty, a contract whose object is to restrain or prevent a party from marrying, or a deterrent to marriage in so far it makes any person uncertain whether he may marry or not, is against public policy. English Law, however, does not find agreements which partially restrain marriage to be void and in this, it parts ways with Indian law as stated in the Indian Contracts Act, 1872.

In India, contractual relationships between two or more parties are mainly dealt with by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, enacted by the British imperial government which exercised control over the country at that time. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.

Further, unlike Section 28 which makes agreements only in complete restraint of legal proceedings void, the choice of words of Section 26 keeps its scope rather general without forwarding a difference between partial or complete restraint of marriage and has been interpreted to hold an agreement serving to either result as void.

Q. According to the passage which of the following is the main reason behind invalidity of a contract?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 64 Option (b) is the correct answer as it has been stated in the first paragraph's last line that "The Court found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side." In the same sense option, (a) is also flawed.

Option (c) is wrong as only those social issues that are held illegal on several social grounds. Social opinion isn't an underlying metric.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 65

Under English Law, agreements which restrain marriage are discouraged as they are injurious to the increase in population and the moral welfare of the citizens. Back in 1768, a precedent was set by the Court of King's Bench in Lowe v. Peers where the defendant had entered a promise under seal to marry no one but the promisee, on penalty of paying her 1000 pounds within three months of marrying anyone else. The Court found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side.

According to Chitty, a contract whose object is to restrain or prevent a party from marrying, or a deterrent to marriage in so far it makes any person uncertain whether he may marry or not, is against public policy. English Law, however, does not find agreements which partially restrain marriage to be void and in this, it parts ways with Indian law as stated in the Indian Contracts Act, 1872.

In India, contractual relationships between two or more parties are mainly dealt with by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, enacted by the British imperial government which exercised control over the country at that time. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.

Further, unlike Section 28 which makes agreements only in complete restraint of legal proceedings void, the choice of words of Section 26 keeps its scope rather general without forwarding a difference between partial or complete restraint of marriage and has been interpreted to hold an agreement serving to either result as void.

Q. A Muslim woman had married a man without the consent of her nearest male relative. Her nearest kin instituted a case in the court. It was contended by the kin that being part of the Pathan community, Makhad, the bridegroom who married the woman without the consent of her nearest male relative must pay to the man an amount called 'rogha' or brideprice under customary Muhammadan law. Decide the validity of the claim.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 65 Option (b) is the correct answer as no practice can entail elements that are repugnant to contractual provisions.

Incorrect answers

(a) No such rules have been dealt with in the passage.

(c) The passage does not deal with material religious practices.

(d) The author has adopted a general view of the issue instead of looking at the topic with a single dimensional spectrum.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 66

Under English Law, agreements which restrain marriage are discouraged as they are injurious to the increase in population and the moral welfare of the citizens. Back in 1768, a precedent was set by the Court of King's Bench in Lowe v. Peers where the defendant had entered a promise under seal to marry no one but the promisee, on penalty of paying her 1000 pounds within three months of marrying anyone else. The Court found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side.

According to Chitty, a contract whose object is to restrain or prevent a party from marrying, or a deterrent to marriage in so far it makes any person uncertain whether he may marry or not, is against public policy. English Law, however, does not find agreements which partially restrain marriage to be void and in this, it parts ways with Indian law as stated in the Indian Contracts Act, 1872.

In India, contractual relationships between two or more parties are mainly dealt with by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, enacted by the British imperial government which exercised control over the country at that time. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.

Further, unlike Section 28 which makes agreements only in complete restraint of legal proceedings void, the choice of words of Section 26 keeps its scope rather general without forwarding a difference between partial or complete restraint of marriage and has been interpreted to hold an agreement serving to either result as void.

Q. Which of the following is true as per the author's submissions?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 66 Option (d) is the correct answer as it has been stated in the last paragraph that "the choice of words of Section 26 keeps its scope rather general without forwarding a difference between partial or complete restraint of marriage and has been interpreted to hold an agreement serving to either result as void".
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 67

Under English Law, agreements which restrain marriage are discouraged as they are injurious to the increase in population and the moral welfare of the citizens. Back in 1768, a precedent was set by the Court of King's Bench in Lowe v. Peers where the defendant had entered a promise under seal to marry no one but the promisee, on penalty of paying her 1000 pounds within three months of marrying anyone else. The Court found the contract void as it was purely restrictive and carried no promise to carry on either side.

According to Chitty, a contract whose object is to restrain or prevent a party from marrying, or a deterrent to marriage in so far it makes any person uncertain whether he may marry or not, is against public policy. English Law, however, does not find agreements which partially restrain marriage to be void and in this, it parts ways with Indian law as stated in the Indian Contracts Act, 1872.

In India, contractual relationships between two or more parties are mainly dealt with by the Indian Contract Act, 1872, enacted by the British imperial government which exercised control over the country at that time. Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that every agreement in restraint of marriage, except those in restraint of marriage of minors, is void.

Further, unlike Section 28 which makes agreements only in complete restraint of legal proceedings void, the choice of words of Section 26 keeps its scope rather general without forwarding a difference between partial or complete restraint of marriage and has been interpreted to hold an agreement serving to either result as void.

Q. A suit was filed by the Air Hostesses working at XYZ ltd., which were catering to domestic flights and also to international travel. The Air Hostesses had filed the plaint against Employees Service Regulations which provided that an air Hostesses retired from service in case of marriage, if it took place within four years of the service. With reference to the passage, decide the validity of the condition.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 67

Option (a) is the correct answer as the notification is valid because the requirement was only for a term of 4 years and was framed as per the needs of the business and societal construct in general.

Incorrect options

(b)- Partial restraint to marriage is also void.

(c)- Not the most suitable option.

(d)- Unreasonable time (if a factor) renders such clauses void which wasn't the case here.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 68

We generally describe theft to be the act of stealing property belonging to somebody else. The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property which extends from section 378 to section 462.

Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382.

Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away and it is taken away without his consent.

Theft has been defined under Section 378 of IPC.

Simultaneously the punishment for the commitment of act of theft has also been defined under Section 379 of IPC.

However, theft under IPC has certain specific requirements and ingredients. According to Section 378, theft means dishonestly taking any movable property out of the possession of a person. This taking must always be without the concerned person's consent.

Therefore, in order to constitute theft under IPC, the following conditions must exist:

(1) The offender must have a dishonest intention to take property;

(2) The property in question must always be a mov able property and not immovable;

(3) The offender must take the property out of the other person's possession without consent; and

(4) The offender must move the property to complete its taking.

All of these requirements must exist in order to complete the offence of theft. If anyone of them is missing, the offender is not guilty of theft. For example, a person may take and move somebody else's property thinking it actually belongs to him. In this case, since the offender moved the property as a mistake, he did not commit theft. The Punishment for the offence of Theft is defined under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code which states that anyone who commits theft will be punished with imprisonment of either for a term which can be extended to a period of three years either with fine, or with both.

Q. A person intending to take dishonestly any mov able property out of the possession of someone is said to commit theft. Theft is against possession and not against ownership. For the offence of theft, a continuous intention is not compulsory. A's dad gifted him a fitbit. One of his friends Shyam thought of a great idea to trouble A. When A was out in the interval Shyam quickly took out his fitbit watch from his bag with a view to do a prank with A, kept the watch in some other pocket of A's bag. Finding his fitbit missing, A immediately went and complained to his Dean. Shyam thought that now A has made a complaint so there is no point in telling the same to A that it is a prank. Finally when the dean ordered for checking of the bags of all the students, one student Radha told the dean that she saw Shyam taking out the watch and changing the place of the fitbit watch. Will Shyam be held liable for theft?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 68 Correct Answer is (a)

It is very much clear from the fact that Shyam did not have dishonest intention of taking away or changing the place of the fitbit from A. Since the essential element in the offence of theft which is to 'take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession' is not satisfied, Shyam is not guilty of theft.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 69

We generally describe theft to be the act of stealing property belonging to somebody else. The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property which extends from section 378 to section 462.

Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382.

Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away and it is taken away without his consent.

Theft has been defined under Section 378 of IPC.

Simultaneously the punishment for the commitment of act of theft has also been defined under Section 379 of IPC.

However, theft under IPC has certain specific requirements and ingredients. According to Section 378, theft means dishonestly taking any movable property out of the possession of a person. This taking must always be without the concerned person's consent.

Therefore, in order to constitute theft under IPC, the following conditions must exist:

(1) The offender must have a dishonest intention to take property;

(2) The property in question must always be a mov able property and not immovable;

(3) The offender must take the property out of the other person's possession without consent; and

(4) The offender must move the property to complete its taking.

All of these requirements must exist in order to complete the offence of theft. If anyone of them is missing, the offender is not guilty of theft. For example, a person may take and move somebody else's property thinking it actually belongs to him. In this case, since the offender moved the property as a mistake, he did not commit theft. The Punishment for the offence of Theft is defined under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code which states that anyone who commits theft will be punished with imprisonment of either for a term which can be extended to a period of three years either with fine, or with both.

Q. Sanya had lent her copy of Carry On to Manya.

Janya, a friend of theirs, also wanted to read the book so she asked Sanya if she could have it after Manya was done with it. Sanya agreed but forgot to tell Manya. After Manya was done reading, she went to Sanya's place and finding that she wasn't home, left it with her younger sister Anya.

Janya came over later and asked Anya for the book, who refused to give it saying she had been asked to give it to Sanya and no one else. Janya got annoyed and simply picked it up when Anya went to the washroom. Anya wants to file a case of theft against Manya.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 69 Correct Answer is b

Theft is an offence against possession and not ownership. When all's said and done, Anya is in possession of the book and perfectly capable of refusing to give it to someone else.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 70

We generally describe theft to be the act of stealing property belonging to somebody else. The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property which extends from section 378 to section 462.

Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382.

Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away and it is taken away without his consent.

Theft has been defined under Section 378 of IPC.

Simultaneously the punishment for the commitment of act of theft has also been defined under Section 379 of IPC.

However, theft under IPC has certain specific requirements and ingredients. According to Section 378, theft means dishonestly taking any movable property out of the possession of a person. This taking must always be without the concerned person's consent.

Therefore, in order to constitute theft under IPC, the following conditions must exist:

(1) The offender must have a dishonest intention to take property;

(2) The property in question must always be a mov able property and not immovable;

(3) The offender must take the property out of the other person's possession without consent; and

(4) The offender must move the property to complete its taking.

All of these requirements must exist in order to complete the offence of theft. If anyone of them is missing, the offender is not guilty of theft. For example, a person may take and move somebody else's property thinking it actually belongs to him. In this case, since the offender moved the property as a mistake, he did not commit theft. The Punishment for the offence of Theft is defined under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code which states that anyone who commits theft will be punished with imprisonment of either for a term which can be extended to a period of three years either with fine, or with both.

Q. During his visit to the home of C, A asks B, the son of C, to accompany A to a forest. Neither A nor B inform C in this regard. B accompanies A to the forest.

Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 70 Correct Answer is (b)

Son of C can't be considered as a moveable thing.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 71

We generally describe theft to be the act of stealing property belonging to somebody else. The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property which extends from section 378 to section 462.

Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382.

Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away and it is taken away without his consent.

Theft has been defined under Section 378 of IPC.

Simultaneously the punishment for the commitment of act of theft has also been defined under Section 379 of IPC.

However, theft under IPC has certain specific requirements and ingredients. According to Section 378, theft means dishonestly taking any movable property out of the possession of a person. This taking must always be without the concerned person's consent.

Therefore, in order to constitute theft under IPC, the following conditions must exist:

(1) The offender must have a dishonest intention to take property;

(2) The property in question must always be a mov able property and not immovable;

(3) The offender must take the property out of the other person's possession without consent; and

(4) The offender must move the property to complete its taking.

All of these requirements must exist in order to complete the offence of theft. If anyone of them is missing, the offender is not guilty of theft. For example, a person may take and move somebody else's property thinking it actually belongs to him. In this case, since the offender moved the property as a mistake, he did not commit theft. The Punishment for the offence of Theft is defined under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code which states that anyone who commits theft will be punished with imprisonment of either for a term which can be extended to a period of three years either with fine, or with both.

Q. Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft. Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person, or to any otherto deliver to any person any property commits extortion. Amar breaks into Bimal's house at night for committing theft. However, Bimal wakes up and tries to tackle Amar down. Amar takes out a gun and holds Bimal at a gunpoint. While Bimal is being held so, Amar asks Bimal to give him the keys of the safe. Bimal gives Amar the keys and Amar takes out the cash from the safe. He then locks Bimal in the bedroom and while leaving the house, steals Bimal's bicycle. What will be the liability of Amar?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 71 Correct Answer is (c)

The cash he took is by putting Bimal under a threat of injury and committed theft by stealing the bicycle, as he took it without Bimal's consent.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 72

We generally describe theft to be the act of stealing property belonging to somebody else. The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property which extends from section 378 to section 462.

Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382.

Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away and it is taken away without his consent.

Theft has been defined under Section 378 of IPC.

Simultaneously the punishment for the commitment of act of theft has also been defined under Section 379 of IPC.

However, theft under IPC has certain specific requirements and ingredients. According to Section 378, theft means dishonestly taking any movable property out of the possession of a person. This taking must always be without the concerned person's consent.

Therefore, in order to constitute theft under IPC, the following conditions must exist:

(1) The offender must have a dishonest intention to take property;

(2) The property in question must always be a mov able property and not immovable;

(3) The offender must take the property out of the other person's possession without consent; and

(4) The offender must move the property to complete its taking.

All of these requirements must exist in order to complete the offence of theft. If anyone of them is missing, the offender is not guilty of theft. For example, a person may take and move somebody else's property thinking it actually belongs to him. In this case, since the offender moved the property as a mistake, he did not commit theft. The Punishment for the offence of Theft is defined under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code which states that anyone who commits theft will be punished with imprisonment of either for a term which can be extended to a period of three years either with fine, or with both.

Q. Ali Baba secured a treasure that he brought in a cart to his house. When he went inside to greet his family, he had left the treasure outside the house premises. Mir Qasim saw the treasure and knew that if he takes away the treasure, he would be liable for theft. Instead, he induced the bullocks to follow him to his house. Decide

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 72 Correct Answer is (a)

Mir Qasam is liable for theft as he has made the bullock to move so that the cart is also moved. So according to the principle he is liable.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 73

We generally describe theft to be the act of stealing property belonging to somebody else. The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property which extends from section 378 to section 462.

Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382.

Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away and it is taken away without his consent.

Theft has been defined under Section 378 of IPC.

Simultaneously the punishment for the commitment of act of theft has also been defined under Section 379 of IPC.

However, theft under IPC has certain specific requirements and ingredients. According to Section 378, theft means dishonestly taking any movable property out of the possession of a person. This taking must always be without the concerned person's consent.

Therefore, in order to constitute theft under IPC, the following conditions must exist:

(1) The offender must have a dishonest intention to take property;

(2) The property in question must always be a mov able property and not immovable;

(3) The offender must take the property out of the other person's possession without consent; and

(4) The offender must move the property to complete its taking.

All of these requirements must exist in order to complete the offence of theft. If anyone of them is missing, the offender is not guilty of theft. For example, a person may take and move somebody else's property thinking it actually belongs to him. In this case, since the offender moved the property as a mistake, he did not commit theft. The Punishment for the offence of Theft is defined under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code which states that anyone who commits theft will be punished with imprisonment of either for a term which can be extended to a period of three years either with fine, or with both.

Q. Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defense. An aggressor cannot claim the right of private defense in criminal law. A entered B's house with the intention of committing theft. B and other family members surrounded A and attacked him with lathis. Realizing that his life was in danger, A took out his knife and stabbed B near his heart. B died immediately thereafter. At the trial, A pleads that he caused the death of B in exercise of the right of private defense in order to save his own life. Will this defense succeed?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 73 Correct Answer is (b)

The correct answer is (b) because an aggressor cannot claim the right of Private defense. An aggressor is a person who attacks first with the intention to commit crime.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 74

We generally describe theft to be the act of stealing property belonging to somebody else. The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property which extends from section 378 to section 462.

Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382.

Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away and it is taken away without his consent.

Theft has been defined under Section 378 of IPC.

Simultaneously the punishment for the commitment of act of theft has also been defined under Section 379 of IPC.

However, theft under IPC has certain specific requirements and ingredients. According to Section 378, theft means dishonestly taking any movable property out of the possession of a person. This taking must always be without the concerned person's consent.

Therefore, in order to constitute theft under IPC, the following conditions must exist:

(1) The offender must have a dishonest intention to take property;

(2) The property in question must always be a mov able property and not immovable;

(3) The offender must take the property out of the other person's possession without consent; and

(4) The offender must move the property to complete its taking.

All of these requirements must exist in order to complete the offence of theft. If anyone of them is missing, the offender is not guilty of theft. For example, a person may take and move somebody else's property thinking it actually belongs to him. In this case, since the offender moved the property as a mistake, he did not commit theft. The Punishment for the offence of Theft is defined under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code which states that anyone who commits theft will be punished with imprisonment of either for a term which can be extended to a period of three years either with fine, or with both.

Q. Madhuri visits her friend Charulata's house.

Madhuri sees a gold ring kept unattended on the table. She also wanted to purchase a similar ring and tries it on her finger. She meets Charulata and comes back home forgetting to return the ring. On coming home Madhuri didn't find the ring as it got lost somewhere while she was travelling back to her home. Charulata wishes to prosecute Madhuri.

Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 74 Correct Answer is (a)

Madhuri may be liable for theft as she may have had a guilty mind. Best option among the given alternatives.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 75

We generally describe theft to be the act of stealing property belonging to somebody else. The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property which extends from section 378 to section 462.

Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382.

Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away and it is taken away without his consent.

Theft has been defined under Section 378 of IPC.

Simultaneously the punishment for the commitment of act of theft has also been defined under Section 379 of IPC.

However, theft under IPC has certain specific requirements and ingredients. According to Section 378, theft means dishonestly taking any movable property out of the possession of a person. This taking must always be without the concerned person's consent.

Therefore, in order to constitute theft under IPC, the following conditions must exist:

(1) The offender must have a dishonest intention to take property;

(2) The property in question must always be a mov able property and not immovable;

(3) The offender must take the property out of the other person's possession without consent; and

(4) The offender must move the property to complete its taking.

All of these requirements must exist in order to complete the offence of theft. If anyone of them is missing, the offender is not guilty of theft. For example, a person may take and move somebody else's property thinking it actually belongs to him. In this case, since the offender moved the property as a mistake, he did not commit theft. The Punishment for the offence of Theft is defined under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code which states that anyone who commits theft will be punished with imprisonment of either for a term which can be extended to a period of three years either with fine, or with both.

Q. Theft is the dishonest mov ing of property with the intention of taking it out of the person's possession without his consent. The bailor has to pay bailee for the services rendered during the course of bailment A gives his woollen Suit to a dry cleaner along with his wife's clothes for the purpose of dry cleaning. He is told to collect the clothes after two days. When he comes after two days, he finds that he does not have enough money to pay to the dry cleaner. But since he needs the suit desperately to wear for a party, he surreptitiously places the suit near his other goods so that he can quietly take it without the knowledge of the dry cleaner. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 75 Correct Answer is (a)

A is guilty of theft as he has moved the property with the intention of taking it away that's why (d) is not correct as he has still not taken away the property.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 76

We generally describe theft to be the act of stealing property belonging to somebody else. The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property which extends from section 378 to section 462.

Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382.

Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away and it is taken away without his consent.

Theft has been defined under Section 378 of IPC.

Simultaneously the punishment for the commitment of act of theft has also been defined under Section 379 of IPC.

However, theft under IPC has certain specific requirements and ingredients. According to Section 378, theft means dishonestly taking any movable property out of the possession of a person. This taking must always be without the concerned person's consent.

Therefore, in order to constitute theft under IPC, the following conditions must exist:

(1) The offender must have a dishonest intention to take property;

(2) The property in question must always be a mov able property and not immovable;

(3) The offender must take the property out of the other person's possession without consent; and

(4) The offender must move the property to complete its taking.

All of these requirements must exist in order to complete the offence of theft. If anyone of them is missing, the offender is not guilty of theft. For example, a person may take and move somebody else's property thinking it actually belongs to him. In this case, since the offender moved the property as a mistake, he did not commit theft. The Punishment for the offence of Theft is defined under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code which states that anyone who commits theft will be punished with imprisonment of either for a term which can be extended to a period of three years either with fine, or with both.

Q. Amir had borrowed a book from Kapil. Raj, Kapil's friend urgently needed that book. Upon asking Kapil, he was given permission by him to take the book from Amir. However, when Raj went to Amir's house to take the book from him, Amir's brother told him that Amir was not at home and he could give the book only to the owner and not anyone else. As Amir's brother did not know Kapil, Raj told him that he was the owner of the book. Believing Raj, Amir's brother let him in the house and take Kapil's book.

Has Raj committed theft?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 76 Correct Answer is (c)

Even though Raj dishonestly represented himself, he didn't take the book dishonestly and had the consent of the person who was in possession of it.

Thus, he has not committed theft.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 77

We generally describe theft to be the act of stealing property belonging to somebody else. The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property which extends from section 378 to section 462.

Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382.

Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away and it is taken away without his consent.

Theft has been defined under Section 378 of IPC.

Simultaneously the punishment for the commitment of act of theft has also been defined under Section 379 of IPC.

However, theft under IPC has certain specific requirements and ingredients. According to Section 378, theft means dishonestly taking any movable property out of the possession of a person. This taking must always be without the concerned person's consent.

Therefore, in order to constitute theft under IPC, the following conditions must exist:

(1) The offender must have a dishonest intention to take property;

(2) The property in question must always be a mov able property and not immovable;

(3) The offender must take the property out of the other person's possession without consent; and

(4) The offender must move the property to complete its taking.

All of these requirements must exist in order to complete the offence of theft. If anyone of them is missing, the offender is not guilty of theft. For example, a person may take and move somebody else's property thinking it actually belongs to him. In this case, since the offender moved the property as a mistake, he did not commit theft. The Punishment for the offence of Theft is defined under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code which states that anyone who commits theft will be punished with imprisonment of either for a term which can be extended to a period of three years either with fine, or with both.

Q. A used to borrow books from B from B's personal library. A used to return the books to A within a specified amount of time. Once A borrowed a book from B in which he found a gift coupon. A took the coupon with the intention of availing the gift. He subsequently returned the book to B. Has A committed theft.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 77 Correct Answer is (a)

A is liable for theft as the coupon being a movable property belonged to B and A took it with the intention to avail it without B's consent.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 78

Fundamental rights and DPSP as cherished in the Constitution of India together comprises the human rights of an individual. Fundamental rights are also known as inherent rights because they are inherent to every person by birth. These are the rights which provide an individual with some basic rights for the purpose of survival.

No discrimination is made on the basis of religion, caste, race etc. and if any person feels so that his fundamental rights are being infringed then he can surely approach to court for the violation of his rights. The concept of DPSP emerged from Article 45 of the Irish Constitution. DPSP imposes a duty upon the state not only to protect and acknowledge the Fundamental right of the individual but also to achieve Social-economic goals. DPSPs are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution of India.

Certain guidelines are present for the state authority to work upon them for the protection of society. It mostly focuses on welfare and improvement of society altogether. As fundamental rights are enforceable in a court of law, DPSP cannot be enforced for making any rules, policy or guidelines. Though the judiciary continued to hold that the Directives were subordinate to the Fundamental Rights, an attempt was made to achieve the ideals mentioned Directive Principles. The Supreme Court's view regarding the interplay of Directive principles and Fundamental Rights underwent a change. The courts came to realize that there should not be any conflicts between two sets of provisions of the Constitution which have a common origin and a common objective as would nullify either of them. The way out was found to lie in the doctrine of harmonious construction, arising out of the cannon of interpretation that parts of the same instrument must be read together in order to reconcile them with one another. Applying this doctrine, the Supreme Court came to adopt the view that in determining the ambit the ambit of Fundamental Rights themselves, the court might look at relevant Directive Principles.

It can be concluded by saying that the basic feature of the constitution is to maintain harmony between fundamental rights and DPSP. They are complementary and supplementary to each other. The theme of fundamental rights must be made in light to DPSP.

Q. Fundamental Right and Directive Principles of State Policy should be construed harmoniously. Right to life includes right to eat. Protection of cow is a DPSP.

The government of Tamil Nadu passed a law by which all persons were obliged to bow to the cow. Many tribal people who were out of mainstream used to consume cow meat and refused to honour it citing their fundamental right to life. The government arrested all these tribals. The government's argument is that protection of cow is a directive principle of state policy. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 78 Correct Answer is (c)

A middle way should be found out so that cow is protected, and people may choose what they wish to eat. As according to the principle harmony must be maintained between the fundamental rights and the DPSP. Protection of cow is a DPDP but at the same time the tribals also have their choice to eat whatever they want to eat as a part of their right to life.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 79

Fundamental rights and DPSP as cherished in the Constitution of India together comprises the human rights of an individual. Fundamental rights are also known as inherent rights because they are inherent to every person by birth. These are the rights which provide an individual with some basic rights for the purpose of survival.

No discrimination is made on the basis of religion, caste, race etc. and if any person feels so that his fundamental rights are being infringed then he can surely approach to court for the violation of his rights. The concept of DPSP emerged from Article 45 of the Irish Constitution. DPSP imposes a duty upon the state not only to protect and acknowledge the Fundamental right of the individual but also to achieve Social-economic goals. DPSPs are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution of India.

Certain guidelines are present for the state authority to work upon them for the protection of society. It mostly focuses on welfare and improvement of society altogether. As fundamental rights are enforceable in a court of law, DPSP cannot be enforced for making any rules, policy or guidelines. Though the judiciary continued to hold that the Directives were subordinate to the Fundamental Rights, an attempt was made to achieve the ideals mentioned Directive Principles. The Supreme Court's view regarding the interplay of Directive principles and Fundamental Rights underwent a change. The courts came to realize that there should not be any conflicts between two sets of provisions of the Constitution which have a common origin and a common objective as would nullify either of them. The way out was found to lie in the doctrine of harmonious construction, arising out of the cannon of interpretation that parts of the same instrument must be read together in order to reconcile them with one another. Applying this doctrine, the Supreme Court came to adopt the view that in determining the ambit the ambit of Fundamental Rights themselves, the court might look at relevant Directive Principles.

It can be concluded by saying that the basic feature of the constitution is to maintain harmony between fundamental rights and DPSP. They are complementary and supplementary to each other. The theme of fundamental rights must be made in light to DPSP.

Q. Fundamental Rights are so quintessence that ev en Directive Principles of State Policy cannot abridge them. Right to marriage is a fundamental right.

Protection of monument of natural importance is a Directive Principle of State Policy. Albert is in love with Monika. Both promise to get married. Albert's parents object as Monika is not of same religion.

Albert decides to run away with Monika and settle elsewhere. They are of majority age. They organize their marriage ceremony in a monument which is of national significance. Just as Albert is about to take the last circle of 'saptapadi' the police stop him and arrest him. The reasons given is that their marriage ceremony is causing irreparable damage to the monument. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 79 Correct Answer is (b)

Albert and Monika's right to marriage is not getting violated. They can get married elsewhere.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 80

Fundamental rights and DPSP as cherished in the Constitution of India together comprises the human rights of an individual. Fundamental rights are also known as inherent rights because they are inherent to every person by birth. These are the rights which provide an individual with some basic rights for the purpose of survival.

No discrimination is made on the basis of religion, caste, race etc. and if any person feels so that his fundamental rights are being infringed then he can surely approach to court for the violation of his rights. The concept of DPSP emerged from Article 45 of the Irish Constitution. DPSP imposes a duty upon the state not only to protect and acknowledge the Fundamental right of the individual but also to achieve Social-economic goals. DPSPs are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution of India.

Certain guidelines are present for the state authority to work upon them for the protection of society. It mostly focuses on welfare and improvement of society altogether. As fundamental rights are enforceable in a court of law, DPSP cannot be enforced for making any rules, policy or guidelines. Though the judiciary continued to hold that the Directives were subordinate to the Fundamental Rights, an attempt was made to achieve the ideals mentioned Directive Principles. The Supreme Court's view regarding the interplay of Directive principles and Fundamental Rights underwent a change. The courts came to realize that there should not be any conflicts between two sets of provisions of the Constitution which have a common origin and a common objective as would nullify either of them. The way out was found to lie in the doctrine of harmonious construction, arising out of the cannon of interpretation that parts of the same instrument must be read together in order to reconcile them with one another. Applying this doctrine, the Supreme Court came to adopt the view that in determining the ambit the ambit of Fundamental Rights themselves, the court might look at relevant Directive Principles.

It can be concluded by saying that the basic feature of the constitution is to maintain harmony between fundamental rights and DPSP. They are complementary and supplementary to each other. The theme of fundamental rights must be made in light to DPSP.

Q. The Constitutional right to free speech entails the right to express opinions without censorship or restraint. It is, however, subject to reasonable restrictions. V is a mysterious crusader in dictatorial England. One evening, he hijacks the communication lines and broadcasts a message saying "…there's something seriously wrong with this country, isn't there? Cruelty and injustice, intolerance and oppression. And where once you had the freedom to object, to think and speak as you saw fit, you now have systems of surveillance…" He is caught and brought to trial, and sought to be executed for his words. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 80 Correct Answer is (c)

Unfair though it sounds, the fact situation clearly mentions that V is living under a dictatorial regime. (c) is more nuanced response since it incorporates reasonable restrictions.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above. (a) sounds close but (c) is the more nuanced response since it incorporates reasonable restrictions. (b) and (d) are superfluous options because friendly chats would not be allowed by dictatorships.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 81

Fundamental rights and DPSP as cherished in the Constitution of India together comprises the human rights of an individual. Fundamental rights are also known as inherent rights because they are inherent to every person by birth. These are the rights which provide an individual with some basic rights for the purpose of survival.

No discrimination is made on the basis of religion, caste, race etc. and if any person feels so that his fundamental rights are being infringed then he can surely approach to court for the violation of his rights. The concept of DPSP emerged from Article 45 of the Irish Constitution. DPSP imposes a duty upon the state not only to protect and acknowledge the Fundamental right of the individual but also to achieve Social-economic goals. DPSPs are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution of India.

Certain guidelines are present for the state authority to work upon them for the protection of society. It mostly focuses on welfare and improvement of society altogether. As fundamental rights are enforceable in a court of law, DPSP cannot be enforced for making any rules, policy or guidelines. Though the judiciary continued to hold that the Directives were subordinate to the Fundamental Rights, an attempt was made to achieve the ideals mentioned Directive Principles. The Supreme Court's view regarding the interplay of Directive principles and Fundamental Rights underwent a change. The courts came to realize that there should not be any conflicts between two sets of provisions of the Constitution which have a common origin and a common objective as would nullify either of them. The way out was found to lie in the doctrine of harmonious construction, arising out of the cannon of interpretation that parts of the same instrument must be read together in order to reconcile them with one another. Applying this doctrine, the Supreme Court came to adopt the view that in determining the ambit the ambit of Fundamental Rights themselves, the court might look at relevant Directive Principles.

It can be concluded by saying that the basic feature of the constitution is to maintain harmony between fundamental rights and DPSP. They are complementary and supplementary to each other. The theme of fundamental rights must be made in light to DPSP.

Q. The right to privacy refers to the idea that one's personal information is protected from public scrutiny.

It applies to everyone who is considered a person under the Constitution, and can refer to a citizen as well as alien. Leo and Neo are a gay couple residing in India. They are Portuguese by birth, but have been living in India for a while. They have been exchanging emails and messages, which also contained nudes of the couple. Some homophobic miscreant hacker leaks their private messages and chats on Twitter.

Leo and Neo go to Court saying that their fundamental right to privacy has been violated. Will they succeed?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 81 Correct Answer is (b)

The principle clearly states that citizens as well as aliens have the right to privacy. So (a) is blatantly wrong. The principle or the fact situation says nothing about the unregulatedness of the Internet, so (c) is irrelevant. The principle doesn't ask us to pass a moral judgment on Leo and Neo, and this makes (d) wrong.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 82

Fundamental rights and DPSP as cherished in the Constitution of India together comprises the human rights of an individual. Fundamental rights are also known as inherent rights because they are inherent to every person by birth. These are the rights which provide an individual with some basic rights for the purpose of survival.

No discrimination is made on the basis of religion, caste, race etc. and if any person feels so that his fundamental rights are being infringed then he can surely approach to court for the violation of his rights. The concept of DPSP emerged from Article 45 of the Irish Constitution. DPSP imposes a duty upon the state not only to protect and acknowledge the Fundamental right of the individual but also to achieve Social-economic goals. DPSPs are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution of India.

Certain guidelines are present for the state authority to work upon them for the protection of society. It mostly focuses on welfare and improvement of society altogether. As fundamental rights are enforceable in a court of law, DPSP cannot be enforced for making any rules, policy or guidelines. Though the judiciary continued to hold that the Directives were subordinate to the Fundamental Rights, an attempt was made to achieve the ideals mentioned Directive Principles. The Supreme Court's view regarding the interplay of Directive principles and Fundamental Rights underwent a change. The courts came to realize that there should not be any conflicts between two sets of provisions of the Constitution which have a common origin and a common objective as would nullify either of them. The way out was found to lie in the doctrine of harmonious construction, arising out of the cannon of interpretation that parts of the same instrument must be read together in order to reconcile them with one another. Applying this doctrine, the Supreme Court came to adopt the view that in determining the ambit the ambit of Fundamental Rights themselves, the court might look at relevant Directive Principles.

It can be concluded by saying that the basic feature of the constitution is to maintain harmony between fundamental rights and DPSP. They are complementary and supplementary to each other. The theme of fundamental rights must be made in light to DPSP.

Q. In case of irreconcilable conflict between Directiv e Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights, the latter shall prevail. Promotion of public health is a Directive Principle of State Policy. Hema is a rural women recently married. There is no LPG in their village and she cooks food on 'chullas' (brick-wood oven) which is the only way to cook food in her village.

According to a study by World Health Organization, prolonged exposure to the smoke from chullas leads to lung cancer. The government of India banned all chullas. Hema seeks your advice.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 82 Correct Answer is (b)

The government cannot ban chullas as fundamental rights prevail over DPSP in case of a conflict, so the fundamental right of the women to cook food in chullas and eat is a FR and shall prevail over the DPSP of public health.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 83

Fundamental rights and DPSP as cherished in the Constitution of India together comprises the human rights of an individual. Fundamental rights are also known as inherent rights because they are inherent to every person by birth. These are the rights which provide an individual with some basic rights for the purpose of survival.

No discrimination is made on the basis of religion, caste, race etc. and if any person feels so that his fundamental rights are being infringed then he can surely approach to court for the violation of his rights. The concept of DPSP emerged from Article 45 of the Irish Constitution. DPSP imposes a duty upon the state not only to protect and acknowledge the Fundamental right of the individual but also to achieve Social-economic goals. DPSPs are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution of India.

Certain guidelines are present for the state authority to work upon them for the protection of society. It mostly focuses on welfare and improvement of society altogether. As fundamental rights are enforceable in a court of law, DPSP cannot be enforced for making any rules, policy or guidelines. Though the judiciary continued to hold that the Directives were subordinate to the Fundamental Rights, an attempt was made to achieve the ideals mentioned Directive Principles. The Supreme Court's view regarding the interplay of Directive principles and Fundamental Rights underwent a change. The courts came to realize that there should not be any conflicts between two sets of provisions of the Constitution which have a common origin and a common objective as would nullify either of them. The way out was found to lie in the doctrine of harmonious construction, arising out of the cannon of interpretation that parts of the same instrument must be read together in order to reconcile them with one another. Applying this doctrine, the Supreme Court came to adopt the view that in determining the ambit the ambit of Fundamental Rights themselves, the court might look at relevant Directive Principles.

It can be concluded by saying that the basic feature of the constitution is to maintain harmony between fundamental rights and DPSP. They are complementary and supplementary to each other. The theme of fundamental rights must be made in light to DPSP.

Q. A public interest litigation (PIL) may be filed by any person for a social cause representing a disadvantaged group of people who do not have the necessary financial means or legal knowledge to take action in a court of law. Smriti appeared in CLAT 2018. She got a AIR 2000. On tallying her score with the released answer key she found many blatant discrepancies. She consulted with her coaching mentor who also confirmed the discrepancies. Many other students across the country found similar problems. This had a great impact on their marks and therefore the colleges they are allotted as the meritcum-allotment list was based on it. A fresh graduate from one of the premier institutes, Kalraj filed a PIL in the Supreme Court to look into the matter and take urgent steps as once the admission starts it would do irrevocable damages to the students. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 83 Correct Answer is (a)

The PIL by Kalraj is maintainable in the court. There is a social cause as it affects thousands of students career. The students are disadvantaged as they are just senior secondary school pass-outs and appearing for college admission.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 84

Fundamental rights and DPSP as cherished in the Constitution of India together comprises the human rights of an individual. Fundamental rights are also known as inherent rights because they are inherent to every person by birth. These are the rights which provide an individual with some basic rights for the purpose of survival.

No discrimination is made on the basis of religion, caste, race etc. and if any person feels so that his fundamental rights are being infringed then he can surely approach to court for the violation of his rights. The concept of DPSP emerged from Article 45 of the Irish Constitution. DPSP imposes a duty upon the state not only to protect and acknowledge the Fundamental right of the individual but also to achieve Social-economic goals. DPSPs are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution of India.

Certain guidelines are present for the state authority to work upon them for the protection of society. It mostly focuses on welfare and improvement of society altogether. As fundamental rights are enforceable in a court of law, DPSP cannot be enforced for making any rules, policy or guidelines. Though the judiciary continued to hold that the Directives were subordinate to the Fundamental Rights, an attempt was made to achieve the ideals mentioned Directive Principles. The Supreme Court's view regarding the interplay of Directive principles and Fundamental Rights underwent a change. The courts came to realize that there should not be any conflicts between two sets of provisions of the Constitution which have a common origin and a common objective as would nullify either of them. The way out was found to lie in the doctrine of harmonious construction, arising out of the cannon of interpretation that parts of the same instrument must be read together in order to reconcile them with one another. Applying this doctrine, the Supreme Court came to adopt the view that in determining the ambit the ambit of Fundamental Rights themselves, the court might look at relevant Directive Principles.

It can be concluded by saying that the basic feature of the constitution is to maintain harmony between fundamental rights and DPSP. They are complementary and supplementary to each other. The theme of fundamental rights must be made in light to DPSP.

Q. No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence, nor subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence. This is the principle of non-retrospectivity in the infliction of punishment. The Joker is a notorious psychopathic criminal in Gotham city. There is no law in Gotham forbidding anyone from holding up two ferries and threatening to blow both of them unless one of them blows up the other one first. His attempt to turn the people on the ferries against one another fails, and he is tried in Court by Harvey Dent. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 84 Correct Answer is (b)

Applying the principle strictly, we must go with (B) and just live with the loophole in the law. It cannot be (A) or (C) because the principle says nothing about making exceptions to non retrospectivity, and it cannot be (D) because the principle says nothing about harm. Don't get swayed by morality, stick to the principle, however harsh the consequences might sound.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 85

The defendant, runs a YouTube channel. In September, he uploaded a video titled 'Is X Coconut Oil 100% Pure?' wherein he reviewed the plaintiff's product.

The plaintiff came across the video and alleged that the defendant had made claims and statements about plaintiff's product which are false and unsubstantiated. The Plaintiff found that as a whole, the video in question is disparaging and denigrating in nature.

The plaintiff, approached the High Court for an injunction to restrain the defendant from publishing or broadcasting the impugned video and infringing registered trademarks of the plaintiff's business.

It was submitted that defendant seeks to promote two other competing products and said acts fall under the category of commercial activities and not a general review of the product by an ordinary consumer.

The court holding the defendant guilty observed that, "Today, social media influencing is one of the most impactful and effective ways of marketing and advertising.

A social media influencer who has or claims to have a sound knowledge on what they claim their niche is and uses that knowledge to influence people in believing and subscribing to the same set of ideas or thoughts they are trying to propagate on social media, have the power to influence people, to change attitudes and mindset. "Such person bears a higher burden to ensure there is a degree of truthfulness in his statements. A social media influencer is not only aware of the impact of his statement but also makes a purposeful attempt to spread his opinion to society / the public."

"The Defendant cannot under the garb of educating / bring the true facts to public, provide misleading information to disparage the Plaintiffs product. Any campaign to educate the members of the public by placing before them the true and correct facts may be welcomed."

Q. Based on the observ ations giv en abov e which of the following decisions would the court logically deliver?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 85 Correct Answer is (b)

The primary request that floated from the plaintiff was that of granting an injunction against the impugned video. Refer to the 3rd paragraph- "The plaintiff, approached the High Court for an injunction to restrain the defendant from publishing or broadcasting the impugned video and infringing registered trademarks of the plaintiff's business."

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 86

The defendant, runs a YouTube channel. In September, he uploaded a video titled 'Is X Coconut Oil 100% Pure?' wherein he reviewed the plaintiff's product.

The plaintiff came across the video and alleged that the defendant had made claims and statements about plaintiff's product which are false and unsubstantiated. The Plaintiff found that as a whole, the video in question is disparaging and denigrating in nature.

The plaintiff, approached the High Court for an injunction to restrain the defendant from publishing or broadcasting the impugned video and infringing registered trademarks of the plaintiff's business.

It was submitted that defendant seeks to promote two other competing products and said acts fall under the category of commercial activities and not a general review of the product by an ordinary consumer.

The court holding the defendant guilty observed that, "Today, social media influencing is one of the most impactful and effective ways of marketing and advertising.

A social media influencer who has or claims to have a sound knowledge on what they claim their niche is and uses that knowledge to influence people in believing and subscribing to the same set of ideas or thoughts they are trying to propagate on social media, have the power to influence people, to change attitudes and mindset. "Such person bears a higher burden to ensure there is a degree of truthfulness in his statements. A social media influencer is not only aware of the impact of his statement but also makes a purposeful attempt to spread his opinion to society / the public."

"The Defendant cannot under the garb of educating / bring the true facts to public, provide misleading information to disparage the Plaintiffs product. Any campaign to educate the members of the public by placing before them the true and correct facts may be welcomed."

Q. According to the above observations, which of the following describe the responsibilities of a social media influencer?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 86 Refer to the 2nd last paragraph, "Such person bears a higher burden to ensure there is a degree of truthfulness in his statements"

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 87

The defendant, runs a YouTube channel. In September, he uploaded a video titled 'Is X Coconut Oil 100% Pure?' wherein he reviewed the plaintiff's product.

The plaintiff came across the video and alleged that the defendant had made claims and statements about plaintiff's product which are false and unsubstantiated. The Plaintiff found that as a whole, the video in question is disparaging and denigrating in nature.

The plaintiff, approached the High Court for an injunction to restrain the defendant from publishing or broadcasting the impugned video and infringing registered trademarks of the plaintiff's business.

It was submitted that defendant seeks to promote two other competing products and said acts fall under the category of commercial activities and not a general review of the product by an ordinary consumer.

The court holding the defendant guilty observed that, "Today, social media influencing is one of the most impactful and effective ways of marketing and advertising.

A social media influencer who has or claims to have a sound knowledge on what they claim their niche is and uses that knowledge to influence people in believing and subscribing to the same set of ideas or thoughts they are trying to propagate on social media, have the power to influence people, to change attitudes and mindset. "Such person bears a higher burden to ensure there is a degree of truthfulness in his statements. A social media influencer is not only aware of the impact of his statement but also makes a purposeful attempt to spread his opinion to society / the public."

"The Defendant cannot under the garb of educating / bring the true facts to public, provide misleading information to disparage the Plaintiffs product. Any campaign to educate the members of the public by placing before them the true and correct facts may be welcomed."

Q. A brand X was a market leader in the telecom industry. A brand Y which was a rival of X claimed to be providing the fastest network speed in India, and also proclaimed itself as the best supplier of such services. X approached the court asking for the removal of such ads for it hampers its brand name.

Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 87 Correct Answer is (b)

Option (b) is the correct answer as the advertisement of Y does not affect the goodwill of X in any manner.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 88

The defendant, runs a YouTube channel. In September, he uploaded a video titled 'Is X Coconut Oil 100% Pure?' wherein he reviewed the plaintiff's product.

The plaintiff came across the video and alleged that the defendant had made claims and statements about plaintiff's product which are false and unsubstantiated. The Plaintiff found that as a whole, the video in question is disparaging and denigrating in nature.

The plaintiff, approached the High Court for an injunction to restrain the defendant from publishing or broadcasting the impugned video and infringing registered trademarks of the plaintiff's business.

It was submitted that defendant seeks to promote two other competing products and said acts fall under the category of commercial activities and not a general review of the product by an ordinary consumer.

The court holding the defendant guilty observed that, "Today, social media influencing is one of the most impactful and effective ways of marketing and advertising.

A social media influencer who has or claims to have a sound knowledge on what they claim their niche is and uses that knowledge to influence people in believing and subscribing to the same set of ideas or thoughts they are trying to propagate on social media, have the power to influence people, to change attitudes and mindset. "Such person bears a higher burden to ensure there is a degree of truthfulness in his statements. A social media influencer is not only aware of the impact of his statement but also makes a purposeful attempt to spread his opinion to society / the public."

"The Defendant cannot under the garb of educating / bring the true facts to public, provide misleading information to disparage the Plaintiffs product. Any campaign to educate the members of the public by placing before them the true and correct facts may be welcomed."

Q. Which of the following rights were at odds in the above case?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 88 Correct Answer is (c)

Refer to 3rd paragraph 3rd line - It was submitted that defendant seeks to promote two other competing products and said acts fall under the category of commercial activities and not a general review of the product by an ordinary consumer.

Vs

"The Defendant cannot under the garb of educating / bring the true facts to public, provide misleading information to disparage the Plaintiffs product.

Incorrect Answers:

a) The impugned video doesn't restrict the plaintiff from carrying out his choice of Trade.

b) Privacy of the plaintiff was not attacked by the video.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 89

The defendant, runs a YouTube channel. In September, he uploaded a video titled 'Is X Coconut Oil 100% Pure?' wherein he reviewed the plaintiff's product.

The plaintiff came across the video and alleged that the defendant had made claims and statements about plaintiff's product which are false and unsubstantiated. The Plaintiff found that as a whole, the video in question is disparaging and denigrating in nature.

The plaintiff, approached the High Court for an injunction to restrain the defendant from publishing or broadcasting the impugned video and infringing registered trademarks of the plaintiff's business.

It was submitted that defendant seeks to promote two other competing products and said acts fall under the category of commercial activities and not a general review of the product by an ordinary consumer.

The court holding the defendant guilty observed that, "Today, social media influencing is one of the most impactful and effective ways of marketing and advertising.

A social media influencer who has or claims to have a sound knowledge on what they claim their niche is and uses that knowledge to influence people in believing and subscribing to the same set of ideas or thoughts they are trying to propagate on social media, have the power to influence people, to change attitudes and mindset. "Such person bears a higher burden to ensure there is a degree of truthfulness in his statements. A social media influencer is not only aware of the impact of his statement but also makes a purposeful attempt to spread his opinion to society / the public."

"The Defendant cannot under the garb of educating / bring the true facts to public, provide misleading information to disparage the Plaintiffs product. Any campaign to educate the members of the public by placing before them the true and correct facts may be welcomed."

Q. A state controlled T.V. channel received a request from Y, a producer of an award-winning documentary featuring a gas tragedy (from the perspective of a victim) that transpired a decade ago. The channel refused to telecast it for it was outdated and that it may be against the requirements of public morality.

Y approached the court. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 89 Correct Answer is (c)

There exists a right to know of the public and the right to speech of the producer that must be respected by a state agency.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 90

On October 13, 2019, Pradeep Tomar, a security guard, rushed with his 10-year-old son to Pilkhua police station in Hapur district in Uttar Pradesh. He had been summoned for interrogation in connection with a murder case. The son later said that his father was brutally tortured by the policemen in front of him for hours. When Tomar's condition deteriorated he was rushed to hospital, where he died. An FIR was registered against four policemen after the National Human Rights Commission took note of the case.

These incidents have brought into sharp focus the way Indian policemen torture and interrogate suspects in their custody leading to death in several cases. Strictures passed against policemen from time to time by learned judges of various courts notwithstanding, the police continue to brazenly torture suspects in their custody.

Custodial deaths have been on the increase in recent years. They increased by 9% from 92 in 2016 to 100 in 2017, according to the National Crime Records Bureau.

The Supreme Court delivered a historic order in 2006 on police reforms. It stated, among other things, that every State should have a Police Complaints Authority where any citizen can lodge a complaint against policemen for any act of misdemeanour. However, only a few States have implemented the order. Others have not taken the matter seriously. The Law Commission on 30.10.2017 submitted its 273rd Report on "Implementation of United Nations Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman and Degrading Treatment or Punishment" along with a draft "The Prevention of Torture Bill, 2017".

As Criminal Laws are in the Concurrent List, this Report along with the draft Bill has been circulated to the State Governments/UTs for their views". It is primarily the responsibility of the State Government to appropriately prevent and ensure non-occurrence of police atrocities and protect the Human Rights of the citizen. However, the Central Government issues advisories and the NHRC issues guidelines/procedure to be followed in cases of death caused in Police action from time to time. Pursuant to the guidelines framed by NHRC, every death in custody (Judicial and Police) and rapes in custody are to be reported to NHRC within 24 hours of its occurrence. In all such case, the Commission calls for various reports including the inquest, post-mortem, videography of postmortem, magisterial inquiry report for ascertaining foul play or negligence, if any which resulted in the death.

During various workshops, seminars and camp sittings, the Commission sensitizes senior officers in State Governments for better protection of Human Rights.

Q. Whoever does any act with such intent ion or knowledge, and under such circumstances that, if he by that act caused death, he would be guilty of murder, shall be liable. Thus, mere intention would not be sufficient to commit murder. Dinesh was falsely arrested in a dacoity case, and put in the lock up. One night a group of police men entered his lock up room and mercilessly beat him up with their lathis until he dropped. He was taken to the hospital where he was pronounced dead. Can the police men be held liable?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 90 Correct Answer is (c)

Police can be held liable since they could have reasonably apprehended with knowledge that their act would cause the death of Dinesh.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 91

On October 13, 2019, Pradeep Tomar, a security guard, rushed with his 10-year-old son to Pilkhua police station in Hapur district in Uttar Pradesh. He had been summoned for interrogation in connection with a murder case. The son later said that his father was brutally tortured by the policemen in front of him for hours. When Tomar's condition deteriorated he was rushed to hospital, where he died. An FIR was registered against four policemen after the National Human Rights Commission took note of the case.

These incidents have brought into sharp focus the way Indian policemen torture and interrogate suspects in their custody leading to death in several cases. Strictures passed against policemen from time to time by learned judges of various courts notwithstanding, the police continue to brazenly torture suspects in their custody.

Custodial deaths have been on the increase in recent years. They increased by 9% from 92 in 2016 to 100 in 2017, according to the National Crime Records Bureau.

The Supreme Court delivered a historic order in 2006 on police reforms. It stated, among other things, that every State should have a Police Complaints Authority where any citizen can lodge a complaint against policemen for any act of misdemeanour. However, only a few States have implemented the order. Others have not taken the matter seriously. The Law Commission on 30.10.2017 submitted its 273rd Report on "Implementation of United Nations Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman and Degrading Treatment or Punishment" along with a draft "The Prevention of Torture Bill, 2017".

As Criminal Laws are in the Concurrent List, this Report along with the draft Bill has been circulated to the State Governments/UTs for their views". It is primarily the responsibility of the State Government to appropriately prevent and ensure non-occurrence of police atrocities and protect the Human Rights of the citizen. However, the Central Government issues advisories and the NHRC issues guidelines/procedure to be followed in cases of death caused in Police action from time to time. Pursuant to the guidelines framed by NHRC, every death in custody (Judicial and Police) and rapes in custody are to be reported to NHRC within 24 hours of its occurrence. In all such case, the Commission calls for various reports including the inquest, post-mortem, videography of postmortem, magisterial inquiry report for ascertaining foul play or negligence, if any which resulted in the death.

During various workshops, seminars and camp sittings, the Commission sensitizes senior officers in State Governments for better protection of Human Rights.

Q. Any person arrested should be presented to the nearest magistrate within 24 hours. The police arrested a person on charges of murder in Chennai.

He was to be sent to Delhi was the case was filed in Delhi. It took the police 36 hours to present him in Delhi. Has the police done their duty correctly?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 91 Correct Answer is (c)

Yes, travel time is not included in 24 hours.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 92

On October 13, 2019, Pradeep Tomar, a security guard, rushed with his 10-year-old son to Pilkhua police station in Hapur district in Uttar Pradesh. He had been summoned for interrogation in connection with a murder case. The son later said that his father was brutally tortured by the policemen in front of him for hours. When Tomar's condition deteriorated he was rushed to hospital, where he died. An FIR was registered against four policemen after the National Human Rights Commission took note of the case.

These incidents have brought into sharp focus the way Indian policemen torture and interrogate suspects in their custody leading to death in several cases. Strictures passed against policemen from time to time by learned judges of various courts notwithstanding, the police continue to brazenly torture suspects in their custody.

Custodial deaths have been on the increase in recent years. They increased by 9% from 92 in 2016 to 100 in 2017, according to the National Crime Records Bureau.

The Supreme Court delivered a historic order in 2006 on police reforms. It stated, among other things, that every State should have a Police Complaints Authority where any citizen can lodge a complaint against policemen for any act of misdemeanour. However, only a few States have implemented the order. Others have not taken the matter seriously. The Law Commission on 30.10.2017 submitted its 273rd Report on "Implementation of United Nations Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman and Degrading Treatment or Punishment" along with a draft "The Prevention of Torture Bill, 2017".

As Criminal Laws are in the Concurrent List, this Report along with the draft Bill has been circulated to the State Governments/UTs for their views". It is primarily the responsibility of the State Government to appropriately prevent and ensure non-occurrence of police atrocities and protect the Human Rights of the citizen. However, the Central Government issues advisories and the NHRC issues guidelines/procedure to be followed in cases of death caused in Police action from time to time. Pursuant to the guidelines framed by NHRC, every death in custody (Judicial and Police) and rapes in custody are to be reported to NHRC within 24 hours of its occurrence. In all such case, the Commission calls for various reports including the inquest, post-mortem, videography of postmortem, magisterial inquiry report for ascertaining foul play or negligence, if any which resulted in the death.

During various workshops, seminars and camp sittings, the Commission sensitizes senior officers in State Governments for better protection of Human Rights.

Q. No confession made by any person whilst he is in the custody of a police officer, unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate, shall be proved as against such person. A woman was arrested for the murder of a young boy. She was intentionally left alone in the custody of villagers by the Police sub inspector so that the woman could confess her guilt.

The woman, out of fear, made a statement before the villagers that she had murdered the boy. Later on, she was prosecuted on the basis of her own statement.

Hence, statement is admissible.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 92 Correct Answer is (a)

The correct answer is (a) because principle says no confession can be proved unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 93

On October 13, 2019, Pradeep Tomar, a security guard, rushed with his 10-year-old son to Pilkhua police station in Hapur district in Uttar Pradesh. He had been summoned for interrogation in connection with a murder case. The son later said that his father was brutally tortured by the policemen in front of him for hours. When Tomar's condition deteriorated he was rushed to hospital, where he died. An FIR was registered against four policemen after the National Human Rights Commission took note of the case.

These incidents have brought into sharp focus the way Indian policemen torture and interrogate suspects in their custody leading to death in several cases. Strictures passed against policemen from time to time by learned judges of various courts notwithstanding, the police continue to brazenly torture suspects in their custody.

Custodial deaths have been on the increase in recent years. They increased by 9% from 92 in 2016 to 100 in 2017, according to the National Crime Records Bureau.

The Supreme Court delivered a historic order in 2006 on police reforms. It stated, among other things, that every State should have a Police Complaints Authority where any citizen can lodge a complaint against policemen for any act of misdemeanour. However, only a few States have implemented the order. Others have not taken the matter seriously. The Law Commission on 30.10.2017 submitted its 273rd Report on "Implementation of United Nations Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman and Degrading Treatment or Punishment" along with a draft "The Prevention of Torture Bill, 2017".

As Criminal Laws are in the Concurrent List, this Report along with the draft Bill has been circulated to the State Governments/UTs for their views". It is primarily the responsibility of the State Government to appropriately prevent and ensure non-occurrence of police atrocities and protect the Human Rights of the citizen. However, the Central Government issues advisories and the NHRC issues guidelines/procedure to be followed in cases of death caused in Police action from time to time. Pursuant to the guidelines framed by NHRC, every death in custody (Judicial and Police) and rapes in custody are to be reported to NHRC within 24 hours of its occurrence. In all such case, the Commission calls for various reports including the inquest, post-mortem, videography of postmortem, magisterial inquiry report for ascertaining foul play or negligence, if any which resulted in the death.

During various workshops, seminars and camp sittings, the Commission sensitizes senior officers in State Governments for better protection of Human Rights.

Q. Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, being a public servant for the advancement of public justice, causes death by doing an act which he, in good faith, believes to be lawful and necessary for the due discharge of his duty as such public servant and without ill-will towards the person whose death is caused. Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide. The Mumbai Police created an Anti-Gangster Squad (AGS) whose current project was to catch Mahmood dead or alive who had terrorized the whole society. On Sunday morning, Samar who is the head of the AGS received information about Mahmood hiding in a posh building at Lokhandwala. Samar goes to the place with a squad of AGS officers and surrounds the building.

They notice some movement in the window of a flat and fire there. Mahmood is found dead later when they enter the room. Has Samar committed any offence?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 93 Correct Answer is (c)

Samar is the Head of AGS which has been constituted to catch Mahmood. While discharging his duty as a public servant he fires in a particular direction thereby killing Mahmood. Hence, he has committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 94

On October 13, 2019, Pradeep Tomar, a security guard, rushed with his 10-year-old son to Pilkhua police station in Hapur district in Uttar Pradesh. He had been summoned for interrogation in connection with a murder case. The son later said that his father was brutally tortured by the policemen in front of him for hours. When Tomar's condition deteriorated he was rushed to hospital, where he died. An FIR was registered against four policemen after the National Human Rights Commission took note of the case.

These incidents have brought into sharp focus the way Indian policemen torture and interrogate suspects in their custody leading to death in several cases. Strictures passed against policemen from time to time by learned judges of various courts notwithstanding, the police continue to brazenly torture suspects in their custody.

Custodial deaths have been on the increase in recent years. They increased by 9% from 92 in 2016 to 100 in 2017, according to the National Crime Records Bureau.

The Supreme Court delivered a historic order in 2006 on police reforms. It stated, among other things, that every State should have a Police Complaints Authority where any citizen can lodge a complaint against policemen for any act of misdemeanour. However, only a few States have implemented the order. Others have not taken the matter seriously. The Law Commission on 30.10.2017 submitted its 273rd Report on "Implementation of United Nations Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman and Degrading Treatment or Punishment" along with a draft "The Prevention of Torture Bill, 2017".

As Criminal Laws are in the Concurrent List, this Report along with the draft Bill has been circulated to the State Governments/UTs for their views". It is primarily the responsibility of the State Government to appropriately prevent and ensure non-occurrence of police atrocities and protect the Human Rights of the citizen. However, the Central Government issues advisories and the NHRC issues guidelines/procedure to be followed in cases of death caused in Police action from time to time. Pursuant to the guidelines framed by NHRC, every death in custody (Judicial and Police) and rapes in custody are to be reported to NHRC within 24 hours of its occurrence. In all such case, the Commission calls for various reports including the inquest, post-mortem, videography of postmortem, magisterial inquiry report for ascertaining foul play or negligence, if any which resulted in the death.

During various workshops, seminars and camp sittings, the Commission sensitizes senior officers in State Governments for better protection of Human Rights.

Q. A person cannot be forced to give evidence against his own self. Manpreet was arrested on charges of dacoity. He was presented in the court and given 14 days police custody. While being in the custody he was administered an injection without his consent and evidence extracted out of it. Decide the validity of it.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 94 Correct Answer is (b)

The evidence extracted violates the principle.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 95

On October 13, 2019, Pradeep Tomar, a security guard, rushed with his 10-year-old son to Pilkhua police station in Hapur district in Uttar Pradesh. He had been summoned for interrogation in connection with a murder case. The son later said that his father was brutally tortured by the policemen in front of him for hours. When Tomar's condition deteriorated he was rushed to hospital, where he died. An FIR was registered against four policemen after the National Human Rights Commission took note of the case.

These incidents have brought into sharp focus the way Indian policemen torture and interrogate suspects in their custody leading to death in several cases. Strictures passed against policemen from time to time by learned judges of various courts notwithstanding, the police continue to brazenly torture suspects in their custody.

Custodial deaths have been on the increase in recent years. They increased by 9% from 92 in 2016 to 100 in 2017, according to the National Crime Records Bureau.

The Supreme Court delivered a historic order in 2006 on police reforms. It stated, among other things, that every State should have a Police Complaints Authority where any citizen can lodge a complaint against policemen for any act of misdemeanour. However, only a few States have implemented the order. Others have not taken the matter seriously. The Law Commission on 30.10.2017 submitted its 273rd Report on "Implementation of United Nations Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman and Degrading Treatment or Punishment" along with a draft "The Prevention of Torture Bill, 2017".

As Criminal Laws are in the Concurrent List, this Report along with the draft Bill has been circulated to the State Governments/UTs for their views". It is primarily the responsibility of the State Government to appropriately prevent and ensure non-occurrence of police atrocities and protect the Human Rights of the citizen. However, the Central Government issues advisories and the NHRC issues guidelines/procedure to be followed in cases of death caused in Police action from time to time. Pursuant to the guidelines framed by NHRC, every death in custody (Judicial and Police) and rapes in custody are to be reported to NHRC within 24 hours of its occurrence. In all such case, the Commission calls for various reports including the inquest, post-mortem, videography of postmortem, magisterial inquiry report for ascertaining foul play or negligence, if any which resulted in the death.

During various workshops, seminars and camp sittings, the Commission sensitizes senior officers in State Governments for better protection of Human Rights.

Q. Treaties do not create either obligations or rights for third states without their consent. Fundamental principle of international law accepted by the international community from which no derogation is permitted under any circumstances. Prohibition of torture is a non-degorable obligation on the State.

Phulistan has an extradition treaty with Gulistan under which the extradited individual should not be tortured or killed. Gulistan has an extradition treaty with Fakedesh too; but that doesn't specify anything about torture. X is a most wanted terrorist in Fakedesh and is a suspect in a bomb blast in Gulistan. He was captured in Phulistan and was extradited on request to Gulistan. When the charges against him were withdrawn because of lack of evidence, he was extradited to Fakedesh on its request. Fakedesh employed various torture techniques on him. When Phulistan came to know of this, it raised an issue in the international forum against the torture meted out to X. Fakedesh replied that as it isn't a party to the extradition treaty between Phulistan and Gulistan, it needn't follow the rule of not using torture. Decide:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 95 Correct Answer is (d)

Non-derogable obligation can never be violated, even by treaties. Therefore, there needn't be a specific clause in the treaty agreement for Fakedesh to not commit the act of torturing X.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 96

On October 13, 2019, Pradeep Tomar, a security guard, rushed with his 10-year-old son to Pilkhua police station in Hapur district in Uttar Pradesh. He had been summoned for interrogation in connection with a murder case. The son later said that his father was brutally tortured by the policemen in front of him for hours. When Tomar's condition deteriorated he was rushed to hospital, where he died. An FIR was registered against four policemen after the National Human Rights Commission took note of the case.

These incidents have brought into sharp focus the way Indian policemen torture and interrogate suspects in their custody leading to death in several cases. Strictures passed against policemen from time to time by learned judges of various courts notwithstanding, the police continue to brazenly torture suspects in their custody.

Custodial deaths have been on the increase in recent years. They increased by 9% from 92 in 2016 to 100 in 2017, according to the National Crime Records Bureau.

The Supreme Court delivered a historic order in 2006 on police reforms. It stated, among other things, that every State should have a Police Complaints Authority where any citizen can lodge a complaint against policemen for any act of misdemeanour. However, only a few States have implemented the order. Others have not taken the matter seriously. The Law Commission on 30.10.2017 submitted its 273rd Report on "Implementation of United Nations Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman and Degrading Treatment or Punishment" along with a draft "The Prevention of Torture Bill, 2017".

As Criminal Laws are in the Concurrent List, this Report along with the draft Bill has been circulated to the State Governments/UTs for their views". It is primarily the responsibility of the State Government to appropriately prevent and ensure non-occurrence of police atrocities and protect the Human Rights of the citizen. However, the Central Government issues advisories and the NHRC issues guidelines/procedure to be followed in cases of death caused in Police action from time to time. Pursuant to the guidelines framed by NHRC, every death in custody (Judicial and Police) and rapes in custody are to be reported to NHRC within 24 hours of its occurrence. In all such case, the Commission calls for various reports including the inquest, post-mortem, videography of postmortem, magisterial inquiry report for ascertaining foul play or negligence, if any which resulted in the death.

During various workshops, seminars and camp sittings, the Commission sensitizes senior officers in State Governments for better protection of Human Rights.

Q. As per the provision of Indian Penal Code, if a person voluntarily causes hurt for the purpose of extorting confession from the sufferer or any information which may lead to the detection of an offence, he shall be punishable with imprisonment. X, a police officer tortures Y, to tell him where the stolen property was kept by him. Has X committed any offence?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 96 Correct Answer is (b) Torturing a person in pursuance of detection of crime amounts to voluntarily causing hurt for the purpose of extorting confession and hence an offence. 'X' is liable.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 97

Like many Gadia Lohars in Delhi, Sankhla and her family spent a good part of their lives recovering from road-side demolitions while they struggled to make ends meet.

Some of the challenges they have faced are the basics of everyday life, such as access to toilets and drinking water.

Q. Which of the following could be inferred from the information provided above?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 97 Option (b) is correct as the passage mentions that Sankhla and his family have struggled with this problem throughout their life, thus they are prolonged problems. The fact that they don't have access to toilets and drinking water proves that it's a severe problem.

All other options are incorrect as they fail to justify the severity and the permanent nature of the problem.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 98

The young people are more overpowered by concerns.

They did not see the struggles and they did not know the value of a union territory status, so they were more overpowered by the concerns of what will happen to the land, to the people, to the demography, and so on.

Q. The concern of young people about the union territory status could be attributed to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 98 Option (a) is correct as the passage stresses that the lack of ability of the youth to realise the importance of the UT status is a major reason behind their fixation with their concerns.

All other options are incorrect as they do not mention the reason behind the youth's focus on the only their concerns without focusing on the positive aspects of the status.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 99

Iconic batsman Sachin Tendulkar has vehemently opposed the International Cricket Council's proposed "four-day test", urging the governing body to refrain from "tinkering" with a format in which the spinners come into play on the final day. The ICC wants to change the 143-year old five-day format to four days with more emphasis on limited-overs cricket for the next cycle but it has met with stiff resistance across the globe from leading stars including Virat Kohli, Ricky Ponting, Justin Langer and Nathan Lyon to name a few. A day less, according to the world's highest run-getter across two formats, will lead to batsmen thinking of tests as an extended version of limited-overs cricket.

According to Sachin, "Taking away the fifth day track from a spinner is like taking away the first day track from a fast bowler."

Q. Which of the following can be inferred conclusively with respect to fast bowlers on the basis of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 99 Refer to the last line of the passage, "Taking away the fifth day track from a spinner is like taking away the first day track from a fast bowler." Thus, the only conclusion that can be drawn is that fast bowlers usually bowl on the first day of the match.

The other options cannot be concluded based on the information given in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 100

Iconic batsman Sachin Tendulkar has vehemently opposed the International Cricket Council's proposed "four-day test", urging the governing body to refrain from "tinkering" with a format in which the spinners come into play on the final day. The ICC wants to change the 143-year old five-day format to four days with more emphasis on limited-overs cricket for the next cycle but it has met with stiff resistance across the globe from leading stars including Virat Kohli, Ricky Ponting, Justin Langer and Nathan Lyon to name a few. A day less, according to the world's highest run-getter across two formats, will lead to batsmen thinking of tests as an extended version of limited-overs cricket.

According to Sachin, "Taking away the fifth day track from a spinner is like taking away the first day track from a fast bowler."

Q. Which of the following is the main conclusion of Sachin's statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 100 The main argument made by Sachin is that the ICC should not tinker with a set format that involves different players on different days of the game. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer. The other options are not indicated anywhere in the passage.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 101

Britain's foreign secretary has said that targeting cultural sites in Iran would breach international warfare conventions in an implicit rebuke to Donald Trump for threatening to bomb protected heritage sites. Dominic Raab did not criticise the US president directly over his threats, but said: "We have been very clear that cultural sites are protected under international law and we would expect that to be respected." The senior British minister was speaking after Trump said he could target 52 Iranian sites if Iran retaliated over the assassination of Qassem Suleimani - "some at a very high level and important to Iran and the Iranian culture".

Q. Out of the following options, which one can be an appropriate logical corollary to the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 101 Options (a), (b) and (c) are out of scope. They cannot be corollaries. There is no mention of Raab in the passage and so, option (a) is out. Since the passage talks about a threat by Trump, option (d) is the most suitable alternative.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 102

Britain's foreign secretary has said that targeting cultural sites in Iran would breach international warfare conventions in an implicit rebuke to Donald Trump for threatening to bomb protected heritage sites. Dominic Raab did not criticise the US president directly over his threats, but said: "We have been very clear that cultural sites are protected under international law and we would expect that to be respected." The senior British minister was speaking after Trump said he could target 52 Iranian sites if Iran retaliated over the assassination of Qassem Suleimani - "some at a very high level and important to Iran and the Iranian culture".

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 102 If the cultural sites are already in ruins, any further military action will hardly have a negative impact.

Using drones and ground forces might entail damage to the cultural sites and so, options (a) and (d) actually strengthen Britain's stand vis-à-vis the American campaign against Iran.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 103

Britain's foreign secretary has said that targeting cultural sites in Iran would breach international warfare conventions in an implicit rebuke to Donald Trump for threatening to bomb protected heritage sites. Dominic Raab did not criticise the US president directly over his threats, but said: "We have been very clear that cultural sites are protected under international law and we would expect that to be respected." The senior British minister was speaking after Trump said he could target 52 Iranian sites if Iran retaliated over the assassination of Qassem Suleimani - "some at a very high level and important to Iran and the Iranian culture".

Q. In the light of the passage, what can be inferred?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 103 There is of course a distinct possibility that Iran will retaliate and so, Trump has issued the warning.

There is no mention that Britain's cultural heritage dates back to thousands of years. We are also not sure whether Britain is an ally of the US. Hence, option (d) is out. Option (a) is out of scope.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 104

The world must eradicate pesticide use, prioritise naturebased farming methods and urgently reduce water, light and noise pollution to save plummeting insect populations, according to a new "roadmap to insect recovery" compiled by experts. The call to action by more than 70 scientists from across the planet advocates immediate action on human stress factors to insects which include habitat loss and fragmentation, the climate crisis, pollution, overharvesting and invasive species. Phasing out synthetic pesticides and fertilisers used in industrial farming and aggressive greenhouse gas emission reductions are among a series of urgent "no-regret" solutions to reverse what conservationists have called the "unnoticed insect apocalypse".

Q. Out of the following options, which one is a logical corollary to the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 104 There is no mention of a paper in the passage and hence, options (c) and (d) are out. Option (a) is out of scope and doesn't have any direct link with the passage.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 105

The world must eradicate pesticide use, prioritise naturebased farming methods and urgently reduce water, light and noise pollution to save plummeting insect populations, according to a new "roadmap to insect recovery" compiled by experts. The call to action by more than 70 scientists from across the planet advocates immediate action on human stress factors to insects which include habitat loss and fragmentation, the climate crisis, pollution, overharvesting and invasive species. Phasing out synthetic pesticides and fertilisers used in industrial farming and aggressive greenhouse gas emission reductions are among a series of urgent "no-regret" solutions to reverse what conservationists have called the "unnoticed insect apocalypse".

Q. Out of the following options, which one can be inferred to reflect the central idea of the given passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 105 The author talks about prioritizing the survival of insects. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer because it speaks about a 'roadmap' that can 'reverse' the decline of the insect population. Options (a), (b) and (c) are narrow in scope and don't encompass the entire passage.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 106

The world must eradicate pesticide use, prioritise naturebased farming methods and urgently reduce water, light and noise pollution to save plummeting insect populations, according to a new "roadmap to insect recovery" compiled by experts. The call to action by more than 70 scientists from across the planet advocates immediate action on human stress factors to insects which include habitat loss and fragmentation, the climate crisis, pollution, overharvesting and invasive species. Phasing out synthetic pesticides and fertilisers used in industrial farming and aggressive greenhouse gas emission reductions are among a series of urgent "no-regret" solutions to reverse what conservationists have called the "unnoticed insect apocalypse".

Q. The author of the passage is most likely to agree with which of the following:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 106 The passage talks about the decreasing insect population. Hence, option (c) is the answer because it reiterates what the passage says. Options (a) and (b) are out of scope and hence, cannot be the right answers. Option (d) states exactly the opposite of what the passage says.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 107

Anita: I sold my house through a real estate agent last year and was happy with the price that I received. My house was sold quickly, and I did not have to suffer any advertising hassles. I would advise against selling your house through Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings.

Babita: It is in the interest of the Internet websites, newspapers and magazines to get me the best price for my property because they are a relatively new medium wanting to establish themselves. Besides, their fee is dependent on the selling price. Therefore, while selling my house I will certainly use Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings rather than trying to sell the house through a real estate agent.

Q. All of the following statements are strengthening Babita’s argument. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 107 The main point of contention between Anita’s and Babita’s arguments is the price obtained for properties sold through the two mediums—real estate agents and online mediums. While Anita believes that houses sold through real estate agents fetch a good price, Babita believes that sales made through Internet websites, newspapers and magazines get the best price. The reason she gives for the same is that these mediums are relatively new, and they want to establish themselves. Besides, their fee is also dependent on the selling price. All the arguments given strengthen Babita’s claim except option (c). If there are people who pay these websites to find them a less expensive house, then it is plausible that these websites will actually try to sell the houses at a lower price, as it would result in greater benefit for them.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 108

Anita: I sold my house through a real estate agent last year and was happy with the price that I received. My house was sold quickly, and I did not have to suffer any advertising hassles. I would advise against selling your house through Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings.

Babita: It is in the interest of the Internet websites, newspapers and magazines to get me the best price for my property because they are a relatively new medium wanting to establish themselves. Besides, their fee is dependent on the selling price. Therefore, while selling my house I will certainly use Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings rather than trying to sell the house through a real estate agent.

Q. Which of the following is the closest to the argument made by Babita in terms of its underlying rationale?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 108 Babita’s main argument is that internet sites, newspapers and magazines try to get the best deals for their customers as they want to establish themselves in the market and because their own commissions are dependent on the selling prices.

The only option that mirrors this rationale is option (c). Options (a) and (d) actually work in favor of Anita’s argument. Option (b) is not directly related to Babita’s claim.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 109

Anita: I sold my house through a real estate agent last year and was happy with the price that I received. My house was sold quickly, and I did not have to suffer any advertising hassles. I would advise against selling your house through Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings.

Babita: It is in the interest of the Internet websites, newspapers and magazines to get me the best price for my property because they are a relatively new medium wanting to establish themselves. Besides, their fee is dependent on the selling price. Therefore, while selling my house I will certainly use Internet websites, newspapers or magazine listings rather than trying to sell the house through a real estate agent.

Q. Which of the following weakens Anita’s claim?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 109 The reasons for Anita preferring real estate agents are:
  • Good price

  • Quick sale

  • No advertising hassles

Any statement that challenges any of these attributes will weaken her claim. Thus, option (a) which states that real estate agents actually take more time to make a sale is the correct answer.

Options (b) and (c) strengthen her claim while option (d) goes beyond the scope of the passage. It is not necessary that international trends will be applicable in a local setting as well.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 110

With that deadline now a decade away, the world is set to miss most of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Just two of them — eliminating preventable deaths among newborns and under-fives and getting children into primary schools — are closest among all the goals to being achieved. By contrast, the goal to eliminate extreme poverty will not be met because some 430 million people are expected still to be living in such conditions in 2030.

Targets to end hunger and to protect climate and biodiversity are completely off track. Whereas some of the richer countries are making a degree of progress in the SDGs overall, two-thirds of poorer ones are not expected to meet those that relate even to their most basic needs.

Q. What can be concluded from the above?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 110 Refer to the opening lines of the passage. It clearly states that “Just two of them — eliminating preventable deaths among newborns and under fives and getting children into primary schools — are closest among all the goals to being achieved.” From this, option (c) can be inferred. Option (a) is a vague statement that has no relation with the facts presented in the passage. Options (b) and (d) contradict the information given in the passage.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 111

With that deadline now a decade away, the world is set to miss most of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Just two of them — eliminating preventable deaths among newborns and under-fives and getting children into primary schools — are closest among all the goals to being achieved. By contrast, the goal to eliminate extreme poverty will not be met because some 430 million people are expected still to be living in such conditions in 2030.

Targets to end hunger and to protect climate and biodiversity are completely off track. Whereas some of the richer countries are making a degree of progress in the SDGs overall, two-thirds of poorer ones are not expected to meet those that relate even to their most basic needs.

Q. With regards to the achievement of the SDGs, what is the one inference that can be drawn based on the information given above?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 111 The passage mentions that two-thirds of poorer ones are not expected to meet those that relate even to their most basic needs. From this, we cannot make inferences about the remaining one-third countries.

Firstly, we don’t know whether poorer and developing refer to the same countries or not. Also, no information has been provided regarding the developed countries and their SDGs. Though commonsense suggests that these countries would have met the SDGs regarding basic needs, we cannot make any inferences based on external knowledge. Similarly, though the passage states that some 430 million people are expected still to be living in such conditions in 2030, we cannot conclude whether this is a majority or just a significant part of the population. Only option (d) is the correct inference that can be drawn based on the statement, “Targets to end hunger and to protect climate and biodiversity are completely off track.”

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 112

With that deadline now a decade away, the world is set to miss most of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Just two of them — eliminating preventable deaths among newborns and under-fives and getting children into primary schools — are closest among all the goals to being achieved. By contrast, the goal to eliminate extreme poverty will not be met because some 430 million people are expected still to be living in such conditions in 2030.

Targets to end hunger and to protect climate and biodiversity are completely off track. Whereas some of the richer countries are making a degree of progress in the SDGs overall, two-thirds of poorer ones are not expected to meet those that relate even to their most basic needs.

Q. Which of the following facts agree with the claims made in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 112 The passage claims that targets with respect to eliminating poverty and removing hunger are completely off track. The information that supports this claim is given in option (a). The passage states that the goal of getting children into primary schools is close to being met, but the information given in options (b) and (c) talks about schooling in general.

Hence, they can be eliminated. Option (d) actually challenges the information in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 113

Most people are aware that diabetes has reached epidemic proportions worldwide, with India being no exception.

Statistics show that India is home to over 68 million patients with diabetes, and it is no surprise that various health conferences and esteemed policymakers have been discussing ways to increase early intervention in the management and control of the disease.

However, the relevance of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and the significance of its prevention and management in the fight against diabetes is often undermined. GDM is detected during the gestational period, i.e., when a woman is expecting a child. It occurs in women of reproductive age, particularly in those who have high blood glucose levels during pregnancy.

GDM remains confined to the corridors of obstetric wards and labour delivery-rooms, limiting the visibility of the condition with policymakers and healthcare administrators.

Making people aware about such conditions should be the first priority for healthcare.

Q. The argument presented in the first paragraph can be best described as:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 113 The author introduces diabetes as a worldwide epidemic. He highlights a sample of 68 million Indian patients with diabetes, and draws a conclusion that various health conferences and esteemed policymakers have been discussing ways to increase early intervention in the management and control of the disease. This is an inductive generalization. So, the correct answer is (d).

Incorrect Answers:

(a), (b) and (c) - These are not the reasoning used by the author.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 114

Most people are aware that diabetes has reached epidemic proportions worldwide, with India being no exception.

Statistics show that India is home to over 68 million patients with diabetes, and it is no surprise that various health conferences and esteemed policymakers have been discussing ways to increase early intervention in the management and control of the disease.

However, the relevance of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and the significance of its prevention and management in the fight against diabetes is often undermined. GDM is detected during the gestational period, i.e., when a woman is expecting a child. It occurs in women of reproductive age, particularly in those who have high blood glucose levels during pregnancy.

GDM remains confined to the corridors of obstetric wards and labour delivery-rooms, limiting the visibility of the condition with policymakers and healthcare administrators.

Making people aware about such conditions should be the first priority for healthcare.

Q. Why does the author highlight Gestational Diabetes Mellitus as a severe type of diabetes in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 114 The correct answer is (b) as the author wants authorities and medical professionals to spread awareness about Gestational Diabetes Mellitus, since deficiency of information on it can cause problems.

Incorrect Answers:

(a), (c) and (d) are incorrect as they contain information that has not been mentioned anywhere in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 115

Most people are aware that diabetes has reached epidemic proportions worldwide, with India being no exception.

Statistics show that India is home to over 68 million patients with diabetes, and it is no surprise that various health conferences and esteemed policymakers have been discussing ways to increase early intervention in the management and control of the disease.

However, the relevance of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and the significance of its prevention and management in the fight against diabetes is often undermined. GDM is detected during the gestational period, i.e., when a woman is expecting a child. It occurs in women of reproductive age, particularly in those who have high blood glucose levels during pregnancy.

GDM remains confined to the corridors of obstetric wards and labour delivery-rooms, limiting the visibility of the condition with policymakers and healthcare administrators.

Making people aware about such conditions should be the first priority for healthcare.

Q. Which of the following is similar to the line of reasoning of the author in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 115 This is a parallel reasoning question - you are asked to identify the answer choice which has a similar reasoning to that of the argument presented in the last paragraph. The argument in the passage is that people should be made aware about a certain type of diabetes that is confined to only to the corridors of obstetric wards and labour deliveryrooms, limiting the visibility of the condition with policymakers and healthcare administrators. He means that even though most people are aware of it they do not know much about Gestational Diabetes Mellitus. This reasoning can be found in answer choice (b)

Incorrect answers: (a), (c) and (d) - These do not follow the same line of reasoning as the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 116

Most people are aware that diabetes has reached epidemic proportions worldwide, with India being no exception.

Statistics show that India is home to over 68 million patients with diabetes, and it is no surprise that various health conferences and esteemed policymakers have been discussing ways to increase early intervention in the management and control of the disease.

However, the relevance of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and the significance of its prevention and management in the fight against diabetes is often undermined. GDM is detected during the gestational period, i.e., when a woman is expecting a child. It occurs in women of reproductive age, particularly in those who have high blood glucose levels during pregnancy.

GDM remains confined to the corridors of obstetric wards and labour delivery-rooms, limiting the visibility of the condition with policymakers and healthcare administrators.

Making people aware about such conditions should be the first priority for healthcare.

Q. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the argument made by the author?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 116 (c) is the correct answer, if true, as it opposes the main purpose of the author in the passage. He wants to spread awareness about Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) because not many people know about it. Here, it assumes that people already know about it.

Incorrect Answers: (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect answers as they support the argument of the author mentioned in the passage and strengthen his argument instead of weakening it.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 117

The world has been obsessed with fairness. Our country's obsession with fair skin is also no secret. We have fairness creams, fairness face-wash, fairness soaps, stuff to make your underarms fair, and I am wondering why no one hasn't still come up with something that will make your elbows sparkling white or your heels as white as the paneer in the fridge.

In our conversations, dark complexion is often subconsciously made out to be a flaw or shortcoming.

Ask anyone with dark skin, he or she must have been told at least once in life how good-looking he/she is 'despite being dark'. And while speaking or writing about Bollywood, we quickly slot anyone any shade darker than milk, as 'unconventional' looking. How kind of them to even call darker-skinned people 'talented', 'beauties' or some such.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument presented in the second paragraph?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 117 You are asked to identify the statement which weakens the argument in the second paragraph.

The author explains sadly how the color of skin has been an important influence in deciding who gets to act or be the most charming lady in Bollywood. Statement (a) claims that people are judged according to their abilities rather than their skin colour. Since, this opposes the thought presented by the author, it weakens the argument presented by the author in the second paragraph.

Incorrect answers: (b), (c) and (d) give information that supports the argument and hence cannot weaken the argument.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 118

The world has been obsessed with fairness. Our country's obsession with fair skin is also no secret. We have fairness creams, fairness face-wash, fairness soaps, stuff to make your underarms fair, and I am wondering why no one hasn't still come up with something that will make your elbows sparkling white or your heels as white as the paneer in the fridge.

In our conversations, dark complexion is often subconsciously made out to be a flaw or shortcoming.

Ask anyone with dark skin, he or she must have been told at least once in life how good-looking he/she is 'despite being dark'. And while speaking or writing about Bollywood, we quickly slot anyone any shade darker than milk, as 'unconventional' looking. How kind of them to even call darker-skinned people 'talented', 'beauties' or some such.

Q. Which of the following is LEAST consistent with the author's reasoning in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 118 The correct answer is (c) as it is against the thoughts expressed by the author in the passage. The author emphasizes how the skin color emerges out as an influential factor in deciding whether a person is beautiful or not. He states that people ignore the features and other skills and take skin color as an initial parameter. Since, statement (c) opposes this thought it is least consistent with the line of reasoning followed by the author in the passage.

Incorrect Answers: (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect as each of them is consistent with the author's reasoning in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 119

The world has been obsessed with fairness. Our country's obsession with fair skin is also no secret. We have fairness creams, fairness face-wash, fairness soaps, stuff to make your underarms fair, and I am wondering why no one hasn't still come up with something that will make your elbows sparkling white or your heels as white as the paneer in the fridge.

In our conversations, dark complexion is often subconsciously made out to be a flaw or shortcoming.

Ask anyone with dark skin, he or she must have been told at least once in life how good-looking he/she is 'despite being dark'. And while speaking or writing about Bollywood, we quickly slot anyone any shade darker than milk, as 'unconventional' looking. How kind of them to even call darker-skinned people 'talented', 'beauties' or some such.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred as a view that the author will most definitely agree with?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 119 The correct answer is (a) as the author has himself highlighted how skin color is a dominant factor in deciding how an actress fares in Bollywood. Not only in Bollywood people as viewers and in general prefer fair skinned people and assume that to be more charming than people with dark skin. Since, this supports the argument presented by the author, he is most likely to agree with.

Incorrect Answers: Statements (b), (c) and (d) oppose the argument presented by the author and state that color of the skin does not influence anything. Since the author wants to highlight the negative aspects and not the positive aspects in this passage, he is most likely to disagree with these statements.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 120

The world has been obsessed with fairness. Our country's obsession with fair skin is also no secret. We have fairness creams, fairness face-wash, fairness soaps, stuff to make your underarms fair, and I am wondering why no one hasn't still come up with something that will make your elbows sparkling white or your heels as white as the paneer in the fridge.

In our conversations, dark complexion is often subconsciously made out to be a flaw or shortcoming.

Ask anyone with dark skin, he or she must have been told at least once in life how good-looking he/she is 'despite being dark'. And while speaking or writing about Bollywood, we quickly slot anyone any shade darker than milk, as 'unconventional' looking. How kind of them to even call darker-skinned people 'talented', 'beauties' or some such.

Q. Which one of the following is the main conclusion of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 120 (c) is the main conclusion of the passage as the author wants to highlight how skin color has become one of the major factors that reflect the beauty of a person. He is not happy with this attitude and presents this thought as the main conclusion of the passage. Statement (c) states that skin color should not be a parameter and hence is the correct option.

Incorrect Answers: (b) and (d) are incorrect conclusions as they are inconsistent with the thoughts of the author. (a) is an incomplete conclusion and cannot be the main conclusion.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 121

Riya: I think that the proponents of the death penalty are incorrect in their belief that the death penalty deters homicide. They are responsible for the execution of murderers who should not have been executed.

Priya: I think that the opponents of the death penalty are incorrect in their belief that the death penalty doesn't deter homicide. They are responsible for the murder of innocent individuals who would not have been murdered if the death penalty had been invoked.

Q. Which of the following strengthens Riya's argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 121 Riya thinks that death penalty doesn't deter homicide. (a) would weaken her argument because a country with strong death penalty laws has a lower homicidal rate. (b) again weakens her argument. (c) neither weakens, nor strengthens the argument as the two countries have different sociolegal conditions, different death penalty laws, and the relative strength of these laws or the relative measure of homicidal rates is not given to us. (d) strengthens Riya's argument because even after having strong death penalty laws, X's homicide rate is higher than that of Y, a similar country without any death penalty laws. That means the laws haven't deterred homicide.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 122

Riya: I think that the proponents of the death penalty are incorrect in their belief that the death penalty deters homicide. They are responsible for the execution of murderers who should not have been executed.

Priya: I think that the opponents of the death penalty are incorrect in their belief that the death penalty doesn't deter homicide. They are responsible for the murder of innocent individuals who would not have been murdered if the death penalty had been invoked.

Q. What is the relationship between Riya's and Priya's argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 122 Priya's argument is clearly a counter to Riya's. Hence (d).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 123

Riya: I think that the proponents of the death penalty are incorrect in their belief that the death penalty deters homicide. They are responsible for the execution of murderers who should not have been executed.

Priya: I think that the opponents of the death penalty are incorrect in their belief that the death penalty doesn't deter homicide. They are responsible for the murder of innocent individuals who would not have been murdered if the death penalty had been invoked.

Q. After some research and analysis, it was found that Riya's argument was correct. Based on the findings, Country X repealed its death penalty law.

However, on doing this, its homicidal rate increased.

Which of the following would help resolve this paradox?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 6 - Question 123 Options (a) and (c) can't be the answers because they kill one of the contradictory situations of the paradox. If they were true, the situation wouldn't be paradoxical. In (b), as the economic conditions have improved, the homicidal rate should have fallen. So this also doesn't resolve the paradox. (d) is the answer because the homicidal rate of a country is a fraction with the number of people killed by another as the numerator and the total population of the country as the denominator. As a lot of citizens have been killed, the denominator has gone down, thus increasing the rate.