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Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9


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150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT | Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9

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Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 1

Poetry is an art form that has survived for thousands and thousands of years. We study it in school, and we hear quotes from poems scattered throughout our life.

But do we ever truly make meaning of it? Does it even matter? My answer to you is yes it does. Reading poetry and or writing poetry can drastically improve your life.

Poetry is one of the most powerful forms of writing because it takes the English language, a language we believe we know, and transforms it. The pattern of the sentences sounds new and melodious. It is truly another language exclusively for the writer and the reader. No poem can be read in the same way, because the words mean something different to each of us. For this reason, many find poetry an elusive art form. However, the issue in understanding poetry lies in how you read poetry.

Anyone who writes poetry can attest, you have to write it with an open heart. So, as a reader, we must do the same. Opening your heart to poetry is the only way to get fulfillment from it.

From a writer's perspective, writing poetry can be equally elusive as reading poetry. When I first started writing poetry, the advice I always heard was practice, find your voice, keep a journal. I did all these things but still my poems were flat and inert. What was I missing? I poured over poems by Angelou, Shakespeare, Austen, and Wilde looking for a pattern, something I could emulate. This was the problem. I was unwilling to open my heart. I thought poetry could be a mask I could craft. But no matter how beautiful I made it; it would never come to life. It would never fit on another person's face. It did not ever fit on mine.

My first poem that came alive was written in the dark late at night. Vulnerability was the key. Poetry is about expressing those thoughts and feelings we keep the most suppressed. We must be honest with ourselves about what we feel in order to write anything worth reading. It's stopping and grabbing a thought by the tail and pulling it up into our conscious mind. It's trying to express the beauty, and wonder we see. It's about connecting our hearts and our minds to ourselves and our surroundings.

It's about finding peace.

So, reach for the pen, and let go of those things that have been burdening your freedom. Read poetry with your heart and let it affect you. The answer to our questions about the meaning of life, and the purpose of pain were written in poems. They have always been there.

Q. Which of the following best describes the writing style of the author?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 1 Option (b) is the correct answer as the author shares his personal experience to guide the reader about poetry writing in an immersive way.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 2

Poetry is an art form that has survived for thousands and thousands of years. We study it in school, and we hear quotes from poems scattered throughout our life.

But do we ever truly make meaning of it? Does it even matter? My answer to you is yes it does. Reading poetry and or writing poetry can drastically improve your life.

Poetry is one of the most powerful forms of writing because it takes the English language, a language we believe we know, and transforms it. The pattern of the sentences sounds new and melodious. It is truly another language exclusively for the writer and the reader. No poem can be read in the same way, because the words mean something different to each of us. For this reason, many find poetry an elusive art form. However, the issue in understanding poetry lies in how you read poetry.

Anyone who writes poetry can attest, you have to write it with an open heart. So, as a reader, we must do the same. Opening your heart to poetry is the only way to get fulfillment from it.

From a writer's perspective, writing poetry can be equally elusive as reading poetry. When I first started writing poetry, the advice I always heard was practice, find your voice, keep a journal. I did all these things but still my poems were flat and inert. What was I missing? I poured over poems by Angelou, Shakespeare, Austen, and Wilde looking for a pattern, something I could emulate. This was the problem. I was unwilling to open my heart. I thought poetry could be a mask I could craft. But no matter how beautiful I made it; it would never come to life. It would never fit on another person's face. It did not ever fit on mine.

My first poem that came alive was written in the dark late at night. Vulnerability was the key. Poetry is about expressing those thoughts and feelings we keep the most suppressed. We must be honest with ourselves about what we feel in order to write anything worth reading. It's stopping and grabbing a thought by the tail and pulling it up into our conscious mind. It's trying to express the beauty, and wonder we see. It's about connecting our hearts and our minds to ourselves and our surroundings.

It's about finding peace.

So, reach for the pen, and let go of those things that have been burdening your freedom. Read poetry with your heart and let it affect you. The answer to our questions about the meaning of life, and the purpose of pain were written in poems. They have always been there.

Q. Which of the following is required to realize the true essence of poetry?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 2 Option (c) is the correct answer as the author stresses on the importance of the willingness to explore poems with an open mind and heart.

According to the author this help in realizing the true meaning behind poems. All other options are incorrect as they do not address the point about the way one should approach poetry. They make physical remarks that have not been addressed in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 3

Poetry is an art form that has survived for thousands and thousands of years. We study it in school, and we hear quotes from poems scattered throughout our life.

But do we ever truly make meaning of it? Does it even matter? My answer to you is yes it does. Reading poetry and or writing poetry can drastically improve your life.

Poetry is one of the most powerful forms of writing because it takes the English language, a language we believe we know, and transforms it. The pattern of the sentences sounds new and melodious. It is truly another language exclusively for the writer and the reader. No poem can be read in the same way, because the words mean something different to each of us. For this reason, many find poetry an elusive art form. However, the issue in understanding poetry lies in how you read poetry.

Anyone who writes poetry can attest, you have to write it with an open heart. So, as a reader, we must do the same. Opening your heart to poetry is the only way to get fulfillment from it.

From a writer's perspective, writing poetry can be equally elusive as reading poetry. When I first started writing poetry, the advice I always heard was practice, find your voice, keep a journal. I did all these things but still my poems were flat and inert. What was I missing? I poured over poems by Angelou, Shakespeare, Austen, and Wilde looking for a pattern, something I could emulate. This was the problem. I was unwilling to open my heart. I thought poetry could be a mask I could craft. But no matter how beautiful I made it; it would never come to life. It would never fit on another person's face. It did not ever fit on mine.

My first poem that came alive was written in the dark late at night. Vulnerability was the key. Poetry is about expressing those thoughts and feelings we keep the most suppressed. We must be honest with ourselves about what we feel in order to write anything worth reading. It's stopping and grabbing a thought by the tail and pulling it up into our conscious mind. It's trying to express the beauty, and wonder we see. It's about connecting our hearts and our minds to ourselves and our surroundings.

It's about finding peace.

So, reach for the pen, and let go of those things that have been burdening your freedom. Read poetry with your heart and let it affect you. The answer to our questions about the meaning of life, and the purpose of pain were written in poems. They have always been there.

Q. According to the writer, what makes a poem worth reading?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 3 Option (b) is correct as clarity of thought is essential to quality poetry-writing. This clarity could only be achieved by being completely honest about oneself and about one's feelings.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 4

Poetry is an art form that has survived for thousands and thousands of years. We study it in school, and we hear quotes from poems scattered throughout our life.

But do we ever truly make meaning of it? Does it even matter? My answer to you is yes it does. Reading poetry and or writing poetry can drastically improve your life.

Poetry is one of the most powerful forms of writing because it takes the English language, a language we believe we know, and transforms it. The pattern of the sentences sounds new and melodious. It is truly another language exclusively for the writer and the reader. No poem can be read in the same way, because the words mean something different to each of us. For this reason, many find poetry an elusive art form. However, the issue in understanding poetry lies in how you read poetry.

Anyone who writes poetry can attest, you have to write it with an open heart. So, as a reader, we must do the same. Opening your heart to poetry is the only way to get fulfillment from it.

From a writer's perspective, writing poetry can be equally elusive as reading poetry. When I first started writing poetry, the advice I always heard was practice, find your voice, keep a journal. I did all these things but still my poems were flat and inert. What was I missing? I poured over poems by Angelou, Shakespeare, Austen, and Wilde looking for a pattern, something I could emulate. This was the problem. I was unwilling to open my heart. I thought poetry could be a mask I could craft. But no matter how beautiful I made it; it would never come to life. It would never fit on another person's face. It did not ever fit on mine.

My first poem that came alive was written in the dark late at night. Vulnerability was the key. Poetry is about expressing those thoughts and feelings we keep the most suppressed. We must be honest with ourselves about what we feel in order to write anything worth reading. It's stopping and grabbing a thought by the tail and pulling it up into our conscious mind. It's trying to express the beauty, and wonder we see. It's about connecting our hearts and our minds to ourselves and our surroundings.

It's about finding peace.

So, reach for the pen, and let go of those things that have been burdening your freedom. Read poetry with your heart and let it affect you. The answer to our questions about the meaning of life, and the purpose of pain were written in poems. They have always been there.

Q. As mentioned in the passage, "nuances" most nearly means

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 4 Option (d) is correct as in the context of the passage "nuances" means a very small difference in the meaning behind poetry.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 5

Poetry is an art form that has survived for thousands and thousands of years. We study it in school, and we hear quotes from poems scattered throughout our life.

But do we ever truly make meaning of it? Does it even matter? My answer to you is yes it does. Reading poetry and or writing poetry can drastically improve your life.

Poetry is one of the most powerful forms of writing because it takes the English language, a language we believe we know, and transforms it. The pattern of the sentences sounds new and melodious. It is truly another language exclusively for the writer and the reader. No poem can be read in the same way, because the words mean something different to each of us. For this reason, many find poetry an elusive art form. However, the issue in understanding poetry lies in how you read poetry.

Anyone who writes poetry can attest, you have to write it with an open heart. So, as a reader, we must do the same. Opening your heart to poetry is the only way to get fulfillment from it.

From a writer's perspective, writing poetry can be equally elusive as reading poetry. When I first started writing poetry, the advice I always heard was practice, find your voice, keep a journal. I did all these things but still my poems were flat and inert. What was I missing? I poured over poems by Angelou, Shakespeare, Austen, and Wilde looking for a pattern, something I could emulate. This was the problem. I was unwilling to open my heart. I thought poetry could be a mask I could craft. But no matter how beautiful I made it; it would never come to life. It would never fit on another person's face. It did not ever fit on mine.

My first poem that came alive was written in the dark late at night. Vulnerability was the key. Poetry is about expressing those thoughts and feelings we keep the most suppressed. We must be honest with ourselves about what we feel in order to write anything worth reading. It's stopping and grabbing a thought by the tail and pulling it up into our conscious mind. It's trying to express the beauty, and wonder we see. It's about connecting our hearts and our minds to ourselves and our surroundings.

It's about finding peace.

So, reach for the pen, and let go of those things that have been burdening your freedom. Read poetry with your heart and let it affect you. The answer to our questions about the meaning of life, and the purpose of pain were written in poems. They have always been there.

Q. Which of the following correctly mentions the demerit of emulating others in writing poetry?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 5 Option ( a) is correct as the author employs metaphors to convey the point of relating to others.

Putting on someone else's poetry as a mask is a metaphor for being able to relate to others. Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect as they make assumptions that are not a part of the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 6

British filmmaker Richard Curtis has written iconic popcultural classics like Mr. Bean, Four Weddings and a Funeral, Notting Hill and Bridget Jones's Diary. His directorial debut, Love Actually, remains a rare film that at once parodies, celebrates, and reclaims, storytelling's most bastardised genre. But Curtis' most accomplished movie has everything and nothing to do with his reputation as the King of (Romantic) Comedy.

About Time (2013), starring Irish actor Domhnall Gleeson in a breakthrough role, cleverly weaponises its maker's stature. It counts on the fact that we anticipate an innovative (buzzword: time travel) but typically breezy love story. But the girl-boy arc fades into the background, and the film subverts our expectations by instead morphing into a deeply contemplative and winning tragedy about human nature. Curtis virtually uses his own career as a smokescreen to transform About Time into an affecting ode to closure and its elastic relationship with time. Early in the film, a retired James (Bill Nighy) informs his son Tim, a boy on the verge of big-city adulthood, that the men of the family possess the power to travel back in time. Naturally, at first, Tim abuses this cosmic gift like any red-blooded, teething male hero would - to find, and refine, his pursuit of love. He meets Mary, an American girl, and manipulates time in a manner that compels her to fall for him. You'd imagine any writer at this point would be tempted to use time travel as the pivot to continue navigating the cross-cultural politics of companionship. But Curtis refrains from old-school gimmickry. He designs the narrative device as a trigger that forces Tim's conflict to be conceived in the personal chasm that separates selfishness from selflessness: The selfishness of love from the selflessness of family.

Tim's story gets us thinking: do some of us subconsciously fail to sustain romantic relationships because we're unwilling to snap that umbilical cord? Do we postpone marriage - a family, children, onwardness -to preserve the fading remnants of our family? To keep our history accessible? The film's lyrical circularity exposes an uncomfortable truth about life - that romance is inherently an act of self-preservation. That loving someone, often, is a mechanism aimed at leaving something - and some times - behind. We choose to get consumed by life so that its origins are exhumed no more. For every child Tim has, the more irrevocably he drifts away from his own childhood. Every birth is inextricably linked to his rebirth. For each milestone he crosses as a life partner, the rules of time travel - a cinematic allegory for the texture of remembrance - force him to live rather than relive. Love is, after all, the emotional manifestation of the precise moment the future decides to break up with the past.

Q. Which genre has been referred as to as the 'most bastardised genre' initially in the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 6 Option (d) is correct as the first paragraph mentions that the movie in consideration, 'Love Actually' is a romantic comedy.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 7

British filmmaker Richard Curtis has written iconic popcultural classics like Mr. Bean, Four Weddings and a Funeral, Notting Hill and Bridget Jones's Diary. His directorial debut, Love Actually, remains a rare film that at once parodies, celebrates, and reclaims, storytelling's most bastardised genre. But Curtis' most accomplished movie has everything and nothing to do with his reputation as the King of (Romantic) Comedy.

About Time (2013), starring Irish actor Domhnall Gleeson in a breakthrough role, cleverly weaponises its maker's stature. It counts on the fact that we anticipate an innovative (buzzword: time travel) but typically breezy love story. But the girl-boy arc fades into the background, and the film subverts our expectations by instead morphing into a deeply contemplative and winning tragedy about human nature. Curtis virtually uses his own career as a smokescreen to transform About Time into an affecting ode to closure and its elastic relationship with time. Early in the film, a retired James (Bill Nighy) informs his son Tim, a boy on the verge of big-city adulthood, that the men of the family possess the power to travel back in time. Naturally, at first, Tim abuses this cosmic gift like any red-blooded, teething male hero would - to find, and refine, his pursuit of love. He meets Mary, an American girl, and manipulates time in a manner that compels her to fall for him. You'd imagine any writer at this point would be tempted to use time travel as the pivot to continue navigating the cross-cultural politics of companionship. But Curtis refrains from old-school gimmickry. He designs the narrative device as a trigger that forces Tim's conflict to be conceived in the personal chasm that separates selfishness from selflessness: The selfishness of love from the selflessness of family.

Tim's story gets us thinking: do some of us subconsciously fail to sustain romantic relationships because we're unwilling to snap that umbilical cord? Do we postpone marriage - a family, children, onwardness -to preserve the fading remnants of our family? To keep our history accessible? The film's lyrical circularity exposes an uncomfortable truth about life - that romance is inherently an act of self-preservation. That loving someone, often, is a mechanism aimed at leaving something - and some times - behind. We choose to get consumed by life so that its origins are exhumed no more. For every child Tim has, the more irrevocably he drifts away from his own childhood. Every birth is inextricably linked to his rebirth. For each milestone he crosses as a life partner, the rules of time travel - a cinematic allegory for the texture of remembrance - force him to live rather than relive. Love is, after all, the emotional manifestation of the precise moment the future decides to break up with the past.

Q. How did Curtis refrain from following the usual story arc?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 7 Option (b) is the correct answer as it explains as to 'how' Curtis circumvents the usual story arc by not over-emphasizing on the usual expectations from movies based on time travel.

Option (a) contradicts the information provided in the passage, while the other options are irrelevant.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 8

British filmmaker Richard Curtis has written iconic popcultural classics like Mr. Bean, Four Weddings and a Funeral, Notting Hill and Bridget Jones's Diary. His directorial debut, Love Actually, remains a rare film that at once parodies, celebrates, and reclaims, storytelling's most bastardised genre. But Curtis' most accomplished movie has everything and nothing to do with his reputation as the King of (Romantic) Comedy.

About Time (2013), starring Irish actor Domhnall Gleeson in a breakthrough role, cleverly weaponises its maker's stature. It counts on the fact that we anticipate an innovative (buzzword: time travel) but typically breezy love story. But the girl-boy arc fades into the background, and the film subverts our expectations by instead morphing into a deeply contemplative and winning tragedy about human nature. Curtis virtually uses his own career as a smokescreen to transform About Time into an affecting ode to closure and its elastic relationship with time. Early in the film, a retired James (Bill Nighy) informs his son Tim, a boy on the verge of big-city adulthood, that the men of the family possess the power to travel back in time. Naturally, at first, Tim abuses this cosmic gift like any red-blooded, teething male hero would - to find, and refine, his pursuit of love. He meets Mary, an American girl, and manipulates time in a manner that compels her to fall for him. You'd imagine any writer at this point would be tempted to use time travel as the pivot to continue navigating the cross-cultural politics of companionship. But Curtis refrains from old-school gimmickry. He designs the narrative device as a trigger that forces Tim's conflict to be conceived in the personal chasm that separates selfishness from selflessness: The selfishness of love from the selflessness of family.

Tim's story gets us thinking: do some of us subconsciously fail to sustain romantic relationships because we're unwilling to snap that umbilical cord? Do we postpone marriage - a family, children, onwardness -to preserve the fading remnants of our family? To keep our history accessible? The film's lyrical circularity exposes an uncomfortable truth about life - that romance is inherently an act of self-preservation. That loving someone, often, is a mechanism aimed at leaving something - and some times - behind. We choose to get consumed by life so that its origins are exhumed no more. For every child Tim has, the more irrevocably he drifts away from his own childhood. Every birth is inextricably linked to his rebirth. For each milestone he crosses as a life partner, the rules of time travel - a cinematic allegory for the texture of remembrance - force him to live rather than relive. Love is, after all, the emotional manifestation of the precise moment the future decides to break up with the past.

Q. 'Loving someone, often, is a mechanism aimed at leaving something'- Which of the following statements most appropriately justifies this point?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 8 Option (c) is the correct choice as the notion put forward in the last paragraph focuses on the importance of letting things go in order to actually love someone. The importance of living over the need to relive. All other options are incorrect as they omit the above-mentioned detail.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 9

British filmmaker Richard Curtis has written iconic popcultural classics like Mr. Bean, Four Weddings and a Funeral, Notting Hill and Bridget Jones's Diary. His directorial debut, Love Actually, remains a rare film that at once parodies, celebrates, and reclaims, storytelling's most bastardised genre. But Curtis' most accomplished movie has everything and nothing to do with his reputation as the King of (Romantic) Comedy.

About Time (2013), starring Irish actor Domhnall Gleeson in a breakthrough role, cleverly weaponises its maker's stature. It counts on the fact that we anticipate an innovative (buzzword: time travel) but typically breezy love story. But the girl-boy arc fades into the background, and the film subverts our expectations by instead morphing into a deeply contemplative and winning tragedy about human nature. Curtis virtually uses his own career as a smokescreen to transform About Time into an affecting ode to closure and its elastic relationship with time. Early in the film, a retired James (Bill Nighy) informs his son Tim, a boy on the verge of big-city adulthood, that the men of the family possess the power to travel back in time. Naturally, at first, Tim abuses this cosmic gift like any red-blooded, teething male hero would - to find, and refine, his pursuit of love. He meets Mary, an American girl, and manipulates time in a manner that compels her to fall for him. You'd imagine any writer at this point would be tempted to use time travel as the pivot to continue navigating the cross-cultural politics of companionship. But Curtis refrains from old-school gimmickry. He designs the narrative device as a trigger that forces Tim's conflict to be conceived in the personal chasm that separates selfishness from selflessness: The selfishness of love from the selflessness of family.

Tim's story gets us thinking: do some of us subconsciously fail to sustain romantic relationships because we're unwilling to snap that umbilical cord? Do we postpone marriage - a family, children, onwardness -to preserve the fading remnants of our family? To keep our history accessible? The film's lyrical circularity exposes an uncomfortable truth about life - that romance is inherently an act of self-preservation. That loving someone, often, is a mechanism aimed at leaving something - and some times - behind. We choose to get consumed by life so that its origins are exhumed no more. For every child Tim has, the more irrevocably he drifts away from his own childhood. Every birth is inextricably linked to his rebirth. For each milestone he crosses as a life partner, the rules of time travel - a cinematic allegory for the texture of remembrance - force him to live rather than relive. Love is, after all, the emotional manifestation of the precise moment the future decides to break up with the past.

Q. As mentioned in the passage, the word "subverts" means

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 9 Option (a) is the correct answer as the word "subverts" means to secretly ruin or destroy something.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 10

British filmmaker Richard Curtis has written iconic popcultural classics like Mr. Bean, Four Weddings and a Funeral, Notting Hill and Bridget Jones's Diary. His directorial debut, Love Actually, remains a rare film that at once parodies, celebrates, and reclaims, storytelling's most bastardised genre. But Curtis' most accomplished movie has everything and nothing to do with his reputation as the King of (Romantic) Comedy.

About Time (2013), starring Irish actor Domhnall Gleeson in a breakthrough role, cleverly weaponises its maker's stature. It counts on the fact that we anticipate an innovative (buzzword: time travel) but typically breezy love story. But the girl-boy arc fades into the background, and the film subverts our expectations by instead morphing into a deeply contemplative and winning tragedy about human nature. Curtis virtually uses his own career as a smokescreen to transform About Time into an affecting ode to closure and its elastic relationship with time. Early in the film, a retired James (Bill Nighy) informs his son Tim, a boy on the verge of big-city adulthood, that the men of the family possess the power to travel back in time. Naturally, at first, Tim abuses this cosmic gift like any red-blooded, teething male hero would - to find, and refine, his pursuit of love. He meets Mary, an American girl, and manipulates time in a manner that compels her to fall for him. You'd imagine any writer at this point would be tempted to use time travel as the pivot to continue navigating the cross-cultural politics of companionship. But Curtis refrains from old-school gimmickry. He designs the narrative device as a trigger that forces Tim's conflict to be conceived in the personal chasm that separates selfishness from selflessness: The selfishness of love from the selflessness of family.

Tim's story gets us thinking: do some of us subconsciously fail to sustain romantic relationships because we're unwilling to snap that umbilical cord? Do we postpone marriage - a family, children, onwardness -to preserve the fading remnants of our family? To keep our history accessible? The film's lyrical circularity exposes an uncomfortable truth about life - that romance is inherently an act of self-preservation. That loving someone, often, is a mechanism aimed at leaving something - and some times - behind. We choose to get consumed by life so that its origins are exhumed no more. For every child Tim has, the more irrevocably he drifts away from his own childhood. Every birth is inextricably linked to his rebirth. For each milestone he crosses as a life partner, the rules of time travel - a cinematic allegory for the texture of remembrance - force him to live rather than relive. Love is, after all, the emotional manifestation of the precise moment the future decides to break up with the past.

Q. 'Fortunately, he manages to be both selfless and selfish without compromising on the recipients of either trait.' What can be inferred from this line in the context of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 10 Option (b) is the correct choice as the duality of Tim's character in being selfish and selfless helps him in retaining both his love and his family (friend).

This is the recipient of the two traits that Tim fortunately ends up receiving and thus he is not compromising on them, as mentioned in the marked sentence. Option (a) is incorrect as it is a partial repetition of the sentence. The other two options, i.e., (c) and (d) are presumptuous.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 11

Why on Earth is it taking so long for the world's richest countries to take action on climate change? For a partial answer, we can look back to the controversy that started a decade ago this November, which came to be known as Climategate. In a 2010 paper in the journal Environmental Values, the sociologist Brigitte Nerlich looked at what happened.

Climategate began with the leaking of emails sent to and from climate scientists at the University of East Anglia, in the UK. The leaked file included more than 1,000 emails, but climate skeptics quickly seized on just a few of them: some messages in which scientists debated the publication of potentially flawed work, and some others in which they discussed adjusting data using a "trick"-a piece of mathematical jargon that commentators misinterpreted as an effort to deceive the public.

In the U.S. and UK, conservative bloggers quickly latched onto the messages as proof of dishonesty among climate scientists. Nerlich writes that they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases. One of these was the word "climategate" itself apparently first used by conservative UK writer James Delingpole. The -gate suffix, referring back to Watergate, is a familiar method used by partisans and members of the media to indicate a serious scandal.

Looking at the messaging in blog posts about climategate, Nerlich found that another common theme was "science as a religion." Climate change deniers accused environmentalists and scientists of irrationally clinging to their belief in human-made climate change in the face of what they saw as evidence that it was a hoax. "The Global Warming religion is as virulent and insidious as all mind-bending cults of absolute certitude, and yet it has become mainstream orthodoxy and infallible spirituality faster than any faith-based cult in history," as one blogger put it.

Nerlich notes that, when it comes to scientists' levels of certainty, climate change deniers wanted to have it both ways. Any hint of uncertainty-which is almost always a factor in scientific analyses, especially concerning predictions about complex systems-was presented as a reason not to believe that change was happening at all. But too much certainty became proof that scientists were no longer operating from evidence, but instead trying to justify a cult-like faith.

Ultimately, Climategate was shown to be a fabrication.

In April 2010, an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing in the leaked messages.

Yet the controversy apparently succeeded in changing public opinion, at least temporarily. In February of 2010, the Guardian reported that, in the previous year, the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was "definitely" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent.

Q. In the second paragraph the author mentions "trick" in quotes in order to highlight that the adjusting of data was:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 11 The author says that the scientists adjusted the data using "trick". This was a mathematical jargon used by the scientist which was misinterpreted by some to be a deception. So, the author puts "trick" in quotes to highlight that the word trick does not literally mean a trick. Hence answer choice (a) is correct.

Incorrect Answers

(b) - The deception is what the commentators thought. "Trick" for the scientist was a mathematical jargon.

(c) and (d) - It was neither a mistake nor an error.

The scientists merely adjusted the data and used the jargon "trick" to call the adjustment that they made.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 12

Why on Earth is it taking so long for the world's richest countries to take action on climate change? For a partial answer, we can look back to the controversy that started a decade ago this November, which came to be known as Climategate. In a 2010 paper in the journal Environmental Values, the sociologist Brigitte Nerlich looked at what happened.

Climategate began with the leaking of emails sent to and from climate scientists at the University of East Anglia, in the UK. The leaked file included more than 1,000 emails, but climate skeptics quickly seized on just a few of them: some messages in which scientists debated the publication of potentially flawed work, and some others in which they discussed adjusting data using a "trick"-a piece of mathematical jargon that commentators misinterpreted as an effort to deceive the public.

In the U.S. and UK, conservative bloggers quickly latched onto the messages as proof of dishonesty among climate scientists. Nerlich writes that they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases. One of these was the word "climategate" itself apparently first used by conservative UK writer James Delingpole. The -gate suffix, referring back to Watergate, is a familiar method used by partisans and members of the media to indicate a serious scandal.

Looking at the messaging in blog posts about climategate, Nerlich found that another common theme was "science as a religion." Climate change deniers accused environmentalists and scientists of irrationally clinging to their belief in human-made climate change in the face of what they saw as evidence that it was a hoax. "The Global Warming religion is as virulent and insidious as all mind-bending cults of absolute certitude, and yet it has become mainstream orthodoxy and infallible spirituality faster than any faith-based cult in history," as one blogger put it.

Nerlich notes that, when it comes to scientists' levels of certainty, climate change deniers wanted to have it both ways. Any hint of uncertainty-which is almost always a factor in scientific analyses, especially concerning predictions about complex systems-was presented as a reason not to believe that change was happening at all. But too much certainty became proof that scientists were no longer operating from evidence, but instead trying to justify a cult-like faith.

Ultimately, Climategate was shown to be a fabrication.

In April 2010, an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing in the leaked messages.

Yet the controversy apparently succeeded in changing public opinion, at least temporarily. In February of 2010, the Guardian reported that, in the previous year, the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was "definitely" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent.

Q. Why did the climate change deniers use the analogy of science as a religion?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 12 The author points out a theme used by some of the climate change deniers - "science is religion". They claimed that the climate change had become a faith-based cult which was not based on evidence.

So, just like how religion is based on faith and not on evidence, climate change is also not based on evidence. Hence (b) is the correct answer.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - There is nothing to suggest that those who criticize climate change say that climate change is based on moral arguments.

(c) - There is no evidence to suggest that the climate change deniers believe that religion denies climate change. (d) - This is plainly wrong. This is a positive statement about science. However, the deniers hold an opposite view when it comes to climate change.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 13

Why on Earth is it taking so long for the world's richest countries to take action on climate change? For a partial answer, we can look back to the controversy that started a decade ago this November, which came to be known as Climategate. In a 2010 paper in the journal Environmental Values, the sociologist Brigitte Nerlich looked at what happened.

Climategate began with the leaking of emails sent to and from climate scientists at the University of East Anglia, in the UK. The leaked file included more than 1,000 emails, but climate skeptics quickly seized on just a few of them: some messages in which scientists debated the publication of potentially flawed work, and some others in which they discussed adjusting data using a "trick"-a piece of mathematical jargon that commentators misinterpreted as an effort to deceive the public.

In the U.S. and UK, conservative bloggers quickly latched onto the messages as proof of dishonesty among climate scientists. Nerlich writes that they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases. One of these was the word "climategate" itself apparently first used by conservative UK writer James Delingpole. The -gate suffix, referring back to Watergate, is a familiar method used by partisans and members of the media to indicate a serious scandal.

Looking at the messaging in blog posts about climategate, Nerlich found that another common theme was "science as a religion." Climate change deniers accused environmentalists and scientists of irrationally clinging to their belief in human-made climate change in the face of what they saw as evidence that it was a hoax. "The Global Warming religion is as virulent and insidious as all mind-bending cults of absolute certitude, and yet it has become mainstream orthodoxy and infallible spirituality faster than any faith-based cult in history," as one blogger put it.

Nerlich notes that, when it comes to scientists' levels of certainty, climate change deniers wanted to have it both ways. Any hint of uncertainty-which is almost always a factor in scientific analyses, especially concerning predictions about complex systems-was presented as a reason not to believe that change was happening at all. But too much certainty became proof that scientists were no longer operating from evidence, but instead trying to justify a cult-like faith.

Ultimately, Climategate was shown to be a fabrication.

In April 2010, an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing in the leaked messages.

Yet the controversy apparently succeeded in changing public opinion, at least temporarily. In February of 2010, the Guardian reported that, in the previous year, the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was "definitely" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent.

Q. Which one of the following can replace the phrase "absolute certitude" as used in the fourth paragraph?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 13 Certitude means absolute conviction or unquestioning belief in something.

This has reference to the view held by a climate skeptic blogger who commented "…as all mind bending cults of absolute certitude". Cults are groups (usually religious) that have extreme beliefs based on blind faith. This makes answer choice (c) the correct answer.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - Though one may consider cults are completely stupid, the reference cults here is to explain faith without any form of evidence. The climate skeptics believe that climate change is a hoax and those who believe in climate change, believed in that without any evidence.

(b) - cult members do not have distrust; in fact, it is quite the opposite - they exhibit blind trust.

(d) - "tentative" is a wrong word - absolute cannot be tentative.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 14

Why on Earth is it taking so long for the world's richest countries to take action on climate change? For a partial answer, we can look back to the controversy that started a decade ago this November, which came to be known as Climategate. In a 2010 paper in the journal Environmental Values, the sociologist Brigitte Nerlich looked at what happened.

Climategate began with the leaking of emails sent to and from climate scientists at the University of East Anglia, in the UK. The leaked file included more than 1,000 emails, but climate skeptics quickly seized on just a few of them: some messages in which scientists debated the publication of potentially flawed work, and some others in which they discussed adjusting data using a "trick"-a piece of mathematical jargon that commentators misinterpreted as an effort to deceive the public.

In the U.S. and UK, conservative bloggers quickly latched onto the messages as proof of dishonesty among climate scientists. Nerlich writes that they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases. One of these was the word "climategate" itself apparently first used by conservative UK writer James Delingpole. The -gate suffix, referring back to Watergate, is a familiar method used by partisans and members of the media to indicate a serious scandal.

Looking at the messaging in blog posts about climategate, Nerlich found that another common theme was "science as a religion." Climate change deniers accused environmentalists and scientists of irrationally clinging to their belief in human-made climate change in the face of what they saw as evidence that it was a hoax. "The Global Warming religion is as virulent and insidious as all mind-bending cults of absolute certitude, and yet it has become mainstream orthodoxy and infallible spirituality faster than any faith-based cult in history," as one blogger put it.

Nerlich notes that, when it comes to scientists' levels of certainty, climate change deniers wanted to have it both ways. Any hint of uncertainty-which is almost always a factor in scientific analyses, especially concerning predictions about complex systems-was presented as a reason not to believe that change was happening at all. But too much certainty became proof that scientists were no longer operating from evidence, but instead trying to justify a cult-like faith.

Ultimately, Climategate was shown to be a fabrication.

In April 2010, an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing in the leaked messages.

Yet the controversy apparently succeeded in changing public opinion, at least temporarily. In February of 2010, the Guardian reported that, in the previous year, the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was "definitely" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent.

Q. Why did some of the conservative users add the suffix -gate in climategate?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 14 The author mentions that the suffix -gate refers to Watergate which was another scandal. This makes answer choice (c) the correct answer.

[Watergate - The Watergate scandal was a major federal political scandal in the United States involving the administration of President Richard Nixon from 1972 to 1974]

Incorrect Answers

(a) and (d) - There is no evidence in the passage for these suggestions.

(b) - While it is mentioned that "they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases", that does not mean that the phrases were easy to explain. The question specifically asks as to why the suffix -gate was used and this suffix was borrowed from Watergate which was another scandal.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 15

Why on Earth is it taking so long for the world's richest countries to take action on climate change? For a partial answer, we can look back to the controversy that started a decade ago this November, which came to be known as Climategate. In a 2010 paper in the journal Environmental Values, the sociologist Brigitte Nerlich looked at what happened.

Climategate began with the leaking of emails sent to and from climate scientists at the University of East Anglia, in the UK. The leaked file included more than 1,000 emails, but climate skeptics quickly seized on just a few of them: some messages in which scientists debated the publication of potentially flawed work, and some others in which they discussed adjusting data using a "trick"-a piece of mathematical jargon that commentators misinterpreted as an effort to deceive the public.

In the U.S. and UK, conservative bloggers quickly latched onto the messages as proof of dishonesty among climate scientists. Nerlich writes that they effectively reached their audiences with a few specific phrases. One of these was the word "climategate" itself apparently first used by conservative UK writer James Delingpole. The -gate suffix, referring back to Watergate, is a familiar method used by partisans and members of the media to indicate a serious scandal.

Looking at the messaging in blog posts about climategate, Nerlich found that another common theme was "science as a religion." Climate change deniers accused environmentalists and scientists of irrationally clinging to their belief in human-made climate change in the face of what they saw as evidence that it was a hoax. "The Global Warming religion is as virulent and insidious as all mind-bending cults of absolute certitude, and yet it has become mainstream orthodoxy and infallible spirituality faster than any faith-based cult in history," as one blogger put it.

Nerlich notes that, when it comes to scientists' levels of certainty, climate change deniers wanted to have it both ways. Any hint of uncertainty-which is almost always a factor in scientific analyses, especially concerning predictions about complex systems-was presented as a reason not to believe that change was happening at all. But too much certainty became proof that scientists were no longer operating from evidence, but instead trying to justify a cult-like faith.

Ultimately, Climategate was shown to be a fabrication.

In April 2010, an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing in the leaked messages.

Yet the controversy apparently succeeded in changing public opinion, at least temporarily. In February of 2010, the Guardian reported that, in the previous year, the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was "definitely" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent.

Q. Why does the author mention that the proportion of British adults who believed that climate change was "definitely" a reality had dropped from 44 to 31 percent?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 15 The author, in the last paragraph, mentions that in April 2010 an independent panel cleared the climate scientists of any wrongdoing. However, the controversy did have a negative impact on public opinion albeit temporarily. To justify that claim, the author presents the data of Feb 2010 that the percentage of British adults who believed that climate change was a reality dropped. Since the data was used to justify the claim that the climategate changed the public opinion temporarily answer choice (b) is the correct answer.

Incorrect answers

(a) - The author is not trying to reason as to why British adults think climate change is not real. The data was used to highlight the fact that climate gate had a negative impact on public perception.

(c) - The data is not being used to argue that climate change is real. While the author may hold that belief, the question is specifically asking as to why the data is used in the passage.

(d) - This is not the view of the author anyways.

The climate change is a hoax was the view of the proponents of climategate.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 16

One of the kinds of human enhancement that has received extensive philosophical attention in recent years is the use of biomedical interventions to improve the physical performance of athletes in the context of sports.

One reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of "doping" scandals in contemporary sport.

At first impression, the ethical problem with performance enhancement in sport would seem to be simply a problem of cheating. If the rules of sport forbid the use of performance enhancements, then their illicit use confers an advantage to users against other athletes. That advantage, in turn, can create pressure for more athletes to cheat in the same way, undermining the basis for the competitions at stake and exacerbating the gap between those who can afford enhancements and those who cannot.

The rules of a game can be changed. In sports, novel forms of performance enhancing equipment and training are routinely introduced as athletic technology and expertise evolve. Where issues of athletes' equitable access arise, they can be dealt with in one of two ways.

Sometimes it is possible to ensure fair distribution, as for example, when the International Olympic Committee negotiated an agreement with the manufacturer of the new "FastSkin" swimming suit to provide suits to all the teams at the Sydney Olympics. In other cases, inequalities may simply come to be accepted as unfortunate but not unfair. This is, for example, how many people would view a story about an equatorial country that could not afford year-round artificial snow for its ski team, and so could not compete evenly with the ski teams of northern countries. If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem.

For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the "Special Olympics" for athletes with disabilities: a "Super Olympics", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements? For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of "cheating", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices.

Q. According to the passage, one of the reasons as to why athletic performance enhancements get so much attention is:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 16 Refer : " One reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of "doping" scandals in contemporary sport."

Currency here refers to: "the fact or quality of being generally accepted or in use."

Answer choice (d) is correct answer

Incorrect Answers

(a) - currency here does not refer to money.

(b) - The improvement of athletic performance is not the reason why it got so much attention. The reason is that it is an epidemic - used commonly.

(c) - It is not because it is regarded as cheating that it is getting attention. Whether or not it amounts to cheating is something that the author discusses later in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 17

One of the kinds of human enhancement that has received extensive philosophical attention in recent years is the use of biomedical interventions to improve the physical performance of athletes in the context of sports.

One reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of "doping" scandals in contemporary sport.

At first impression, the ethical problem with performance enhancement in sport would seem to be simply a problem of cheating. If the rules of sport forbid the use of performance enhancements, then their illicit use confers an advantage to users against other athletes. That advantage, in turn, can create pressure for more athletes to cheat in the same way, undermining the basis for the competitions at stake and exacerbating the gap between those who can afford enhancements and those who cannot.

The rules of a game can be changed. In sports, novel forms of performance enhancing equipment and training are routinely introduced as athletic technology and expertise evolve. Where issues of athletes' equitable access arise, they can be dealt with in one of two ways.

Sometimes it is possible to ensure fair distribution, as for example, when the International Olympic Committee negotiated an agreement with the manufacturer of the new "FastSkin" swimming suit to provide suits to all the teams at the Sydney Olympics. In other cases, inequalities may simply come to be accepted as unfortunate but not unfair. This is, for example, how many people would view a story about an equatorial country that could not afford year-round artificial snow for its ski team, and so could not compete evenly with the ski teams of northern countries. If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem.

For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the "Special Olympics" for athletes with disabilities: a "Super Olympics", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements? For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of "cheating", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices.

Q. Which of the following is analogous to the example of equatorial countries' inability to complete in ski competitions?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 17 The example of equatorial countries is used to illustrate the concept of - "unfortunate but not unfair". Equatorial countries do not have snow. So, they are not able to compete effectively with northern countries in skiing competitions. Author says this not a 'fairness' issue. Neither can we stop skiing competition because of equatorial countries not having a level-playing ground nor can we give snow to equatorial countries! So, it is unfortunate not unfair.

We are looking an example like that - unfortunate but not unfair.

Answer choice (c) is an accurate analogy. Some candidates may have lot of money to spend in elections. That is allowed and there is nothing wrong with that. So, if some other candidates do not have resources, then it is unfortunate not unfair.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - This is out and out cheating. It is definitely unfair.

(b) - This is also unfair. It is clearly mentioned - the shopkeeper uses UNFAIR practices

(d) - This is unfair. Billing a patient just to make more money is unfair.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 18

One of the kinds of human enhancement that has received extensive philosophical attention in recent years is the use of biomedical interventions to improve the physical performance of athletes in the context of sports.

One reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of "doping" scandals in contemporary sport.

At first impression, the ethical problem with performance enhancement in sport would seem to be simply a problem of cheating. If the rules of sport forbid the use of performance enhancements, then their illicit use confers an advantage to users against other athletes. That advantage, in turn, can create pressure for more athletes to cheat in the same way, undermining the basis for the competitions at stake and exacerbating the gap between those who can afford enhancements and those who cannot.

The rules of a game can be changed. In sports, novel forms of performance enhancing equipment and training are routinely introduced as athletic technology and expertise evolve. Where issues of athletes' equitable access arise, they can be dealt with in one of two ways.

Sometimes it is possible to ensure fair distribution, as for example, when the International Olympic Committee negotiated an agreement with the manufacturer of the new "FastSkin" swimming suit to provide suits to all the teams at the Sydney Olympics. In other cases, inequalities may simply come to be accepted as unfortunate but not unfair. This is, for example, how many people would view a story about an equatorial country that could not afford year-round artificial snow for its ski team, and so could not compete evenly with the ski teams of northern countries. If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem.

For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the "Special Olympics" for athletes with disabilities: a "Super Olympics", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements? For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of "cheating", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices.

Q. What does the meaning of the word "exacerbate" as used in the passage mean?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 18 The meaning of exacerbate is to make something more severe.

The passage mentions - "…undermining the basis for the competitions at stake and exacerbating the gap…". Here the author says that the pressure to perform will make the athletics cheat and that in turn will increase the gap between those who have advantage and those who don't.

Incorrect answers

(a), (b) and (d) are incorrect. (a) and (d) are opposites. In answer choice (b) 'tense' is not the correct meaning.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 19

One of the kinds of human enhancement that has received extensive philosophical attention in recent years is the use of biomedical interventions to improve the physical performance of athletes in the context of sports.

One reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of "doping" scandals in contemporary sport.

At first impression, the ethical problem with performance enhancement in sport would seem to be simply a problem of cheating. If the rules of sport forbid the use of performance enhancements, then their illicit use confers an advantage to users against other athletes. That advantage, in turn, can create pressure for more athletes to cheat in the same way, undermining the basis for the competitions at stake and exacerbating the gap between those who can afford enhancements and those who cannot.

The rules of a game can be changed. In sports, novel forms of performance enhancing equipment and training are routinely introduced as athletic technology and expertise evolve. Where issues of athletes' equitable access arise, they can be dealt with in one of two ways.

Sometimes it is possible to ensure fair distribution, as for example, when the International Olympic Committee negotiated an agreement with the manufacturer of the new "FastSkin" swimming suit to provide suits to all the teams at the Sydney Olympics. In other cases, inequalities may simply come to be accepted as unfortunate but not unfair. This is, for example, how many people would view a story about an equatorial country that could not afford year-round artificial snow for its ski team, and so could not compete evenly with the ski teams of northern countries. If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem.

For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the "Special Olympics" for athletes with disabilities: a "Super Olympics", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements? For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of "cheating", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices.

Q. "Super Olympics", as per the passage:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 19

This is the relevant part from the last paragraph: If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem. For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the "Special Olympics" for athletes with disabilities: a "Super Olympics", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements?

Answer choice (b) is correct. "Super Olympics", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements".

Incorrect Answers

(a) - What is mentioned in the passage is that it's a mirror image of Special Olympics. It is NOT a counter. Mirror image is a thing that closely resembles another. Author is merely saying that just like Special Olympics create a level playing ground, Super Olympics also creates a level playing ground. Counter means opposition.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 20

One of the kinds of human enhancement that has received extensive philosophical attention in recent years is the use of biomedical interventions to improve the physical performance of athletes in the context of sports.

One reason athletic performance enhancement garners so much attention is because of its currency, given the epidemic of "doping" scandals in contemporary sport.

At first impression, the ethical problem with performance enhancement in sport would seem to be simply a problem of cheating. If the rules of sport forbid the use of performance enhancements, then their illicit use confers an advantage to users against other athletes. That advantage, in turn, can create pressure for more athletes to cheat in the same way, undermining the basis for the competitions at stake and exacerbating the gap between those who can afford enhancements and those who cannot.

The rules of a game can be changed. In sports, novel forms of performance enhancing equipment and training are routinely introduced as athletic technology and expertise evolve. Where issues of athletes' equitable access arise, they can be dealt with in one of two ways.

Sometimes it is possible to ensure fair distribution, as for example, when the International Olympic Committee negotiated an agreement with the manufacturer of the new "FastSkin" swimming suit to provide suits to all the teams at the Sydney Olympics. In other cases, inequalities may simply come to be accepted as unfortunate but not unfair. This is, for example, how many people would view a story about an equatorial country that could not afford year-round artificial snow for its ski team, and so could not compete evenly with the ski teams of northern countries. If enhancement interventions can either be distributed fairly or the inequities they create can be written into the rules of the social game in question as part of the given advantages of the more fortunate, then individual users no longer face a fairness problem.

For those who can afford it, for example, what would be ethically suspect about mounting a mirror image of the "Special Olympics" for athletes with disabilities: a "Super Olympics", featuring athletes universally equipped with the latest modifications and enhancements? For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of "cheating", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices.

Q. In the last paragraph, what is the author's appeal to the critics of biomedical enhancements?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 20 The author's appeal is in the last sentence.

"For answers to that challenge, the critics of biomedical enhancement have to dig beyond concerns about the fair governance of games to a deeper and broader sense of "cheating", in terms of the corrosive effects of enhancement on the integrity of admirable human practices."

The author asks critics to have a deeper and broader understanding of cheating to evaluate the negative impact of biomedical enhancements. This is captured in answer choice (d)

Incorrect Answers

(a) - Author does not merely suggests that the debate should be improved. S/he gives a clear direction as to what needs to be done - to have a broader understanding of cheating.

(b) - The author does not ask critics to collect facts.

(c) - The author does not suggest that the critics should correlate various impacts. S/he recommend that critics understand what 'cheating' is.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 21

There's been an incredible outpouring of grief across Canada since Ukraine International Airlines Flight PS752 was shot down by Iran, killing all 176 passengers and crew on board.

We have learned that among the 57 Canadians killed, there were beloved students, professors, doctors and engineers. Children, newlyweds and entire families perished. Many of them have been described by Canadian news media and leaders as "exceptional." They belonged to Canada's vibrant Iranian communities and are being remembered as such in tributes and memorial services across the nation.

I've spent more than a dozen years researching public memory of another air disaster that resulted in an even greater number of Canadian casualties-the Air India tragedy.

Indeed, news of PS752 is triggering memories of June 23, 1985, when Air India Flight 182 fell into the Atlantic Ocean near Cork, Ireland, after a bomb hidden in the luggage exploded. All 329 passengers and crew on board that flight were killed. Among them were 280 Canadians, the majority from Indian-Canadian families, as reported by the official inquiry by Public Safety Canada.

Winnipeg resident Nicky Mehta was 13 at the time that her uncle, aunt and two young cousins were killed on the Air India flight. On the day after Flight PS752 crashed, she woke up to an abbreviated list of "deadly plane crashes that killed Canadians" published in the Winnipeg Free Press that did not include Air India. "I felt gutted," she told me. "It was re-traumatising to see that Air India was not even worth a mention here." The article has since been removed.

Back in 1985, there was no collective outpouring of grief or statement of national solidarity for the victims of Air India Flight 182. Were these victims not "exceptional" enough? In fact, they too were beloved students, professors, doctors and engineers, as well as homemakers, teachers, civil servants and more.

Notoriously, Canadian Prime Minister Brian Mulroney offered his condolences to Prime Minister of India Rajiv Gandhi for India's loss instead of addressing his own citizens.

It is clear that for many Canadians (not just Mulroney) the Air India bombing was unthinkable-and thus unmemorable-as a tragedy of national consequence due to the dominant assumption that Canadian identity is synonymous with whiteness. Indeed, critics, as well as relatives of the dead, have raised the obvious question: would there have been such trouble recognising the bombing as a national tragedy if the majority of those killed were white rather than brown Canadians?

Q. The question raised in the last sentence reiterates the main presumption that the national identity of Canada:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 21 It is mentioned in the last paragraph that for many Canadians, the dominant assumption is that the Canadian identity is based on whiteness. The whiteness here refers to the white or Caucasian race. The author suggests that it is for this reason that the Air India tragedy is not regarded as tragedy while the current bombing is regarded as one. The last sentence raises that concern. This makes answer choice (a) the correct answer.

Incorrect Answers

(b), (c) and (d) - it is not based on citizenship, equality or religion.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 22

There's been an incredible outpouring of grief across Canada since Ukraine International Airlines Flight PS752 was shot down by Iran, killing all 176 passengers and crew on board.

We have learned that among the 57 Canadians killed, there were beloved students, professors, doctors and engineers. Children, newlyweds and entire families perished. Many of them have been described by Canadian news media and leaders as "exceptional." They belonged to Canada's vibrant Iranian communities and are being remembered as such in tributes and memorial services across the nation.

I've spent more than a dozen years researching public memory of another air disaster that resulted in an even greater number of Canadian casualties-the Air India tragedy.

Indeed, news of PS752 is triggering memories of June 23, 1985, when Air India Flight 182 fell into the Atlantic Ocean near Cork, Ireland, after a bomb hidden in the luggage exploded. All 329 passengers and crew on board that flight were killed. Among them were 280 Canadians, the majority from Indian-Canadian families, as reported by the official inquiry by Public Safety Canada.

Winnipeg resident Nicky Mehta was 13 at the time that her uncle, aunt and two young cousins were killed on the Air India flight. On the day after Flight PS752 crashed, she woke up to an abbreviated list of "deadly plane crashes that killed Canadians" published in the Winnipeg Free Press that did not include Air India. "I felt gutted," she told me. "It was re-traumatising to see that Air India was not even worth a mention here." The article has since been removed.

Back in 1985, there was no collective outpouring of grief or statement of national solidarity for the victims of Air India Flight 182. Were these victims not "exceptional" enough? In fact, they too were beloved students, professors, doctors and engineers, as well as homemakers, teachers, civil servants and more.

Notoriously, Canadian Prime Minister Brian Mulroney offered his condolences to Prime Minister of India Rajiv Gandhi for India's loss instead of addressing his own citizens.

It is clear that for many Canadians (not just Mulroney) the Air India bombing was unthinkable-and thus unmemorable-as a tragedy of national consequence due to the dominant assumption that Canadian identity is synonymous with whiteness. Indeed, critics, as well as relatives of the dead, have raised the obvious question: would there have been such trouble recognising the bombing as a national tragedy if the majority of those killed were white rather than brown Canadians?

Q. Which of the following best describes the word "retraumatizing" in the context of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 22 Refer to paragraph 5. It describes the case of Nicky Mehta who lost her relative during the Air India tragedy. She was appalled by the fact that the list, published by Winnipeg Free Press, of deadly plane crashes that killed Canadians did not mention the Air India tragedy. She felt that was retraumatizing.

The meaning of retraumatizing happens when an original trauma is triggered. Answer choice (d) captures that emotion accurately.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - This answer choice seems to be a good option. However, in the context of what is being discussed in the passage, the retraumatising happened because the Air India tragedy was not mentioned.

(b) - The retraumatizing event for Nicky Mehta was not specifically the death of people in the PS752 tragedy.

(c) - Here the issue is with the lack of mention of the Air India tragedy by Winnipeg Free Press and not the leaders.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 23

There's been an incredible outpouring of grief across Canada since Ukraine International Airlines Flight PS752 was shot down by Iran, killing all 176 passengers and crew on board.

We have learned that among the 57 Canadians killed, there were beloved students, professors, doctors and engineers. Children, newlyweds and entire families perished. Many of them have been described by Canadian news media and leaders as "exceptional." They belonged to Canada's vibrant Iranian communities and are being remembered as such in tributes and memorial services across the nation.

I've spent more than a dozen years researching public memory of another air disaster that resulted in an even greater number of Canadian casualties-the Air India tragedy.

Indeed, news of PS752 is triggering memories of June 23, 1985, when Air India Flight 182 fell into the Atlantic Ocean near Cork, Ireland, after a bomb hidden in the luggage exploded. All 329 passengers and crew on board that flight were killed. Among them were 280 Canadians, the majority from Indian-Canadian families, as reported by the official inquiry by Public Safety Canada.

Winnipeg resident Nicky Mehta was 13 at the time that her uncle, aunt and two young cousins were killed on the Air India flight. On the day after Flight PS752 crashed, she woke up to an abbreviated list of "deadly plane crashes that killed Canadians" published in the Winnipeg Free Press that did not include Air India. "I felt gutted," she told me. "It was re-traumatising to see that Air India was not even worth a mention here." The article has since been removed.

Back in 1985, there was no collective outpouring of grief or statement of national solidarity for the victims of Air India Flight 182. Were these victims not "exceptional" enough? In fact, they too were beloved students, professors, doctors and engineers, as well as homemakers, teachers, civil servants and more.

Notoriously, Canadian Prime Minister Brian Mulroney offered his condolences to Prime Minister of India Rajiv Gandhi for India's loss instead of addressing his own citizens.

It is clear that for many Canadians (not just Mulroney) the Air India bombing was unthinkable-and thus unmemorable-as a tragedy of national consequence due to the dominant assumption that Canadian identity is synonymous with whiteness. Indeed, critics, as well as relatives of the dead, have raised the obvious question: would there have been such trouble recognising the bombing as a national tragedy if the majority of those killed were white rather than brown Canadians?

Q. What is the most likely reason as to why the author used the word "notoriously" in the seventh paragraph?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 23 In the last few paragraphs the author raises a concern that the Air India tragedy did not receive the same solidarity as the Flight PS752 tragedy. It is in that context that the author mentions Canadian Prime Minister who did not address his own citizens during the Air India Tragedy. Answer choice (d) captures that idea most effectively.

Incorrect Answers

(a) - The author's issue is not with the fact that the Canadian PM offered condolences to his Indian counterpart. The issue is that the PM did not address his own citizens who were affected by the tragedy.

(b) - There is no mention of any political gain in the passage.

(c) - The victims of tragedy where not Indian citizens.

Those were Canadian citizens of Indian origin.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 24

There's been an incredible outpouring of grief across Canada since Ukraine International Airlines Flight PS752 was shot down by Iran, killing all 176 passengers and crew on board.

We have learned that among the 57 Canadians killed, there were beloved students, professors, doctors and engineers. Children, newlyweds and entire families perished. Many of them have been described by Canadian news media and leaders as "exceptional." They belonged to Canada's vibrant Iranian communities and are being remembered as such in tributes and memorial services across the nation.

I've spent more than a dozen years researching public memory of another air disaster that resulted in an even greater number of Canadian casualties-the Air India tragedy.

Indeed, news of PS752 is triggering memories of June 23, 1985, when Air India Flight 182 fell into the Atlantic Ocean near Cork, Ireland, after a bomb hidden in the luggage exploded. All 329 passengers and crew on board that flight were killed. Among them were 280 Canadians, the majority from Indian-Canadian families, as reported by the official inquiry by Public Safety Canada.

Winnipeg resident Nicky Mehta was 13 at the time that her uncle, aunt and two young cousins were killed on the Air India flight. On the day after Flight PS752 crashed, she woke up to an abbreviated list of "deadly plane crashes that killed Canadians" published in the Winnipeg Free Press that did not include Air India. "I felt gutted," she told me. "It was re-traumatising to see that Air India was not even worth a mention here." The article has since been removed.

Back in 1985, there was no collective outpouring of grief or statement of national solidarity for the victims of Air India Flight 182. Were these victims not "exceptional" enough? In fact, they too were beloved students, professors, doctors and engineers, as well as homemakers, teachers, civil servants and more.

Notoriously, Canadian Prime Minister Brian Mulroney offered his condolences to Prime Minister of India Rajiv Gandhi for India's loss instead of addressing his own citizens.

It is clear that for many Canadians (not just Mulroney) the Air India bombing was unthinkable-and thus unmemorable-as a tragedy of national consequence due to the dominant assumption that Canadian identity is synonymous with whiteness. Indeed, critics, as well as relatives of the dead, have raised the obvious question: would there have been such trouble recognising the bombing as a national tragedy if the majority of those killed were white rather than brown Canadians?

Q. What is the significance of the number 280 in the overall context of the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 24 280 was the number of Canadians who died in the Air India tragedy, while 57 Canadians died in the PS752 tragedy. The overall context of the passage is that the Air India tragedy, even though it had a greater number of Canadian deaths, was not considered as an event of national consequence.

That is the significance of the number 280. This is captured in answer choice (c).

Incorrect Answers

(a) and (d) - These contradict the argument presented in the passage. The author states that, there was no collective outpouring of grief or statement of national solidarity for the victims of Air India Flight 182.

(b) - There is no evidence to suggest that there was no study that was conducted regarding the cause of Air India tragedy.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 25

The eye-popping bids in the current auction of wireless frequencies by the Federal Communications Commission are a testament to soaring demand for mobile Internet service. As of last week, bids in the auction exceeded $38 billion, far more than the $10.5 billion reserve price set by the F.C.C. These frequencies, also known as spectrum, are needed to expand cellular networks so they can carry more phone calls and data.

The superheated bidding provides fresh evidence that the telecommunications industry is thriving despite protests by executives at companies like Verizon and AT&T that they are being stymied by regulation. Phone companies are upset that President Obama recently called for strong rules that would prohibit telecom companies, including wireless businesses, from creating fast and slow lanes on the Internet. His proposal needs to be approved by the F.C.C., an independent agency that is not obliged to do what Mr. Obama wants but that in this case should follow his direction.

Telecom executives have said that such rules would reduce their incentive to invest, presumably because their potential profits would be reduced by any regulation that prevented them from charging fees to big web businesses to deliver some content to consumers faster than other information. But the companies can't be all that worried if they are willing to spend billions of dollars on wireless frequencies.

Some of the money raised in the auction will be used to pay for a $7 billion communications network called FirstNet, for police, fire and other public safety agencies, a network Congress authorized in 2012. The rest of the money will go to the Treasury and help reduce the federal deficit.

Few people expected that the bids would go this high for spectrum that most analysts say is less optimal for carrying wireless phone signals than other, lower frequency airwaves that more easily penetrate buildings.

A separate auction that is expected to be held in 2021 will include more highly valued airwaves that are used by television broadcasters. A portion of the money bid by telecom companies in that auction will be used to pay TV stations that agree to give up some or all of the frequencies they are using.

The auction of TV airwaves was originally expected to take place next year but has been delayed because of disagreements among broadcasters, telecom companies and regulators about how it should be carried out. There are billions of dollars at stake for television stations and phone companies. The high bids in the current auction should encourage them to resolve their differences and avoid further delays. They all have too much to gain from a successful auction.

Americans are increasingly dependent on their cellphones - 63 percent of Americans used their phones to go online in 2013, up from 31 percent in 2009, according to the Pew Research Center. That helps explain why wireless frequencies are becoming more valuable and why the government should make sure spectrum is used efficiently.

Q. The author primarily uses the data regarding the high bidding price of spectrum to:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 25 As mentioned

"The superheated bidding provides fresh evidence that the telecommunications industry is thriving despite protests by executives at companies"

"But the companies can't be all that worried if they are willing to spend billions of dollars on wireless frequencies."

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 26

The eye-popping bids in the current auction of wireless frequencies by the Federal Communications Commission are a testament to soaring demand for mobile Internet service. As of last week, bids in the auction exceeded $38 billion, far more than the $10.5 billion reserve price set by the F.C.C. These frequencies, also known as spectrum, are needed to expand cellular networks so they can carry more phone calls and data.

The superheated bidding provides fresh evidence that the telecommunications industry is thriving despite protests by executives at companies like Verizon and AT&T that they are being stymied by regulation. Phone companies are upset that President Obama recently called for strong rules that would prohibit telecom companies, including wireless businesses, from creating fast and slow lanes on the Internet. His proposal needs to be approved by the F.C.C., an independent agency that is not obliged to do what Mr. Obama wants but that in this case should follow his direction.

Telecom executives have said that such rules would reduce their incentive to invest, presumably because their potential profits would be reduced by any regulation that prevented them from charging fees to big web businesses to deliver some content to consumers faster than other information. But the companies can't be all that worried if they are willing to spend billions of dollars on wireless frequencies.

Some of the money raised in the auction will be used to pay for a $7 billion communications network called FirstNet, for police, fire and other public safety agencies, a network Congress authorized in 2012. The rest of the money will go to the Treasury and help reduce the federal deficit.

Few people expected that the bids would go this high for spectrum that most analysts say is less optimal for carrying wireless phone signals than other, lower frequency airwaves that more easily penetrate buildings.

A separate auction that is expected to be held in 2021 will include more highly valued airwaves that are used by television broadcasters. A portion of the money bid by telecom companies in that auction will be used to pay TV stations that agree to give up some or all of the frequencies they are using.

The auction of TV airwaves was originally expected to take place next year but has been delayed because of disagreements among broadcasters, telecom companies and regulators about how it should be carried out. There are billions of dollars at stake for television stations and phone companies. The high bids in the current auction should encourage them to resolve their differences and avoid further delays. They all have too much to gain from a successful auction.

Americans are increasingly dependent on their cellphones - 63 percent of Americans used their phones to go online in 2013, up from 31 percent in 2009, according to the Pew Research Center. That helps explain why wireless frequencies are becoming more valuable and why the government should make sure spectrum is used efficiently.

Q. The author of the passage is likely to be:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 26 The passage is not prejudiced against the telecom sector. Therefore option (a) can be ruled out. There is no bias displayed for Obama therefore option (b) can be ruled out. Since the passage supports liberalisation and opening up and commercialisation of spectrum therefore option (c) can be ruled out.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 27

The eye-popping bids in the current auction of wireless frequencies by the Federal Communications Commission are a testament to soaring demand for mobile Internet service. As of last week, bids in the auction exceeded $38 billion, far more than the $10.5 billion reserve price set by the F.C.C. These frequencies, also known as spectrum, are needed to expand cellular networks so they can carry more phone calls and data.

The superheated bidding provides fresh evidence that the telecommunications industry is thriving despite protests by executives at companies like Verizon and AT&T that they are being stymied by regulation. Phone companies are upset that President Obama recently called for strong rules that would prohibit telecom companies, including wireless businesses, from creating fast and slow lanes on the Internet. His proposal needs to be approved by the F.C.C., an independent agency that is not obliged to do what Mr. Obama wants but that in this case should follow his direction.

Telecom executives have said that such rules would reduce their incentive to invest, presumably because their potential profits would be reduced by any regulation that prevented them from charging fees to big web businesses to deliver some content to consumers faster than other information. But the companies can't be all that worried if they are willing to spend billions of dollars on wireless frequencies.

Some of the money raised in the auction will be used to pay for a $7 billion communications network called FirstNet, for police, fire and other public safety agencies, a network Congress authorized in 2012. The rest of the money will go to the Treasury and help reduce the federal deficit.

Few people expected that the bids would go this high for spectrum that most analysts say is less optimal for carrying wireless phone signals than other, lower frequency airwaves that more easily penetrate buildings.

A separate auction that is expected to be held in 2021 will include more highly valued airwaves that are used by television broadcasters. A portion of the money bid by telecom companies in that auction will be used to pay TV stations that agree to give up some or all of the frequencies they are using.

The auction of TV airwaves was originally expected to take place next year but has been delayed because of disagreements among broadcasters, telecom companies and regulators about how it should be carried out. There are billions of dollars at stake for television stations and phone companies. The high bids in the current auction should encourage them to resolve their differences and avoid further delays. They all have too much to gain from a successful auction.

Americans are increasingly dependent on their cellphones - 63 percent of Americans used their phones to go online in 2013, up from 31 percent in 2009, according to the Pew Research Center. That helps explain why wireless frequencies are becoming more valuable and why the government should make sure spectrum is used efficiently.

Q. Which of the following best describes the passage above?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 27 There is hardly any criticism nor much prejudice.

Therefore options (a) and (c) can be ruled out. The author does analyse the role of government, presence of big money etc. and therefore, the article can be construed as faintly analytical.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 28

The eye-popping bids in the current auction of wireless frequencies by the Federal Communications Commission are a testament to soaring demand for mobile Internet service. As of last week, bids in the auction exceeded $38 billion, far more than the $10.5 billion reserve price set by the F.C.C. These frequencies, also known as spectrum, are needed to expand cellular networks so they can carry more phone calls and data.

The superheated bidding provides fresh evidence that the telecommunications industry is thriving despite protests by executives at companies like Verizon and AT&T that they are being stymied by regulation. Phone companies are upset that President Obama recently called for strong rules that would prohibit telecom companies, including wireless businesses, from creating fast and slow lanes on the Internet. His proposal needs to be approved by the F.C.C., an independent agency that is not obliged to do what Mr. Obama wants but that in this case should follow his direction.

Telecom executives have said that such rules would reduce their incentive to invest, presumably because their potential profits would be reduced by any regulation that prevented them from charging fees to big web businesses to deliver some content to consumers faster than other information. But the companies can't be all that worried if they are willing to spend billions of dollars on wireless frequencies.

Some of the money raised in the auction will be used to pay for a $7 billion communications network called FirstNet, for police, fire and other public safety agencies, a network Congress authorized in 2012. The rest of the money will go to the Treasury and help reduce the federal deficit.

Few people expected that the bids would go this high for spectrum that most analysts say is less optimal for carrying wireless phone signals than other, lower frequency airwaves that more easily penetrate buildings.

A separate auction that is expected to be held in 2021 will include more highly valued airwaves that are used by television broadcasters. A portion of the money bid by telecom companies in that auction will be used to pay TV stations that agree to give up some or all of the frequencies they are using.

The auction of TV airwaves was originally expected to take place next year but has been delayed because of disagreements among broadcasters, telecom companies and regulators about how it should be carried out. There are billions of dollars at stake for television stations and phone companies. The high bids in the current auction should encourage them to resolve their differences and avoid further delays. They all have too much to gain from a successful auction.

Americans are increasingly dependent on their cellphones - 63 percent of Americans used their phones to go online in 2013, up from 31 percent in 2009, according to the Pew Research Center. That helps explain why wireless frequencies are becoming more valuable and why the government should make sure spectrum is used efficiently.

Q. Which of the following is not true as per the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 28 The passage is not prejudiced against the telecom sector. Therefore option (a) can be ruled out. There is no bias displayed for Obama therefore option (b) can be ruled out. Since the passage supports liberalisation and opening up and commercialisation of spectrum therefore option (c) can be ruled out.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 29

KING CHARLES III made the final decision. The election had duly taken place as decreed by royal proclamation.

The polling booths had been closed, the votes counted.

The computers turned off-, and the experts and amateurs alike had collapsed into their beds in disbelief when they had heard the final result. The new King had been unable to sleep that Friday night while he considered yet again all the advice that had been offered to him by his courtiers during the past twenty-four hours. The choice he had been left with was by no means simple. Considering how recently he had ascended the throne.

A few minutes after Big Ben had struck 6 A.M., the morning papers were placed in the corridor outside his bedroom. The King slipped quietly out of bed, put on his dressing gown and smiled at the startled footman when he opened the door. The King gathered up the papers in his arms and took them through to the morning room so that the Queen would not be disturbed. Once he had settled comfortably into his favorite chair, he turned to the editorial pages. Only one subject was worthy of their attention that day. The Fleet Street editors had all come to the same conclusion. The result of the election could not have been closer, and the new King had been placed in a most delicate position as to whom he should call to be his first Prime Minister. Most of the papers went on to give the King their personal advice on whom he should consider according to their own political affiliations. The London Times alone offered no such opinion, but suggested merely that His Majesty would have to show a great deal of courage and fortitude in facing his first constitutional crisis if the monarchy was to remain credible in a modern world. The forty-three-year-old King dropped the papers on the floor by the side of his chair and considered once again the problems of which man to select. What a strange game politics was, he considered. Only a short time ago .there had been clearly three men to consider, and then suddenly one of them was no longer a contender- The two men remaining-who he suspected had also not slept that night - could not have been more different and yet in some ways they were so alike. They had both entered the House of Commons in 1964 and, had then conducted glittering careers in their twenty-five years as members of Parliament. Between them they had held the portfolios of Trade, Defense, the Foreign Office and the Exchequer before being elected to lead their respective parties. As Prince of Wales, the King had watched them both from the sidelines and grown to admire their different contributions to public life. On a personal level, he had to admit, he had always liked one while respecting the other.

Q. It can be inferred that:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 29

Option (a) can be deriv ed from the 1st paragraph.

Options (b) and (c) are inappropriate and option (d) is untrue as we read in the passage that London Times did not offer any opinion, but only suggested that the King would have to show a great deal of courage and fortitude.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 30

KING CHARLES III made the final decision. The election had duly taken place as decreed by royal proclamation.

The polling booths had been closed, the votes counted.

The computers turned off-, and the experts and amateurs alike had collapsed into their beds in disbelief when they had heard the final result. The new King had been unable to sleep that Friday night while he considered yet again all the advice that had been offered to him by his courtiers during the past twenty-four hours. The choice he had been left with was by no means simple. Considering how recently he had ascended the throne.

A few minutes after Big Ben had struck 6 A.M., the morning papers were placed in the corridor outside his bedroom. The King slipped quietly out of bed, put on his dressing gown and smiled at the startled footman when he opened the door. The King gathered up the papers in his arms and took them through to the morning room so that the Queen would not be disturbed. Once he had settled comfortably into his favorite chair, he turned to the editorial pages. Only one subject was worthy of their attention that day. The Fleet Street editors had all come to the same conclusion. The result of the election could not have been closer, and the new King had been placed in a most delicate position as to whom he should call to be his first Prime Minister. Most of the papers went on to give the King their personal advice on whom he should consider according to their own political affiliations. The London Times alone offered no such opinion, but suggested merely that His Majesty would have to show a great deal of courage and fortitude in facing his first constitutional crisis if the monarchy was to remain credible in a modern world. The forty-three-year-old King dropped the papers on the floor by the side of his chair and considered once again the problems of which man to select. What a strange game politics was, he considered. Only a short time ago .there had been clearly three men to consider, and then suddenly one of them was no longer a contender- The two men remaining-who he suspected had also not slept that night - could not have been more different and yet in some ways they were so alike. They had both entered the House of Commons in 1964 and, had then conducted glittering careers in their twenty-five years as members of Parliament. Between them they had held the portfolios of Trade, Defense, the Foreign Office and the Exchequer before being elected to lead their respective parties. As Prince of Wales, the King had watched them both from the sidelines and grown to admire their different contributions to public life. On a personal level, he had to admit, he had always liked one while respecting the other.

Q. What does the word 'amateur' mean in this context?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 30 The word 'amateur is used in the first paragraph of the passage and it means non-professional or beginner; so, 'novice' is its synonym.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 31

KING CHARLES III made the final decision. The election had duly taken place as decreed by royal proclamation.

The polling booths had been closed, the votes counted.

The computers turned off-, and the experts and amateurs alike had collapsed into their beds in disbelief when they had heard the final result. The new King had been unable to sleep that Friday night while he considered yet again all the advice that had been offered to him by his courtiers during the past twenty-four hours. The choice he had been left with was by no means simple. Considering how recently he had ascended the throne.

A few minutes after Big Ben had struck 6 A.M., the morning papers were placed in the corridor outside his bedroom. The King slipped quietly out of bed, put on his dressing gown and smiled at the startled footman when he opened the door. The King gathered up the papers in his arms and took them through to the morning room so that the Queen would not be disturbed. Once he had settled comfortably into his favorite chair, he turned to the editorial pages. Only one subject was worthy of their attention that day. The Fleet Street editors had all come to the same conclusion. The result of the election could not have been closer, and the new King had been placed in a most delicate position as to whom he should call to be his first Prime Minister. Most of the papers went on to give the King their personal advice on whom he should consider according to their own political affiliations. The London Times alone offered no such opinion, but suggested merely that His Majesty would have to show a great deal of courage and fortitude in facing his first constitutional crisis if the monarchy was to remain credible in a modern world. The forty-three-year-old King dropped the papers on the floor by the side of his chair and considered once again the problems of which man to select. What a strange game politics was, he considered. Only a short time ago .there had been clearly three men to consider, and then suddenly one of them was no longer a contender- The two men remaining-who he suspected had also not slept that night - could not have been more different and yet in some ways they were so alike. They had both entered the House of Commons in 1964 and, had then conducted glittering careers in their twenty-five years as members of Parliament. Between them they had held the portfolios of Trade, Defense, the Foreign Office and the Exchequer before being elected to lead their respective parties. As Prince of Wales, the King had watched them both from the sidelines and grown to admire their different contributions to public life. On a personal level, he had to admit, he had always liked one while respecting the other.

Q. Which of the sentence is false according to the passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 31 Option (d) is obv iously untrue as per the giv en information about choosing a Prime Minister for the state. Other statements are true according to the passage.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 32

KING CHARLES III made the final decision. The election had duly taken place as decreed by royal proclamation.

The polling booths had been closed, the votes counted.

The computers turned off-, and the experts and amateurs alike had collapsed into their beds in disbelief when they had heard the final result. The new King had been unable to sleep that Friday night while he considered yet again all the advice that had been offered to him by his courtiers during the past twenty-four hours. The choice he had been left with was by no means simple. Considering how recently he had ascended the throne.

A few minutes after Big Ben had struck 6 A.M., the morning papers were placed in the corridor outside his bedroom. The King slipped quietly out of bed, put on his dressing gown and smiled at the startled footman when he opened the door. The King gathered up the papers in his arms and took them through to the morning room so that the Queen would not be disturbed. Once he had settled comfortably into his favorite chair, he turned to the editorial pages. Only one subject was worthy of their attention that day. The Fleet Street editors had all come to the same conclusion. The result of the election could not have been closer, and the new King had been placed in a most delicate position as to whom he should call to be his first Prime Minister. Most of the papers went on to give the King their personal advice on whom he should consider according to their own political affiliations. The London Times alone offered no such opinion, but suggested merely that His Majesty would have to show a great deal of courage and fortitude in facing his first constitutional crisis if the monarchy was to remain credible in a modern world. The forty-three-year-old King dropped the papers on the floor by the side of his chair and considered once again the problems of which man to select. What a strange game politics was, he considered. Only a short time ago .there had been clearly three men to consider, and then suddenly one of them was no longer a contender- The two men remaining-who he suspected had also not slept that night - could not have been more different and yet in some ways they were so alike. They had both entered the House of Commons in 1964 and, had then conducted glittering careers in their twenty-five years as members of Parliament. Between them they had held the portfolios of Trade, Defense, the Foreign Office and the Exchequer before being elected to lead their respective parties. As Prince of Wales, the King had watched them both from the sidelines and grown to admire their different contributions to public life. On a personal level, he had to admit, he had always liked one while respecting the other.

Q. The style of the passage can be described as

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 32 The passage is written in a story form and hence the style is narrative.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 33

The Press Club of India (PCI) and the Indian Women Press Corps (IWPC) on Tuesday said attacks on press freedoms had seen an exponential rise and that India did not fare too well in this regard, ranking 150 out of 180 countries in the World Press Freedom Index compiled by the Reporters Sans Frontières.

On World Press Freedom Day, the PCI said journalists had been incarcerated under draconian laws for flimsy reasons, and on some occasions, faced threat to their lives as well from "self-styled" custodians of law In the social media space.

"The freedom of the press is Integral to the functioning of a vibrant democracy. The media has to come together to reclaim its role towards realisation of this objective," they said in a joint statement.

"May 3 is celebraled as World Press Freedom Day. It is also a day to introspect and take stock of where press freedoms are located In a vastly globalised world. The attacks on the media the world over have grown in myriad ways including in advanced democracies. The freedom of the press has been subject to growing conservatism and increasing corporatisation of the industry itself. The extraneous and internal pressures have distorted the notion of a free press today," it said.

"While job insecurities have grown so have the attacks on press freedoms seen an exponential rise," said the statement.

Q. Rank of India in WPF Index is ___

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 34

The Press Club of India (PCI) and the Indian Women Press Corps (IWPC) on Tuesday said attacks on press freedoms had seen an exponential rise and that India did not fare too well in this regard, ranking 150 out of 180 countries in the World Press Freedom Index compiled by the Reporters Sans Frontières.

On World Press Freedom Day, the PCI said journalists had been incarcerated under draconian laws for flimsy reasons, and on some occasions, faced threat to their lives as well from "self-styled" custodians of law In the social media space.

"The freedom of the press is Integral to the functioning of a vibrant democracy. The media has to come together to reclaim its role towards realisation of this objective," they said in a joint statement.

"May 3 is celebraled as World Press Freedom Day. It is also a day to introspect and take stock of where press freedoms are located In a vastly globalised world. The attacks on the media the world over have grown in myriad ways including in advanced democracies. The freedom of the press has been subject to growing conservatism and increasing corporatisation of the industry itself. The extraneous and internal pressures have distorted the notion of a free press today," it said.

"While job insecurities have grown so have the attacks on press freedoms seen an exponential rise," said the statement.

Q. Press Freedom is being published since ______

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 34 It has been published every year since 2002 by Reporters Sans Frontieres (RSF) or Reporters Without Borders.

Based in Paris, RSF is an independent NGO with consultative status with the United Nations, UNESCO, the Council of Europe and the International Organization of the Francophonie (OIF).

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 35

The Press Club of India (PCI) and the Indian Women Press Corps (IWPC) on Tuesday said attacks on press freedoms had seen an exponential rise and that India did not fare too well in this regard, ranking 150 out of 180 countries in the World Press Freedom Index compiled by the Reporters Sans Frontières.

On World Press Freedom Day, the PCI said journalists had been incarcerated under draconian laws for flimsy reasons, and on some occasions, faced threat to their lives as well from "self-styled" custodians of law In the social media space.

"The freedom of the press is Integral to the functioning of a vibrant democracy. The media has to come together to reclaim its role towards realisation of this objective," they said in a joint statement.

"May 3 is celebraled as World Press Freedom Day. It is also a day to introspect and take stock of where press freedoms are located In a vastly globalised world. The attacks on the media the world over have grown in myriad ways including in advanced democracies. The freedom of the press has been subject to growing conservatism and increasing corporatisation of the industry itself. The extraneous and internal pressures have distorted the notion of a free press today," it said.

"While job insecurities have grown so have the attacks on press freedoms seen an exponential rise," said the statement.

Q. OIF Contains ___ French speaking countries

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 35 Based in Paris, RSF is an independent NGO with consultative status with the United Nations, UNESCO, the Council of Europe and the International Organization of the Francophonie (OIF).

OIF is a 54 french speaking nations collective.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 36

The Press Club of India (PCI) and the Indian Women Press Corps (IWPC) on Tuesday said attacks on press freedoms had seen an exponential rise and that India did not fare too well in this regard, ranking 150 out of 180 countries in the World Press Freedom Index compiled by the Reporters Sans Frontières.

On World Press Freedom Day, the PCI said journalists had been incarcerated under draconian laws for flimsy reasons, and on some occasions, faced threat to their lives as well from "self-styled" custodians of law In the social media space.

"The freedom of the press is Integral to the functioning of a vibrant democracy. The media has to come together to reclaim its role towards realisation of this objective," they said in a joint statement.

"May 3 is celebraled as World Press Freedom Day. It is also a day to introspect and take stock of where press freedoms are located In a vastly globalised world. The attacks on the media the world over have grown in myriad ways including in advanced democracies. The freedom of the press has been subject to growing conservatism and increasing corporatisation of the industry itself. The extraneous and internal pressures have distorted the notion of a free press today," it said.

"While job insecurities have grown so have the attacks on press freedoms seen an exponential rise," said the statement.

Q. Country lying at bottom out of 180 is _______

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 36 Top and Worst Performers

Norway (1st) Denmark (2nd), Sweden (3rd) Estonia (4th) and Finland (5th) grabbed the top positions.

North Korea remained at the bottom of the list of the 180 countries.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 37

The Press Club of India (PCI) and the Indian Women Press Corps (IWPC) on Tuesday said attacks on press freedoms had seen an exponential rise and that India did not fare too well in this regard, ranking 150 out of 180 countries in the World Press Freedom Index compiled by the Reporters Sans Frontières.

On World Press Freedom Day, the PCI said journalists had been incarcerated under draconian laws for flimsy reasons, and on some occasions, faced threat to their lives as well from "self-styled" custodians of law In the social media space.

"The freedom of the press is Integral to the functioning of a vibrant democracy. The media has to come together to reclaim its role towards realisation of this objective," they said in a joint statement.

"May 3 is celebraled as World Press Freedom Day. It is also a day to introspect and take stock of where press freedoms are located In a vastly globalised world. The attacks on the media the world over have grown in myriad ways including in advanced democracies. The freedom of the press has been subject to growing conservatism and increasing corporatisation of the industry itself. The extraneous and internal pressures have distorted the notion of a free press today," it said.

"While job insecurities have grown so have the attacks on press freedoms seen an exponential rise," said the statement.

Q. Which of the India’s neighbour is below 100?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 37 Nepal has climbed up by 30 points in the global ranking at 76th position.

The index placed Pakistan at 157th position, Sri Lanka 146th, Bangladesh 162nd and Myanmar at 176th position.

China was ranked at 175th position.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 38

UIDAI should deal with non-compliance strictly as per the Act and as per conditions in the agreement with Authentication User Agencies and e-KYC User Agencies, says CAG

A Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) audit of the functioning of Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) found out that the data stored in the Aadhar Data Vault of the institution is “vulnerable.” The report said any Aadhaar data were to be stored mandatorily on a separate Aadhaar Data Vault, but the UIDAI could not provide reasonable assurance that the “entities involved adhered to the procedures”.

The CAG asked the UIDAI to frame a suitable data archival policy to mitigate the risk of vulnerability to data protection and to reduce saturation of valuable data space due to redundant and unwanted data, by weeding out of unwanted data.

‘Enhance security’

The auditor reminded the UIDAI that Aadhaar number is a lifetime identity for Indians and as such unauthorised access to Aadhaar number can be misused in many ways. “Hence UIDAI may ensure the implementation of Aadhaar Data Vault by instituting periodic audit to enhance the security for the data stored by user organisations. It should deal with non-compliance strictly as per the Act and as per conditions in the agreement with Authentication User Agencies and e-KYC User Agencies.

Q. Consider the following statements: (2018)

Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.

Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 38 The Aadhaar platform helps service providers authenticate identity of residents electronically, in a safe and quick manner, making service delivery more cost effective and efficient. According to the GoI and UIDAI, Aadhaar is not proof of citizenship.

However, UIDAI has also published a set of contingencies when the Aadhaar issued by it is liable for rejection. An Aadhaar with mixed or anomalous biometric information or multiple names in a single name (like Urf or Alias) can be deactivated. Aadhaar can also get deactivated upon non-usage of the same for three consecutive years.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 39

UIDAI should deal with non-compliance strictly as per the Act and as per conditions in the agreement with Authentication User Agencies and e-KYC User Agencies, says CAG

A Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) audit of the functioning of Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) found out that the data stored in the Aadhar Data Vault of the institution is “vulnerable.” The report said any Aadhaar data were to be stored mandatorily on a separate Aadhaar Data Vault, but the UIDAI could not provide reasonable assurance that the “entities involved adhered to the procedures”.

The CAG asked the UIDAI to frame a suitable data archival policy to mitigate the risk of vulnerability to data protection and to reduce saturation of valuable data space due to redundant and unwanted data, by weeding out of unwanted data.

‘Enhance security’

The auditor reminded the UIDAI that Aadhaar number is a lifetime identity for Indians and as such unauthorised access to Aadhaar number can be misused in many ways. “Hence UIDAI may ensure the implementation of Aadhaar Data Vault by instituting periodic audit to enhance the security for the data stored by user organisations. It should deal with non-compliance strictly as per the Act and as per conditions in the agreement with Authentication User Agencies and e-KYC User Agencies.

Q. Consider the following statements: (2020)

Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.

State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.

Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.

Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 39 As per a Supreme Court ruling of September, 2018, Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than six months.

The Supreme Court has struck down Section 2(d) of the Aadhaar Act which allowed storage of such data for a period of five years, to refrain government authorities from storing metadata of transactions.

SC has also struck down Aadhaar Regulation 26(c) which allowed Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) to store metadata relating to Aadhaar based authentications or authentication history for private firms. Accordingly, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has directed insurance companies not to mandatorily ask for the Aadhaar details for know-you-customer (KYC) requirements or carry out authentication using e-KYC from UIDAI.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 40

UIDAI should deal with non-compliance strictly as per the Act and as per conditions in the agreement with Authentication User Agencies and e-KYC User Agencies, says CAG

A Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) audit of the functioning of Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) found out that the data stored in the Aadhar Data Vault of the institution is “vulnerable.” The report said any Aadhaar data were to be stored mandatorily on a separate Aadhaar Data Vault, but the UIDAI could not provide reasonable assurance that the “entities involved adhered to the procedures”.

The CAG asked the UIDAI to frame a suitable data archival policy to mitigate the risk of vulnerability to data protection and to reduce saturation of valuable data space due to redundant and unwanted data, by weeding out of unwanted data.

‘Enhance security’

The auditor reminded the UIDAI that Aadhaar number is a lifetime identity for Indians and as such unauthorised access to Aadhaar number can be misused in many ways. “Hence UIDAI may ensure the implementation of Aadhaar Data Vault by instituting periodic audit to enhance the security for the data stored by user organisations. It should deal with non-compliance strictly as per the Act and as per conditions in the agreement with Authentication User Agencies and e-KYC User Agencies.

Q. The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply? (2018)

It can be integrated into any electronic device.

Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 40 API is the acronym for Application Programming Interface, which is a software intermediary that allows two applications to communicate with each other.

Open API allows for building Aadhaar enabled applications. Such applications can integrate the app or website with Aadhaar and use authentication services.

APIs support multi-mode authentication (Iris, fingerprint, OTP and biometric).

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 41

UIDAI should deal with non-compliance strictly as per the Act and as per conditions in the agreement with Authentication User Agencies and e-KYC User Agencies, says CAG

A Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) audit of the functioning of Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) found out that the data stored in the Aadhar Data Vault of the institution is “vulnerable.” The report said any Aadhaar data were to be stored mandatorily on a separate Aadhaar Data Vault, but the UIDAI could not provide reasonable assurance that the “entities involved adhered to the procedures”.

The CAG asked the UIDAI to frame a suitable data archival policy to mitigate the risk of vulnerability to data protection and to reduce saturation of valuable data space due to redundant and unwanted data, by weeding out of unwanted data.

‘Enhance security’

The auditor reminded the UIDAI that Aadhaar number is a lifetime identity for Indians and as such unauthorised access to Aadhaar number can be misused in many ways. “Hence UIDAI may ensure the implementation of Aadhaar Data Vault by instituting periodic audit to enhance the security for the data stored by user organisations. It should deal with non-compliance strictly as per the Act and as per conditions in the agreement with Authentication User Agencies and e-KYC User Agencies.

Q. Minimum time of residence for issue of Aadhar in India?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 41 In India, Aadhaar numbers are only issued to individuals who have resided for a period of 182 days or more in the 12 months before the date of application.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 42

UIDAI should deal with non-compliance strictly as per the Act and as per conditions in the agreement with Authentication User Agencies and e-KYC User Agencies, says CAG

A Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) audit of the functioning of Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) found out that the data stored in the Aadhar Data Vault of the institution is “vulnerable.” The report said any Aadhaar data were to be stored mandatorily on a separate Aadhaar Data Vault, but the UIDAI could not provide reasonable assurance that the “entities involved adhered to the procedures”.

The CAG asked the UIDAI to frame a suitable data archival policy to mitigate the risk of vulnerability to data protection and to reduce saturation of valuable data space due to redundant and unwanted data, by weeding out of unwanted data.

‘Enhance security’

The auditor reminded the UIDAI that Aadhaar number is a lifetime identity for Indians and as such unauthorised access to Aadhaar number can be misused in many ways. “Hence UIDAI may ensure the implementation of Aadhaar Data Vault by instituting periodic audit to enhance the security for the data stored by user organisations. It should deal with non-compliance strictly as per the Act and as per conditions in the agreement with Authentication User Agencies and e-KYC User Agencies.

Q. Which article deals with powers and duties of CAG?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 42 Article 149 deals with Duties and Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

Article 150 says that the accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of the CAG, prescribe.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 43

Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana on Thursday dubbed it “unfortunate” that only 17 of 37 women recommended by the Supreme Court collegium were appointed as judges in high courts while the rest still remain pending with the government.

“For the High Courts, we have recommended so far 192 candidates. Out of these, 37, that is 19% were women. This is certainly an improvement over the percentage of incumbent women judges in high courts which stands at 11.8%. Unfortunately, so far only 17 of the 37 women recommended were appointed. Others are still pending with the government,” Chief Justice Ramana said.

The top judge said the appointment of women judges should not be reduced to a mere “symbolic” gesture. Women judges add rich experience and bring to the table a nuanced understanding of the differing impacts that certain laws may have on both men and women.

“Now we have four women judges in the Supreme Court, which is the highest ever in its history. In near future, we shall be witnessing the first ever female Chief Justice of India. But, I think, we are still far away from ensuring at least 50% representation of women in our judiciary. The legal profession still remains male-dominated, with severe under-representation of women,” the CJI noted in his speech on the occasion of the International Day of Women Judges.

Chief Justice Ramana pointed to how [x] with 52%, Assam with 46%, Andhra Pradesh with 45%, Odisha with 42%, Rajasthan with 40% of women among judicial officers have done well with reservation for women. “I strongly feel that the policy of providing reservation to women needs to be replicated at all levels and in all the States,” the CJI said.

Q. State with highest percent of women judges is _______

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 43 States such as Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha and Rajasthan have benefited from such reservation as they now have 40-50% women judicial officers. With Telangana having 52% women judges the highest in the country.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 44

Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana on Thursday dubbed it “unfortunate” that only 17 of 37 women recommended by the Supreme Court collegium were appointed as judges in high courts while the rest still remain pending with the government.

“For the High Courts, we have recommended so far 192 candidates. Out of these, 37, that is 19% were women. This is certainly an improvement over the percentage of incumbent women judges in high courts which stands at 11.8%. Unfortunately, so far only 17 of the 37 women recommended were appointed. Others are still pending with the government,” Chief Justice Ramana said.

The top judge said the appointment of women judges should not be reduced to a mere “symbolic” gesture. Women judges add rich experience and bring to the table a nuanced understanding of the differing impacts that certain laws may have on both men and women.

“Now we have four women judges in the Supreme Court, which is the highest ever in its history. In near future, we shall be witnessing the first ever female Chief Justice of India. But, I think, we are still far away from ensuring at least 50% representation of women in our judiciary. The legal profession still remains male-dominated, with severe under-representation of women,” the CJI noted in his speech on the occasion of the International Day of Women Judges.

Chief Justice Ramana pointed to how [x] with 52%, Assam with 46%, Andhra Pradesh with 45%, Odisha with 42%, Rajasthan with 40% of women among judicial officers have done well with reservation for women. “I strongly feel that the policy of providing reservation to women needs to be replicated at all levels and in all the States,” the CJI said.

Q. International Day of Women Judges is celebrated on ______

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 44 United Nations General Assembly Resolution 75/274 designated 10th March the International Day of Women Judges in 2021.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 45

Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana on Thursday dubbed it “unfortunate” that only 17 of 37 women recommended by the Supreme Court collegium were appointed as judges in high courts while the rest still remain pending with the government.

“For the High Courts, we have recommended so far 192 candidates. Out of these, 37, that is 19% were women. This is certainly an improvement over the percentage of incumbent women judges in high courts which stands at 11.8%. Unfortunately, so far only 17 of the 37 women recommended were appointed. Others are still pending with the government,” Chief Justice Ramana said.

The top judge said the appointment of women judges should not be reduced to a mere “symbolic” gesture. Women judges add rich experience and bring to the table a nuanced understanding of the differing impacts that certain laws may have on both men and women.

“Now we have four women judges in the Supreme Court, which is the highest ever in its history. In near future, we shall be witnessing the first ever female Chief Justice of India. But, I think, we are still far away from ensuring at least 50% representation of women in our judiciary. The legal profession still remains male-dominated, with severe under-representation of women,” the CJI noted in his speech on the occasion of the International Day of Women Judges.

Chief Justice Ramana pointed to how [x] with 52%, Assam with 46%, Andhra Pradesh with 45%, Odisha with 42%, Rajasthan with 40% of women among judicial officers have done well with reservation for women. “I strongly feel that the policy of providing reservation to women needs to be replicated at all levels and in all the States,” the CJI said.

Q. International Day of Women Judges resolution was passed by ____

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 45 United Nations General Assembly Resolution 75/274 designated 10th March the International Day of Women Judges in 2021.

India was among the nations that sponsored the resolution, which was moved by Qatar.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 46

Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana on Thursday dubbed it “unfortunate” that only 17 of 37 women recommended by the Supreme Court collegium were appointed as judges in high courts while the rest still remain pending with the government.

“For the High Courts, we have recommended so far 192 candidates. Out of these, 37, that is 19% were women. This is certainly an improvement over the percentage of incumbent women judges in high courts which stands at 11.8%. Unfortunately, so far only 17 of the 37 women recommended were appointed. Others are still pending with the government,” Chief Justice Ramana said.

The top judge said the appointment of women judges should not be reduced to a mere “symbolic” gesture. Women judges add rich experience and bring to the table a nuanced understanding of the differing impacts that certain laws may have on both men and women.

“Now we have four women judges in the Supreme Court, which is the highest ever in its history. In near future, we shall be witnessing the first ever female Chief Justice of India. But, I think, we are still far away from ensuring at least 50% representation of women in our judiciary. The legal profession still remains male-dominated, with severe under-representation of women,” the CJI noted in his speech on the occasion of the International Day of Women Judges.

Chief Justice Ramana pointed to how [x] with 52%, Assam with 46%, Andhra Pradesh with 45%, Odisha with 42%, Rajasthan with 40% of women among judicial officers have done well with reservation for women. “I strongly feel that the policy of providing reservation to women needs to be replicated at all levels and in all the States,” the CJI said.

Q. Which of the SDGs works for gender equality?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 46 Combating gender disparity in the judicial services will also help achieve the Sustainable Development Goals of the United Nations.

SDG Goal 5: Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 47

Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana on Thursday dubbed it “unfortunate” that only 17 of 37 women recommended by the Supreme Court collegium were appointed as judges in high courts while the rest still remain pending with the government.

“For the High Courts, we have recommended so far 192 candidates. Out of these, 37, that is 19% were women. This is certainly an improvement over the percentage of incumbent women judges in high courts which stands at 11.8%. Unfortunately, so far only 17 of the 37 women recommended were appointed. Others are still pending with the government,” Chief Justice Ramana said.

The top judge said the appointment of women judges should not be reduced to a mere “symbolic” gesture. Women judges add rich experience and bring to the table a nuanced understanding of the differing impacts that certain laws may have on both men and women.

“Now we have four women judges in the Supreme Court, which is the highest ever in its history. In near future, we shall be witnessing the first ever female Chief Justice of India. But, I think, we are still far away from ensuring at least 50% representation of women in our judiciary. The legal profession still remains male-dominated, with severe under-representation of women,” the CJI noted in his speech on the occasion of the International Day of Women Judges.

Chief Justice Ramana pointed to how [x] with 52%, Assam with 46%, Andhra Pradesh with 45%, Odisha with 42%, Rajasthan with 40% of women among judicial officers have done well with reservation for women. “I strongly feel that the policy of providing reservation to women needs to be replicated at all levels and in all the States,” the CJI said.

Q. What percent of 1.7million advocates in India are women?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 47 The situation of women lawyers in the country is not any better. Out of 1.7 million advocates registered, only 15% are women.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 48

Owing to the Russian invasion of Ukraine, Europe will no longer be attempting this year to send its first rover to Mars.

And if cooperation on the mission with Roscosmos, Russia’s state space corporation, cannot be resumed, then it’s likely to be 2026 or 2028 before the ExoMars rover is blasted off toward the red planet, the European Space Agency said Thursday.

Previous plans to launch the probe with Russia this September are now “practically impossible but also politically impossible,” said the agency’s director, Dr. Josef Aschbacher. “This year, the launch is gone.”

The ESA had previously said that the mission was “very unlikely”. The decision to suspend cooperation with Roscosmos was taken by ESA’s ruling council, at a meeting this week in Paris.

“We deeply deplore the human casualties and tragic consequences of the aggression towards Ukraine,” an ESA statement said. “While recognising the impact on scientific exploration of space, ESA is fully aligned with the sanctions imposed on Russia by its member states.”

Q. ROSCOSMOS will not cooperate with ________

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 48 Earlier, the Russian space agency Roscosmos held that it will not cooperate with Germany on joint experiments in the Russian segment of the International Space Station (ISS).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 49

Owing to the Russian invasion of Ukraine, Europe will no longer be attempting this year to send its first rover to Mars.

And if cooperation on the mission with Roscosmos, Russia’s state space corporation, cannot be resumed, then it’s likely to be 2026 or 2028 before the ExoMars rover is blasted off toward the red planet, the European Space Agency said Thursday.

Previous plans to launch the probe with Russia this September are now “practically impossible but also politically impossible,” said the agency’s director, Dr. Josef Aschbacher. “This year, the launch is gone.”

The ESA had previously said that the mission was “very unlikely”. The decision to suspend cooperation with Roscosmos was taken by ESA’s ruling council, at a meeting this week in Paris.

“We deeply deplore the human casualties and tragic consequences of the aggression towards Ukraine,” an ESA statement said. “While recognising the impact on scientific exploration of space, ESA is fully aligned with the sanctions imposed on Russia by its member states.”

Q. Russia took NASA’s place in which year?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 49 ESA and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) were the original ExoMars collaborators, but NASA dropped out in 2012 due to budgeting problems.

Russia took NASA’s place in the project in 2013.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 50

Owing to the Russian invasion of Ukraine, Europe will no longer be attempting this year to send its first rover to Mars.

And if cooperation on the mission with Roscosmos, Russia’s state space corporation, cannot be resumed, then it’s likely to be 2026 or 2028 before the ExoMars rover is blasted off toward the red planet, the European Space Agency said Thursday.

Previous plans to launch the probe with Russia this September are now “practically impossible but also politically impossible,” said the agency’s director, Dr. Josef Aschbacher. “This year, the launch is gone.”

The ESA had previously said that the mission was “very unlikely”. The decision to suspend cooperation with Roscosmos was taken by ESA’s ruling council, at a meeting this week in Paris.

“We deeply deplore the human casualties and tragic consequences of the aggression towards Ukraine,” an ESA statement said. “While recognising the impact on scientific exploration of space, ESA is fully aligned with the sanctions imposed on Russia by its member states.”

Q. EXOMARS is a _______ stage mission

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 50 It is a two-stage mission

First Part:

Its first mission launched atop a Proton-M rocket in 2016 and consisted of the European Trace Gas Orbiter and test lander called Schiaparelli.

The orbiter was successful while the test lander failed during its descent to Mars.

Second Part:

It comprises a rover and surface platform:

This second part of the mission was originally planned for July 2020. But it was postponed until this September due to technical issues.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 51

Owing to the Russian invasion of Ukraine, Europe will no longer be attempting this year to send its first rover to Mars.

And if cooperation on the mission with Roscosmos, Russia’s state space corporation, cannot be resumed, then it’s likely to be 2026 or 2028 before the ExoMars rover is blasted off toward the red planet, the European Space Agency said Thursday.

Previous plans to launch the probe with Russia this September are now “practically impossible but also politically impossible,” said the agency’s director, Dr. Josef Aschbacher. “This year, the launch is gone.”

The ESA had previously said that the mission was “very unlikely”. The decision to suspend cooperation with Roscosmos was taken by ESA’s ruling council, at a meeting this week in Paris.

“We deeply deplore the human casualties and tragic consequences of the aggression towards Ukraine,” an ESA statement said. “While recognising the impact on scientific exploration of space, ESA is fully aligned with the sanctions imposed on Russia by its member states.”

Q. Hope Mars mission is from which country?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 51

NASA’s Perseverance Rover

UAE’s Hope Mars Mission (UAE’s first-ever interplanetary mission)

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 52

Owing to the Russian invasion of Ukraine, Europe will no longer be attempting this year to send its first rover to Mars.

And if cooperation on the mission with Roscosmos, Russia’s state space corporation, cannot be resumed, then it’s likely to be 2026 or 2028 before the ExoMars rover is blasted off toward the red planet, the European Space Agency said Thursday.

Previous plans to launch the probe with Russia this September are now “practically impossible but also politically impossible,” said the agency’s director, Dr. Josef Aschbacher. “This year, the launch is gone.”

The ESA had previously said that the mission was “very unlikely”. The decision to suspend cooperation with Roscosmos was taken by ESA’s ruling council, at a meeting this week in Paris.

“We deeply deplore the human casualties and tragic consequences of the aggression towards Ukraine,” an ESA statement said. “While recognising the impact on scientific exploration of space, ESA is fully aligned with the sanctions imposed on Russia by its member states.”

Q. Which one of the following planets has the largest number of natural satellites or moons?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 52 Jupiter has 53 named moons and another 26 awaiting official names. Combined, scientists now think Jupiter has 79 moons.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 53

Terming the current price levels for as ‘unsustainable’, the Finance Ministry said on Tuesday that these prices are expected to ease soon while asserting that India is well positioned to cope with escalated import costs thanks to its record forex reserves.

The impact of the recent developments, including the Ukraine-Russia crisis, on India’s growth, inflation, current account and fiscal deficits will depend on the persistence of commodities prices at elevated levels, the ministry noted.

“Given the inherently unsustainable nature of high prices, international commodity prices are expected to level off early with increase in supplies outside the crisis zone,” the ministry projected in its monthly review of the economy for February.

The geopolitical tensions between Russia and Ukraine, the ministry said, has triggered a ‘massive turbulence in the global economy’ with prices of crude oil and other commodities shooting up and ‘escalating the cost of India’s import basket’. However, its impact on India’s activity level this month can only be assessed a month later, it said, noting that forex reserves are adequate to finance over 12 months of imports.

Q. Largest Oil producer of world is ______

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 53 Russia is the world’s third-largest oil producer, trailing only Saudi Arabia and the United States.

In January 2022, Russia’s total oil production was 11.3 million barrels per day (mb/d), of which 10 mb/d was crude oil, according to the Paris-based intergovernmental International Energy Agency (IEA).

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 54

Terming the current price levels for as ‘unsustainable’, the Finance Ministry said on Tuesday that these prices are expected to ease soon while asserting that India is well positioned to cope with escalated import costs thanks to its record forex reserves.

The impact of the recent developments, including the Ukraine-Russia crisis, on India’s growth, inflation, current account and fiscal deficits will depend on the persistence of commodities prices at elevated levels, the ministry noted.

“Given the inherently unsustainable nature of high prices, international commodity prices are expected to level off early with increase in supplies outside the crisis zone,” the ministry projected in its monthly review of the economy for February.

The geopolitical tensions between Russia and Ukraine, the ministry said, has triggered a ‘massive turbulence in the global economy’ with prices of crude oil and other commodities shooting up and ‘escalating the cost of India’s import basket’. However, its impact on India’s activity level this month can only be assessed a month later, it said, noting that forex reserves are adequate to finance over 12 months of imports.

Q. World’s largest exporter of crude oil is ______

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 54 Russia is the world's largest exporter of crude and oil products, having shipped 7.8 mb/d in December 2021, and the second largest supplier of crude to the world with only Saudi Arabia exporting more crude than it
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 55

Terming the current price levels for as ‘unsustainable’, the Finance Ministry said on Tuesday that these prices are expected to ease soon while asserting that India is well positioned to cope with escalated import costs thanks to its record forex reserves.

The impact of the recent developments, including the Ukraine-Russia crisis, on India’s growth, inflation, current account and fiscal deficits will depend on the persistence of commodities prices at elevated levels, the ministry noted.

“Given the inherently unsustainable nature of high prices, international commodity prices are expected to level off early with increase in supplies outside the crisis zone,” the ministry projected in its monthly review of the economy for February.

The geopolitical tensions between Russia and Ukraine, the ministry said, has triggered a ‘massive turbulence in the global economy’ with prices of crude oil and other commodities shooting up and ‘escalating the cost of India’s import basket’. However, its impact on India’s activity level this month can only be assessed a month later, it said, noting that forex reserves are adequate to finance over 12 months of imports.

Q. World’s largest importer of Crude oil is _______

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 55 Still, without the rest of Europe and China joining the import ban on Russian oil and gas, the impact would not be as severe on Russia's economy.

China, which is the world's largest importer of crude oil, is Russia's single-biggest buyer.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 56

Terming the current price levels for as ‘unsustainable’, the Finance Ministry said on Tuesday that these prices are expected to ease soon while asserting that India is well positioned to cope with escalated import costs thanks to its record forex reserves.

The impact of the recent developments, including the Ukraine-Russia crisis, on India’s growth, inflation, current account and fiscal deficits will depend on the persistence of commodities prices at elevated levels, the ministry noted.

“Given the inherently unsustainable nature of high prices, international commodity prices are expected to level off early with increase in supplies outside the crisis zone,” the ministry projected in its monthly review of the economy for February.

The geopolitical tensions between Russia and Ukraine, the ministry said, has triggered a ‘massive turbulence in the global economy’ with prices of crude oil and other commodities shooting up and ‘escalating the cost of India’s import basket’. However, its impact on India’s activity level this month can only be assessed a month later, it said, noting that forex reserves are adequate to finance over 12 months of imports.

Q. How much is one barrel of oil approximately equal to?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 56 1 Barrel of crude oil has 159 litres approximately
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 57

Terming the current price levels for as ‘unsustainable’, the Finance Ministry said on Tuesday that these prices are expected to ease soon while asserting that India is well positioned to cope with escalated import costs thanks to its record forex reserves.

The impact of the recent developments, including the Ukraine-Russia crisis, on India’s growth, inflation, current account and fiscal deficits will depend on the persistence of commodities prices at elevated levels, the ministry noted.

“Given the inherently unsustainable nature of high prices, international commodity prices are expected to level off early with increase in supplies outside the crisis zone,” the ministry projected in its monthly review of the economy for February.

The geopolitical tensions between Russia and Ukraine, the ministry said, has triggered a ‘massive turbulence in the global economy’ with prices of crude oil and other commodities shooting up and ‘escalating the cost of India’s import basket’. However, its impact on India’s activity level this month can only be assessed a month later, it said, noting that forex reserves are adequate to finance over 12 months of imports.

Q. What percent of its oil is imported by India?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 57 India imports 85% of its oil from about 40 countries, the bulk coming from the Middle East and the US.

From Russia, India imports 2% of its supplies, including oil which it converts to petroleum products after refining. So, it’s not Russian oil but oil in general and its rising prices that have India worried.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 58

After the Parliament approval, President of India, gave his assent for the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act, 2019 (POCSO Act). The said Act has been enacted to protect children i.e. any person below 18 years of age, from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography and provide for the establishment of Special Courts for the trial of such offences and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

In the recent past incidences of child sexual abuse cases demonstrating the inhumane mind-set of the abusers, who have been barbaric in their approach towards young victims, is rising in the country. Children are becoming easy prey because of their tender age, physical vulnerabilities and inexperience of life and society.

The Act defines "child pornography" as any visual depiction of sexually explicit conduct involving a child which include photograph, video, digital or computergenerated image indistinguishable from an actual child, and image created, adapted, or modified, but appear to depict a child. The Act also penalizes storage of certain material. Section 15 of the Act reads, "any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child, but fails to delete or destroy or report the same to the designated authority, which is the police unless otherwise stated, with an intention to share or transmit child pornography, shall be liable to fine." The section goes further and makes any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child for transmitting or propagating or displaying or distributing in any manner at any time except for the purpose of reporting, or for use as evidence in court, liable for imprisonment which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.

There is a strong need to take stringent measures to deter the rising trend of child sex abuse in the country, the proposed amendments to the said Act make provisions for enhancement of punishments for various offences so as to deter the perpetrators and ensure safety, security and dignified childhood for a child. It also empowers the Central Government to make rules for the manner of deleting or destroying or reporting about pornographic material in any form involving a child to the designated authority.

Q. What, according to the passage, is the reason for a special law and on protection of children from sexual offences?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 58 Correct Answer is (a)

Children are immature and may take a decision thinking it to be correct when in reality it is not so.

All options may be correct but note we have to always answer based on the passage. In the 2nd paragraph, the author mentions the reasons for special protection for children (…Children are becoming easy prey because of their tender age, physical vulnerabilities and inexperience of life and society).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.Other options are therefore incorrect as they cannot be derived from the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 59

After the Parliament approval, President of India, gave his assent for the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act, 2019 (POCSO Act). The said Act has been enacted to protect children i.e. any person below 18 years of age, from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography and provide for the establishment of Special Courts for the trial of such offences and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

In the recent past incidences of child sexual abuse cases demonstrating the inhumane mind-set of the abusers, who have been barbaric in their approach towards young victims, is rising in the country. Children are becoming easy prey because of their tender age, physical vulnerabilities and inexperience of life and society.

The Act defines "child pornography" as any visual depiction of sexually explicit conduct involving a child which include photograph, video, digital or computergenerated image indistinguishable from an actual child, and image created, adapted, or modified, but appear to depict a child. The Act also penalizes storage of certain material. Section 15 of the Act reads, "any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child, but fails to delete or destroy or report the same to the designated authority, which is the police unless otherwise stated, with an intention to share or transmit child pornography, shall be liable to fine." The section goes further and makes any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child for transmitting or propagating or displaying or distributing in any manner at any time except for the purpose of reporting, or for use as evidence in court, liable for imprisonment which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.

There is a strong need to take stringent measures to deter the rising trend of child sex abuse in the country, the proposed amendments to the said Act make provisions for enhancement of punishments for various offences so as to deter the perpetrators and ensure safety, security and dignified childhood for a child. It also empowers the Central Government to make rules for the manner of deleting or destroying or reporting about pornographic material in any form involving a child to the designated authority.

Q. Sudipta, aged 16 years sends some nude pics of herself to her boyfriend Abhilash through WhatsApp.

Abhilash, without telling Supidta uploads it on a porn website. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 59 Correct Answer is (d)

Only Abhilash is liable under the POCSO Act.

Sudipta is a child as she is below 18 years of age.

As per the definition of 'child pornography' given in the 3rd paragraph (…The Act defines "child pornography" as any visual depiction of sexually explicit conduct involving a child which include photograph, video, digital or computer-generated image indistinguishable from an actual child, and image created, adapted, or modified, but appear to depict a child), the pics come within this definition.

Under Section 15, Abhilash is liable as he shared child pornographic material (…any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child, but fails to delete or destroy or report the same to the designated authority, which is the police unless otherwise stated, with an intention to share or transmit child pornography, shall be liable to fine).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.Options (a), (b) and (c) the therefore, incorrect.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 60

After the Parliament approval, President of India, gave his assent for the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act, 2019 (POCSO Act). The said Act has been enacted to protect children i.e. any person below 18 years of age, from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography and provide for the establishment of Special Courts for the trial of such offences and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

In the recent past incidences of child sexual abuse cases demonstrating the inhumane mind-set of the abusers, who have been barbaric in their approach towards young victims, is rising in the country. Children are becoming easy prey because of their tender age, physical vulnerabilities and inexperience of life and society.

The Act defines "child pornography" as any visual depiction of sexually explicit conduct involving a child which include photograph, video, digital or computergenerated image indistinguishable from an actual child, and image created, adapted, or modified, but appear to depict a child. The Act also penalizes storage of certain material. Section 15 of the Act reads, "any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child, but fails to delete or destroy or report the same to the designated authority, which is the police unless otherwise stated, with an intention to share or transmit child pornography, shall be liable to fine." The section goes further and makes any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child for transmitting or propagating or displaying or distributing in any manner at any time except for the purpose of reporting, or for use as evidence in court, liable for imprisonment which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.

There is a strong need to take stringent measures to deter the rising trend of child sex abuse in the country, the proposed amendments to the said Act make provisions for enhancement of punishments for various offences so as to deter the perpetrators and ensure safety, security and dignified childhood for a child. It also empowers the Central Government to make rules for the manner of deleting or destroying or reporting about pornographic material in any form involving a child to the designated authority.

Q. Anees shows a porn clip to his friend Gautam on his phone. The clip involves a 24 year old infamous porn star. Who all are liable under the POCSO Act?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 60 Correct Answer is (d)

Neither Anees nor Gautam. Please note that we are concerned only with POCSO Act which deals with children i.e. persons below 18 years of age, as mentioned in the 1st paragraph (…The said Act has been enacted to protect children i.e. any person below 18 years of age, from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography…).

Since the concerned person in the porn clip is above 18 years of age, POCSO Act is not attracted.

Though they may be liable under other laws but that is not mentioned in the passage and therefore not a concern for us. Hence, options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 61

After the Parliament approval, President of India, gave his assent for the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act, 2019 (POCSO Act). The said Act has been enacted to protect children i.e. any person below 18 years of age, from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography and provide for the establishment of Special Courts for the trial of such offences and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

In the recent past incidences of child sexual abuse cases demonstrating the inhumane mind-set of the abusers, who have been barbaric in their approach towards young victims, is rising in the country. Children are becoming easy prey because of their tender age, physical vulnerabilities and inexperience of life and society.

The Act defines "child pornography" as any visual depiction of sexually explicit conduct involving a child which include photograph, video, digital or computergenerated image indistinguishable from an actual child, and image created, adapted, or modified, but appear to depict a child. The Act also penalizes storage of certain material. Section 15 of the Act reads, "any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child, but fails to delete or destroy or report the same to the designated authority, which is the police unless otherwise stated, with an intention to share or transmit child pornography, shall be liable to fine." The section goes further and makes any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child for transmitting or propagating or displaying or distributing in any manner at any time except for the purpose of reporting, or for use as evidence in court, liable for imprisonment which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.

There is a strong need to take stringent measures to deter the rising trend of child sex abuse in the country, the proposed amendments to the said Act make provisions for enhancement of punishments for various offences so as to deter the perpetrators and ensure safety, security and dignified childhood for a child. It also empowers the Central Government to make rules for the manner of deleting or destroying or reporting about pornographic material in any form involving a child to the designated authority.

Q. What assumption has been made behind the imposition of harsher penalties under the amended POCSO Act?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 61 Correct Answer is (b)

The harsher the punishment for a crime, the lesser is its commission. In the last paragraph, the author mentions this (…There is a strong need to take stringent measures to deter the rising trend of child sex abuse in the country, the proposed amendments to the said Act make provisions for enhancement of punishments for various offences so as to deter the perpetrators and ensure safety, security and dignified childhood for a child).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) is incorrect as conviction rate is not discussed in the passage.

  • Option (c) is incorrect as no relation between legal protection and age of a child is mentioned in the passage.

  • Option (d) is a moral statement not based on information supplied in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 62

After the Parliament approval, President of India, gave his assent for the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act, 2019 (POCSO Act). The said Act has been enacted to protect children i.e. any person below 18 years of age, from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography and provide for the establishment of Special Courts for the trial of such offences and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

In the recent past incidences of child sexual abuse cases demonstrating the inhumane mind-set of the abusers, who have been barbaric in their approach towards young victims, is rising in the country. Children are becoming easy prey because of their tender age, physical vulnerabilities and inexperience of life and society.

The Act defines "child pornography" as any visual depiction of sexually explicit conduct involving a child which include photograph, video, digital or computergenerated image indistinguishable from an actual child, and image created, adapted, or modified, but appear to depict a child. The Act also penalizes storage of certain material. Section 15 of the Act reads, "any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child, but fails to delete or destroy or report the same to the designated authority, which is the police unless otherwise stated, with an intention to share or transmit child pornography, shall be liable to fine." The section goes further and makes any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child for transmitting or propagating or displaying or distributing in any manner at any time except for the purpose of reporting, or for use as evidence in court, liable for imprisonment which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.

There is a strong need to take stringent measures to deter the rising trend of child sex abuse in the country, the proposed amendments to the said Act make provisions for enhancement of punishments for various offences so as to deter the perpetrators and ensure safety, security and dignified childhood for a child. It also empowers the Central Government to make rules for the manner of deleting or destroying or reporting about pornographic material in any form involving a child to the designated authority.

Q. Ojaswee is in a WhatsApp group which consist of, besides himself, Gourav and Divyang. Divyang sends a child porn clip on the group. Ojaswee instantly deletes it and leaves the group. Gourav forwards it to another friend of his. Who all are liable ?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 62 Correct Answer is (b)

Only Divyang and Gourav. In the 3rd paragraph, transmission of child pornography is punishable (…The section goes further and makes any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child for transmitting or propagating or displaying or distributing in any manner at any time except for the purpose of reporting, or for use as evidence in court, liable for imprisonment which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.). Divyang transmitted child porn clip to the group. Gourav transmitted it to another friend. Ojaswee is not liable as he deleted the clip and left the group. Refer exception to liability in the 3rd paragraph (…any person, who stores or possesses pornographic material in any form involving a child, but fails to delete or destroy…).

Ojaswee destroyed it by deleting it from his mobile.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.Options (a), (c) and (d) are therefore, incorrect.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 63

The Parliament passed the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which promises to strengthen the rights of consumers and provides a mechanism for redressal of complaints regarding defects in goods and deficiency in services.Union Food and Consumer Affairs Minister stressed that the overall purpose of the legislation was to ease the process of addressing grievances of consumers.

TheAct also seeks to bring in e-commerce under their jurisdiction and hold celebrities accountable for false and misleading advertisements of products that they endorse.

The Act proposed strict action against the advertiser in case of misleading advertisements but not against the media through which the advertisement is being publicised. It also provides for product liability action on account of harm caused to consumers due to defective products or deficient services.Product liability means the liability of a product manufacturer, service provider or seller to compensate a consumer for any harm or injury caused by a defective good or deficient service.

Under the Act, a consumer is defined as a person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration.

It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multilevel marketing or direct selling. Only a consumer can bring an action under the Act. Certain consumer rights have been defined in the Act, including the right to: (i) be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property; (ii) be informed of the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods or services; (iii) be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices; and (iv) seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.

The central government will set up a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers. It will regulate matters related to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements. The CCPA will have an investigation wing, headed by a DirectorGeneral, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into such violations.The CCPA may impose a penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser of up to Rs 10 lakh and imprisonment for up to two years for a false or misleading advertisement. In case of a subsequent offence, the fine may extend to Rs 50 lakh and imprisonment of up to five years.

Q. Suppose a misleading advertisement is shown on 'XY' channel and 'ZA' channel for consecutive two weeks. Who all are liable in this case ?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 63 Correct Answer is (c)

The maker of the misleading advertisement. It is clearly mentioned in the 2nd paragraph that only the advertiser is liable and not the channels on which the advertisement is shown (…The Act proposed strict action against the advertiser in case of misleading advertisements but not against the media through which the advertisement is being publicised).Option (a) and (b) are therefore incorrect.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.Option (d) is incorrect as nowhere in the passage is it mentioned that a consumer is liable in such cases.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 64

The Parliament passed the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which promises to strengthen the rights of consumers and provides a mechanism for redressal of complaints regarding defects in goods and deficiency in services.Union Food and Consumer Affairs Minister stressed that the overall purpose of the legislation was to ease the process of addressing grievances of consumers.

TheAct also seeks to bring in e-commerce under their jurisdiction and hold celebrities accountable for false and misleading advertisements of products that they endorse.

The Act proposed strict action against the advertiser in case of misleading advertisements but not against the media through which the advertisement is being publicised. It also provides for product liability action on account of harm caused to consumers due to defective products or deficient services.Product liability means the liability of a product manufacturer, service provider or seller to compensate a consumer for any harm or injury caused by a defective good or deficient service.

Under the Act, a consumer is defined as a person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration.

It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multilevel marketing or direct selling. Only a consumer can bring an action under the Act. Certain consumer rights have been defined in the Act, including the right to: (i) be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property; (ii) be informed of the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods or services; (iii) be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices; and (iv) seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.

The central government will set up a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers. It will regulate matters related to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements. The CCPA will have an investigation wing, headed by a DirectorGeneral, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into such violations.The CCPA may impose a penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser of up to Rs 10 lakh and imprisonment for up to two years for a false or misleading advertisement. In case of a subsequent offence, the fine may extend to Rs 50 lakh and imprisonment of up to five years.

Q. Ankit brought 1000 kgs of wheat from Kartik. He grinds the wheat and uses the flour so produced for making bread, which he then sells in the open market.

The wheat turns to be infested with pests making it unsuitable for use. What course of action is available to Ankit ?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 64 Correct Answer is (d)

Ankit cannot take action against Kartik under the Consumer Protection Act. In the 3rd paragraph, it is mentioned that only a consumer can file a case under the Act. Ankit is not a consumer as he purchased the wheat for commercial purposes i.e. for making bread to be sold in the market (…Under the Act, a consumer is defined as a person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration.

It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose…Only a consumer can bring an action under the Act).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) is therefore incorrect.

  • Option (b) is legally correct as per Indian Contract Act but since it is not mentioned in the passage, we cannot use this external knowledge. Hence, it cannot be a correct option.

  • Option (c) is not based on information supplied in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 65

The Parliament passed the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which promises to strengthen the rights of consumers and provides a mechanism for redressal of complaints regarding defects in goods and deficiency in services.Union Food and Consumer Affairs Minister stressed that the overall purpose of the legislation was to ease the process of addressing grievances of consumers.

TheAct also seeks to bring in e-commerce under their jurisdiction and hold celebrities accountable for false and misleading advertisements of products that they endorse.

The Act proposed strict action against the advertiser in case of misleading advertisements but not against the media through which the advertisement is being publicised. It also provides for product liability action on account of harm caused to consumers due to defective products or deficient services.Product liability means the liability of a product manufacturer, service provider or seller to compensate a consumer for any harm or injury caused by a defective good or deficient service.

Under the Act, a consumer is defined as a person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration.

It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multilevel marketing or direct selling. Only a consumer can bring an action under the Act. Certain consumer rights have been defined in the Act, including the right to: (i) be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property; (ii) be informed of the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods or services; (iii) be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices; and (iv) seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.

The central government will set up a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers. It will regulate matters related to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements. The CCPA will have an investigation wing, headed by a DirectorGeneral, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into such violations.The CCPA may impose a penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser of up to Rs 10 lakh and imprisonment for up to two years for a false or misleading advertisement. In case of a subsequent offence, the fine may extend to Rs 50 lakh and imprisonment of up to five years.

Q. According to the passage, what all additional areas or persons or institutions have been brought under the Consumer Protection Act ?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 65 Correct Answer is (b)

Celebrities, e-commerce and product liability. This is mentioned in the 2nd paragraph (…TheAct also seeks to bring in e-commerce under their jurisdiction and hold celebrities accountable…also provides for product liability action).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.Options (a), (c) and (d) are therefore incorrect.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 66

The Parliament passed the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which promises to strengthen the rights of consumers and provides a mechanism for redressal of complaints regarding defects in goods and deficiency in services.Union Food and Consumer Affairs Minister stressed that the overall purpose of the legislation was to ease the process of addressing grievances of consumers.

TheAct also seeks to bring in e-commerce under their jurisdiction and hold celebrities accountable for false and misleading advertisements of products that they endorse.

The Act proposed strict action against the advertiser in case of misleading advertisements but not against the media through which the advertisement is being publicised. It also provides for product liability action on account of harm caused to consumers due to defective products or deficient services.Product liability means the liability of a product manufacturer, service provider or seller to compensate a consumer for any harm or injury caused by a defective good or deficient service.

Under the Act, a consumer is defined as a person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration.

It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multilevel marketing or direct selling. Only a consumer can bring an action under the Act. Certain consumer rights have been defined in the Act, including the right to: (i) be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property; (ii) be informed of the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods or services; (iii) be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices; and (iv) seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.

The central government will set up a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers. It will regulate matters related to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements. The CCPA will have an investigation wing, headed by a DirectorGeneral, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into such violations.The CCPA may impose a penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser of up to Rs 10 lakh and imprisonment for up to two years for a false or misleading advertisement. In case of a subsequent offence, the fine may extend to Rs 50 lakh and imprisonment of up to five years.

Q. Kanika Sharma, a famous actress endorsed a brand of leggings. In the advertisement, the actress says, "100% cotton leggings to keep you cool during summers." Manasa purchase a pair of the same brand leggings relying on the advertisement. It turns out to be only 20% cotton and the rest is nylon.

Choose the best option.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 66 Correct Answer is (a)

Kanika Sharma is liable for performing a misleading and false advertisement. In the 2nd paragraph, celebrities have been made liable for endorsing misleading and false advertisements (…and hold celebrities accountable for false and misleading advertisements of products that they endorse).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (b) is therefore incorrect.

  • Option (c) is incorrect as advertisements are taken to be true by general public and therefore the rationale of making the advertiser and the celebrities liable.

  • Option (d) is incorrect has Kanika Sharma is liable for misleading and false advertisement and not individually to each consumer who purchases such product.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 67

The Parliament passed the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which promises to strengthen the rights of consumers and provides a mechanism for redressal of complaints regarding defects in goods and deficiency in services.Union Food and Consumer Affairs Minister stressed that the overall purpose of the legislation was to ease the process of addressing grievances of consumers.

TheAct also seeks to bring in e-commerce under their jurisdiction and hold celebrities accountable for false and misleading advertisements of products that they endorse.

The Act proposed strict action against the advertiser in case of misleading advertisements but not against the media through which the advertisement is being publicised. It also provides for product liability action on account of harm caused to consumers due to defective products or deficient services.Product liability means the liability of a product manufacturer, service provider or seller to compensate a consumer for any harm or injury caused by a defective good or deficient service.

Under the Act, a consumer is defined as a person who buys any good or avails a service for a consideration.

It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multilevel marketing or direct selling. Only a consumer can bring an action under the Act. Certain consumer rights have been defined in the Act, including the right to: (i) be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property; (ii) be informed of the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods or services; (iii) be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices; and (iv) seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.

The central government will set up a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers. It will regulate matters related to violation of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements. The CCPA will have an investigation wing, headed by a DirectorGeneral, which may conduct inquiry or investigation into such violations.The CCPA may impose a penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser of up to Rs 10 lakh and imprisonment for up to two years for a false or misleading advertisement. In case of a subsequent offence, the fine may extend to Rs 50 lakh and imprisonment of up to five years.

Q. Garima ordered fried rice at a 3-star restaurant. She found a dead cockroach in it. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 67 Correct Answer is (a)

Garima can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act. This case falls under deficiency of service by the restaurant. A 3-star restaurant must ensure hygienic food. In the 2nd paragraph, it is mentioned while defining product liability (…Product liability means the liability of a product manufacturer, service provider or seller to compensate a consumer for any harm or injury caused by a defective good or deficient service).

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (d) is therefore incorrect.

  • Option (b) is incorrect as though it is a possible course of action, it is not based on the information supplied in the passage.

  • Option (c) is using external knowledge and therefore cannot be a correct option here.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 68

This idea to strip citizenship faded away due to the Supreme Court's ruling. President Donald J. Trump revived the idea to strip the citizenship of Americans accused of terrorism and took it much further than the extreme case of a suspected terrorist. He proposed that Americans who protest government policies by burning the flag could lose their citizenship - meaning, among other things, their right to vote - as punishment.

"Nobody should be allowed to burn the American flag - if they do, there must be consequences - perhaps loss of citizenship or year in jail", wrote the next President of the free world on a social media site.

Trump wrote the post shortly after Fox News aired a segment about a dispute at Hampshire College in Massachusetts, which removed the American flag from its campus flagpole after protests over his election victory; during one demonstration, someone burned a flag.

Even if Mr. Trump were to persuade Congress to enact a criminal statute, a dramatic shift in the balance between government power and individual freedom will occur; anyone convicted and sentenced could point to clear Supreme Court precedents to make the case for a constitutional violation.

The obstacles include the precedent that the Constitution does not allow the government to expatriate Americans against their will, through a landmark 1967 case, Afroyim v. Rusk. They also include a 1989 decision, Texas v. Johnson, in which the court struck down criminal laws banning flag burning, ruling that the act was a form of political expression protected by the First Amendment.

David D. Cole, a Georgetown University law professor who co-wrote the Supreme Court briefs in the flag-burning case and who is about to become national legal director at the American Civil Liberties Union, said he wondered if Mr. Trump's strategy was to goad people into burning flags in order to "marginalize" the protests against him.

But he also called Mr. Trump's proposal "beyond the pale."

"To me it is deeply troubling that the person who is going to become the most powerful government official in the United States doesn't understand the first thing about the First Amendment - which is you can't punish people for expressing dissent - and also doesn't seem to understand that citizenship is a constitutional right that cannot be taken away, period, under any circumstances," he said.

Q. Jinkal is a Joint Managing Director of a public limited company. He being in charge of the factory situated at USA was flying National Flag at the office premises of his factory. He was not allowed to do so by the Government officials on the ground that the same is impermissible under the Flag Code. Will the Right to fly the National Flag freely with respect and dignity saved within the meaning of First Amendment. Based on the author's interpretation which of the following is true:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 68 Option (b) can be deduced from the last line of the fourth paragraph. Paragraph mentions "They also include a 1989 decision,Texas v. Johnson, in which the court struck down criminal laws banning flag burning, ruling that the act was a form of political expression protected by the First Amendment."

Therefore all the remaining options (a), (c) or (d) aren't even talked of in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 69

This idea to strip citizenship faded away due to the Supreme Court's ruling. President Donald J. Trump revived the idea to strip the citizenship of Americans accused of terrorism and took it much further than the extreme case of a suspected terrorist. He proposed that Americans who protest government policies by burning the flag could lose their citizenship - meaning, among other things, their right to vote - as punishment.

"Nobody should be allowed to burn the American flag - if they do, there must be consequences - perhaps loss of citizenship or year in jail", wrote the next President of the free world on a social media site.

Trump wrote the post shortly after Fox News aired a segment about a dispute at Hampshire College in Massachusetts, which removed the American flag from its campus flagpole after protests over his election victory; during one demonstration, someone burned a flag.

Even if Mr. Trump were to persuade Congress to enact a criminal statute, a dramatic shift in the balance between government power and individual freedom will occur; anyone convicted and sentenced could point to clear Supreme Court precedents to make the case for a constitutional violation.

The obstacles include the precedent that the Constitution does not allow the government to expatriate Americans against their will, through a landmark 1967 case, Afroyim v. Rusk. They also include a 1989 decision, Texas v. Johnson, in which the court struck down criminal laws banning flag burning, ruling that the act was a form of political expression protected by the First Amendment.

David D. Cole, a Georgetown University law professor who co-wrote the Supreme Court briefs in the flag-burning case and who is about to become national legal director at the American Civil Liberties Union, said he wondered if Mr. Trump's strategy was to goad people into burning flags in order to "marginalize" the protests against him.

But he also called Mr. Trump's proposal "beyond the pale."

"To me it is deeply troubling that the person who is going to become the most powerful government official in the United States doesn't understand the first thing about the First Amendment - which is you can't punish people for expressing dissent - and also doesn't seem to understand that citizenship is a constitutional right that cannot be taken away, period, under any circumstances," he said.

Q. Johnson, a member of the Revolutionary Communist Youth Brigade, participated in a political demonstration against the Administration and certain companies. Johnson marched through the streets, shouted chants, destroyed property, broke windows and threw trash, beer cans, soiled diapers and various other items, and held signs outside the offices of several companies. When Johnson reached the City Hall, he poured kerosene on the flag and set it on fire. Trump administration passed an order to strip his citizenship. Johnson challenged the order. In such a case, based on the author's reasoning, what is the most likely outcome of the case:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 69 Opt ion ( c) is not m entioned i n the passage.

Passage has simply talked about one incident and not the ability of Trump as a whole. Option (b) is consistent with the David D. Cole's opinion mentioned in the last paragraph . Option (b) is clearly supported by the last two paragraphs.

Option (d) is too generic as "the path of any politician" is a broad phrase. Hence, option (b) is the best answer.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 70

This idea to strip citizenship faded away due to the Supreme Court's ruling. President Donald J. Trump revived the idea to strip the citizenship of Americans accused of terrorism and took it much further than the extreme case of a suspected terrorist. He proposed that Americans who protest government policies by burning the flag could lose their citizenship - meaning, among other things, their right to vote - as punishment.

"Nobody should be allowed to burn the American flag - if they do, there must be consequences - perhaps loss of citizenship or year in jail", wrote the next President of the free world on a social media site.

Trump wrote the post shortly after Fox News aired a segment about a dispute at Hampshire College in Massachusetts, which removed the American flag from its campus flagpole after protests over his election victory; during one demonstration, someone burned a flag.

Even if Mr. Trump were to persuade Congress to enact a criminal statute, a dramatic shift in the balance between government power and individual freedom will occur; anyone convicted and sentenced could point to clear Supreme Court precedents to make the case for a constitutional violation.

The obstacles include the precedent that the Constitution does not allow the government to expatriate Americans against their will, through a landmark 1967 case, Afroyim v. Rusk. They also include a 1989 decision, Texas v. Johnson, in which the court struck down criminal laws banning flag burning, ruling that the act was a form of political expression protected by the First Amendment.

David D. Cole, a Georgetown University law professor who co-wrote the Supreme Court briefs in the flag-burning case and who is about to become national legal director at the American Civil Liberties Union, said he wondered if Mr. Trump's strategy was to goad people into burning flags in order to "marginalize" the protests against him.

But he also called Mr. Trump's proposal "beyond the pale."

"To me it is deeply troubling that the person who is going to become the most powerful government official in the United States doesn't understand the first thing about the First Amendment - which is you can't punish people for expressing dissent - and also doesn't seem to understand that citizenship is a constitutional right that cannot be taken away, period, under any circumstances," he said.

Q. Which of the following views can be correctly attributed to the opinion of Mr. Trump regarding the flag burning:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 70 According to the fourth paragraph, Trump wrote the message after Fox news aired a segment on a college protest in Massachusetts. Option (b) is too generic. Hence, option c is the answer.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 71

This idea to strip citizenship faded away due to the Supreme Court's ruling. President Donald J. Trump revived the idea to strip the citizenship of Americans accused of terrorism and took it much further than the extreme case of a suspected terrorist. He proposed that Americans who protest government policies by burning the flag could lose their citizenship - meaning, among other things, their right to vote - as punishment.

"Nobody should be allowed to burn the American flag - if they do, there must be consequences - perhaps loss of citizenship or year in jail", wrote the next President of the free world on a social media site.

Trump wrote the post shortly after Fox News aired a segment about a dispute at Hampshire College in Massachusetts, which removed the American flag from its campus flagpole after protests over his election victory; during one demonstration, someone burned a flag.

Even if Mr. Trump were to persuade Congress to enact a criminal statute, a dramatic shift in the balance between government power and individual freedom will occur; anyone convicted and sentenced could point to clear Supreme Court precedents to make the case for a constitutional violation.

The obstacles include the precedent that the Constitution does not allow the government to expatriate Americans against their will, through a landmark 1967 case, Afroyim v. Rusk. They also include a 1989 decision, Texas v. Johnson, in which the court struck down criminal laws banning flag burning, ruling that the act was a form of political expression protected by the First Amendment.

David D. Cole, a Georgetown University law professor who co-wrote the Supreme Court briefs in the flag-burning case and who is about to become national legal director at the American Civil Liberties Union, said he wondered if Mr. Trump's strategy was to goad people into burning flags in order to "marginalize" the protests against him.

But he also called Mr. Trump's proposal "beyond the pale."

"To me it is deeply troubling that the person who is going to become the most powerful government official in the United States doesn't understand the first thing about the First Amendment - which is you can't punish people for expressing dissent - and also doesn't seem to understand that citizenship is a constitutional right that cannot be taken away, period, under any circumstances," he said.

Q. Suppose in the US Congress a bill is introduced to expatriate Americans accused and suspected of terrorism as well as burning the flag. This bill was fiercely opposed by the house during its introduction.

Based on the author's reasoning, what can be the justification for the opposition:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 71 Refer to the first paragraph's first line. It clearly mentions option d as the reason.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 72

This idea to strip citizenship faded away due to the Supreme Court's ruling. President Donald J. Trump revived the idea to strip the citizenship of Americans accused of terrorism and took it much further than the extreme case of a suspected terrorist. He proposed that Americans who protest government policies by burning the flag could lose their citizenship - meaning, among other things, their right to vote - as punishment.

"Nobody should be allowed to burn the American flag - if they do, there must be consequences - perhaps loss of citizenship or year in jail", wrote the next President of the free world on a social media site.

Trump wrote the post shortly after Fox News aired a segment about a dispute at Hampshire College in Massachusetts, which removed the American flag from its campus flagpole after protests over his election victory; during one demonstration, someone burned a flag.

Even if Mr. Trump were to persuade Congress to enact a criminal statute, a dramatic shift in the balance between government power and individual freedom will occur; anyone convicted and sentenced could point to clear Supreme Court precedents to make the case for a constitutional violation.

The obstacles include the precedent that the Constitution does not allow the government to expatriate Americans against their will, through a landmark 1967 case, Afroyim v. Rusk. They also include a 1989 decision, Texas v. Johnson, in which the court struck down criminal laws banning flag burning, ruling that the act was a form of political expression protected by the First Amendment.

David D. Cole, a Georgetown University law professor who co-wrote the Supreme Court briefs in the flag-burning case and who is about to become national legal director at the American Civil Liberties Union, said he wondered if Mr. Trump's strategy was to goad people into burning flags in order to "marginalize" the protests against him.

But he also called Mr. Trump's proposal "beyond the pale."

"To me it is deeply troubling that the person who is going to become the most powerful government official in the United States doesn't understand the first thing about the First Amendment - which is you can't punish people for expressing dissent - and also doesn't seem to understand that citizenship is a constitutional right that cannot be taken away, period, under any circumstances," he said.

Q. United States established a new vetting measure to keep radical Islamic terrorists out of the United States of America. In pursuance of the same an executive order is signed to remove Americans of Iranian, Syrian, Yemeni and Libyan Origin. If this is true, then, based on the author's reasoning and precedents cited in the passage above, will the order stand the scrutiny of law:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 72 Refer to the lines "The obstacles include ... through a landmark 1967 case". Option d is a twisted option as The First Amendment right is not the same as an amendment to the Constitution. Hence, option (c) is the best answer.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 73

The Madras High Court has been hearing a PIL petition since 2018 that initially asked the court to declare the linking of Aadhaar with a government identity proof as mandatory for registering email and social media accounts. The petitioners, victims of online bullying, went to the court because they found that law enforcement agencies were inefficient at investigating cybercrimes, especially when it came to gathering information about pseudonymous accounts on major online platforms. This case brings out some of the most odious trends in policymaking in India.

The first issue is how the courts have continually expanded the scope of issues considered in PILs. In this case, it is absolutely clear that the court is not pondering about any question of law. In what could be considered as abrogation of the separation of powers provision in the Constitution, the Madras High Court started to deliberate on a policy question with a wide ranging impact: Should Aadhaar be linked with social media accounts?

Second, not only are governments failing to assert their own powers of regulation in response to the courts' actions, they are on the contrary encouraging such PILs.

Third, 'Aadhaar linking' is becoming increasingly a refrain whenever any matter even loosely related to identification or investigation of crime is brought up. While the Madras High Court has ruled out such linking for social media platforms, other High Courts are still hearing petitions to formulate such rules. The processes that law enforcement agencies use to get information from platforms based in foreign jurisdictions rely on international agreements.

Linking Aadhaar with social media accounts will have no bearing on these processes. Hence, the proposed 'solution' misses the problem entirely, and comes with its own threats of infringing privacy.

Q. A court is deliberating a PIL as to whether platforms like WhatsApp that provide encrypted services should allow forms of traceability to enable finding the originator of content. Based on the author's reasoning above:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 73 Technical questions require expertise. Courts lack such expertise to dwell into such questions. It will be best if such disputes, issues and question are left with the specialized agencies and policymakers.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 74

The Madras High Court has been hearing a PIL petition since 2018 that initially asked the court to declare the linking of Aadhaar with a government identity proof as mandatory for registering email and social media accounts. The petitioners, victims of online bullying, went to the court because they found that law enforcement agencies were inefficient at investigating cybercrimes, especially when it came to gathering information about pseudonymous accounts on major online platforms. This case brings out some of the most odious trends in policymaking in India.

The first issue is how the courts have continually expanded the scope of issues considered in PILs. In this case, it is absolutely clear that the court is not pondering about any question of law. In what could be considered as abrogation of the separation of powers provision in the Constitution, the Madras High Court started to deliberate on a policy question with a wide ranging impact: Should Aadhaar be linked with social media accounts?

Second, not only are governments failing to assert their own powers of regulation in response to the courts' actions, they are on the contrary encouraging such PILs.

Third, 'Aadhaar linking' is becoming increasingly a refrain whenever any matter even loosely related to identification or investigation of crime is brought up. While the Madras High Court has ruled out such linking for social media platforms, other High Courts are still hearing petitions to formulate such rules. The processes that law enforcement agencies use to get information from platforms based in foreign jurisdictions rely on international agreements.

Linking Aadhaar with social media accounts will have no bearing on these processes. Hence, the proposed 'solution' misses the problem entirely, and comes with its own threats of infringing privacy.

Q. The directive principles ensure that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order in which social, economic and political justice. A court, ruling on a PIL which was about road safety, has banned the sale of liquor at retail outlets, as also in hotels, restaurants, and bars, that are within 500m of any national or state highway. The order has caused much collateral damage for the state government. For state government, there is a massive loss in the form of revenue collection. Based on the author's reasoning:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 74 Court was unjustified to tread into the jurisdiction of Executive and Legislative domain. Road Safety and transport issue is mingle with public safety linked with drink and driving. Such issues do not call for determining the liability based on the rights and duty analysis. These issues are the preserve of Policymakers. That's the essence of the paragraph.

Thus, option (d) is the best answer.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 75

The Madras High Court has been hearing a PIL petition since 2018 that initially asked the court to declare the linking of Aadhaar with a government identity proof as mandatory for registering email and social media accounts. The petitioners, victims of online bullying, went to the court because they found that law enforcement agencies were inefficient at investigating cybercrimes, especially when it came to gathering information about pseudonymous accounts on major online platforms. This case brings out some of the most odious trends in policymaking in India.

The first issue is how the courts have continually expanded the scope of issues considered in PILs. In this case, it is absolutely clear that the court is not pondering about any question of law. In what could be considered as abrogation of the separation of powers provision in the Constitution, the Madras High Court started to deliberate on a policy question with a wide ranging impact: Should Aadhaar be linked with social media accounts?

Second, not only are governments failing to assert their own powers of regulation in response to the courts' actions, they are on the contrary encouraging such PILs.

Third, 'Aadhaar linking' is becoming increasingly a refrain whenever any matter even loosely related to identification or investigation of crime is brought up. While the Madras High Court has ruled out such linking for social media platforms, other High Courts are still hearing petitions to formulate such rules. The processes that law enforcement agencies use to get information from platforms based in foreign jurisdictions rely on international agreements.

Linking Aadhaar with social media accounts will have no bearing on these processes. Hence, the proposed 'solution' misses the problem entirely, and comes with its own threats of infringing privacy.

Q. Which of the following views can be correctly attributed to the author of the above passage?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 75 Option (b) follows from the passage. Policy making is a prohibited domain for the judiciary. Therefore option (b) is most logical explanation.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 76

The Madras High Court has been hearing a PIL petition since 2018 that initially asked the court to declare the linking of Aadhaar with a government identity proof as mandatory for registering email and social media accounts. The petitioners, victims of online bullying, went to the court because they found that law enforcement agencies were inefficient at investigating cybercrimes, especially when it came to gathering information about pseudonymous accounts on major online platforms. This case brings out some of the most odious trends in policymaking in India.

The first issue is how the courts have continually expanded the scope of issues considered in PILs. In this case, it is absolutely clear that the court is not pondering about any question of law. In what could be considered as abrogation of the separation of powers provision in the Constitution, the Madras High Court started to deliberate on a policy question with a wide ranging impact: Should Aadhaar be linked with social media accounts?

Second, not only are governments failing to assert their own powers of regulation in response to the courts' actions, they are on the contrary encouraging such PILs.

Third, 'Aadhaar linking' is becoming increasingly a refrain whenever any matter even loosely related to identification or investigation of crime is brought up. While the Madras High Court has ruled out such linking for social media platforms, other High Courts are still hearing petitions to formulate such rules. The processes that law enforcement agencies use to get information from platforms based in foreign jurisdictions rely on international agreements.

Linking Aadhaar with social media accounts will have no bearing on these processes. Hence, the proposed 'solution' misses the problem entirely, and comes with its own threats of infringing privacy.

Q. A PIL was filed for the closing of a certain fertilizer plant from where a dangerous gas had leaked. The court here applied the doctrine of absolute liability and stated that any enterprise engaged in any sort of dangerous activity is absolutely liable to compensate all persons who were affected by such gas leak. Based on the author's reasoning in the passage above:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 76 Leakage of a plant and the consequent damage though a complex question cannot be said a pure question of policy. It involves adjudication over the damage, rights, liabilities and obligations of the affected population. Therefore option (a) is the most suitable choice.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 77

The Madras High Court has been hearing a PIL petition since 2018 that initially asked the court to declare the linking of Aadhaar with a government identity proof as mandatory for registering email and social media accounts. The petitioners, victims of online bullying, went to the court because they found that law enforcement agencies were inefficient at investigating cybercrimes, especially when it came to gathering information about pseudonymous accounts on major online platforms. This case brings out some of the most odious trends in policymaking in India.

The first issue is how the courts have continually expanded the scope of issues considered in PILs. In this case, it is absolutely clear that the court is not pondering about any question of law. In what could be considered as abrogation of the separation of powers provision in the Constitution, the Madras High Court started to deliberate on a policy question with a wide ranging impact: Should Aadhaar be linked with social media accounts?

Second, not only are governments failing to assert their own powers of regulation in response to the courts' actions, they are on the contrary encouraging such PILs.

Third, 'Aadhaar linking' is becoming increasingly a refrain whenever any matter even loosely related to identification or investigation of crime is brought up. While the Madras High Court has ruled out such linking for social media platforms, other High Courts are still hearing petitions to formulate such rules. The processes that law enforcement agencies use to get information from platforms based in foreign jurisdictions rely on international agreements.

Linking Aadhaar with social media accounts will have no bearing on these processes. Hence, the proposed 'solution' misses the problem entirely, and comes with its own threats of infringing privacy.

Q. Suppose the Madras High Court passed a judgement to link Aadhar card to social media accounts. In such a case, based on the author's reasoning, what is the likely impact it will have on Cybercrime investigating agencies?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 77 Cybercrime investigation agencies will be amenable to the proposition that the platforms are bound by the Indian laws and falls within the Indian jurisdiction.

All other options cannot be inferred from the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 78

The advice of the expert committee to review the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act of 2003 requires attention, given India's track record.

Excessive and unsustainable borrowing by the government is obviously perverse as it entails a cost on future generations while crowding out private investment.

In the past, fiscal irresponsibility has cost jobs, spiked inflation, put the currency in a tailspin and even brought the country to the brink of a default. The possibility of default may have resulted in the liberalisation of the economy in 1991, but the key trigger was irrational public spending on borrowed money in the late-1980s. Less than a decade later, with fiscal discipline faltering and the deficit shooting up to 10% of GDP, the FRBM law was enacted to 'limit the government's borrowing authority' under Article 268 of the Constitution. But the target to limit the fiscal deficit to 3% of GDP (by 2009) was breached after the 2008 global financial crisis as a liberal stimulus reversed the gains in the fiscal space, creating fresh macro-level instability. The FRBM Act's deficit target is now only likely to be met next year.

Such damage transmissions from the political economy to the real economy need to be checked forthwith. The committee's proposal to maintain the 3% target till 2019-20 before aiming for further reduction is pragmatic, as the 'extraordinary and unanticipated domestic development' of demonetisation happened during its tenure. Such an event, the committee has said, could trigger an escape clause from fixed fiscal targets in its proposed rule-based framework.

Q. Recently, FRBM is amended to remove the bar of 3% of Fiscal Deficit. In such a situation, based only on the author's reasoning in the given passage, would the removal of bar from the FRBM be held valid?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 78 Correct Answer is (b)

Author in the entire passage tried to justify the concept of fiscal rectitude and conservative spending. Only option (b) aligns with the author's reasoning.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) cannot be a correct answer, since it is against the basic argument author is proposing in favour of limited and mindful expenditure.

  • Choice (c) is irrelevant and should not even be considered and cannot be taken as a justification.

  • Option (d) is beyond the content of the passage and does not give valid reasoning to the question asked.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 79

The advice of the expert committee to review the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act of 2003 requires attention, given India's track record.

Excessive and unsustainable borrowing by the government is obviously perverse as it entails a cost on future generations while crowding out private investment.

In the past, fiscal irresponsibility has cost jobs, spiked inflation, put the currency in a tailspin and even brought the country to the brink of a default. The possibility of default may have resulted in the liberalisation of the economy in 1991, but the key trigger was irrational public spending on borrowed money in the late-1980s. Less than a decade later, with fiscal discipline faltering and the deficit shooting up to 10% of GDP, the FRBM law was enacted to 'limit the government's borrowing authority' under Article 268 of the Constitution. But the target to limit the fiscal deficit to 3% of GDP (by 2009) was breached after the 2008 global financial crisis as a liberal stimulus reversed the gains in the fiscal space, creating fresh macro-level instability. The FRBM Act's deficit target is now only likely to be met next year.

Such damage transmissions from the political economy to the real economy need to be checked forthwith. The committee's proposal to maintain the 3% target till 2019-20 before aiming for further reduction is pragmatic, as the 'extraordinary and unanticipated domestic development' of demonetisation happened during its tenure. Such an event, the committee has said, could trigger an escape clause from fixed fiscal targets in its proposed rule-based framework.

Q. According to the above passage which of the following is true regarding the FRBM Act?

  1. Demonetisation may have negatively affected the future course of fiscal deficit targets under the act.

  2. The 2009 targets of the act were not met as the fiscal stimulus reversed the gains made towards the target.

  3. It was enacted due to excessive deficit due to irrational borrowing in the seventies and eighties.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 79

Correct Answer is (c)

Option (c) is the correct choice based on the information given in the passage.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  •  

    Statement 3 is incorrect as the passage makes no mention if borrowing in the seventies.

 

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 80

The advice of the expert committee to review the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act of 2003 requires attention, given India's track record.

Excessive and unsustainable borrowing by the government is obviously perverse as it entails a cost on future generations while crowding out private investment.

In the past, fiscal irresponsibility has cost jobs, spiked inflation, put the currency in a tailspin and even brought the country to the brink of a default. The possibility of default may have resulted in the liberalisation of the economy in 1991, but the key trigger was irrational public spending on borrowed money in the late-1980s. Less than a decade later, with fiscal discipline faltering and the deficit shooting up to 10% of GDP, the FRBM law was enacted to 'limit the government's borrowing authority' under Article 268 of the Constitution. But the target to limit the fiscal deficit to 3% of GDP (by 2009) was breached after the 2008 global financial crisis as a liberal stimulus reversed the gains in the fiscal space, creating fresh macro-level instability. The FRBM Act's deficit target is now only likely to be met next year.

Such damage transmissions from the political economy to the real economy need to be checked forthwith. The committee's proposal to maintain the 3% target till 2019-20 before aiming for further reduction is pragmatic, as the 'extraordinary and unanticipated domestic development' of demonetisation happened during its tenure. Such an event, the committee has said, could trigger an escape clause from fixed fiscal targets in its proposed rule-based framework.

Q. In Budget 2017, Finance Minister deferred the fiscal deficit target of 3% of the GDP and chose a target of 3.2%, citing the NK Singh committee report. In the upcoming Budget, the government is not likely to meet its fiscal deficit target of 3.2% due to several factors such as low GST collections, spike in oil prices and pressure to spend more due to upcoming elections. Considering, Government is trying to trigger an escape clause from fixed fiscal target.

Based on the inference drawn, what should be the author's stand on escape clause?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 80 Correct Answer is (d)

Author in the entire passage tried to justify the concept of fiscal rectitude and conservative spending. Passage says in the last line that "Such an event, the committee has said, could trigger an escape clause from fixed fiscal targets in its proposed rule-based framework." Thus, only option (d) aligns with the author's reasoning.

Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Option (a) can be a correct answer provided there was sufficient reason given with respect to escape clause.

  • Choice (b) is incorrect and cannot be taken as a justification. It also misses out upon the reasons on escape clause.

  • Option (c) also does not provide any strong explanation on Escape Clause.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 81

The advice of the expert committee to review the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act of 2003 requires attention, given India's track record.

Excessive and unsustainable borrowing by the government is obviously perverse as it entails a cost on future generations while crowding out private investment.

In the past, fiscal irresponsibility has cost jobs, spiked inflation, put the currency in a tailspin and even brought the country to the brink of a default. The possibility of default may have resulted in the liberalisation of the economy in 1991, but the key trigger was irrational public spending on borrowed money in the late-1980s. Less than a decade later, with fiscal discipline faltering and the deficit shooting up to 10% of GDP, the FRBM law was enacted to 'limit the government's borrowing authority' under Article 268 of the Constitution. But the target to limit the fiscal deficit to 3% of GDP (by 2009) was breached after the 2008 global financial crisis as a liberal stimulus reversed the gains in the fiscal space, creating fresh macro-level instability. The FRBM Act's deficit target is now only likely to be met next year.

Such damage transmissions from the political economy to the real economy need to be checked forthwith. The committee's proposal to maintain the 3% target till 2019-20 before aiming for further reduction is pragmatic, as the 'extraordinary and unanticipated domestic development' of demonetisation happened during its tenure. Such an event, the committee has said, could trigger an escape clause from fixed fiscal targets in its proposed rule-based framework.

Q. Which of the following is the plausible inference, in determining the causes of fiscal irresponsibility, can be attributed to the author of the above passage?

  1. Opening up of the market and liberalisation of the Indian economy in the 1990s.

  2. Destruction of jobs and employment.

  3. Spike in the Deflation.

  4. Currency Stabilisation.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 81 Correct Answer is (c)

Option (c) is the correct choice based on the information given fourth and fifth sentence of the passage. Only option (c) aligns with the author's reasoning.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Statement 3 and Statement 4 is inconsistent with the given information in the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 82

The advice of the expert committee to review the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act of 2003 requires attention, given India's track record.

Excessive and unsustainable borrowing by the government is obviously perverse as it entails a cost on future generations while crowding out private investment.

In the past, fiscal irresponsibility has cost jobs, spiked inflation, put the currency in a tailspin and even brought the country to the brink of a default. The possibility of default may have resulted in the liberalisation of the economy in 1991, but the key trigger was irrational public spending on borrowed money in the late-1980s. Less than a decade later, with fiscal discipline faltering and the deficit shooting up to 10% of GDP, the FRBM law was enacted to 'limit the government's borrowing authority' under Article 268 of the Constitution. But the target to limit the fiscal deficit to 3% of GDP (by 2009) was breached after the 2008 global financial crisis as a liberal stimulus reversed the gains in the fiscal space, creating fresh macro-level instability. The FRBM Act's deficit target is now only likely to be met next year.

Such damage transmissions from the political economy to the real economy need to be checked forthwith. The committee's proposal to maintain the 3% target till 2019-20 before aiming for further reduction is pragmatic, as the 'extraordinary and unanticipated domestic development' of demonetisation happened during its tenure. Such an event, the committee has said, could trigger an escape clause from fixed fiscal targets in its proposed rule-based framework.

Q. Based on the author's arguments in the passage above, which of the following would be most correct:

  1. The largesse towards voters in the 'political economy' can lead to fiscal imprudence which affects the fiscal deficit and the FRBM targets.

  2. Intergenerational parity and private investments in the country are negatively affected by excessive government borrowings.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 82 Correct Answer is (c) Both statements are correct based on the information in the third sentence of the passage.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 83

The Constitution which lays down the basic structure of a nation's polity is built on the foundations of certain fundamental values. The vision of socio-economic change through the Constitution is reflected in its lofty Preamble.

The Preamble expresses the ideals and aspirations of a renascent India. By the year 1949, the Constituent Assembly had completed the drafting of the Fundamental Rights Chapter. Fundamental Rights are constitutional guarantees for the human rights of our people. These rights were one of the persistent demands of our leaders throughout the freedom struggle. The founding fathers were conscious of the fact that mere political democracy, i.e., getting the right to vote once in five years or so was meaningless unless it was accompanied by social and economic democracy. Dr. Ambedkar had said:

"We do not want merely to lay down a mechanism to enable people to come and capture power. The Constitution also wishes to lay down an ideal before those who would be forming the government. That ideal is of economic democracy."

Our founding fathers, however, were far-sighted people therefore they consolidated the principles of good governance as Directive Principles contradistinguished from issues of rights, government and politics.

That is how the vision of our founding fathers and the aims and objectives which they wanted to achieve through the Constitution are contained in the Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. These three may be described as the soul of the Constitution and the testament of the founding fathers to the succeeding generations together with the later Part on Fundamental Duties.

Q. Based on the author's argument, which is the most plausible inference author is most likely to agree with?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 83 Correct Answer is (b) The author, in the fourth paragraph mentions that the Preamble, Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles are the soul of the constitution. Only option b aligns with the author's reasoning that these forms the basic structure of the constitution.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a) - In the second paragraph the author mentions as stated by Dr. Ambedkar that the constitution should not be construed as a mechanism to enable people to come and capture power.

  • Choice (c) - The first paragraph clearly states that mere political democracy, i.e., getting the right to vote once in five years or so was meaningless unless it was accompanied by social and economic democracy.

  • Choice (d) - Fundamental rights were persistently demanded by the leaders during freedom struggle. But this does not capture the theme of the passage in entirety

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 84

The Constitution which lays down the basic structure of a nation's polity is built on the foundations of certain fundamental values. The vision of socio-economic change through the Constitution is reflected in its lofty Preamble.

The Preamble expresses the ideals and aspirations of a renascent India. By the year 1949, the Constituent Assembly had completed the drafting of the Fundamental Rights Chapter. Fundamental Rights are constitutional guarantees for the human rights of our people. These rights were one of the persistent demands of our leaders throughout the freedom struggle. The founding fathers were conscious of the fact that mere political democracy, i.e., getting the right to vote once in five years or so was meaningless unless it was accompanied by social and economic democracy. Dr. Ambedkar had said:

"We do not want merely to lay down a mechanism to enable people to come and capture power. The Constitution also wishes to lay down an ideal before those who would be forming the government. That ideal is of economic democracy."

Our founding fathers, however, were far-sighted people therefore they consolidated the principles of good governance as Directive Principles contradistinguished from issues of rights, government and politics.

That is how the vision of our founding fathers and the aims and objectives which they wanted to achieve through the Constitution are contained in the Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. These three may be described as the soul of the Constitution and the testament of the founding fathers to the succeeding generations together with the later Part on Fundamental Duties.

Q. It is fundamental right of every citizen not to be discriminated on the ground of religion, race, sex, place of birth or any of them. However, nothing in the fundamental rights shall prevent the state from making any special provision for women, children or elderly. State of XYZ enacted a law granting reservation of 50% in National Law School XYZ - to the native students scoring more than 75% percent in XII Examination. Based on the essence of the passage, decide whether the move of reservation is constitutional or not:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 84 The correct answer is c

Second condition of the reservation is valid.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • The first condition that it is applicable for native students cause discrimination on basis of place of birth and hence unconstitutional.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 85

The Constitution which lays down the basic structure of a nation's polity is built on the foundations of certain fundamental values. The vision of socio-economic change through the Constitution is reflected in its lofty Preamble.

The Preamble expresses the ideals and aspirations of a renascent India. By the year 1949, the Constituent Assembly had completed the drafting of the Fundamental Rights Chapter. Fundamental Rights are constitutional guarantees for the human rights of our people. These rights were one of the persistent demands of our leaders throughout the freedom struggle. The founding fathers were conscious of the fact that mere political democracy, i.e., getting the right to vote once in five years or so was meaningless unless it was accompanied by social and economic democracy. Dr. Ambedkar had said:

"We do not want merely to lay down a mechanism to enable people to come and capture power. The Constitution also wishes to lay down an ideal before those who would be forming the government. That ideal is of economic democracy."

Our founding fathers, however, were far-sighted people therefore they consolidated the principles of good governance as Directive Principles contradistinguished from issues of rights, government and politics.

That is how the vision of our founding fathers and the aims and objectives which they wanted to achieve through the Constitution are contained in the Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. These three may be described as the soul of the Constitution and the testament of the founding fathers to the succeeding generations together with the later Part on Fundamental Duties.

Q. The Supreme Court held that access to Internet is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution.

Abhishek has recently finished his MBA degree and after appearing for few interviews, came back to his native town, Muzafarnagar in Uttar Pradesh. Due to the ongoing protests in the Muzaffarnagar, the government decided to take away internet access from the residents. Abhishek received a mail stating that he has been offered a job in one of the companies he interviewed for and he needs to send an email confirming his assent for the job within 48 hours.

Due to lack of internet access in his region he was unable to send his confirmation and the job was offered to someone else. Abhishek wants to file a case against the government as his fundamental right of access to internet was violated.

Taking away access to internet is thus unconstitutional

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 85 The correct answer is a The very fact that access to Internet is a fundamental right under Article 19 makes it justiciable and hence can be enforced as a right by any court of law.

Incorrect Answers

  • Option b and c are inconsistent with the express language that DPSPs are unenforceable.

  • Option d is totally contrary to the idea behind the Fundamental Rights.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 86

The Constitution which lays down the basic structure of a nation's polity is built on the foundations of certain fundamental values. The vision of socio-economic change through the Constitution is reflected in its lofty Preamble.

The Preamble expresses the ideals and aspirations of a renascent India. By the year 1949, the Constituent Assembly had completed the drafting of the Fundamental Rights Chapter. Fundamental Rights are constitutional guarantees for the human rights of our people. These rights were one of the persistent demands of our leaders throughout the freedom struggle. The founding fathers were conscious of the fact that mere political democracy, i.e., getting the right to vote once in five years or so was meaningless unless it was accompanied by social and economic democracy. Dr. Ambedkar had said:

"We do not want merely to lay down a mechanism to enable people to come and capture power. The Constitution also wishes to lay down an ideal before those who would be forming the government. That ideal is of economic democracy."

Our founding fathers, however, were far-sighted people therefore they consolidated the principles of good governance as Directive Principles contradistinguished from issues of rights, government and politics.

That is how the vision of our founding fathers and the aims and objectives which they wanted to achieve through the Constitution are contained in the Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. These three may be described as the soul of the Constitution and the testament of the founding fathers to the succeeding generations together with the later Part on Fundamental Duties.

Q. The state government decided not to charge any amount from lady passengers travelling on state run busses. The move was taken with a view to ensure protection and safety for lady commuters. Inevitably, this caused great rush in busses during peak office hours. Arvind, a daily commuter filed a petition before the High Court stating that the government's decision is violative of fundamental rights as it is discriminatory. Based on the passage, choose the most appropriate option.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 86 The correct answer is (b).

Right to equality cannot be strictly enforced to deprive State of its authority to ensure protection and safety for lady commuters.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • Choice (a), Choice (c) & (d) are inconsistent with the idea of the passage.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 87

The Constitution which lays down the basic structure of a nation's polity is built on the foundations of certain fundamental values. The vision of socio-economic change through the Constitution is reflected in its lofty Preamble.

The Preamble expresses the ideals and aspirations of a renascent India. By the year 1949, the Constituent Assembly had completed the drafting of the Fundamental Rights Chapter. Fundamental Rights are constitutional guarantees for the human rights of our people. These rights were one of the persistent demands of our leaders throughout the freedom struggle. The founding fathers were conscious of the fact that mere political democracy, i.e., getting the right to vote once in five years or so was meaningless unless it was accompanied by social and economic democracy. Dr. Ambedkar had said:

"We do not want merely to lay down a mechanism to enable people to come and capture power. The Constitution also wishes to lay down an ideal before those who would be forming the government. That ideal is of economic democracy."

Our founding fathers, however, were far-sighted people therefore they consolidated the principles of good governance as Directive Principles contradistinguished from issues of rights, government and politics.

That is how the vision of our founding fathers and the aims and objectives which they wanted to achieve through the Constitution are contained in the Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. These three may be described as the soul of the Constitution and the testament of the founding fathers to the succeeding generations together with the later Part on Fundamental Duties.

Q. Directive Principles of State Policy is non-justiciable and shall not be enforceable by any court of law.

Shreeyam works as a peon in a government department of state and is paid a salary which is less than another peon employed in a different department of the same state though both have similar duties to discharge and both possess similar qualifications. Shreeyam has filed a writ petition claiming the same salary as the other peon under the principle of equal pay for equal work (which is a Directive Principle of State Policy) and his Fundamental Right to equality and equality of opportunity in matters relating to employment.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 87 The correct answer is (c)

Second condition of the reservation is valid.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

  • The first condition that it is applicable for native students cause discrimination on basis of place of birth and hence unconstitutional.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 88

An average of 80 murders, 289 kidnappings and 91 rapes were reported every single day across the country in 2018, according to the latest data by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). A total of 29,017 cases of murder were registered during 2018, showing an increase of 1.3% over 2017 (28,653 cases). 'Disputes' (9,623 cases) were the motive in highest number of murder cases during the year followed by 'personal vendetta or enmity' (3,875 cases) and 'gain' (2,995 cases), the data stated. The NCRB, under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code and special and local laws in the country.

In layman's language the unlawful killing of a human being with malicious intention by another human being is known as murder. It may sound easy but under the Indian Penal Code murder has more vast meaning than just killing. Its definition is very similar to that of Culpable Homicide yet it differs by a few ingredients. To determine exactly what kind of homicide has taken place the circumstances and state of mind of the accused is to be considered.

In the scheme of the Penal Code, culpable homicide is genus and murder its specie. All murder is culpable homicide but not vice- versa. Section 299 and Section 300 IPC deal with the definition of Culpable Homicide and murder.

The important elements of culpable homicide are:-

  • Causing death-With the intention of causing death,

  • By doing an act- With the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or

  • The act of death must be done: - With the knowledge that such act is likely to cause death.

The important elements of Murder are:-

  • Act by which death is caused was done with intention of causing death

  • Having intention to cause bodily injury which is likely to cause death

  • When injury is sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature

  • Where the offender doing the act knows the gravity of his actions that it will, in all probability, will cause death of the person or the bodily injury that is inflicted is likely to cause death.

Q. A person is guilty of culpable homicide amounting to murder, if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death. Intention of causing death means having an intention to cause death of a specific individual. Anil was angry with Bony as he was getting married to Shilpa. The day after Shilpa and Bony's engagement, Anil decided to get rid of Bony once and for all. He went to Bony's place taking his double barrel rifle with him. Bony's servant Nandu opened the door and upon seeing a livid Anil with a rifle in hand, tried to placate him.

Even as Nandu was placating Anil, Bony came through the door inquiring about the commotion going inside his house. Seeing Bony, Anil takes aim and fires. The bullet deflected from the metal frame of the door, hit Nandu, in the head due to which Nandu died instantly. Anil is now being prosecuted for culpable homicide amounting to murder.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 88 Correct Answer is (a)

In order to be liable for murder, the accused should have specifically intended to cause the death of the deceased.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 89

An average of 80 murders, 289 kidnappings and 91 rapes were reported every single day across the country in 2018, according to the latest data by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). A total of 29,017 cases of murder were registered during 2018, showing an increase of 1.3% over 2017 (28,653 cases). 'Disputes' (9,623 cases) were the motive in highest number of murder cases during the year followed by 'personal vendetta or enmity' (3,875 cases) and 'gain' (2,995 cases), the data stated. The NCRB, under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code and special and local laws in the country.

In layman's language the unlawful killing of a human being with malicious intention by another human being is known as murder. It may sound easy but under the Indian Penal Code murder has more vast meaning than just killing. Its definition is very similar to that of Culpable Homicide yet it differs by a few ingredients. To determine exactly what kind of homicide has taken place the circumstances and state of mind of the accused is to be considered.

In the scheme of the Penal Code, culpable homicide is genus and murder its specie. All murder is culpable homicide but not vice- versa. Section 299 and Section 300 IPC deal with the definition of Culpable Homicide and murder.

The important elements of culpable homicide are:-

  • Causing death-With the intention of causing death,

  • By doing an act- With the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or

  • The act of death must be done: - With the knowledge that such act is likely to cause death.

The important elements of Murder are:-

  • Act by which death is caused was done with intention of causing death

  • Having intention to cause bodily injury which is likely to cause death

  • When injury is sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature

  • Where the offender doing the act knows the gravity of his actions that it will, in all probability, will cause death of the person or the bodily injury that is inflicted is likely to cause death.

Q. To be held guilty of an offence, one should have done the act that causes the intended result. If death is a likely result of the act of an offender, it is culpable homicide; if death is surely a result of the act of offender, it is murder. Steven was furious with Laila for not accepting his marriage proposal. He went to her bungalow at around 1 am and set it on fire. Laila suffered serious burn injuries. She was rushed to the hospital and found to be out of danger. Thereafter, Laila's wounds got infected, due to the negligence of the doctor and she required surgical intervention. She died on account of maladministration of general anesthesia at the time of operation. Steven is charged with murder. Decide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 89 Correct Answer is (c)

Even assuming that the intended result (from the perspective of Steven) was the death of Laila, since his act of burning the bungalow of Laila did not cause her death, he cannot be held guilty of murder or even culpable homicide. Laila's death was, as clearly mentioned, caused by mal-administration of anesthesia.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 90

An average of 80 murders, 289 kidnappings and 91 rapes were reported every single day across the country in 2018, according to the latest data by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). A total of 29,017 cases of murder were registered during 2018, showing an increase of 1.3% over 2017 (28,653 cases). 'Disputes' (9,623 cases) were the motive in highest number of murder cases during the year followed by 'personal vendetta or enmity' (3,875 cases) and 'gain' (2,995 cases), the data stated. The NCRB, under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code and special and local laws in the country.

In layman's language the unlawful killing of a human being with malicious intention by another human being is known as murder. It may sound easy but under the Indian Penal Code murder has more vast meaning than just killing. Its definition is very similar to that of Culpable Homicide yet it differs by a few ingredients. To determine exactly what kind of homicide has taken place the circumstances and state of mind of the accused is to be considered.

In the scheme of the Penal Code, culpable homicide is genus and murder its specie. All murder is culpable homicide but not vice- versa. Section 299 and Section 300 IPC deal with the definition of Culpable Homicide and murder.

The important elements of culpable homicide are:-

  • Causing death-With the intention of causing death,

  • By doing an act- With the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or

  • The act of death must be done: - With the knowledge that such act is likely to cause death.

The important elements of Murder are:-

  • Act by which death is caused was done with intention of causing death

  • Having intention to cause bodily injury which is likely to cause death

  • When injury is sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature

  • Where the offender doing the act knows the gravity of his actions that it will, in all probability, will cause death of the person or the bodily injury that is inflicted is likely to cause death.

Q. An inevitable accident is that which could not possibly be prevented by the exercise of ordinary care, caution and skill. Raju had a gun, which he was cleaning when he was called to attend an urgent matter at his office. He left the gun empty at the table. While he was at his office, Bhola, his servant took the gun and went out for shooting and in a hurry kept the loaded gun on the table when he returned.

Raju later took the gun and thinking that the gun was empty, started cleaning it again and accidently fired which killed Madhulika, his daughter who was playing in the room. What if Bhola while unloading the gun in a hurry, shot Madhulika by mistake. Would he be liable?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 90 Correct Answer is (a) Bhola would be liable in such a case as he did not exercise due care and caution while unloading the gun. He was in a hurry while unloading the gun, which lead to Madhulika's death.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 91

An average of 80 murders, 289 kidnappings and 91 rapes were reported every single day across the country in 2018, according to the latest data by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). A total of 29,017 cases of murder were registered during 2018, showing an increase of 1.3% over 2017 (28,653 cases). 'Disputes' (9,623 cases) were the motive in highest number of murder cases during the year followed by 'personal vendetta or enmity' (3,875 cases) and 'gain' (2,995 cases), the data stated. The NCRB, under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code and special and local laws in the country.

In layman's language the unlawful killing of a human being with malicious intention by another human being is known as murder. It may sound easy but under the Indian Penal Code murder has more vast meaning than just killing. Its definition is very similar to that of Culpable Homicide yet it differs by a few ingredients. To determine exactly what kind of homicide has taken place the circumstances and state of mind of the accused is to be considered.

In the scheme of the Penal Code, culpable homicide is genus and murder its specie. All murder is culpable homicide but not vice- versa. Section 299 and Section 300 IPC deal with the definition of Culpable Homicide and murder.

The important elements of culpable homicide are:-

  • Causing death-With the intention of causing death,

  • By doing an act- With the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or

  • The act of death must be done: - With the knowledge that such act is likely to cause death.

The important elements of Murder are:-

  • Act by which death is caused was done with intention of causing death

  • Having intention to cause bodily injury which is likely to cause death

  • When injury is sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature

  • Where the offender doing the act knows the gravity of his actions that it will, in all probability, will cause death of the person or the bodily injury that is inflicted is likely to cause death.

Q. One of the Fundamental Right is that no person can be denied right to life except according to procedure established by law. Right to life does not include right to die. Fundamental rights cannot be waived.

A was convicted for murder of B and was sentenced to life imprisonment. Sentence was confirmed by all the appellate courts including the Supreme Court. In the first year of undergoing life imprisonment A was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer and was in his last stage. Medical Supervision was discontinued as there was not much hope for cure of pancreatic cancer. A filed a case before the Supreme Court for euthanasia (mercy killing), on the ground that he is suffering an unbearable pain. Supreme Court would:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 91 Correct Answer is (b)

Right to life cannot be waived and this right does not include the right to die.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 92

An average of 80 murders, 289 kidnappings and 91 rapes were reported every single day across the country in 2018, according to the latest data by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). A total of 29,017 cases of murder were registered during 2018, showing an increase of 1.3% over 2017 (28,653 cases). 'Disputes' (9,623 cases) were the motive in highest number of murder cases during the year followed by 'personal vendetta or enmity' (3,875 cases) and 'gain' (2,995 cases), the data stated. The NCRB, under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code and special and local laws in the country.

In layman's language the unlawful killing of a human being with malicious intention by another human being is known as murder. It may sound easy but under the Indian Penal Code murder has more vast meaning than just killing. Its definition is very similar to that of Culpable Homicide yet it differs by a few ingredients. To determine exactly what kind of homicide has taken place the circumstances and state of mind of the accused is to be considered.

In the scheme of the Penal Code, culpable homicide is genus and murder its specie. All murder is culpable homicide but not vice- versa. Section 299 and Section 300 IPC deal with the definition of Culpable Homicide and murder.

The important elements of culpable homicide are:-

  • Causing death-With the intention of causing death,

  • By doing an act- With the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or

  • The act of death must be done: - With the knowledge that such act is likely to cause death.

The important elements of Murder are:-

  • Act by which death is caused was done with intention of causing death

  • Having intention to cause bodily injury which is likely to cause death

  • When injury is sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature

  • Where the offender doing the act knows the gravity of his actions that it will, in all probability, will cause death of the person or the bodily injury that is inflicted is likely to cause death.

Q. Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide. One day, Ankit and Rahul, while having lunch together in Ankit's shop Rahul got angry at Ankit as he was making fun of his small height and slapped him tightly. In reaction to this, Ankit started punching him repeatedly on his neck. To his utter surprise, Rahul fell on the floor. Seeing this Ankit rushed him to the hospital. But to his utter dismay, the doctors could not save him and declared him dead. The cause of his death was cited as collapse of carotid artery situated at the neck. Rahul's wife files an FIR and Ankit is prosecuted for the offence of culpable homicide.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 92 Correct Answer is (a)

Ankit is guilty of culpable homicide as he possessed the knowledge that his act of repeatedly punching Rahul on his neck is likely to cause an injury. Neck is one of the most delicate areas in the human body and any injury on the neck has the potential to turn fatal.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 93

An average of 80 murders, 289 kidnappings and 91 rapes were reported every single day across the country in 2018, according to the latest data by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). A total of 29,017 cases of murder were registered during 2018, showing an increase of 1.3% over 2017 (28,653 cases). 'Disputes' (9,623 cases) were the motive in highest number of murder cases during the year followed by 'personal vendetta or enmity' (3,875 cases) and 'gain' (2,995 cases), the data stated. The NCRB, under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code and special and local laws in the country.

In layman's language the unlawful killing of a human being with malicious intention by another human being is known as murder. It may sound easy but under the Indian Penal Code murder has more vast meaning than just killing. Its definition is very similar to that of Culpable Homicide yet it differs by a few ingredients. To determine exactly what kind of homicide has taken place the circumstances and state of mind of the accused is to be considered.

In the scheme of the Penal Code, culpable homicide is genus and murder its specie. All murder is culpable homicide but not vice- versa. Section 299 and Section 300 IPC deal with the definition of Culpable Homicide and murder.

The important elements of culpable homicide are:-

  • Causing death-With the intention of causing death,

  • By doing an act- With the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or

  • The act of death must be done: - With the knowledge that such act is likely to cause death.

The important elements of Murder are:-

  • Act by which death is caused was done with intention of causing death

  • Having intention to cause bodily injury which is likely to cause death

  • When injury is sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature

  • Where the offender doing the act knows the gravity of his actions that it will, in all probability, will cause death of the person or the bodily injury that is inflicted is likely to cause death.

Q. An inevitable accident is that which could not possibly be prevented by the exercise of ordinary care, caution and skill. Raju had a gun, which he was cleaning when he was called to attend an urgent matter at his office. He left the gun empty at the table. While he was at his office, Bhola, his servant took the gun and went out for shooting and in a hurry kept the loaded gun on the table when he returned.

Raju later took the gun and thinking that the gun was empty, started cleaning it again and accidently fired which killed Madhulika, his daughter who was playing in the room. Will Raju be liable?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 93 Correct Answer is (a)

In this case, Raju had left the empty gun on the table before he left for work. In the meantime, his servant Bhola left the loaded gun of which Raju had no knowledge. Once Raju returned, he got back to cleaning of his gun which accidently shot and killed Madulika. Hence, this act of Raju can be said to be inevitable accident, hence not liable.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 94

An average of 80 murders, 289 kidnappings and 91 rapes were reported every single day across the country in 2018, according to the latest data by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). A total of 29,017 cases of murder were registered during 2018, showing an increase of 1.3% over 2017 (28,653 cases). 'Disputes' (9,623 cases) were the motive in highest number of murder cases during the year followed by 'personal vendetta or enmity' (3,875 cases) and 'gain' (2,995 cases), the data stated. The NCRB, under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code and special and local laws in the country.

In layman's language the unlawful killing of a human being with malicious intention by another human being is known as murder. It may sound easy but under the Indian Penal Code murder has more vast meaning than just killing. Its definition is very similar to that of Culpable Homicide yet it differs by a few ingredients. To determine exactly what kind of homicide has taken place the circumstances and state of mind of the accused is to be considered.

In the scheme of the Penal Code, culpable homicide is genus and murder its specie. All murder is culpable homicide but not vice- versa. Section 299 and Section 300 IPC deal with the definition of Culpable Homicide and murder.

The important elements of culpable homicide are:-

  • Causing death-With the intention of causing death,

  • By doing an act- With the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or

  • The act of death must be done: - With the knowledge that such act is likely to cause death.

The important elements of Murder are:-

  • Act by which death is caused was done with intention of causing death

  • Having intention to cause bodily injury which is likely to cause death

  • When injury is sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature

  • Where the offender doing the act knows the gravity of his actions that it will, in all probability, will cause death of the person or the bodily injury that is inflicted is likely to cause death.

Q. When a criminal act is done by one person in order to escape liability for another crime, each of such persons as were a part of the original crime is liable for the criminal act in the same manner as if it were done by each one of them. A, B and C decided to commit theft. They broke into a locked house and gathered a lot of cash. However, as they were carrying the bag full of money, a domestic servant X appeared on the scene and started shouting. A, on being caught by the servant, shot him with a gun that B had given him and ran away. In the meantime B and C disappeared from the scene. X died on account of the gun wound. Later, the police arrested all the three.

They were charged for attempted theft and murder of X.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 94 Correct Answer is (a)

As per the principle, since each of the persons who were a part of the original crime (theft) will be liable for any act done by any of them to escape liability for the crime they had done together.

Hence B and C will also be liable.

Incorrect Answers

None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 95

Air pollution, now a public health emergency, is not a problem unique to Delhi. As per the World Health Organisation, 14 of the 15 most polluted cities in the world are in India. Many cities in the world have experienced high pollution levels, and have made substantial progress with sustained effort. Beijing is a case in point, which adopted an intensive air pollution control strategy in 2013 - by the end of 2017, levels of dangerous fine particulate matter (PM2.5) had reduced by 35 per cent. As per reports, "most of this reduction came from measures to control coal-fired boilers, providing cleaner domestic fuels and industrial restructuring".

Within Delhi-NCR, there are 10 thermal power plants that are yet to comply with the environment ministry's standards from 2015. Endlessly blaming stubble-burning from the neighbouring regions for Delhi's air pollution will not serve any purpose. The farmers must be provided adequate financial incentives to manage the stubble that remains after harvesting. If we treat voiceless farmers as criminals, we support neither Indian farmers nor Indian agriculture.

We also need to ensure that we tackle each of the major sources of air pollution, including sources like motor vehicles, industries, power plants, brick kilns, municipal waste burning and construction dust.

Q. Which of the following is consistent with the author's take on tackling air pollution?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 95 Author is clearly against blatantly blaming farmers and wants to provide them with alternative solutions before putting sanctions. So (a) is incorrect.

Similarly the state of thermal power plants needs immediate attention and hence (b) is incorrect.

Author cites the example of how Beijing reduced pollution levels with a pollution control strategy and that boilers and industries were the main problem areas. Hence (c) is consistent with his take. (d) is incorrect because although construction dust contributes to air pollution, putting a permanent ban on construction is not feasible.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 96

Air pollution, now a public health emergency, is not a problem unique to Delhi. As per the World Health Organisation, 14 of the 15 most polluted cities in the world are in India. Many cities in the world have experienced high pollution levels, and have made substantial progress with sustained effort. Beijing is a case in point, which adopted an intensive air pollution control strategy in 2013 - by the end of 2017, levels of dangerous fine particulate matter (PM2.5) had reduced by 35 per cent. As per reports, "most of this reduction came from measures to control coal-fired boilers, providing cleaner domestic fuels and industrial restructuring".

Within Delhi-NCR, there are 10 thermal power plants that are yet to comply with the environment ministry's standards from 2015. Endlessly blaming stubble-burning from the neighbouring regions for Delhi's air pollution will not serve any purpose. The farmers must be provided adequate financial incentives to manage the stubble that remains after harvesting. If we treat voiceless farmers as criminals, we support neither Indian farmers nor Indian agriculture.

We also need to ensure that we tackle each of the major sources of air pollution, including sources like motor vehicles, industries, power plants, brick kilns, municipal waste burning and construction dust.

Q. Among the following statements, which one is not an implicit assumption of the author?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 96 The whole text is related to the inability of Delhi and other Indian cities which is why 14 Indian cities are in the list of most polluted. The author cites the example of Beijing to draw comparisons and hence assumes the causes of pollution are the same. He also mentions farmers need financial incentives, not blame games. This takes options (b), (c) and (d) out to contention and hence (a) is the correct choice.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 97

Air pollution, now a public health emergency, is not a problem unique to Delhi. As per the World Health Organisation, 14 of the 15 most polluted cities in the world are in India. Many cities in the world have experienced high pollution levels, and have made substantial progress with sustained effort. Beijing is a case in point, which adopted an intensive air pollution control strategy in 2013 - by the end of 2017, levels of dangerous fine particulate matter (PM2.5) had reduced by 35 per cent. As per reports, "most of this reduction came from measures to control coal-fired boilers, providing cleaner domestic fuels and industrial restructuring".

Within Delhi-NCR, there are 10 thermal power plants that are yet to comply with the environment ministry's standards from 2015. Endlessly blaming stubble-burning from the neighbouring regions for Delhi's air pollution will not serve any purpose. The farmers must be provided adequate financial incentives to manage the stubble that remains after harvesting. If we treat voiceless farmers as criminals, we support neither Indian farmers nor Indian agriculture.

We also need to ensure that we tackle each of the major sources of air pollution, including sources like motor vehicles, industries, power plants, brick kilns, municipal waste burning and construction dust.

Q. Which of the following is the main conclusion of the above paragraphs?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 97 Options (a), (b) and (c) provide partial conclusions while (d) gives us a full picture. This can also be inferred from the last line of the given text.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 98

Air pollution, now a public health emergency, is not a problem unique to Delhi. As per the World Health Organisation, 14 of the 15 most polluted cities in the world are in India. Many cities in the world have experienced high pollution levels, and have made substantial progress with sustained effort. Beijing is a case in point, which adopted an intensive air pollution control strategy in 2013 - by the end of 2017, levels of dangerous fine particulate matter (PM2.5) had reduced by 35 per cent. As per reports, "most of this reduction came from measures to control coal-fired boilers, providing cleaner domestic fuels and industrial restructuring".

Within Delhi-NCR, there are 10 thermal power plants that are yet to comply with the environment ministry's standards from 2015. Endlessly blaming stubble-burning from the neighbouring regions for Delhi's air pollution will not serve any purpose. The farmers must be provided adequate financial incentives to manage the stubble that remains after harvesting. If we treat voiceless farmers as criminals, we support neither Indian farmers nor Indian agriculture.

We also need to ensure that we tackle each of the major sources of air pollution, including sources like motor vehicles, industries, power plants, brick kilns, municipal waste burning and construction dust.

Q. Which of the following is the most desirable outcome of tackling air pollution from the author's perspective?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 98 Option (a) is out the scope of the text. Option (b) although desirable is too vague and doesn't talk about implementation. Option (c) is completely opposite to what the author suggests. Option (d) is correct as it is action based and targets specific sources of pollution.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 99

Air pollution, now a public health emergency, is not a problem unique to Delhi. As per the World Health Organisation, 14 of the 15 most polluted cities in the world are in India. Many cities in the world have experienced high pollution levels, and have made substantial progress with sustained effort. Beijing is a case in point, which adopted an intensive air pollution control strategy in 2013 - by the end of 2017, levels of dangerous fine particulate matter (PM2.5) had reduced by 35 per cent. As per reports, "most of this reduction came from measures to control coal-fired boilers, providing cleaner domestic fuels and industrial restructuring".

Within Delhi-NCR, there are 10 thermal power plants that are yet to comply with the environment ministry's standards from 2015. Endlessly blaming stubble-burning from the neighbouring regions for Delhi's air pollution will not serve any purpose. The farmers must be provided adequate financial incentives to manage the stubble that remains after harvesting. If we treat voiceless farmers as criminals, we support neither Indian farmers nor Indian agriculture.

We also need to ensure that we tackle each of the major sources of air pollution, including sources like motor vehicles, industries, power plants, brick kilns, municipal waste burning and construction dust.

Q. Which of the following statements, if true, weakens the authors argument?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 99 Options (b) and (d) clearly support the author's argument. Option (a) introduces a new cause of pollution unknown to the author but doesn't weaken the argument that a sustained effort is needed to tackle air pollution. Option (c) shows that financial incentives may not necessarily work to stop stubble burning. Hence, (c) is the correct choice.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 100

Air pollution, now a public health emergency, is not a problem unique to Delhi. As per the World Health Organisation, 14 of the 15 most polluted cities in the world are in India. Many cities in the world have experienced high pollution levels, and have made substantial progress with sustained effort. Beijing is a case in point, which adopted an intensive air pollution control strategy in 2013 - by the end of 2017, levels of dangerous fine particulate matter (PM2.5) had reduced by 35 per cent. As per reports, "most of this reduction came from measures to control coal-fired boilers, providing cleaner domestic fuels and industrial restructuring".

Within Delhi-NCR, there are 10 thermal power plants that are yet to comply with the environment ministry's standards from 2015. Endlessly blaming stubble-burning from the neighbouring regions for Delhi's air pollution will not serve any purpose. The farmers must be provided adequate financial incentives to manage the stubble that remains after harvesting. If we treat voiceless farmers as criminals, we support neither Indian farmers nor Indian agriculture.

We also need to ensure that we tackle each of the major sources of air pollution, including sources like motor vehicles, industries, power plants, brick kilns, municipal waste burning and construction dust.

Q. In these times of fiscal correctness, it is heresy to call for expansionary fiscal policy to revive the economy. However, sound economics underpins such a prescription even if it sounds like the wild cry of a slump struck corporate bothered only about its own bottom line.

Which of the following if true would lend support to the author's view on fiscal policy?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 100 Option (a) does not support expansionary fiscal policy. Option (b) merely restates the information given in the paragraph. Option (d) negates the author's suggestion. Option (c) is the right answer since it addresses the issue of how expansionary fiscal policy would help the economy and, at the same time, help achieve fiscal goals.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 101

Directions: In this of the questions below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read each statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: World's top-ranked tennis player Roger Federer took a break from the sport.

Assumption I: Roger would regain the top rank once he returns from his break.

Assumption II: Roger would not be able to play as consistently upon his return.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 101 Option (d) is the correct answer as neither I nor II follows. The performance of Roger upon his return cannot be assumed by the statement given in the question.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 102

Directions: In this of the questions below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read each statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: 'Do not pay for the meal if you don't get a bill' - Instruction outside a restaurant.

Assumption I: The restaurant wants to practice ethical business practice.

Assumption II: The customers are not interested in getting a copy of the bill.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 102 Option (a) is the correct answer as I follows and II does not. I follows as by intending to provide a copy of bill the restaurant wants to engage in fair business practices. However, it cannot be assumed that the customers would not be interested in talking the bill.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 103

Directions: In this of the questions below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read each statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: "The idea that we can intimidate the North Koreans strikes me as being a bit of a stretch," he said." - Brad Glosserman, executive director of the Center for Strategic and International Studies in the US.

Assumptions:

I. North Korea is a danger to the world.

II. Brad Glosserman doesn't believe that the US is capable of attacking North Korea.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 103 The given assumptions are not relevant to the statement. The context of Glosserman's statement is not known. Hence, the first assumption is not implicit. The second assumption is problematic as "intimidating" doesn't necessarily mean "attacking".
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 104

Directions: In this of the questions below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read each statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: One should not waste one's prime by stressing themselves out.

Assumptions:

I. The teenage days are the best days of one's mortal life.

II. Experiencing life usually varies from people to people.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 104 'One's prime' is an extremely subjective phenomenon. It cannot be bracketed strictly. It is variable across different experiences. I cannot be assumed since 'teenage days' is particularising a certain point in one's life. II is more of a statement in itself and hence cannot be assumed from the given statement.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 105

Directions: In this of the questions below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read each statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: People of Sreerampore owe a lot to the Dutch.

Assumptions:

I. Sreerampore was ruled by the Dutch once.

II. People of Sreeram pore despise the British monarchy.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 105 Cultures have exchanged norms historically and a lot of seemingly disparate nations have benefited from one another. This does not imply a colonial or imperial structure. Thus, I cannot be assumed. II has no validity if we consider the statement.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 106

Directions: In this of the questions below, you are provided with a statement and two assumptions numbered I and II. Read each statement and determine which assumption or assumptions are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: Anger is best viewed as a tool that helps us read and respond to upsetting social situations

Assumption I: Anger is instigated by upsetting social situations.

Assumption II: There are at least some ways in which one can respond to upsetting social situations

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 106 I - Not implied. The statement says that anger is the best tool to respond to upsetting social situations. The statement does not suggest anything about what instigates anger.

II - Implied. The statement says that anger helps us respond to upsetting social situations. Therefore, it is implied that it is possible to respond to upsetting social situations.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 107

Directions: In this of the questions below, you are provided with a statement and two assumptions numbered I and II. Read each statement and determine which assumption or assumptions are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: We should travel by the metro rail instead of the car because we have to get there on time.

Assumption I: Travelling by metro is more convenient than travelling by car.

Assumption II: There is a metro rail service available for at least part of the distance to destination.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 107 I - Not Implied. The statement talks about saving time and not about convenience. It may very well be true that car is more convenient to travel. In any case, convenience is irrelevant to the statement.

II - Implied. In order to travel in metro rail service, there must be a metro rail service available.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 108

Directions: In this of the questions below, you are provided with a statement and two assumptions numbered I and II. Read each statement and determine which assumption or assumptions are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: It's not just fringe conspiracy theorists that can start believing the Earth is flat; many different types of people can be swayed by the arguments of flat Earth.

Assumption I: The arguments of flat earth are persuasive enough for some to consider the case that the earth is flat.

Assumption II: The arguments of flat earth theory is a valid argument that can sway many people.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 108 I - Implied. Many types of people are swayed by the arguments of flat Earth. It is implied that the argument is persuasive for some.

II - Not implied. The problem is "valid argument". A valid argument is based on truth and reason. The author does not suggest that the flat earth argument is a valid one, only that it can sway people.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 109

Directions: Five people Aditi, Bhavya, Chitra, Disha and Ekta live in a building having five floors numbered 1 to 5 sequentially from bottom to top.

  • Chitra lives on a floor immediately above the floor on which Bhavya lives.

  • Aditi does not live on the first floor.

  • Disha does not live immediately below the floor on which Bhavya lives.

  • Ekta lives either on the first floor or the fifth floor.

Q. If Aditi lives of the topmost floor, which one the following must be true?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 109 Disha lives on floor 4

Considering the information given in the passage and the additional information given in the question: Aditi lives on floor 5.

Ekta lives on either floor 1 or floor 5, and since Aditi lives on floor 5. Ekta will be on floor 1

Chitra's floor is just above Bhavya's floor and Disha's floor is not just below Bhavya's floor. Divya, Chitra and Bhavya must occupy floors, 4, 3 and 2 respectively.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 110

Directions: Five people Aditi, Bhavya, Chitra, Disha and Ekta live in a building having five floors numbered 1 to 5 sequentially from bottom to top.

  • Chitra lives on a floor immediately above the floor on which Bhavya lives.

  • Aditi does not live on the first floor.

  • Disha does not live immediately below the floor on which Bhavya lives.

  • Ekta lives either on the first floor or the fifth floor.

Q. Who among the following can live on any of the five floors?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 110 Disha

Aditi cannot live on floor 1

Bhavya cannot live on floor 5 since Chitra lives one floor above her.

Chitra cannot live on floor 1 since Bhavya lives one floor below her.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 111

Directions: Five people Aditi, Bhavya, Chitra, Disha and Ekta live in a building having five floors numbered 1 to 5 sequentially from bottom to top.

  • Chitra lives on a floor immediately above the floor on which Bhavya lives.

  • Aditi does not live on the first floor.

  • Disha does not live immediately below the floor on which Bhavya lives.

  • Ekta lives either on the first floor or the fifth floor.

Q. If Aditi lives on floor 3, which one the following could be true?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 111 Bhavya lives on floor 1

Considering the information given in the passage and the additional information given in the question:

Aditi lives on floor 3.

This will give two cases: Ekta can live on either floor 1 or floor 5

Case 1: Ekta lives on floor 1

Since Chitra lives on the floor just above Bhavya, the only positions they can occupy is 5 and 4 respectively. Disha will take floor 2

Case 2: Ekta lives on floor 5

Since Chitra lives on the floor just above Bhavya, the only positions they can occupy is 2 and 1 respectively. Disha will take floor 4

Based on the two cases, among the answer choices, the one that could be true is that Bhavya lives on floor 1

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 112

Directions: In a Law School, 100 students are divided into four batches – J, K, L and M. Four subjects -Accounting, Business Law, Criminal Law, and Drafting – are taught during four days of a week, starting from Monday through Thursday. There is a faculty member for each subject and a faculty can take only one session in a day. On any given day, sessions for all the four batches should run in parallel.

The following facts are known:

  • Batch J has Criminal Law on Thursday

  • Batch K has Accounting on Tuesday

  • Batch L has Criminal Law on Wednesday and Drafting on Thursday

Q. The subjects taken for batch M from Monday through Thursday respectively are:

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 112 An effective way to handle this logical game is to play it like Sudoku.

Let's code the subjects using numbers

Accounting - 1

Business Law - 2

Criminal Law - 3

Drafting - 4

Base on the fact given following can be captured.

Since each faculty takes a different subject and faculty can only one session per day, there cannot be any repetition of subjects (or the numbers)

We can fill the table as follows

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 113

Directions: In a Law School, 100 students are divided into four batches – J, K, L and M. Four subjects -Accounting, Business Law, Criminal Law, and Drafting – are taught during four days of a week, starting from Monday through Thursday. There is a faculty member for each subject and a faculty can take only one session in a day. On any given day, sessions for all the four batches should run in parallel.

Q. Which subject is taken on Monday for batch J?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 113 An effective way to handle this logical game is to play it like Sudoku.

Let's code the subjects using numbers

Accounting - 1

Business Law - 2

Criminal Law - 3

Drafting - 4

Base on the fact given following can be captured.

Since each faculty takes a different subject and faculty can only one session per day, there cannot be any repetition of subjects (or the numbers)

We can fill the table as follows

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 114

Directions: In this question below, a statement is given followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: Minority community has been strongly pushing for the ban of the latest movie by the renowned director, known for making movies on social causes.

Assumptions:

I. The movie has an underlying social message.

II. The movie makes several derogatory statements against a minority religious community which has caused deep hurt in that community.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 114 Neither of the assumptions is implicit. Hence (d).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 115

Directions: In this question below, a statement is given followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: Faced with the increasing cases of suicides by school students, state government has decided to ban corporal punishment in schools.

The decision has been vehemently protested by by the teachers who feel that the main purpose of the school is to prepare them for the challenges of real world.

Assumptions:

I. Such punishments cause undue stress and embarrassment to students driving some of them to suicide.

II. They make the students more disciplined, preparing them for the intense competition they would face later at the workplace, in an over populated country.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 115 Only assumption I is implicit. Hence (a).
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 116

Directions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Six persons - Sameer, Manish, Keshav, Ramesh, Harish and Deepak - went for a picnic along with their wives Shalini, Monika, Kareena, Ritika, Heena and Divya (not necessarily in the same order). Exactly two couples traveled in one car.

Also, husband's name cannot start with the same alphabet as that of his wife's name. It is also given that:

(i) Keshav is not married to Shalini and Ramesh is not married to Divya.

(ii) Manish is married to Kareena and Harish is married to Monika.

(iii) Manish and Heena traveled in the same car.

(iv) Ramesh and Div ya traveled in the same car.

(v) Sameer and Monika traveled in the same car.

Q. Manish and Heena traveled with whom in the same car?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 116 The given information can be shown as

Deepak and Kareena traveled along with Manish and Heena.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 117

Directions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Six persons - Sameer, Manish, Keshav, Ramesh, Harish and Deepak - went for a picnic along with their wives Shalini, Monika, Kareena, Ritika, Heena and Divya (not necessarily in the same order). Exactly two couples traveled in one car.

Also, husband's name cannot start with the same alphabet as that of his wife's name. It is also given that:

(i) Keshav is not married to Shalini and Ramesh is not married to Divya.

(ii) Manish is married to Kareena and Harish is married to Monika.

(iii) Manish and Heena traveled in the same car.

(iv) Ramesh and Div ya traveled in the same car.

(v) Sameer and Monika traveled in the same car.

Q. Which of the following persons traveled in the same car?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 117 The given information can be shown as

Deepak and Manish traveled in the same car.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 118

Directions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Six persons - Sameer, Manish, Keshav, Ramesh, Harish and Deepak - went for a picnic along with their wives Shalini, Monika, Kareena, Ritika, Heena and Divya (not necessarily in the same order). Exactly two couples traveled in one car.

Also, husband's name cannot start with the same alphabet as that of his wife's name. It is also given that:

(i) Keshav is not married to Shalini and Ramesh is not married to Divya.

(ii) Manish is married to Kareena and Harish is married to Monika.

(iii) Manish and Heena traveled in the same car.

(iv) Ramesh and Div ya traveled in the same car.

(v) Sameer and Monika traveled in the same car.

Q. Which of the following is the correct combination of a husband and wife?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 118 The given information can be shown as

Ramesh-Shalini is the correct combination of a husband wife couple.

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 119

Directions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Point U is 20 m to the south of point R which is 9 m to the east of point P. Point T is 15 m to the north of point P which is 20 m to the east of point S. Point V is 35 m to the north of point Q which is 21 m to the west of point U.

Q. How far and in which direction is point V with respect to point S?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 119

VS’ = TP = 15 m

SS’ = SP – QQ’ = 8 m

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 120

Directions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Point U is 20 m to the south of point R which is 9 m to the east of point P. Point T is 15 m to the north of point P which is 20 m to the east of point S. Point V is 35 m to the north of point Q which is 21 m to the west of point U.

Q. How far and in which direction is point Q with respect to point T?

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 120

TQ’ = VQ = 35 m

QQ’ = QU – PR = 12 m

Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 121

Directions: In this of the questions below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read each statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: The board of the Olympic sled team Slippery has decided that the next meeting will take place after four months.

Assumptions:

I. The existing board will be dissolved before a period of four months.

II. The team will remain functional after four months.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 121 I cannot be implicit since the statement clearly mentions that the next board meeting will take place after four months. II is implicit since, if the board has decided to conduct another meeting after four months, it is sure about existing beyond four months.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 122

Directions: In this of the questions below, you are provided a statement, and two assumptions, numbered 'I' and 'II'. Read each statement, and determine which assumption or assumptions are implicit in the statement.

Q. Statement: The significance of International Mother Language Day, which falls on February 21 each year, lies in its attempt to strike a fine balance.

Assumptions:

I. Vernacular languages are neglected by people.

II. Mother Language Day is significant as most nonnative practitioners of English get overwhelmed by the ubiquity of English as a language.

Detailed Solution for Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 122 Neither of the two assumptions is implicit.
Test: CLAT 2022 Mock Test- 9 - Question 123