Test: Polity - 3 (August 27, 2021)


25 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | Test: Polity - 3 (August 27, 2021)


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QUESTION: 1

With reference to Inter-State Council, consider the following statements:

1. It is a permanent institution to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states.

2. It is established by the President of India.

3. Being a constitutional body, its decisions are binding in nature.

Solution: Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states. Thus, the President can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the public interest would be served by its establishment. He can define the nature of duties to be performed by such a council and its organisation and procedure. Thus, it is not a permanent institution, rather an ad hoc one. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct,

Even though the president is empowered to define the duties of an interstate council, Article 263 specifies the duties that can be assigned to it in the following manner:

(a) enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between states.

(b) investigating and discussing subjects in which the states or the Centre and the states have a common interest

(c) making recommendations upon any such subject, and particularly for the better coordination of policy and action on it. o The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal or non-legal, but its function is advisory unlike that of the court which gives a binding decision. Hence, statement 3 is not correct,

First ISC was established in pursuance of the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission by the Janata Dal Government headed by V. P. Singh in 1990.

QUESTION: 2

Consider the following statements regarding the pardoning power of the President:

1. The Constitution exclusively empowers the President to grant pardons to convicted persons.

2. Pardoning power of President does not extend to punishment by court martial s

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Solution: Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of any offence in all cases where the-

(i) Punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union Law;

(ii) Punishment or sentence is by a court-martial (military court), and (Hence statement 2 is not correct)

(iii) The sentence is a sentence of death.

The pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary; it is executive power. But, the President while exercising this power, does not sit as a court of appeal.

The object of conferring this power on the President is two-fold:

(i) to keep the door open for correcting any judicial errors in the operation of law; and,

(ii) to afford relief from a sentence, which the President regards as unduly harsh.

Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the governor of a state also possesses the pardoning power. Hence, the governor can also grant pardons, reprieves, respites and remissions of punishment or suspend, remit and commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against state law. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

QUESTION: 3

With reference to Leader of the House, consider the following statements:

1. The office of Leader of the House is mentioned in the Constitution of India.

2. Any member of the house, who is nominated by the Prime Minister, can act as the Leader of the House.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: The office of the Leader of the House is not mentioned in the Constitution of India. It is mentioned in the Rules of the House. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the ‘Leader of the House’ means the prime minister, if he is a member of the Lok Sabha, or a minister (not any member) who is a member of the Lok Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as the Leader of the House. There is also a ‘Leader of the House’ in the Rajya Sabha. He is a minister (not any member) and a member of the Rajya Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as such. The leader of the house in either House is an important functionary and exercises direct influence on the conduct of business. He can also nominate a deputy leader of the House. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 4

In the context of Indian Parliament, a casting vote refers to a voting power exercised by the:

Solution: The presiding officer of a House does not vote in the first instance, but exercises a Casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.

If in a Division the number of Ayes' and 'Noes' is equal, the question is decided by the casting vote of the Chair. Under the Constitution, the Presiding officer of a House cannot vote in a Division; he/she has only a casting vote which he/she must exercise in the case of equality of votes.

It is customary for the Presiding Officer to exercise the Casting vote in such a manner as to maintain the status quo.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 5

Consider the following statements regarding the District Planning Committee:

1. It is mandatory for every state to constitute a district planning committee.

2. All members of a district planning committee are elected only by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 added a new Part IX-A to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled as ‘The Municipalities’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243Pto 243-ZG. In addition, the act has also added a new Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains eighteen functional items of municipalities. It deals with Article 243-W.

District Planning Committee: The Act mandates that every state shall constitute at the district level, a district planning committee to consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities in the district, and to prepare a draft development plan for the district as a whole. Hence statement 1 is correct.

The act lays down that four-fifths of the members of a district planning committee should be elected by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves. The representation of these members in the committee should be in proportion to the ratio between the rural and urban populations in the district. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 6

With reference to procedure of the Supreme Court, consider the following statements:

1. Constitutional cases are decided by a bench consisting of three or more judges.

2. Presidential references under Article 143 are decided by a Bench consisting of at least five judges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: The Supreme Court can, with the approval of the president, make rules for regulating generally the practice and procedure of the Court. The Constitutional cases or references made by the President under Article 143 are decided by a Bench consisting of at least five judges. All other cases are usually decided by a bench consisting of not less than three judges. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

The judgements are delivered by the open court. All judgements are by majority vote but if differing, then judges can give dissenting judgements or opinions.

QUESTION: 7

With reference to the Proportional Representation (PR) and the First Past the Post (FPTP) systems of the elections, consider the following statements:

1. In the PR system of election, voters usually exercise their preference for a party and not a candidate.

2. In the FPTP system of elections, every party gets seats in the legislature in proportion to the percentage of votes that it gets.

3. In both FPTP and PR systems, to win an election the candidate must secure the majority of votes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Comparison of First Past the Post (FPTP) system and Proportional Representation (PR) system of election

(i) In the FPTP system, the country is divided into small geographical units called constituencies or districts. In the PR system, large geographical areas are demarcated as constituencies. The entire country may be a single constituency.

(ii) In the FPTP system, every constituency elects one representative. In the PR system, more than one representative may be elected from one constituency.

(iii) In the FPTP system, voters vote for a candidate while in the PR system voters vote for the party. Hence, statement 1 is correct

(iv) In the FPTP system, a party may get more seats than votes in the legislature. In the PR system, every party gets seats in the legislature in proportion to the percentage of votes that it gets. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

(v) In the FPTP system, a candidate who wins the election may not get the majority (50%+1) votes. In the PR system, the candidate who wins elections gets the majority of votes. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Examples of FPTP system: U.K., India; Examples of PR system: Israel, Netherlands

QUESTION: 8

Consider the following statements regarding the State Legislative Council:

1. The resolution for the creation of a legislative council must be passed by the state assembly with a special majority.

2. The Constitution of India provides power to the Parliament to create or abolish legislative councils in a State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is correct: The resolution for creation of legislative council must be passed by state assembly with a special majority i.e. majority of total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-third of the members of the House present and voting.

Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution of India provides for the creation and abolition of legislative councils in states by the Parliament provided the resolution to that effect must be passed by the concerned state legislature. The Act of the Parliament is not to be deemed as an amendment to the Constitution for the purpose of Article 368 and is passed like an ordinary bill.

QUESTION: 9

Which of the following authority/authorities has the power to decide the disqualification of a member of Parliament?

1. President of India

2. Presiding officer of the house

3. Election Commission of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution:

The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha (and not by the president of India). In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Chairman/Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review,

However, when the disqualification is subject to the criteria laid down in the Constitution and the Representation of People Act (1951), the President's decision is final. In such a case, he should obtain the opinion of the election commission and act accordingly. Hence option (d) is correct.

QUESTION: 10

Consider the following statements regarding the office of Governor:

1. The provision of appointment of Governor was adopted from Australian Constitution.

2. In India, the President appoints the Governor by warrant under his hand and seal.

3. The appointment of one person as a Governor of two or more states was provided under the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is not correct: Federation with a strong Centre, appointment of Governor by the Centre, vesting residuary powers with the Centre etc. are the provisions of the Indian Constitution that are adopted from the Canadian Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct: The Governor is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal but the Supreme Court in 1979 held that the office of Governor is not under the control of the Central government. Office of Governor is not an employment under the Central Government,

Statement 3 is correct: Article 153-167 of the Indian Constitution deals with the state executive. The Governor is the chief executive head of the state as well as the agent of the Central government in the state, thereby exercising dual role in Indian political system. In the original constitution, there was a provision for the Governor for each state but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 provided for the appointment of one person as the Governor of two or more states.

QUESTION: 11

Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment of the President:

1. Impeachment charges can be initiated in the Lok Sabha only.

2. The nominated members of both Houses of the Parliament cannot take part in impeachment proceedings.

3. No President has been so far impeached from his post.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

Solution: The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of die Constitution’. However, the Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase ‘violation of the Constitution’. The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be given to the President. Hence statement 1 is not correct,

The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

The elected members of the legislative assemblies of states and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducheriy do not participate in the impeachment of the President though they participate in his election, o In the History of the Indian Republic, no Indian President has been so far "impeached" from his post. Hence statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 12

Consider the following statements regarding Public Account of India:

1. It was constituted as a part of Union Budget of 1991 to mobilise resources for government spending.

2. It includes judicial deposits, savings bank deposits, departmental deposits and remittances.

3. It is operated by executive action without Parliamentary approval.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: The Public Account of India was constituted by Article 266(2)of the Indian Constitution. It deals with the money received by the government. Thus, receipts and disbursements which do not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India are included in the accounts of India. It includes provident fund deposits, judicial deposits, savings bank deposits, departmental deposits, remittances and so on.

Statement 3 is correct: Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker. They have to be paid back at some time to their rightful owners. Because of this nature of the fund, expenditures from it are not required to be approved by the Parliament. Thus, this account is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation.

QUESTION: 13

With reference to the Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha cannot initiate, reject or amend money bills.

2. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha.

3. Approval of Rajya Sabha is not necessary for the transfer of matter from State list to Union or Concurrent List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It should return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. In both the cases, the money bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses. Hence statement 1 is correct.

The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha. Therefore, Rajya Sabha can criticise the government but cannot remove it. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The Rajya Sabha is an institutional mechanism to provide representation to the States. Its purpose is to protect the powers of the States. Therefore, any matter that affects the States must be referred to it for its consent and approval. Thus, if the Union Parliament wishes to remove a matter from the State list to either the Union List or Concurrent List in the interest of the nation, the approval of the Rajya Sabha is necessary. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

QUESTION: 14

Section 126A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 is often seen in the news during the elections with reference to

Solution: Section 126A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951: It prohibits conduct of exit poll and dissemination of their results during the period mentioned therein, i.e., the hour fixed for commencement of polls in the first phase and half hour after the time fixed for close of poll for the last phase in all the States and Union Territories.

Section 123 (3) of the People’s Representation Act of 1951: It provides that no candidate or his agent can appeal for votes on the grounds of religion, race, caste, community or language.

Section 123 (3A) of the People’s Representation Act of 1951: It prohibits attempt to promote, feelings of enmity or hatred between different classes of the citizens of India on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language, by a candidate or his agent or any other person with the consent of a candidate or his election agent

Paid news is not an electoral offence yet. The EC has recommended to the government that the Representation of the People Act, 1951, be amended to make the publishing, or abetting the publishing, of paid news to further a candidate’s prospects or prejudicially affect another's electoral offence.

As per Article 75 (5), a Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following statements :

1. All the ministers are entitled to vote in the Parliament whether they are members or not.

2. The President can exercise executive power without the aid and advice of the council of ministers, after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution: Every minister shall have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of the Houses and any Committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member. Normally MPs are appointed as Ministers but appointing a non-member of Parliament as a Minister is not uncommon. For such Ministers, from the time of appointment to the time of the election, he can attend the Parliamentary proceedings but he shall not be entitled to vote. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Article 74 provides for a council of ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. The 42nd and 44th Constitutional Amendment Acts have made the advice binding on the President. Further, the nature of advice tendered by ministers to the President cannot be enquired by any court. This provision emphasizes the intimate and confidential relationship between the President and the ministers.

In 1971, the Supreme Court held that ‘even after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers does not cease to hold office. Article 74 is mandatory and, therefore, the president cannot exercise the executive power without the aid and advice of the council of ministers. Any exercise of executive power without the aid and advice will be unconstitutional as being violative of Article 74’.

Again in 1974, the court held that ‘wherever the Constitution requires the satisfaction of the President, the satisfaction is not the personal satisfaction of the President but it is the satisfaction of the council of ministers with whose aid and on whose advice the President exercises his powers and functions’. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 16

Which of the following provisions ensure the independence of the office of the Speaker?

1. Security of tenure.

2. His work and conduct cannot be discussed and criticized in the Lok Sabha under normal circumstances.

3. Salaries and allowances charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: As the office of the Speaker is vested with great prestige, position and authority, independence and impartiality become its sine qua non. The following provisions ensure the independence and impartiality of the office of the Speaker

(A) He is provided with security of tenure. He can be removed only by a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha by an absolute majority. This motion of removal can be considered and discussed only when it has the support of at least 50 members.

(B) His salaries and allowances are fixed by Parliament. They are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and thus are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament.

(C) His work and conduct cannot be discussed and criticised in the Lok Sabha except on a substantive motion.

(D) His powers of regulating procedure or conducting business or maintaining order in the House are not subject to the jurisdiction of any Court.

(E) He cannot vote in the first instance. He can only exercise a casting vote in the event of a tie. This makes the position of Speaker impartial.

(F) He is given a very high position in the order of precedence. He is placed at seventh rank, along with the Chief Justice of India. This means he has a higher rank than all cabinet ministers, except the Prime Minister or Deputy Prime Minister.

QUESTION: 17

With reference to power of Judicial review, consider the following statements:

1. It is an element of the basic structure of the Constitution of India.

2. The phrase 'judicial review' has nowhere been mentioned in the Constitution

3. It is available to the Supreme Court and not to the High Courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed in the USA. It was propounded for the first time in the famous case of Marbury V Madison (1803). Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments. On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultra vires), they can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and void) by the judiciary. Consequently, they cannot be enforced by the Government.

In India, on the other hand, the Constitution itself confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts). Further, the Supreme Court has declared the power of judicial review as a basic feature of the Constitution or an element of the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence, the power of judicial review cannot be curtailed or excluded even by a constitutional amendment. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct, o The phrase ‘Judicial Review’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. However, the provisions of several Articles explicitly confer the power of judicial review on the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Hence, statement 2 is correct

QUESTION: 18

Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the Vice President':

1. Resolution to remove the Vice President from his post can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha only.

2. For removal of the Vice President, a resolution must be passed by a two- thirds majority of total members in both houses of parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Constitution of India in article 67(b) about the term of office of the Vice-President mentions that-A VicePresident may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People; but no resolution for the purpose of this clause shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of die intention to move the resolution. Hence, Statement 1 is correct,

Therefore, he can be removed from the office before completion of his term. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal. He can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority (i.e., a majority of the total members of the House minus the vacant seats) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha with a simple majority. Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 19

The Representation of the People Act, 1950 contains provisions related to

1. allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and Legislatures of States

2. delimitation of constituencies for the purpose of elections

3. qualifications of a voter at elections to the Lok Sabha and Legislatures of States

4. qualifications and disqualifications for the membership of the state legislatures

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Some of the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1950

(i) It provides for the allocation of seats in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of States.

(ii) It confers on the President the powers to delimit, after consultation with the Election Commission,

the various constituencies for the purpose of elections to fill seats in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of States.

(iii) It provides for the registration of electors for Parliamentary Constituencies and for the Assembly and Council Constituencies, and the qualifications and disqualifications for such registration.

Some of the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 relates to the following electoral matters:

(i) Qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament and State Legislatures

(ii) Notification of general elections

(iii) Administrative machinery for the conduct of elections

(iv) Registration of political parties

(v) Conduct of elections

(vi) Free supply of certain material to candidates of recognised political parties

(vii) Disputes regarding elections

(viii)Corrupt practices and electoral offences

QUESTION: 20

With reference to the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:

1. The ECI became a multi-member body in 1977 and has remained multi-member since then.

2. The Chief Election Commissioner and the other Election Commissioners have equal powers to take all decisions relating to elections.

3. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President on the advice of a committee that includes the Prime Minister and the leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is not correct :The Election Commission of India can either be a single member or a multi member body. Till 1989, the Election Commission was a single member. Just before the 1989 general elections, two Election Commissioners were appointed, making the body multi-member. Soon after the elections, the Commission reverted to its single member status. In 1993, two Election Commissioners were once again appointed and the Commission became multi-member and has remained multi-member since then.

Initially, there were many apprehensions about a multi-member Commission. There was a sharp difference of opinion between the then Chief Election Commissioner and the other Commissioners about who had how much power. The matter had to be settled by the Supreme Court. Now there is a general consensus that a multi-member Election Commission is more appropriate as power is shared and there is greater accountability.

Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) presides over the Election Commission but does not have more powers than the other Election Commissioners. The CEC and the two Election Commissioners have equal powers to take all decisions relating to elections as a collective body.

Statement 3 is not correct: They are appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Council of Ministers. It is, therefore, possible for a ruling party to appoint a partisan person to the Commission who might favour them in the elections. This fear has led many to suggest that this procedure should be changed. Many people have suggested that a different method should be followed that makes a consultation with the leader of the opposition and the Chief Justice of India necessary for the appointment of CEC and Election Commissioners.

QUESTION: 21

Consider the following statements regarding Censure Motion in the Lok Sabha:

1. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha

2. It can be moved only against an individual minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: A Censure means an expression of strong disapproval or harsh criticism. It can be a stern rebuke by a legislature, generally opposition against the policies of the Government or an individual minister. However, (i) it can also be passed to criticize, condemn some act. A censure motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha or in a state assembly in India. The various features of the Censure Motion include -

(ii) It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is correct

(iii) It can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of ministers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

(iv) It is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions.ct.

(v) If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers need not resign from the office.

QUESTION: 22

With reference to the classification of political parties on the basis of ideologies, which of the following correctly describe the liberal parties?

Solution: There are four types of political parties in the modern democratic states, viz.,

(i) reactionary parties which want to restore the old socio-economic and political institutions;

(ii) conservative parties which believe in the status-quoliberal parties which aim at reforming the existing institutions; and

(iii) radical parties which aim at establishing a new order by overthrowing the existing institutions.

In their classification of political parties on the basis of ideologies, the political scientists have placed the radical parties on the left and the liberal parties in the centre and reactionary and conservative parties on the right. In other words, they are described as the leftist parties, centrist parties and the rightist parties. o In India, the CPI and CPM are the examples of leftist parties, the Congress of centrist parties and the BJP is an example of rightist parties.

QUESTION: 23

Consider the following statements regarding the election of the Vice President:

1. Nominated members of both the houses of the Parliament do not take part in the election.

2. Members of the state legislatures have no role in the vice presidential election.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: The Vice-President, like the President, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Thus, this electoral college is different from the electoral college for the election of the President in the following two respects

(A) It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of the president, only elected members). Hence statement 1 is not correct.

(B) It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of the President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included). Hence statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 24

What can be the maximum number of members in a legislative assembly of a state in India?

 

Solution:

The Legislative assembly of each state cannot have number of members more than 500 and less than 60. However, there are three exceptions to this viz. Sikkim (32), Goa (40) and Mizoram (40)

QUESTION: 25

Consider the following statements regarding the financial powers of Governor:

1. Money bills in the state legislature can be introduced only with his prior permission.

2. He can make advances out of the Consolidated Fund of the State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Under the financial powers of the Governor

(a) He sees the annual financial statement of the State budget

(b) Money bills in the state legislature can be introduced only with his prior permission. Hence statement 1 is correct.

(c) No demand for grant can be made except on his recommendation.

(d) He can make advances out of the Contingency Fund of the State and not the consolidated fund of the state which requires an appropriation. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

(e) He constitutes the State Finance Commission every five years.