Test: Profit & Loss- 1 - GMAT MCQ

SP = 106.25% of the CP.
Thus, CP = 29.75/1.0625 = Rs. 28

So option D is correct

A loss of 25% means a cost price of 100 corresponding to a selling price of 75. CP as a percentage of the SP would then be 133.33%

Alternatively,

Cost price = 1025
Loss% = 25%
SP = 1025 - (1025 * 25/100) = 768.75
⇒ 768.75 * (x/100) = 1025
⇒ 768.75x = 102500
⇒ x = 102500/768.75 = 133.33%

So option D is correct

Sales tax = 150 / 5 = 30
∵ SP contains Rs. 30 component of sales tax.
Of the remainder (150 – 30 = 120) 1/3rd is the profit.
Thus, the profit = 120 / 3 = 40
Hence, Cost price = 120 – 40 = 80

So option B is correct

CP = 20000
Profit = 25/100 of 20000 = 5000
SP = Profit + CP = 25000

New transaction

CP= 25000
Loss = 25% of 25000 = 6250
SP = CP - Loss = 18750

P's gain = 1250
TOTAL gain = 6250
Total gain % = 6250/20000 × 100 = 625/20 = 31.25%

So option C is correct

The cost per toffee = 75 / 125 = Rs. 0.6 = 60 paise.
Cost of 1 million toffees = 600000.
∵ There is a discount of 40% offered on this quantity.
Thus, the total cost for 1 million toffees = 60% of 600000 = 360000  ( because a discount of 40% was there, so the cost will be 60% of original price)

So option C is correct

Let's denote the cost price of the first TV as CP1, the cost price of the second TV as CP2, and the selling price of the second TV as SP2.

The man makes a profit of 10% on the first TV, so we can write the selling price of the first TV as:

SP1 = CP1 + 10% of CP1
33000 = CP1 + 0.1 * CP1
33000 = 1.1 * CP1
CP1 = 33000 / 1.1
CP1 = 30000

He sells the second TV at a loss of 20%, so we can write the selling price of the second TV as:

SP2 = CP2 - 20% of CP2
SP2 = 0.8 * CP2

Since he neither gains nor loses on the whole, the total cost price equals the total selling price:

CP1 + CP2 = SP1 + SP2

We already know the values of CP1 and SP1, so we can substitute them in the equation:

30000 + CP2 = 33000 + SP2

We also know that SP2 = 0.8 * CP2, so we can substitute that as well:

30000 + CP2 = 33000 + 0.8 * CP2

Now, we can solve for CP2:

0.2 * CP2 = 3000
CP2 = 15000

Now that we have the cost price of the second TV, we can find its selling price using the relation we found earlier:

SP2 = 0.8 * CP2
SP2 = 0.8 * 15000
SP2 = 12000

So the selling price of the second TV set is Rs. 12000.

R sold the table at 20% profit at Rs. 90. Thus R's cost price x 1.2 = 90
R’s Cost price = Rs. 75

We also know that E sold it to R at 25% profit.
Thus, E’s Cost price x 1.25 = 75
⇒ E’s cost price = 60

So option D is correct

S.P. at 10% profit = Rs.(110y/100) = 11y/10
New C.P. of article = 85y/100 = 17y/20
S.P. = Rs.(17y/20 * 110/100)
New S.P. of article = Rs. 187/200

According to Question,
11y/10 - 187y/200 = 33
33y/200 = 33
y = 200

So option B is correct

The total discount offered by E = 5% on 1,00,000 + 12.5% on 80,000 = 5,000 + 10,000 = 15,000.

If R wants to be as competitive, he should also offer a discount of Rs. 15,000 on 1,80,000.

Discount percentage = (15000/180000) x 100= 8.33% discount.

So option B is correct