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UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - UPPSC (UP) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 - UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 for UPPSC (UP) 2024 is part of UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPPSC (UP) exam syllabus.The UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 MCQs are made for UPPSC (UP) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 below.
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UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

The chemical used as a 'fixer' in photography:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 1
  • The chemical commonly used as a 'fixer' in photography is sodium thiosulfate.
  • Sodium thiosulfate functions by dissolving the unexposed silver salts on the film, which have not been affected by light exposure.
  • Photographers use sodium thiosulfate to fix both negatives and prints developed during the photographic process.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 2

Which river in the west determines the boundary of Uttar Pradesh to a large extent?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 2
  • The Yamuna river in the west forms a significant boundary for Uttar Pradesh.
  • Originating from the Bandarpunch massif in the Great Himalayas near Yamnotri in western Uttarakhand, the Yamuna flows swiftly in a southerly direction through the Himalayan foothills.
  • After exiting Uttarakhand, it continues onto the Indo-Gangetic Plain, serving as a border between Uttar Pradesh and Haryana state to the west.
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UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

On which date is Earth's Rotation Day celebrated annually?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

The Correct Answer is January 8

  • Date of Celebration: Earth's Rotation Day is celebrated annually on January 8.
  • Significance: This day commemorates the important discovery of Earth's rotation on its axis.

This celebration serves as a reminder of the scientific understanding and appreciation for our planet's movement. It highlights the crucial role of Earth's rotation in creating day and night cycles, as well as influencing various natural phenomena.

By observing Earth's Rotation Day on January 8, people can reflect on the wonders of nature and the fascinating workings of our planet.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

Which of the following are not the objectives of Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

"To establish an autonomous council in the tribal areas" are not the objectives of Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996.

Objectives of the Act:

  1. To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the scheduled areas with certain modifications.
  2. To provide self-rule for the bulk of the tribal population.
  3. To have village governance with participatory democracy.
  4. To evolve a suitable administrative framework consistent with traditional practices.
  5. To safeguard and to preserve the traditions and customs of tribal communities.
  6. To empower panchayats at the appropriate levels with specific powers conducive to tribal requirements.
  7. To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers and authority of panchayats at the lower level of the gram sabha.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

Mount Kilimanjaro is situated __________.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

Location of Mount Kilimanjaro

  • Tanzania: Mount Kilimanjaro is located in Tanzania, which is a country in East Africa.
  • Significance: It is the highest mountain in Africa, standing at 5,895 meters above sea level.
  • Unique Feature: Kilimanjaro is also known as the tallest free-standing mountain in the world.
  • Volcanic Cones: The mountain has three volcanic cones named Kibo, Mwenji, and Shira respectively.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.

  1. In 1973, the Balwant Rai Mehta Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups.
  2. Among the 75 listed PVTG’s the highest number are found in Odisha (13), followed by Andhra Pradesh (12).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 6

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2

  • Statement 1: In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. PTGs are less developed and vulnerable among tribal groups with declining or stagnant population, low literacy levels, pre-agricultural technology, and economic backwardness. They generally live in remote areas with poor infrastructure and administrative support. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Statement 2: In 1975, the Government of India identified the most vulnerable tribal groups as a separate category called Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and initially declared 52 such groups. Later in 1993, an additional 23 groups were added, totaling 75 PVTGs across 18 states and one Union Territory. Among these, Odisha has the highest number with 13 PVTGs followed by Andhra Pradesh with 12. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
  • Scheme for development of PVTGs:
    • The Ministry of Tribal Affairs implements the Scheme of “Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)” exclusively for them.
    • Under this scheme, Conservation-cum-Development (CCD)/Annual Plans are prepared by each State/UT for their PVTGs based on need assessment, approved by the Ministry's Project Appraisal Committee.
    • PVTGs are given priority under various schemes like Special Central Assistance (SCA) to Tribal Sub-Scheme, Grants under Article 275(1) of the Constitution, and Grants-in-aid to Voluntary Organizations working for Scheduled Tribes.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

Which railway station has been renamed as 'Veerangana Laxmibai Railway Station' by the Uttar Pradesh government?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

The Uttar Pradesh government, under the leadership of Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath, made the decision to rename the Jhansi Railway Station to "Veerangana Laxmibai Railway Station" in honor of the revered historical figure Rani Laxmibai.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

In which one of the following States/UT, is the Lake Tsomgo located?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

  • Tsomgo Lake often spelled Tsongmo Lake or Changgu Lake, is a glacier lake in the Indian state of Sikkim's East Sikkim region, about 40 kilometers from the capital Gangtok. The lake is located at an elevation of 3,753 meters (12,313 feet), and remains frozen during the winter season.
  • The lake's surface changes colours with the seasons, and the indigenous Sikkimese people cherish it. The lake is the venue for the Guru Purnima festival which is also the Raksha Bandhan festival when the faith healers known as Jhakris of Sikkim assemble at the lake area to derive benefits from the healing qualities of the lake waters.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

If the rupees per US Dollar exchange rate changes from Rs. 60 to Rs. 65 in a time period by the market forces, it implies:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

Depreciation of Rupee

  • If the rupees per US Dollar exchange rate changes from Rs. 60 to Rs. 65 in a time period due to market forces, it implies depreciation of the rupee.
  • Devaluation is a term used when the government reduces the value of a currency under a Fixed-Rate System, whereas depreciation occurs under a Floating Rate System due to market forces.
  • Depreciation takes place under a flexible exchange rate system.
  • Devaluation involves reducing a country's exchange rate in the international market while maintaining the internal value unchanged.
  • Historical examples of rupee devaluation include a 57% devaluation in 1966 and a 19.5% devaluation in 1991 against the US dollar.

Devaluation of a currency can serve various objectives such as:

  • Correcting the balance of payments.
  • Boosting exports by making them more competitive internationally.
  • Reducing imports by making them relatively more expensive.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

According to the 2024 Global 500 IT Services Ranking by Brand Finance, which company is rated as the second most valuable IT services brand in the world?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

 

  • Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) has been identified as the second most valuable IT services brand in the world according to the 2024 Global 500 IT Services Ranking by Brand Finance.
  • TCS achieved this significant position with a remarkable brand value surge to $19.2 billion. This indicates TCS's strong industry leadership, commitment to innovation, and global recognition.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

Brass gets discolored in air due to the presence of:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

The Reason Behind Brass Discoloration

  • Oxygen: Oxygen is not the main reason for the discoloration of brass in air.
  • Hydrogen Sulphide: Brass gets discolored in air due to the presence of hydrogen sulphide. When brass comes in contact with hydrogen sulphide, a chemical reaction occurs leading to discoloration.
  • Carbon Dioxide: Carbon dioxide does not cause the discoloration of brass.
  • Nitrogen: Nitrogen is not responsible for the discoloration of brass.

Brass gets discolored in air due to the presence of hydrogen sulphide. The chemical compound H2S, which is hydrogen sulphide, reacts with brass causing it to change color. Hydrogen sulphide is a colorless gas known for its foul odor resembling rotten eggs. It is also toxic, corrosive, and flammable.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

Consider the following statements with respect to the powers and jurisdictions of a High Court:

  1. High Courts have the power to decide the Constitutional validity of Laws enacted by Parliament.
  2. High Courts have original jurisdiction over disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 initially restricted the judicial review power of the high courts, prohibiting them from examining the constitutional validity of central laws. However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 reinstated their authority in this regard.

Original Jurisdiction of High Court:

Original jurisdiction refers to the court's power to hear cases for the first time, not on appeal. High courts have original jurisdiction over various matters, including:

  • Matters of admiralty and contempt of court.
  • Disputes concerning the election of members of Parliament.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

  1. The maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months.
  2. Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period.
  3. The power of prorogation of the session lies with the presiding officer of the House.
  4. The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 13
  • From the given statements, 1, 2, and 4 are the correct statements.
  • The President summons each House of Parliament to meet, but there cannot be a gap of more than six months between two sessions of Parliament.
  • Adjournment sine die refers to terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period.
  • The presiding officer, such as the Speaker or Chairman, declares the House adjourned sine die after completing the session's business. Following this, the President issues a notification for the prorogation of the session.
  • The power to convene a session of Parliament is held by the government.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

Coal gas is a mixture of

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 14
  • Coal gas:
    • Coal gas is a useful fossil fuel derived from plants and animals.
    • It consists of hydrogen gas (H2), methane gas (CH4), carbon monoxide gas (CO), and some ethyne gas.
    • Prepared by the destructive distillation of bituminous coal through continuous heating in the absence of air.
    • Used as an industrial and household fuel due to its flammability.
  • Producer Gas (CO + N2):
    • Producer gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO) and nitrogen (N2).
    • Produced by passing air over red-hot coke at around 1273 K.
    • Can further oxidize to form carbon dioxide, releasing a significant amount of heat, making it an important industrial fuel.
  • Water Gas (CO + H2):
    • Water gas is a mix of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen gas (H2).
    • Formed by passing steam over red-hot coke, resulting in a combination of CO and H2.
    • Also known as synthesis gas or syngas, useful in organic compound synthesis and as an industrial fuel.
  • Methane and Ethene (CH4 + C2H6):
    • This mixture comprises methane and ethene, two organic compounds serving as good combustible fuels.
    • Methane is the first member of the alkane family, while ethene is the first member of the alkene family.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

Which of the following are the recommendations of the Sarkaria commission?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 15
  • Sarkaria Commission Background:
    • The Sarkaria Commission was established in 1983 under the chairmanship of RS Sarkaria.
    • It submitted its final report in 1988.
    • The commission provided 247 recommendations concerning central-state relations, focusing on issues of over-centralization or under-centralization.
  • Key Recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission:
    • The center should consult the state while creating laws related to the Concurrent list.
    • Chief Ministers should be consulted in the appointment of Governors.
    • Net proceeds of the Corporation tax should be shared with states.
    • The Governor should have a fixed tenure and cannot dismiss the Council of Ministers when it holds a majority.
    • A commission of inquiry against state ministers can only be set up after a demand from Parliament.
    • The center should not levy a surcharge on Income tax unless for a specific purpose.
    • A Commissioner for linguistic minorities should be activated.
    • A permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 should be established.
    • If the President withholds his assent on state bills, the reason should be communicated.
    • The center should have the power to deploy armed forces even without state consent, but consultation with the state is necessary.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

Consider the following personalities :

i. Annie Besant

ii. Lokmanya Tilak

iii. Jawahar Lal Nehru

iv. Muhammad Ali Jinnah

Who among the above participated in the Home Rule Movement ?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 16
Explanation of Solution

Details of the Home Rule Movement and Participants

  • Background:

    Between the years 1916 and 1918, the Indian independence movement saw the rise of the Home Rule Movement, which aimed at achieving home rule or a dominion status for India under the British Empire, similar to countries like Canada and Australia.

  • Key Points:
    • The movement was led by prominent leaders such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant.
    • It operated through two home rule leagues.
    • The movement attracted significant support from educated Indians.
    • By 1917, the two leagues combined had approximately 40,000 members.
    • Members of Congress and the Muslim League actively participated in the movement.
    • Distinguished figures like Motilal Nehru, Jawaharlal Nehru, Chittaranjan Das, Madan Mohan Malaviya, Muhammad Ali Jinnah, Tej Bahadur Sapru, and Lala Lajpat Rai were part of the movement.
    • The movement's impact included the Montague Declaration of 1917, which promised greater Indian representation in government and the establishment of self-governing institutions, leading to responsible government in India.
  • Participants:

    Annie Besant, Lokmanya Tilak, Jawahar Lal Nehru, and Muhammad Ali Jinnah actively participated in the Home Rule Movement.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

Pungency in chillies is due to:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

The Reason Behind Pungency in Chillies

  • Chemesthesis: This term refers to the sensitivity of the skin and mucous membranes to chemical compounds, which helps in detecting pungency.
  • Stimulating Sensation: Compounds like piperine, capsaicin, and thiosulfinates can create a burning or tingling sensation by stimulating the trigeminal nerve alongside normal taste perception.
  • Mechanism of Action: The pungent sensation caused by capsaicin, piperine, and allicin is due to the activation of heat thermosensitive and chemosensitive TRP ion channels, such as TRPV1 and TRPA1 nociceptors.
  • Adaptive Response: Chili pungency might be an adaptive response to microbial infections.

Solanin:

  • Solanine is an alkaloid found in plants of the nightshade family (Solanaceae), such as tomatoes, eggplants, and potatoes.
  • Most solanine poisoning cases are associated with the consumption of greened potatoes.

Isothiocyanates:

  • Isothiocyanate is the functional group N=C=S in organic chemistry, formed by replacing the oxygen in the isocyanate group with sulfur.
  • Many natural isothiocyanates from plants are produced through the enzymatic conversion of glucosinolate metabolites.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

Rana Kumbha defeated __________ and erected the tower of victory (Vijay Stambha) in Chittorgarh.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

The Correct Answer is Mahmood Khilji

Key Points

  • Rana Kumbha defeated Mahmud Khilji and built the tower of victory (Vijay Stambha) in Chittorgarh.
  • Located in Chittor Fort of Chittorgarh, Vijay Stambh (1440-48) was constructed by Maharana Kumbha, the King of Mewar.
  • Symbolizing victory, Maharana Kumbha defeated Mahmood Khilji in 1437.
  • The architect of the tower was Rao Jaita.
  • Also known as Kriti Stambha/Kiriti Stambha or Vishnu Stambha.
  • Mahmood Khilji had a joint army of Gujarat & Malwa, which he used in the Sarangpur war.
  • The statue serves as a symbol for the Rajasthan Police & Secondary Education Board.

Rana Kumbha achievements

  • Rana Kumbha defeated Sultan Mehmood Khilji of Malwa.
  • Historical inscriptions mention that he captured Mehmood Khilji as a prisoner.
  • He imprisoned Mehmood Khilji for six months before sending him back to his Kingdom.
  • Subsequently, Mehmood Khilji launched an invasion on Mewar after making military preparations.
  • He destroyed the temple at Kumbhalgarh but was unsuccessful in conquering Mewar.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

The correct matching of the given list is :(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

  • Prafulla Chaki:
    • Prafulla chand Chaki's name is taken with utmost respect in the history of Indian freedom struggle.
    • He sacrificed his life for the country. On April 30, 1908, he threw a bomb on Kingsford's wagon.
    • When the police tried to arrest Prafulla, he committed suicide by firing on himself with his revolver.
  • Savarkar Brothers:
    • Vinayak Savarkar organized an organization called Mitra Mela (1899) by organizing local youths.
    • Soon, the flame of revolution with the feeling of nationalism in these youths was awakened.
    • Mitra Mela later became famous as Abhinav Bharat Society.
  • Vanchi Aiyar:
    • Vanchinathan Iyer, popularly known as Vanchi, was born in 1886 in Shenkottai to Raghupathi Iyer and Rukmani Ammal.
    • It is said that he was one of the first and foremost Tamils to participate in the freedom struggle.
    • He believed that independence can be achieved only through armed struggle.
    • In 1911, he shot and killed the District Collector William Ash.
  • Basin Ghosh:
    • Basin Kumar Ghosh and Bagh Jatin raised an army of young revolutionaries in East Bengal.
    • Along with this, these people formed 'Maniktulla Group' in Maniktulla, Calcutta.
    • Revolutionaries used to make bombs secretly at this place.
    • An attempt was also made to assassinate Kingsford by Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki, supported by the Barindra group, but failed.
    • After this, the arrest of the revolutionaries by the police intensified, in which Basin Kumar Ghosh was arrested along with many companions.
    • The 'Alipore Bomb Case' was launched on them.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 20

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 20
  • First Five Year Plan:
    • Duration: 1951 to 1956
    • Leader: Jawaharlal Nehru
    • Model: Harrod-Domar model with modifications
    • Objective: Rehabilitation of refugees, rapid agricultural development for food self-sufficiency, and inflation control
  • Second Five Year Plan:
    • Duration: 1956 to 1961
    • Leader: Jawaharlal Nehru
    • Model: P.C. Mahalanobis Model
    • Objective: Rapid industrialization, focus on basic and heavy industries
  • Third Five Year Plan:
    • Duration: 1961 to 1966
    • Leader: Jawaharlal Nehru
    • Model: Prof. S. Chakravarty's model
    • Objective: Establishment of a self-reliant and self-generating economy
  • Fourth Five Year Plan:
    • Duration: 1969 to 1974
    • Leader: Indira Gandhi
    • Model: Ashok Rudra model
    • Objective: 'Growth with stability', progressive self-reliance, Garibi Hatao target

The correct answer is Option 2.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 21

Consider the following Articles mentioned under Part III of the Indian constitution:
1. Article 16
2. Article 29
3. Article 25

Which of the Articles given above are available only to citizens and not to foreigners?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 21
  • Articles available only to citizens: Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 are specifically available only to Indian citizens, not to foreigners.
  • Part III of the Constitution: Fundamental rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution, from Articles 12 to 35.
  • Magna Carta of India: Part III is often referred to as the Magna Carta of India.
  • Features of Fundamental Rights:
    • Justiciable and legally enforceable.
    • Have legal sanctions.
    • Automatically enforced without the need for legislation.
    • Aim to establish political democracy.
    • Negative in nature as they restrict the state from certain actions.
    • Qualified and not absolute.
    • Not permanent.
  • Origin: The fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution draw inspiration from the Bill of Rights in the United States.
  • Historical Context: Originally, the Constitution provided for seven fundamental rights, including right to property which was later removed.
  • Amendment: The right to property was deleted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 and made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.

Important Points:
Differentiation of Fundamental Rights:

  • Rights only for Citizens:
    • Article 15
    • Article 16
    • Article 19
    • Article 29
    • Article 30
  • Rights for Citizens and Foreigners (except enemy aliens):
    • Article 14
    • Article 20
    • Article 21
    • Article 21A
    • Article 22
    • Article 23
    • Article 24
    • Article 25
    • Article 26
    • Article 27
    • Article 28
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 22
According to the Census of 2011, Urban population of India is?
Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

Understanding Urbanisation in India

  • The concept of urbanisation in India is based on the percentage of urban population compared to the total population.
  • As per the Census of 2011, the urbanisation level in India was recorded at 31.16%, indicating a relatively low urban population in comparison to developed nations.
  • Throughout the twentieth century, the total urban population in India witnessed a significant eleven-fold increase.
  • The growth of urban population and urbanisation has been fueled by the expansion of existing urban centers and the development of new towns across the country.
  • However, it is noteworthy that the rate of urbanisation growth has decelerated in the past two decades.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

The sex ratio in rural areas of Uttar Pradesh as per the 2011 census was _______.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

Sex Ratio in Rural Areas of Uttar Pradesh

  • Population Data:
    • In the 2011 census, the total population of Uttar Pradesh was 199,812,341, with 104,480,510 males and 95,331,831 females.
  • Sex Ratio:
    • The overall sex ratio in Uttar Pradesh in 2011 was 912.
    • The sex ratio specifically in rural areas of Uttar Pradesh during the same census was calculated to be 918.
    • In contrast, the sex ratio in urban areas of Uttar Pradesh in 2011 was 894.
  • Literacy Rates:
    • The literacy rate of Uttar Pradesh was recorded at 67.68%.
    • The male literacy rate in the state was 77.28%, while the female literacy rate was 57.18%.
  • Population Share:
    • Uttar Pradesh's population constituted 16.51% of the entire country's population during the 2011 census.

Additional Information

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

In the context of Indian Agriculture, what is the role of organic manures?
1. Organic manures bind the sandy soil and improve its water holding capacity.
2. They open the clayey soil and help in aeration better root growth.
3. They add plant nutrients in a small percentage and also add micro nutrients which are essential for plant growth.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

The Role of Organic Manures in Indian Agriculture

  • Manures:
    • Manures refer to plant and animal wastes that serve as sources of plant nutrients, releasing these nutrients post-decomposition.
    • Manures can be classified into two categories: bulky organic manures and concentrated organic manures.
  • Significance of Organic Manures in Agriculture:
    • Organic manures play a crucial role in agriculture by:
      • Binding sandy soil to enhance its water-holding capacity, aiding in better moisture retention. This validates statement 1.
      • Opening up clayey soil to improve aeration for enhanced root growth. This supports statement 2.
      • Contributing plant nutrients in small quantities and including essential micronutrients for plant development. This validates statement 3.
      • Increasing microbial activity, facilitating the release of plant nutrients. Examples of organic manures include Farm Yard Manure (FYM), compost from organic waste, night soil, sludge, sewage, sheep folding, green manures, and concentrated organic manures like oilcake (edible, non-edible), blood meal, fish meal, and bone meal.
      • It is advisable to incorporate organic manures before sowing or planting due to the gradual release of nutrients they offer.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

Identify the correct statements from the following.
(A) Burning of wood is a physical and irreversible change.
(B) Boiling of water is a chemical and reversible change.
(C) Grinding wood into sawdust is a physical and irreversible change.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

The Correct Answer is Only (C)

Concept:

Chemical Changes

  • If the chemical composition of a product is changing, then it is a chemical change.
  • The changes are irreversible change.
  • The final product is different from the initial one.
  • Examples of chemical changes include the burning of a candle, the ripening of fruit, the curdling of milk, and the digestion of food.

Physical Changes

  • If the chemical composition remains the same but only the state changes, then it is a physical change.
  • The changes are reversible changes.
  • The state changes but the final products are the same as the initial one.
  • Examples of physical changes include the freezing of water and evaporation of water.

Explanation:

  • (A) Burning of wood is a chemical change because it involves a chemical reaction where the wood undergoes combustion and reacts with oxygen to produce heat, light, and new chemical compounds like carbon dioxide and water vapor.
  • It is also an irreversible change because the original wood cannot be recovered.
  • (B) Boiling of water is a physical change, not a chemical change. It involves the conversion of liquid water into water vapor due to the input of heat energy. Boiling is a reversible change because when the vapor cools down, it condenses back into liquid water.
  • (C) Grinding wood into sawdust is a physical change because it only involves a change in the physical state or size of the wood particles.
  • The chemical composition of the wood remains the same. Grinding wood into sawdust is also an irreversible change because the original wood cannot be restored to its original form.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

Consider the following about Pygmy hogs:
1. It is the smallest and rarest species of wild pig in the world.
2. Currently, the viable population of this pig in the wild is in the Kaziranga National Park & Tiger Reserve Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

The Correct Answer is Option 1:

  • In News: 18 rare pygmy hogs reintroduced in their historical home in Assam.

In News

  • Key Points:
    • Pygmy Hogs:
      • It is the smallest and rarest species of wild pig in the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
      • It is one of the very few mammals that build its own home, or nest, complete with a ‘roof’.
      • It is an indicator species as its presence reflects the health of its primary habitat, tall and wet grasslands.
      • Habitat: It prefers undisturbed patches of grassland dominated by early succession riverine communities, typically comprising dense tall grass intermixed with a wide variety of herbs, shrubs, and young trees.
      • Currently, the viable population of this pig in the wild is in the Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
      • Conservation Status:
        • IUCN: Critically Endangered
        • The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I

Additional Information
Manas National Park:

  • It is located in the state of Assam. It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan.
  • It is a national park, a UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an Elephant reserve, and a Biosphere reserve.
  • Flora: It contains some of the largest remaining grassland habitats in the sub-Himalayan grassland ecosystems.
  • Fauna: The Park is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur, and pygmy hog.
  • The Manas River is a major tributary of the Brahmaputra River, which passes through the Manas National Park.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

Read the following statements:
(A) Dispute with respect to allocation of GST to a state is matter of dispute between two states.
(B) Dispute regarding sharing of river water is a matter of dispute between two states.

Select the correct answer:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

The correct option is 'Only (B) is correct'.

Key Points

  • Dispute with respect to allocation of GST to a state is matter of dispute between two states.
    • The statement "Dispute with respect to allocation of GST to a state is a matter of dispute between two states" is incorrect.
    • In India, the allocation of GST (Goods and Services Tax) revenues to states is not typically a matter of dispute between two states.
    • Instead, this is managed at a national level, by the central government and the GST Council, which is a constitutional body made up of the Union Finance Minister (who serves as its chairperson), the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance, and the Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation from each state.
    • Therefore, any disputes regarding the allocation of GST are usually resolved by the GST Council, not between individual states.
  • Dispute regarding sharing of river water is a matter of dispute between two states.
    • The statement "Dispute regarding sharing of river water is a matter of dispute between two states" is correct.
    • Water disputes are a common source of conflict between states in India, particularly when rivers flow through multiple states.
    • The distribution of water is often a contentious issue and can lead to disputes.
    • In India, such disputes are typically settled through tribunals established under the Inter-State Water Disputes Act of 1956, which was enacted to resolve disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers and river valleys.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

In 1937, how many of the eleven provinces had Congress 'Prime Ministers' who functioned under the supervision of the British Governor?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

Provincial Elections

  • Provincial elections were conducted in British India during the winter of 1936-37 as per the Government of India Act 1935.
  • The elections took place in eleven provinces, including Madras, Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, United Provinces, Bombay Presidency, Assam, NWFP, Bengal, Punjab, and Sindh.
  • The election results were officially announced in February 1937.
  • The Indian National Congress emerged victorious in eight provinces, excluding Punjab and Sindh.
  • The All India Muslim League did not succeed in forming a government in any of the provinces.

Key Points

  • Resignation of Congress Ministries
    • Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939 in objection to Viceroy Lord Linlithgow's decision to declare India as a belligerent in World War II without consulting the Indian populace.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

The central component of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan is-

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

The Core Elements of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan

  • The primary goal of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is to enhance the capabilities of Panchayats and enable them to function independently and efficiently. RGSA focuses on two key components:
    • Encouraging Panchayats:
      • RGSA conducts various programs and initiatives to educate Panchayats about their rights and responsibilities, aiding them in executing development projects successfully.
    • Implementing e-Panchayat Mission Mode Project:
      • This project assists Panchayats in enhancing their efficiency and transparency through the utilization of information technology.
    • Both options (1) and (2) are valid components of RGSA, making them central to its mission. Option (4) is incorrect as it does not align with the objectives of RGSA.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

What is the Garud Commando Force known for in the Indian Air Force?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

The Garud Commando Force is tasked primarily with protecting critical Air Force bases and installations. Established in 2004, this special forces unit also engages in search and rescue operations and disaster relief efforts. Their training emphasizes readiness to respond to a variety of scenarios, highlighting the strategic importance of safeguarding air assets.

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