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UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - UPPSC (UP) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 - UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7

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UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

In the context of biodiversity, 'The Evil Quartet' refers to the set of four:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

The Evil Quartet in Biodiversity Loss
The term 'The Evil Quartet' refers to the major causes that are responsible for the loss of biodiversity. These factors significantly impact the environment and contribute to the decline in biodiversity.

  • Major Causes of Biodiversity Loss:
  • Factors of The Evil Quartet:
    • Habit Loss and Fragmentation:
      • This is a crucial cause leading to the extinction of animals and plants.
      • For example, tropical rainforests have significantly decreased in coverage over the years, affecting numerous species.
    • Over-Exploitation:
      • Human greed often drives the overexploitation of natural resources.
      • Historically, species like Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon have gone extinct due to human overexploitation.
      • Currently, many marine fish populations are facing over-harvesting, endangering their existence.
    • Co-extinctions:
      • When a species becomes extinct, other associated plant and animal species also face extinction.
      • For instance, the extinction of a host fish species can lead to the extinction of its unique parasite species.
    • Invasion of Alien Species:
      • Introducing alien species can disrupt ecosystems, leading to the decline or extinction of native species.
      • An example is the Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria, which caused the extinction of numerous cichlid fish species.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 2

Which institution launched India's largest drone pilot training institute?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 2
  • IIT Guwahati: Collaborated with EduRade to establish India's largest Remote Pilot Training Organization (RPTO).
  • Objective: The RPTO is designed for training individuals in drone piloting and is capable of simultaneously operating 9 medium-class drones.
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 3

The rise in water level in oceans and seas due to the melted ice sheets and glaciers causes:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 3

Impact of Melted Ice Sheets and Glaciers on Water Levels

  • Desertification: The rise in water levels in oceans and seas due to melted ice sheets and glaciers does not directly cause desertification. Desertification is primarily related to land degradation and loss of vegetation cover in arid and semi-arid regions.
  • Destruction of Human Settlements: The main impact of the rising water levels is the destruction of human settlements along coastlines. As sea levels increase, coastal areas become more prone to flooding, leading to damage and displacement of communities living in these regions.
  • Destruction of Infrastructure: The infrastructure in coastal areas is at risk due to the rising water levels. Buildings, roads, and other structures near the coast may suffer damage or submersion as sea levels continue to rise.
  • Endangering of Species: The changes in water levels can also endanger species that depend on coastal habitats for survival. For example, sea level rise can disrupt nesting sites for sea turtles or lead to loss of crucial feeding grounds for marine animals.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 4

Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 4

The Significance of Cryopreservation in Biodiversity Conservation

  • This refers to the conservation of species within their natural habitats. It involves protecting and preserving species in the places where they naturally occur. For example, establishing protected areas like national parks or wildlife sanctuaries to safeguard the biodiversity present in a specific region.
  • Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile conditions falls under advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity. In this method, the gametes are stored in liquid nitrogen at a temperature of -196°C to maintain their viability for future use. Ex-situ conservation involves preserving species outside their natural habitat, often in controlled environments such as botanical gardens, zoos, or seed banks, to prevent their extinction.
  • Sacred groves are patches of forest set aside for religious or cultural reasons. These areas are conserved in their natural state to protect the biodiversity they support. Communities often regard these groves as sacred, leading to their preservation over generations.
  • While the term "in situ" typically refers to on-site conservation efforts, the concept of in situ cryo-conservation is not commonly used. Cryopreservation of gametes within the natural habitat of threatened species could be a potential approach to safeguarding genetic diversity in a more native setting
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

Which one of the following is not a 'Sustainable Development Goal' (SDG) target to be achieved by 2030?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

Space Research: Space Research is not a 'Sustainable Development Goal' (SDG) target to be achieved by 2030.

Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):

  • Quality Education (SDG 4): Aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all.
  • Gender Equality (SDG 5): Focuses on achieving gender equality and empowering all women and girls.
  • Zero Hunger (SDG 2): Aims to end hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture.

United Nations (UN) launched the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and SDGs to bring sustainable development into the mainstream. This agenda includes 17 goals and 169 targets to be achieved by 2030. Achieving these goals requires collaboration from governments, businesses, civil society, and individuals.

It is important to note that Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are not legally binding.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

Which district of Uttar Pradesh receives the lowest rainfall?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

The district in Uttar Pradesh with the lowest rainfall

  • Mathura: Mathura district in Uttar Pradesh receives the lowest amount of rainfall compared to other districts in the state. On average, Mathura receives around 54.4 cm of rainfall annually. The district experiences dry periods in several months including January, February, March, April, May, October, November, and December.
  • Gorakhpur: In contrast, Gorakhpur district in Uttar Pradesh receives the highest amount of rainfall among all the districts in the state.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

Which among the following option is incorrect Location of India’s Biosphere Reserves?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve – Tamil Nadu:

  • The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, located in Tamil Nadu, is incorrectly mentioned as the location of India's Biosphere Reserves.
  • This reserve is an International Biosphere Reserve situated in the Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills ranges of South India.
  • The Nilgiri Sub-Cluster is a component of the Western Ghats and was designated as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 2012.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 8

Which of the following statements is correct about socialism mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 8
  • The Origin of Socialism in the Indian Constitution: The term "socialism" was introduced into the Preamble of the Indian Constitution through the 42nd amendment in 1976. This addition reflected the commitment of the Indian state to socialist principles.
  • Socialist Nature in the Constitution: The Indian Constitution embodies socialist ideals through the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which aim at establishing social and economic justice in the country.
  • Congress Party's Resolution: At the Avadi session in 1955, the Congress party passed a resolution advocating the establishment of a socialist society in India, emphasizing the importance of equitable distribution of resources.
  • Democratic Socialism in India: Indian socialism is characterized by democratic socialism, which promotes a mixed economy with a blend of public and private sectors. This approach aims to address poverty, ignorance, disease, and inequality.
  • Blend of Marxism and Gandhism: The Indian brand of socialism combines elements of Marxism and Gandhism, with a significant influence from Gandhian socialism. This unique blend shapes the socialist framework in India.
  • Impact of Economic Reforms: The liberalization, privatization, and globalization policies introduced in 1991 altered the socialist landscape in India by reducing the state's socialist interventions to some extent.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 9

Geological structure, physiography and precipitation regimes influence evolution of drainage patterns. India with it’s diversity in the above mentioned attributes showcases a variety of drainage patterns across regions. Match the following drainage patterns found in the regions given below:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 9

In option B, all the drainage patterns are correctly matched with their respective regions. This is evident from the table provided:

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 10

Which platform is being used for the digitization of the Urban Frame Survey (UFS) by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) and the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 10

The Bhuvan Platform for Digitization of Urban Frame Survey

  • The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) and the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) have collaborated to digitize the Urban Frame Survey (UFS) utilizing advanced Geo ICT tools and techniques.
  • This digitization process is being carried out through the Bhuvan Platform, which represents a significant step towards modernization and enhancing the efficiency of data collection.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 11

Which of the following is a characteristic of root system?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 11

The Characteristics of Root System

  • The root system consists of the descending, nongreen, underground part of a plant that does not have nodes, internodes, leaves, or buds.
  • This system plays a key role in providing nourishment and support to the plant.
  • The primary root is developed and formed by the root system.
  • Roots grow downward, anchoring the plant in the soil, absorbing water and minerals, and sometimes storing food.
  • Roots typically have a cylindrical structure.
  • Roots exhibit positive geotropism, meaning they grow towards gravity.
  • Roots do not have buds or leaves and lack chlorophyll, making them colorless.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 12

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 12

Key Points
List – I (Movement)
:

  • Pabna Movement: The Pabna Peasant Uprising (1873–76) was a resistance movement by the peasants against the zamindars in Bengal. Led by Ishan Chandra Roy, it was a peaceful movement supported by intellectuals like R.C Dutt, Surendranath Banerjee, Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.
  • The Eka Movement: Started in 1921 in the Awadh region, this movement was initiated due to high rent issues, with support from Congress and the Khilafat movement.
  • The Santhal Rebellion: The Santhal Rebellion of 1855-56 was a tribal uprising against British oppression in the Jharkhand region, leading to widespread suppression by the British.
  • Tana Bhagat Movement: The Tana Bhagat Movement (1914-1919) was a tribal uprising in Chhotanagpur region against British taxes, staging a Satyagraha movement.

The Correct Answer is A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 4.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

The incorrect match:

  • Attorney General of India is not correctly matched to Part XIII.

Key Points:

  • Part XIII consists of Articles on trade and commerce within the territory of India.
  • Articles 301 - 305 cover Freedom of Trade and Commerce.
  • Article 306 was repealed and replaced by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956.
  • Therefore, the statement that Attorney General of India is matched to Part XIII is incorrect.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

Which one of the following Articles to the Constitution of India states that the ‘State shall make provisions for securing just and human conditions of work and for maternity relief’?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

Article 42 for Just and Humane Conditions of Work and Maternity Relief

  • "The State shall make provision for securing humane conditions of work and for maternity relief."
  • Article 42 focuses on the economic and social welfare of the people, aiming to establish India as a welfare state.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

To whom the Sarpanch gives his/her resignation letter? 

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

Answer Explanation:

  • The correct answer is the Development officer of Panchayat Samiti.

Key Points:

  • Sarpanch gives his/her resignation letter to the Development officer of Panchayat Samiti.
    • The Panchayat is chaired by the president of the village, known as a Sarpanch. The term of the elected representatives is five years.
    • Sarpanch/ Up Sarpanch and any member of Panchayat may resign his office by giving a notice in writing:
      • In a case where the Gram Panchayat is within the jurisdiction of a Panchayat Samiti to the Development Officer of Panchayat Samiti of that Panchayat Samiti.
    • The Sarpanch may resign his office by giving a notice in writing to Gram Panchayat.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

Which of the following Gupta rulers destroyed the Saka chieftain Rudrasena III and annexed his kingdom?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

Solution Explanation

The Gupta Ruler Who Destroyed the Saka Chieftain Rudrasena III

  • Chandragupta II:
    • He was the son of Samudragupta and Datta Devi.
    • Chandragupta II was known as a strong and vigorous ruler who extended his empire.
    • One of the significant events during his reign was the conquest of Sakas.
    • Chandragupta II destroyed the Saka chieftain Rudrasena III and annexed his kingdom.
    • The victory over Malwa contributed to the prosperity of the region, with Ujjain becoming a commercial hub.
    • Some scholars consider Ujjain as his second capital.
    • Chinese traveler Fa Hien visited India during Chandragupta II's rule.
    • Many scholars and artists adorned his court.
  • Samudragupta:
    • He was the second emperor of the Gupta Empire and one of the greatest rulers in Indian history.
    • Samudragupta expanded his dynasty's political power significantly.
  • Kumaragupta II Kramaditya:
    • He was an emperor of the Gupta Empire.
    • Successor of Purugupta, most likely his father.
    • He was succeeded by Budhagupta.
    • Vishnugupta, a son of Kumaragupta II and grandson of Purugupta, according to a Nalanda seal.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

Which of the following is the correct description of Lex Loci Act, 1850?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

Key Points

Lex Loci Act, 1850

  • Overview:
    • The Lex Loci Act was introduced in 1845 and officially passed in 1850.
    • It granted the right for Hindu individuals who had converted to Christianity to inherit their ancestral property.
    • Many Hindus believed that this act would encourage conversions to Christianity.
    • It aimed at safeguarding the civil rights of religious converts.
    • Some individuals opposed this act as it seemed to contradict Hindu religious laws related to property.
    • The enactment of this law contributed to significant dissatisfaction among Hindus before the Indian Revolt of 1857.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

  1. Money Multiplier is the amount of Broad money that banks generate with each rupee of reserves or base money available with them.
  2. Broad money is the most liquid part of the money supply.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

The correct answer is 1 only

Key Points

  • Money Multiplier:
    • It is the amount of Broad money that banks generate with each rupee of reserves or base money available with them. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Reserves are the amount of deposits that the RBI requires banks to hold and not to lend.
    • It tells how fast the money supply from bank lending will grow.
    • The higher the reserve ratio is, the fewer deposits will be available for lending, resulting in a smaller money multiplier and vice versa.
    • Thus, the higher the value money multiplier, the higher will be liquidity in the market and vice versa.
  • Narrow money:
    • Narrow money is the most liquid part of the money supply because the demand deposits can be withdrawn anytime during banking hours. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Broad money:
    • Broad money does not include interbank deposits. At the same time, time deposits of the public with the banks, including the cooperative banks are also included in Broad money.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage (CCUS):
1. The utilization of captured carbon dioxide could lead to the development of more sustainable fuels and raw materials for various industries.
2. The storage of captured carbon dioxide may pose significant geological and safety risks, particularly due to the potential of leakage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage (CCUS)

  • Utilization of Captured Carbon Dioxide:
    • The captured carbon dioxide can be converted into sustainable fuels and raw materials for various industries.
    • Advancements in this area have led to the creation of a wide range of products, including sustainable fuels, chemicals, construction materials, and even food products.
    • Industries can benefit from this by reducing their carbon footprint and reliance on fossil fuels, contributing to a more circular economy.
    • Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
  • Storage of Captured Carbon Dioxide:
    • The captured carbon dioxide must be securely stored to prevent it from escaping back into the atmosphere.
    • The common storage method involves injecting CO2 deep underground into geological formations like depleted oil fields or deep saline formations.
    • However, there are risks associated with this method, such as potential leakage and induced seismic activity.
    • Ensuring safe and permanent storage of CO2 is crucial for effective deployment of CCUS technologies.
    • Therefore, statement 2 is also correct.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 20

With reference to Anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1. It provides that a member of a House belonging to a political party can be disqualified if he/she votes against the party whip.

2. It mandates that the presiding officer of the House has to decide a defection case within 3 months from the date on which such a petition is referred to him/her.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 20
Explanation of Solution

The Correct Answer is 1 only

  • Key Points
    • The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 prohibited members of Parliament and state legislatures from serving if they defected.
    • It amended four Articles of the Constitution and added a new Schedule (the Tenth Schedule) to the Constitution.
    • This act is also known as the "anti-defection law."
    • Later, the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 made one change to the Tenth Schedule provisions.
    • It omitted an exception provision, which stated that disqualification for defection would not apply in the event of a split.
    • A member of a House belonging to any political party becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he voluntarily gives up his membership of such political party, votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party without obtaining prior permission of such party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days.
    • A member can be disqualified if he/she votes against the party whip. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • An independent member of a House, elected without being set up as a candidate by any political party, becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after such an election.
    • A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House.
    • Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House.
    • The Presiding Officers have no time limit in which to deliberate on a plea for disqualification. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    • The courts can only intervene after the officer has made a decision.
    • Therefore, the petitioner's only choice is to wait until the officer has reached a decision.
  • Additional Information
    • The above disqualification on the ground of defection does not apply in the following two cases:
    • If a member leaves his party as a result of the party merging with another party.
      • A merger takes place when two-thirds of the members of the party have agreed to such a merger.
    • If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House.
      • Voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or rejoins it after he ceases to hold that office.
      • This exemption has been granted in recognition of the dignity and impartiality of this office.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

Tropical cyclone in general accompanied by

  1. Strong winds
  2. Exceptional rain
  3. Storm surge

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

Tropical Cyclones

  • Key Characteristics of Tropical Cyclones:

    • A tropical cyclone is a fast rotating storm system characterized by a low-pressure core, confined low-level air circulation, high winds, and a spiral of thunderstorms leading to heavy rain.
    • It is known by various names based on its location and severity, such as hurricane, tropical storm, cyclonic storm, tropical depression, or simply cyclone.
    • For instance, hurricanes form in the Atlantic Ocean or the northeastern Pacific Ocean, while typhoons develop in the northwestern Pacific Ocean. In the Indian Ocean, South Pacific, and South Atlantic, similar storms are referred to as tropical cyclones.
    • Severe cyclonic storms in the Indian Ocean are also termed as "severe cyclonic storms."

Therefore, tropical cyclones are typically accompanied by strong winds, exceptional rain, and storm surge.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

Solar ponds store solar thermal energy by?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

The correct answer is creating salt gradient.

 Key Points

  • Solar ponds are large bodies of water with different salt concentrations in distinct layers. The bottom layer of the pond contains highly concentrated saltwater, typically saturated with salt.
  • As sunlight passes through the top layer of the pond, which is generally transparent, it heats up the lower saltwater layer.
  • The high salt concentration in the bottom layer helps to trap and store the thermal energy from the sunlight, creating a temperature gradient within the pond.
  • This gradient prevents convection currents from mixing the layers, maintaining the heat within the lower layer.
  • To extract the stored thermal energy, heat exchangers are used. Pipes or tubes are placed within the pond, and the heated saltwater is circulated through the heat exchangers to transfer the thermal energy to a working fluid.
  • The working fluid can then be used to generate electricity, heat water, or provide heating for various applications.

In summary, solar ponds utilize a salt gradient to store solar thermal energy. However, the actual energy storage process takes place in the heat exchangers that transfer the thermal energy from the lower layer of the pond to a working fluid.

Hence, the correct answer is creating salt gradient.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

In the early Vedic period, society was classified on the basis of ______.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

The correct answer is Profession.

Key Points

  • The period between 1500 B.C and 600 B.C may be divided into the Early Vedic Period or Rig Vedic Period (1500 B.C -1000 B.C) and the Later Vedic Period (1000B.C-600 B.C).
  • Early Vedic Period(1500 BC-1000 BC)-
    • Ancient Hindu literature classified all humankind, and all created beings, in principle into four varnas.
      • The Brahmins: priests, teachers, and preachers
      • The Kshatriyas: kings, governors, warriors, and soldiers
      • The Vaishyas: cattle herders, agriculturists, artisans, and merchants
      • The Shudras: laborers and service providers
    • Early Vedic society was pastoralist and semi-nomadic  in nature
    • In the Early Vedic Period, the barter system was more prevalent.
    • The caste system was not rigid and based on profession.
    • There was no concept of Shudra or untouchables.
    • Women were given equal opportunities as men for their spiritual and intellectual development
    • There was no child marriage and the practice of sati was absent.
    • There were two popular bodies called the Sabha and Samiti. 
  • Later Vedic Period(1000 BC-600 BC)-
    • Iron was used extensively in this period and this enabled the people to clear forests and to bring more land under cultivation. Agriculture became the chief occupation.
    • Larger kingdoms were formed during the later Vedic period.
    • Women were restricted from their participation in society by being relegated to subordinate and docile roles.
    • The caste system became more rigid in this period with birth being the main criteria.
    • Child marriages had become common during this period.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

Who among the following composed the poem, 'Veeron Ka Kaisa Ho Basant'?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

Subhadra Kumari Chauhan: She was an Indian poet born on 16 August 1904 and passed away on 15 February 1948. One of her most famous works is the poem "Jhansi ki Rani." She was born in Nihalpur village in Prayagraj District, Uttar Pradesh, and got married to Thakur Lakshman Singh Chauhan of Khandwa in 1919. Some of her collections include 'Khilonewala,' 'Tridhara,' 'Mukul,' and 'Veeron Ka Kaisa Ho Basant.'

Additional Information
Pandit Makhanlal Chaturvedi
:

  • Pandit Makhanlal Chaturvedi, also known as Pandit Ji, was an Indian poet, writer, essayist, playwright, and journalist. He actively participated in India's national struggle for independence and was associated with the Chhayavaad movement in Hindi literature. He was born on 4 April 1889 in Babai village, Hoshangabad district, Madhya Pradesh. Some of his notable works include 'Him Kirtini,' 'Him Tarangini,' 'Yug Charan,' and 'Sahitya Devata.'

Harishankar Parsai:

  • Harishankar Parsai was an Indian writer who primarily wrote in Hindi. He was renowned for his satirical and humorous style in modern Hindi literature. His satirical works often explored human values and nature. Parsai was born in Jamani village near Itarsi in the Hoshangabad district, Madhya Pradesh. Some of his notable satires include 'Viklaang Shraddhaa ka daur,' 'Do Naak Waale Log,' 'Aadhyaatmik Paagalon Ka Mishan,' and more.

Gajanan Madhav Muktibodh:

  • Gajanan Madhav Muktibodh was a prominent Hindi poet, essayist, literary and political critic, and fiction writer of the 20th century. His first individual book was published in 1964, and he was known for works like 'Chand ka Muh Teda Hai,' 'Kath Ka Sapna,' 'Satah Se Uthta Admi,' and others.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 25

In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found in brackish water?

1. Ebony

2. Kelp

3. Rhizophora

4. Cattail 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 25
Explanation

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only

Key Points

  • A halophyte is a salt-tolerant plant that grows in soil or waters of high salinity, such as in saline semi-deserts, mangrove swamps, and seashores.
  • Rhizophora is a genus of tropical mangrove trees, with the most notable species being the red mangrove. Rhizophora species generally live in intertidal zones inundated daily by the ocean, making option 3 correct.
  • Kelp is a type of large, brown seaweed that grows in shallow, nutrient-rich saltwater near coastal fronts worldwide. Kelps provide habitat and food for various coastal organisms, making option 2 correct.
  • Cattail plants are found in fresh to slightly brackish waters, making option 4 incorrect.
  • Black Ebony is a tropical tree with low salt tolerance, making option 1 incorrect.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

The outer layers of the Sun, extending to thousands of km above the disc (photosphere) is termed as:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

Concept

The largest object present in our solar system is the Sun.
It is a hot glowing ball of Hydrogen and Helium.
The Sun is a 4.5-billion-year-old.
It is located at the centre of our solar system.

Explanation

Corona:

  • The Corona layer is the outermost layer of the Sun’s atmosphere.
  • It lies above the Chromosphere.
  • During a total Solar Eclipse, it can be seen as a white glowing Corona.
  • The temperature goes Up to 2 million degrees Celsius.
  • The temperature on the Corona spreads, and its reason is still unknown.
  • It starts at about 2100km above the photosphere.
  • Coronal mass ejection, Solar winds, and Solar flares are the phenomenon related to Corona.

Thus, the outer layers of the Sun, extending to thousands of km above the disc (photosphere), are termed Corona.

Additional Information

Transition Region:

  • The transition region is a very thin layer.
  • A layer of about (60 miles / 100 km).
  • It lies between the chromosphere and the corona.
  • The temperature rises abruptly from about 8000 to about 500,000 K.

Chromosphere:

  • The Chromosphere is visible as a dim red ring.
  • It lies just above the Photosphere.
  • Only visible light from the Chromosphere can be seen when the Photosphere is hidden during Solar Eclipses.
  • With the increase in height, its temperature increases.

Stratosphere:

  • It is a part of the earth’s atmosphere.
  • Above the troposphere lies the stratosphere.
  • It extends up to a height of 50 km.
  • This layer is almost free from clouds and associated weather phenomena.
  • It is ideal for flying aeroplanes.
  • It contains a layer of ozone gas, protecting us from the harmful effect of the sun's rays.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 27

Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Assertion (A) : There is a close relationship between height of land and the character of vegetation.

Reason (R) : The growth of vegetation depends on slope and thickness of soil.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 27
Explanation

Understanding the Relationship Between Land Height and Vegetation

  • Assertion (A) : There exists a significant correlation between the height of land and the type of vegetation present.
  • Reason (R) : Vegetation growth is influenced by factors such as slope and soil thickness.

Based on the given information:

The correct answer is: Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points:

  • Natural vegetation: Refers to plants that grow without human intervention, relying solely on their natural environment for sustenance.
  • Height of land and vegetation: There is a direct relationship between the height of land and the type of vegetation that thrives in that specific area.
  • Impact of height on climate: As the elevation changes, so does the climate, leading to variations in natural vegetation.
  • Factors affecting vegetation growth: Apart from temperature and moisture, factors like slope and soil thickness play a crucial role in determining the growth of vegetation.
  • Variability in vegetation: The type and density of natural vegetation vary across different regions due to the diverse environmental conditions.

Therefore, it can be concluded that both (A) and (R) are true, but the reason provided is not a direct explanation of the assertion.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 28

Which exoplanet was discovered by an international team that included a professor from IIT Kanpur?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 28

The exoplanet discovered by the international team, including a professor from IIT Kanpur, is known as Epsilon Indi Ab. It is classified as a 'super-Jupiter' due to its significant mass and is notable for being the first mature exoplanet directly imaged using advanced techniques. This discovery represents a major milestone in the field of astrophysics, as direct imaging allows astronomers to study exoplanets more closely than ever before.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

How does the 'lab-on-chip' device developed at IIT-BHU enhance healthcare?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

The lab-on-chip technology provides a rapid and precise means of detecting neurotransmitters associated with neurological disorders. Its ability to identify conditions like Parkinson’s and schizophrenia at early stages can significantly improve treatment outcomes and patient management.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

What significant change was observed in the black carbon levels in Varanasi according to recent studies?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

Recent studies indicate an annual average decline of 0.47 micrograms per cubic meter in black carbon levels in Varanasi. This finding is important as it suggests improvements in air quality and could reflect effective pollution control measures. Black carbon is a significant short-lived climate pollutant, and its reduction can have immediate benefits for local air quality and health.

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