UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 (August 5, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 (August 5, 2021)


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QUESTION: 1

Which of the following can be the natural causes of wetland loss?
1. Sea level rise
2. Drought
3. Ground water abstraction
4. Erosion
5. Conservation efforts for aquaculture
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Causes of wetland loss
Natural Causes:
• Subsidence
• Sea level rise
• Drought Hurricane and other storms
• Erosion
• Biotic effects (natural as well as induced due to disturbances)
Human Causes:
• Drainage for agriculture, forestry and mosquito control
• Dredging and stream channelization for navigation and food protection
• Filling for solid waste disposal, roads
• Conservation for aquaculture/mariculture
• Construction of dykes, dams and seawalls for flood control
• Discharge of pesticide, herbicide, nutrients from domestic sewage
• Mining of wetlands for peat, coal, gravel, phosphate and other minerals
• Ground water abstraction
• Sediment diversion by dams
• Hydrological alterations by canals, roads and other structures
• Subsidence due to extraction of ground water, oil, gas and other minerals
Hence, the answer is (c).

QUESTION: 2

Consider the following statements regarding the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
1. It is the nodal drug law enforcement and intelligence agency of India responsible for fighting drug trafficking.
2. It is a statutory body.
3. It is under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) is the nodal drug law enforcement and intelligence agency of India responsible for fighting drug trafficking and the abuse of illegal substances. The chief purpose of the Narcotics Control Bureau is to fight drug trafficking on an all-India level.
The National Policy on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances is based on the Directive Principles, contained in Article 47 of the Indian Constitution, which direct the State to endeavor to bring about prohibition of the consumption, except for medicinal purposes, of intoxicating drugs injurious to health with less than 20 branches. Banks like Regional Rural Banks have a higher Priority Sector lending targets than commercial banks.

QUESTION: 3

Which of the following statements with respect to corals is/are correct?
1. Increased absorption of carbon dioxide by the oceans aid the growth of Corals.
2. Extreme low-tide events such as those associated with El Nino are good for coral health.
3. Local and commercial fishing can overharvest corals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Coral bleaching is called so because zooxanthellae (which are golden-brown in colour) are expelled, leaving the white coral exposed. While the cause of bleaching is not yet fully known and extensive research is under way, it is believed that the most likely factor is unusually high seawater temperatures, approximately 30 °C (86 °F). Other factors linked to coral bleaching include rising acidity associated with the increased absorption of carbon dioxide by the oceans ( Hence, statement 1 is incorrect), ultraviolet radiation exposure, drying from extreme low-tide events (such as those associated with El Nino) (therefore statement 2 is incorrect), sedimentation, pollution, and disease.Since coral reefs harbour many species of fishes and other sea life, local and commercial fishing can overharvest them.
In their attempts to capture the animals of the reef, fishers may resort to using dragnets and explosives. Such practices scour or break up sections of the reef, destroying the corals and the numerous individual habitats they provide. Some coral reefs may be cloaked by excess sedimentation from terrestrial  erosion. (Thus statement 3 is correct.)

QUESTION: 4

During early medieval times, which among the following factors led to an increase in maritime trade between India and China?
1. Instability in Central Asia
2. Encouragement of commerce by South Indian kingdoms
3. Better understanding of monsoon
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Tibet was ruled by a theocracy of Buddhist monks under the nominal suzerainty of China. The British efforts to establish friendly relations with Tibet had not yielded any result in the past and a deadlock had been reached by the time Curzon's arrival in India. The Chinese suzerainty over Tibet was ineffective and Russian influence at Lhasa was increasing, there were reports of Russian arms and ammunition coming into Tibet. Curzon felt alarmed and sent  a small Gorkha regiment under Colonel Young husband on a special mission to Tibet to oblige the Tibetans to come to an agreement.

QUESTION: 5

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 32 of the constitution provides the judiciary with due process of law.
2. Due process of law provides for more fair treatment of individual rights than procedure established by law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: Due process of law is nowhere mentioned in the constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: Due process of law doctrine not only checks if there is a law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person but also see if the law made is fair, just and not arbitrary. If SC finds that any law as not fair, it will declare it as null and void. This doctrine provides for more fair treatment of individual rights.
Under due process, it is the legal requirement that the state must respect all of the legal rights that are owed to a person and laws that states enact must conform to the laws of the land like – fairness, fundamental rights, liberty etc. It also gives the judiciary to access the fundamental fairness, justice, and liberty of any legislation. “Procedure established by law” means a law duly enacted is valid even if it’s contrary to principles of justice and equity. Strictly following procedure established by law may raise the risk of compromise to life and personal liberty of individuals due to unjust laws made by the law-making authorities. It is to avoid this situation, SC stressed the importance of due process of law.

QUESTION: 6

With reference to the Independence for India League, consider the following statements:
1. It was started by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose.
2. It was started in opposition to the Gandhi's decision to withdraw Non-Cooperation Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Nehru Report of 1928 recommended dominion status for India on lines of self -governing dominions as the form of government desired by Indians. The younger section regarded the idea of dominion status in the report as a step backward, and the developments at the All Parties Conference strengthened their criticism of the dominion status idea.
  • In 1928, Jawaharlal joined hands with Subhash to organize the Independence for India League to fight for complete independence and ‘a socialist revision of the economic structure of society.
QUESTION: 7

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Pyrenees mountain chain of southwestern Europe consists of flat-topped massifs and folded linear ranges. It stretches from the shores of the Mediterranean Sea on the east to the Bay of Biscay on the Atlantic Ocean on the west. The Pyrenees form a high wall between France and Spain that has played a significant role in the history of both countries and of Europe as a whole. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The Gulf of Boothia is a body of water in Nunavut, Canada. Gran Chaco is an extensive lowland plain of central South America. It is sparsely populated and is divided among Paraguay, Bolivia, and Argentina. Hence, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

QUESTION: 8

Which of the following are classified as Electoral Offences under Representation of People Act 1951?
1. Promoting enmity between communities on the basis of religion, class, caste etc.
2. Publishing Exit polls during conduct of elections.
3. Filing false affidavits.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Representation of People Act 1951 specifies Corrupt Practices (under Sec 123) and Electoral Offences (Sec 125-136). Acts like Bribery, appeal to vote on basis of religion, promotion of Sati etc are considered Corrupt Practices and Acts like filing false affidavits, publishing results of exit polls during elections etc are covered under Electoral Offences. However, the two sets are not mutually exclusive, i.e. some acts like Bribery, booth capturing and promoting enmity between two communities are considered as both - Corrupt Practices and Electoral Offences

  • Promoting enmity between communities on the basis of religion, class, caste, language etc. is both an Electoral Offence (under Sec 125) and a Corrupt Practice (under Sec 123 (3A)) under RPA.
  • Publishing Exit or Opinion polls during elections is an Electoral Offence under Sec 126
  • Filing false affidavits or concealing information in affidavits is an Electoral Offence under Sec 125(A). Therefore, all three options are correct.
QUESTION: 9

Aggregate Measurement of Support is related to:
1. Amber Box
2. Blue Box
3. Green Box
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Solution:

WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) classifies domestic support or subsidies given by the government to farmers into different categories. An important type of subsidies or supports is Aggregate Measurement of Support (AMS). The AMS represents trade distorting domestic support and is referred as the “amber box”.
The AMS means annual level of support (subsidies) expressed in monetary terms, provided for an agricultural  product in favour of  the producers (product specific) of  the basic agricultural product and non-product specific support provided in favour of agricultural producers in general.
As per the WTO provision, AMS is a trade distorting subsidy. Since it distorts trade by directly influencing production and price in an economy, the AMS is categorized as a ‘reducible’, ‘non permissible’ or ‘nonexempted’ subsidy.
India and China jointly submitted a proposal to the World Trade Organization (WTO) calling for the elimination - by developed countries - of the most trade-distorting form of farm subsidies which is known as Aggregate Measurement Support or Amber box subsidy.

QUESTION: 10

With reference to index linked bonds, consider the following statements:
1. It is a bond in which payment of interest income on the principal is usually related to specific price index.
2. It provides protection to investors by shielding them from changes in the underlying index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

An index-linked bond is a bond in which payment of interest income on the principal is related to a specific price index, usually the Consumer Price Index. This feature provides protection to investors by shielding them from changes in the underlying index. The bond's cash flows are adjusted to ensure that the holder of the bond receives a known real rate of return. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
A bond investor holds a bond with a fixed level of interest rate. The interest payments, known as coupons, are usually paid semi-annually and represent the bondholder’s return on investing in the bond. However, as time goes by, inflation also increases, thereby, eroding the value of the investor’s annual return. This is unlike returns on equity and property, in which dividend and rental income increases with inflation. To mitigate the impact of inflation, index-linked bonds are issued by the government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 11

Which among the following can be the advantages of using the 'Embryo Transfer Technology' in animal husbandry?
1. It can be used to increase the number of offsprings.
2. It can be used to improve genetic structure of offsprings.
3. The offsprings born will be free from disease.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Department of Animal husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries (Ministry of Agriculture and Family Welfare) in cooperation with 12 States has undertaken a Mass Embryo Transfer programme in Indigenous Breeds under the scheme, National Mission on Bovine Productivity. Under this programme, embryos of higher genetic merit indigenous bovines are being transferred in to surrogate cows. Embryos of Indigenous breeds such as Sahiwal, Gir, Red Sindhi, Ongole, Deoni and Vechur have been proposed to be transferred under this programme.
It has been planned to carry out 440 embryo transfers during October 2-10, 2017 throughout the country. The programme is implemented with the objective of conservation and development of indigenous breeds under RashtriyaGokul Mission.
Through the use of ETT, (i) a farmer can get a 5-6 fold increase in number of offsprings , (ii) the calves so born will be of high genetic merit and (iii) the offsprings born will be free from diseases. Hence, all statements are correct.

QUESTION: 12

Which of the following are mega-diverse countries?
1. China
2. Australia
3. New Zealand
4. India
5. South Africa
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The megadiverse countries, first used in the 1990s, are a group of countries that harbor the majority of the Earth's species and are therefore considered extremely biodiverse. Conservation International identified 17 megadiverse countries in 1998. The identified Megadiverse Countries are: United States of America, Mexico, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Venezuela, Brazil, Democratic Republic of Congo, South Africa, Madagascar, India, Malaysia, Indonesia, Philippines, Papua New Guinea, China and Australia.

QUESTION: 13

Consider the following statements:
1. The term 'forest cover' refers to all lands more than one hectare in area, having a tree canopy density of more than 10%.
2. The term 'forest area' generally refers to all the geographic areas recorded as forest in government records.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The term 'Forest Area' (or recorded forest area) generally refers to all the geographic areas recorded as forest in government records. Recorded forest areas largely comprise Reserved Forests (RF) and Protected Forests (PF), which have been constituted under the provisions of Indian Forest Act, 1927. Besides RFs and PFs, the recorded forest area may include all such areas, which have been recorded as forests in the revenue records or have been constituted so under any State Act or local laws. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
On the other hand, the term 'Forest Cover' as used in the 'SFR' refers to all lands more than one hectare in area, having a tree canopy density of more than 10%. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Thus the term 'forest area' denotes the legal status of the land as per the government records, whereas the term 'forest cover' indicates presence of trees over any land.

QUESTION: 14

Consider the following:
1. Nicobar Megapode
2. Asiatic Wild Ass
3. Asian Wild Buffalo

Which of the above is/are naturally found in India?

Solution:

Nicobar Megapode is listed as Vulnerable in IUCN Red list data and it is endemic to the Nicobar Islands and it become regionally extinct from Myanmar. It inhabits forests and secondary growth, with the greatest concentrations in coastal forests. The key threat is the loss of coastal forest through conversion to agriculture (coconut, banana and cashew plantations and rice-paddy cultivation), road development projects, which threaten to fragment habitat blocks, particularly on Great Nicobar, and settlement expansion.
Wild Ass (Asiatic Wild Ass) - historically, it ranged throughout the steppes and desert steppes of the Russian Federation, Mongolia, northern China, northwest India, Central Asia, the Middle East, including Iran, the Arabian Peninsula and Asia Minor. At present, it is extinct in most of the ranges. The highest population is in Southern Mongolia. In India, the species survives as isolated populations in the Little Rann of Kutch.
Asian Wild Buffalo is listed as endangered in IUCN Red list data. It is native of Bhutan; Cambodia; India; Myanmar; Nepal; Thailand. It has become extinct from Bangladesh; Indonesia; Lao People's Democratic Republic; Sri Lanka.

QUESTION: 15

A cup with a hole in the bottom drains slower when filled with honey than when it is filled with water. This is because of

Solution:

If a cup with a hole in the bottom is taken and honey is poured into it, it is found that the cup drains very slowly. If the same cup is filled with water, the cup drains much more quickly. This is because honey's viscosity is large compared to water's viscosity.
Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's resistance to flow. It describes the internal friction of a moving fluid. A fluid with large viscosity resists motion because its molecular makeup gives it a lot of internal friction. A fluid with low viscosity flows easily because its molecular makeup results in very little friction when it is in motion.

QUESTION: 16

Government of India has come up with new Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017. These rules will be applicable to which of the following wetland or wetland complexes?
1. Wetlands categorised as 'wetlands of international importance' under the Ramsar Convention.
2. Wetlands as notified by the Central Government.
3. Wetlands as notified by the State Governments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

As per Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change notification (Part II, section 3) Applicability of Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 are given as follows:- These rules shall apply to the following wetlands or wetlands complexes, namely:—
(a) Wetlands categorised as 'wetlands of international importance' under the Ramsar Convention;
(b) Wetlands as notified by the Central Government, State Government and Union Territory Administration;

QUESTION: 17

Consider the following statements with respect to Strategic Debt Restructuring (SDR) scheme of RBI:
1. The scheme was launched to deal with Non Performing Assets (NPA) problem.
2. Under the scheme, the group of borrowers can take control of management of the  defaulting company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. The SDR scheme was introduced by the RBI in June 2015 to help banks recover their loans from defaulting companies.
Statement 2 is correct. The SDR initiative can be taken by the group of banks or JLF that have given loans to the particular defaulted entity. The Joint Lender Forum (JLF) is a committee comprised of the entire bankers who have given loans to a stressed borrower. Under SDR, JLF gets the right to convert the full or part of their loans into equity shares in the loan taken company. They can even take over the management of the company. RBI has recently abolished almost all of the loan restructuring schemes like SDR, Corporate Debt Restructuring, Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets or S4A etc.

QUESTION: 18

'INSV Tarini' recently seen in news is a

Solution:
  • INSV Tarini is an indigenously built sailing vessel which is being used for the first-ever Indian circumnavigation of the globe by an all-women crew.
  • The expedition titled ‘NavikaSagarParikrama’ is aimed at promoting women empowerment in the country and ocean sailing by the Indian Navy.
  • Additional aims of the Expedition are as follows:- (a) Nari Shakti- In consonance with the National policy to empower women to attain their full potential. (b) Environment and Climate Change - Sailing encourages the use of environment friendly non-conventional renewable energy resources which affects the life of women. (c) The voyage also aims to show case the ‘Make in India’ initiative by sailing onboard the indigenously built INSV Tarini. (d) Meteorological/ Ocean/ Wave Data Observation-The crew would also collate and update Meteorological/ Ocean/ Wave data on a daily basis for subsequent analysis by research and development organisations like the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) (e) Marine Pollution-The crew would monitor and report marine pollution on the high seas. (f) Interaction with Local PIOs.
QUESTION: 19

Which of the following Parliamentary committees is/are exclusive to the members of the LokSabha only?
1. Committee on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions
2. Committee on Public Undertakings
3. Estimates Committee
4. Committee on Absence of Members
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions: This committee classifies bills and allocates time for the discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members. This is a special committee of the LokSabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as its  chairman. The RajyaSabha does not have any such committee. The same function in the RajyaSabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of that House.
Committee on Public Undertakings: This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee. Originally, it had 15 members (10 from the LokSabha and 5 from the RajyaSabha). However, in 1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from the LokSabha and 7 from the RajyaSabha).
Estimates Committee: The origin of this committee can be traced to the standing financial committee set up in 1921. The first Estimates Committee in the post independence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, the then finance minister. Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30. All the thirty members are from LokSabha only. The RajyaSabha has no representation in this committee.
Committee on Absence of Members: This committee considers all applications from members for leave of absence from the sittings of the House, and examines the cases of members who have been absent for a period of 60 days or more without permission. It is a special committee of the LokSabha and consists of 15 members. There is no such committee in the RajyaSabha and all such matters are dealt by the House itself.

QUESTION: 20

Who among the following were prominent women scholars of the Vedic Era?
1. Lopamudra
2. Gargi
3. Andal
4. Maitreyi
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Women of the Vedic period (circa 1500-1200 BCE), were epitomes of intellectual and spiritual attainments. The Vedas have volumes to say about these women, who both complemented and supplemented their male partners.
  • Significant female figures of the Vedic period include- Ghosha, Lopamudra, SulabhaMaitreyi, and Gargi.
  • Andal was a Bhakti saint who composed hymns in eighth-century Tamil. She was the only woman among the twelve Alwars – medieval Vaishnavite poets who took the scriptures to the masses, composing hymns in Tamil that are considered the equivalent of the Sanskrit Vedas.
QUESTION: 21

The Freedom of religion as provided under Articles 25 and 26 is/are subject to which of the reasonable restrictions?
1. Public Health
2. Public order
3. Morality
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Article 25 and 26 guaranted Religious rights (Art.25. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of Religion and Art. 26.Freedom to manage religious affairs- (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage it own affairs in matters of religion; (e) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with law.) Both are Subject to Morality, Public Health & Public order.

QUESTION: 22

With reference to the All India Kisan Sabha, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Swami Sahjanand Saraswati was the first president.
2. Its formation was opposed by the Indian National Congress.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: The All India Kisan Congress/Sabha was founded in Lucknow in April 1936 with Swami Sahjanand Saraswati as its first president and N.G. Ranga as its first general secretary. A kisan manifesto was issued and a periodical under IndulYagnik started.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: The AIKS and Congress held their sessions in Faizpur in 1936. The Congress manifesto (especially the agrarian policy) for the 1937 provincial elections was strongly influenced by AIKS agenda.
QUESTION: 23

With reference to banking sector the Prompt Corrective Action framework of RBI is applicable to:
1. Public sector banks
2. Private commercial banks
3. Co-operative banks
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

As a part of Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) Framework, the RBI has specified certain regulatory trigger points, in terms of three parameters, i.e. capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), net non-performing assets (NPA) and Return on Assets (RoA), for initiation of certain structured and discretionary actions in respect of banks hitting such trigger points. The PCA framework is applicable only to commercial banks both public and private and not extended to co-operative banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and Financial Managment Information System.

QUESTION: 24

Consider the following statements regarding the term 'Green Bonds', often seen in news:
1. A green bond is a debt instrument issued by an entity for raising funds from investors for financing renewable and sustainable energy projects.
2. Issuance and listing of green bonds in India is governed by the Securities and Control Board of India (SEBI) regulations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Both the statements are correct.
  • A green bond is like any other bond where a debt instrument is issued by an entity for raising funds from investors. However, what differentiates a green bond from other bonds is that the proceeds of a Green Bond offering are 'ear- marked' for use towards financing green projects.
  • According to SEBI, a debt security will be considered green bonds if the funds raised through it will be used for renewable and sustainable energy including wind, solar, bioenergy and other sources of energy which use clean technology. Among others, such funds would be used for clean transportation; sustainable water management; climate change adaptation; energy efficiency including efficient and green buildings; and sustainable waste management.
QUESTION: 25

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to Strip Cropping?
1. In strip farming different crops are cultivated in alternate strips.
2. Strips are generally perpendicular to the contour to allow for better water absorption in the soil.
Select correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: In strip farming different crops are cultivated in alternate strips. Thus various crops ripen at different times of the year and are harvested at intervals. This ensures that at no time of the year the entire field is left exposed. This helps in soil conservation.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Strips are kept parallel to the contour to allow better absorption of water by the soil by slowing down the run off.
QUESTION: 26

Who among the following were associated with judicial reform in India?
1. Warren Hastings
2. William Bentinck
3. Lord Ripon
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Reforms under Warren Hastings (1772-1785): District Diwani Adalats were established in districts to try civil disputes.
  • District Fauzdari Adalats were set up to try criminal disputes and were placed under an Indian officer assisted by qazis and muftis.
  • Reforms under William Bentinck (1828-1833): The four Circuit Courts were abolished and their functions transferred to collectors under the supervision of the commissioner of revenue and circuit. Sadar Diwani Adalat and a Sadar Nizamat Adalat were set up at Allahabad for the convenience of the people of Upper Provinces. Till now, Persian was the official language in courts. Now, the suitor had the option to use Persian or a vernacular language, while in the Supreme Court English language replaced Persian.
QUESTION: 27

In South Africa, Mahatma Gandhi organised Satyagraha against:
1. Legislation imposing restrictions on Indian immigration.
2. Supreme Court's order invalidating all marriages not conducted according to Christian rites.
3. Compulsory requirement of carrying registration certificate at all times.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

In South Africa, Mahatma Gandhi organised Passive resistance or Satyagraha against:

  • A new legislation in South Africa made it compulsory for Indians there to carry at all times certificates of registration with their fingerprints. The Indians under Gandhi's leadership decided not to submit to this discriminatory measure. Gandhi  formed  the  Passive  Resistance  Association  to  conduct  the  campaign. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • There were restrictions imposed on immigration of the Indians in South Africa, through a legislation called Immigration Regulation Act, 1913, which the Indians defied by crossing over from one province to another and by refusing to produce licences. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • A poll tax of three pounds was imposed on all ex -indentured Indians. The inclusion of demands for the abolition of poll tax (which was too much for the poor ex-indentured Indians who earned less than ten shillings a month) in the ongoing struggle further widened the base of the campaign.
  • Fuel was added to the fire by a Supreme Court order which invalidated all marriages not conducted according to Christian rites and by the registrar of marriages. By implication, Hindu, Muslim and Parsi marriages were illegal and children born out of such marriages, illegitimate. The Indians treated this judgement as an insult to the honour of their women and many women were drawn into the movement because of this indignity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION: 28

With reference to Keys Affair incident, consider the following statements:
1. It was related to the issue of granting separate electorate to Sikhs.
2. It took place during the Non Cooperation Movement.
3. Baba Kharak Singh was the major leader associated with it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is not correct: A major victory was won by the Akalis in the Keys Affair‘ in October 1921. The Government made an effort to keep possession of the keys of the Toshakhana of the Golden Temple. The Akalis immediately reacted, and organized massive protest meetings; tens of Akalijathas reached Amritsar immediately. The SGPC advised Sikhs to join the hartal on the day of the arrival of the Prince of Wales in India.
  • Statement 2 and 3 are correct: The Government retaliated by arresting the prominent, militant nationalist leaders of the SGPC like Baba Kharak Singh and Master Tara Singh. But, instead of dying down, the movement began to spread to the remotest rural areas and the army. The Non-Cooperation Movement was at its height in the rest of the country. The Government once again decided not to confront Sikhs on a religious issue. It released all those arrested in the 'Keys Affair' and surrendered the keys of the Toshakhana to Baba Kharak Singh, head of the SGPC.
QUESTION: 29

With respect to World Economic Forum, consider the following statements:
1. It is a nonprofit foundation under IMF.
2. It aims to improve the state of the world and shape global agendas by engaging business, political, academic and other leaders of society.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The World Economic Forum (WEF) is a Swiss nonprofit foundation, based in Geneva, Switzerland. Each year since 2003, the Open Forum convenes in January at the local Swiss Alpine School in the heart of Davos, attracting leaders from all walks of life. Its mission is cited as 'committed to improving the state of the world by engaging business, political, academic, and other leaders of society to shape global, regional, and industry agendas'. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct. The World Economic Forum publishes a comprehensive series of reports which examine in detail the broad range of global issues it seeks to address. It publishes reports like Global Competitiveness Report, the Global Risks Report and the Global Gender Gap Report.

QUESTION: 30

In the context of ecology, which of the following best defines Protocooperation?

Solution:

Protocooperation (facultative mutualism)- An interaction between organisms of different species in which both organisms benefit, but neither is dependent on the relationship. Both of them can survive without the other.

QUESTION: 31

Consider the following statements regarding the Sangrai dance:
1. It is a traditional dance of Gujarat.
2. It is performed to welcome the New Year.
3. The people of the Mog tribal community performs this dance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • ‘Sangrai dance’ is performed by the Mog tribal community on the occasion of Sangrai festival during the month of Chaitra (in April) of the Bengali calendar year.
  • The Mogs are one of the 19 tribes in Tripura.
  • According, to the 2011 Census, Mog population in Tripura is 37,893. Indigenous communities form about 30 per cent of Tripura‘s population.
  • The people of the Mog community in general and the youth in particular celebrate the day to welcome the New Year. Cakes are prepared at every home and people move from house to house to eat cakes, dancing and singing with branches of the pious 'wish yielding tree' (Kalpataru) on their head.
  • On this day water is carried in auspicious pitchers and the elders are allowed to take bath with this water. The young boys and girls indulge in aquatics and traditional 'Khouyang' is played on bet. Paste of fragrant sandalwood and water of green coconuts are sprinkled in every house. During the celebration, fragrant water is poured on the root of 'Bodhi Briksha'.
  • The festival continues for three days. The people of Mog community observe austerity from the full moon of Bengali month of 'Ashadh' down to the full moon Bengali month of 'Ashwin'. Generally no auspicious occasion like marriage is celebrated during the period. Even the married women do not go to their parents' house during this time.
QUESTION: 32

The recently appointed B.N.Srikrishna committee is associated with

Solution:

An expert committee, headed by former Supreme Court judge B N Srikrishna,was appointed to identify key data protection issues in India and recommend methods to address any potential problems. It will also draft a data protection bill that will be taken up for consideration by the Centre. The Srikrishna Committee has identified seven principles for the data protection law, which include technology agnosticism, data minimisation,informed consent,accountability of data controller, penalties for wrongful processing and enforcement of data protection framework by a statutory authority.

QUESTION: 33

Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to Participatory Notes (P- Notes)?
1. P-Notes cannot be issued to Non Resident Indians (NRIs).
2. P-Notes holder enjoys voting rights in relation to the underlying security.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: A Participatory Note (P-Note) is a derivative instrument issued in foreign jurisdictions by a SEBI registered Foreign Institutionalized Investor (FII), against Indian securities. The underlying security can be equity, debt etc. As per SEBI regulations, P-Notes cannot be issued to Non Resident Indians by FIIs. They are also subjected to KYC (Know Your Client) norms.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: A P-Note investor doesn‘t own the underlying Indian security. The security is held by FII. So the P-Note holder doesn‘t enjoy any voting rights in relation to the underlying security
QUESTION: 34

With reference to Mauryan administration, consider the following statements:
1. Mauryan army was paid only in the form of land grants.
2. There existed a well established espionage system in Mauryan empire.
3. The empire was divided into a number of provinces and each province was placed under a Prince.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is not correct: The Mauryan army was well organized and it was under the control of Senapati. The salaries were paid in cash. Kautilya refers to the salaries of different ranks of military officers.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The secret service or the spy system may be described as the mainstay of the Mauryan government, next to the army. The king employed hosts of spies or detectives, masquerading in disguises of all kinds, who were controlled by an espionage bureau. Cipher writing was used and the services of carrier pigeons were enlisted.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The empire was divided into a number of provinces and each province was placed under a prince who was a scion of the royal dynasty. The provinces were divided into still smaller units and arrangements were made for both rural and urban administration.
QUESTION: 35

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Regional Rural Banks (RRB) in India?
1. They are established under Banking Regulation Act 1949.
2. They cannot be listed on the stock market.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is not correct. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were set up as government sponsored, regional based rural lending institutions under the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976. They were set up to provide credit to the relatively unserved sections in the rural areas -small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers and socio-economically weaker sections.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: Shareholding pattern of RRBs among the three sponsoring entities (central government, sponsoring bank and state government) is 50:35:15 respectively. Earlier, they were not permitted to raise capital outside of their ownership (i.e. they could take money from their owners only). However, the RRB Act was amended in 2015 whereby such banks were permitted to raise capital from sources other than Central, state governments and sponsor banks. So now the RRBs can issue IPOs (Initial Public Offering) and their shares can be traded on the stock market.
QUESTION: 36

Which of the following could be the possible reasons for mass killing of fishes in water bodies?
1. Eutrophication
2. Sustained increase in temperature
3. Toxicity
4. Higher Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • The term fish kill, known also as fish die-off, refers to a localized die-off of fish populations which may also be associated with more generalized mortality of aquatic life.
  • One of the negative impacts of eutrophication and increased algal growth is a loss of available oxygen, known as anoxia. These anoxic conditions can kill fish and other aquatic organisms such as amphibians.
  • The most common cause is reduced oxygen in the water, which in turn may be due to factors such as drought, algal bloom, fish overpopulation, or a sustained increase in water temperature. Infectious diseases and parasites can also lead to fish kill. Toxicity is a real but far less common cause of fish kill.
  • Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) indicates the amount of organic matter present in water. Therefore, a low BOD is an indicator of good quality water, while a high BOD indicates polluted water. So higher BOD means polluted water which can lead to fish kill.
QUESTION: 37

Which of the following initiatives were taken by Alauddin Khalji?
1. Introduction of scientific measurement of land for the assessment of land revenue for the first time under the Delhi sultanate.
2. Establishment of four separate markets and a department to fix prices.
3. Payment of salary of soldiers in cash.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

AllauddinKhalji's Reforms:

  • He maintained large permanent standing army which was to be paid salary in cash.
  • He introduced system of dag (branding of horse) and huliya/chehra (descriptive rolls of soldiers)
  • He established four separate markets and a department to fix prices was also set up.
  • He introduced scientific measurement of land for the assessment of land revenue, first Delhi sultan to do so. He also introduced Kharaj where 50% of produce was to be given to the state.
  • No one was allowed to buy directly from the cultivators, only traders could do so. All merchants in Delhi were required to register themselves
  • He also put an end to the special privileges of the Chaudhuris (headmen of the parganas), Khuts (zamindars), and Muquddams (headmen of the villages). Even big landlords could not escape taxes
  • He introduced two new taxes—a horse tax and a tax on all milk cows. Jazia was imposed on non- Muslims.
QUESTION: 38

The ‘Fiji Momentum for Implementation’ was recently seen in news with reference to

Solution:

The Paris Agreement was adopted under United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2015. It has been ratified by 172 Parties and only USA has submitted a written communication to UN Secretary-General stating its intent to withdraw from the Paris Agreement. All other countries have indicated their continued support for it through the decision, 'Fiji Momentum for Implementation' adopted during 23rd Conference of Parties (COP-23) held in November 2017, which underscored the importance of keeping the momentum and continuing to uphold the spirit and vision of the Paris Agreement.

QUESTION: 39

Agricultural and Processed Food Export Development Authority is mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development of which of the following scheduled products?
1. Dairy products
2. Guar gum
3. Herbal and medicinal plants
4. Cereals
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • APEDA: It is an export promotion organization under Ministry of Commerce & Industry. It is mandated with the responsibility of promotion and development of the export of its scheduled products. It was established under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act, 1985.

APEDA is mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development of the following scheduled products:

  • Fruits, Vegetables and their Products.
  • Meat and Meat Products.
  • Poultry and Poultry Products.
  • Dairy Products.
  • Confectionery, Biscuits and Bakery Products.
  • Honey, Jaggery and Sugar Products.
  • Cocoa and its products, chocolates of all kinds.
  • Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic Beverages.
  • Cereal and Cereal Products.
  • Groundnuts, Peanuts and Walnuts.
  • Pickles, Papads and Chutneys.
  • Guar Gum.
  • Floriculture and Floriculture Products.
  • Herbal and Medicinal Plants.
    In addition to this, APEDA has been entrusted with the responsibility to monitor import of sugar.
QUESTION: 40

In the context of Sufi tradition in India, the term 'khanqah' refers to:

Solution:

By the eleventh century, Sufism evolved into a well-developed movement with a body of literature on Quranic studies and sufi practices. Institutionally, the sufis began to organise communities around the hospice or khanqah (Persian) i.e. establishments used for lodging mainly run by a religious order. It was controlled by a teaching master known as shaikh (in Arabic), pir or murshid (in Persian). He enrolled disciples (murids) and appointed a successor (khalifa). He established rules for spiritual conduct and interaction between inmates as well as between laypersons and the master.

QUESTION: 41

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
1. It is constituted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
2. It sets the inflation target to be achieved by RBI.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: RBI (Amendment) Act 2016 provides for establishment of Monetary Policy Committee. 2016. Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934, also provides for an empowered sixmember Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette. The Government, accordingly, constituted the six member MPC in September 2016.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government has notified 4% Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016, to March 31, 2021, with the upper tolerance limit of 6% and the lower tolerance limit of 2%. The MPC determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target.

QUESTION: 42

Consider the following statements with reference to internal structure of the Earth:
1. Lithosphere consists of crust only.
2. Asthenosphere is in molten state.
3. Outer core is in solid state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Lithosphere consists of crust and parts of upper mantle.
Statement 2 is correct: Asthenosphere lies below Lithosphere in mantle and is in molten state. Asthenosphere thus acts as source of magma in volcanoes.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Core is not uniform. It can be divided into outer core and inner core. Outer core is in liquid state while inner core is in solid state.

QUESTION: 43

Consider the following statements with respect to International Criminal Court (ICC):
1. It can prosecute individuals for the international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity and war crimes.
2. It was established by the Rome statue.
3. India is a member state of the Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The International Criminal Court (ICC) is an intergovernmental organization and international tribunal that sits in The Hague in the Netherlands. The ICC has the jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for the international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity, and war crimes. The ICC is intended to complement existing national judicial systems and it may therefore only exercise its jurisdiction when certain conditions are met, such as when national courts are unwilling or unable to prosecute criminals or when the United Nations Security Council or individual states refer situations to  the Court.
Statement 2 is correct: The Court was established by the Rome Statute. This treaty was negotiated within the UN; however, it created an independent judicial body distinct from the UN.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Assembly of States Parties is the Court's management oversight and legislative body and is composed of representatives of the States which have ratified or acceded to the Rome Statute. India has not ratified Rome Statute and therefore is not a member of ICC.

QUESTION: 44

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Special Leave petition by the Supreme Court (SC)?
1. It is not mentioned in the Constitution of India.
2. SC is authorized to grant special leave to appeal from any judgement in any  matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country.
3. It cannot be claimed as a matter of right by a petitioner.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct as it is part of Constitution under article 136.
Statement 2 is not correct because Special Leave petition has no jurisdiction over military tribunal & court martial. Only President has power to pardon sentence inflicted by court martial & military court.
Statement 3 is correct because it is a discretionary power of SC and hence, cannot be claimed as matter of right. Because being an exceptional & overriding power it has to be exercised sparingly & with caution and only in special extraordinary situations.

QUESTION: 45

With reference to the Karachi Congress Session of 1931, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was presided over by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
2. It passed the Purna Swaraj resolution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: In March 1931, a special session of the Congress was held at Karachi under presidentship of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin or Delhi Pact.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: At the Karachi Session, while disapproving of and dissociating itself from political violence, the Congress admired the "bravery" and "sacrifice" of the three martyrs, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru. Also the Delhi Pact was endorsed and the goal of purna swaraj was reiterated. (The Purna Swaraj Resolution was passed at the Lahore session of 1929 under presidentship of Jawaharlal Nehru).
  • At the Karachi Session, two resolutions were adopted-one on Fundamental Rights and the other on National Economic Programme.
QUESTION: 46

Which of the following best defines Deep Ecology?

Solution:

Deep Ecology is a holistic approach to facing world problems that brings together thinking, feeling, spirituality and action. It involves moving beyond the individualism of modern culture towards also  seeing ourselves as part of the earth. This leads to a deeper connection with life, where Ecology is not just seen as something 'out there', but something we are part of and have a role to play in.
Two Approaches to Ecology
1) Scientific Ecology - the study of the inter-relationships between species and their environment. In this approach, the relationship is of a detached observer separate from the object of study. The focus is on measurable data 'out there', collected by experts who know their 'facts and figures'.
2) Deep Ecology - Experiencing ourselves as part of the living earth and finding our role in protecting the planet. In this approach, the relationship is more of an involved participant, who feels connected with and part of the world around them. This is for everybody, not just experts, each being moved by our values, experiences and feelings to do our bit for the world around us.

QUESTION: 47

'It is a critically endangered, rare  bustard  species that is very well known for its mating dance. Among the tall grasslands, secretive males advertise their territories by springing from the ground and flitting to and fro in the air. In India, it occurs in 3 states, namely Uttar Pradesh, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.'
Identify the species from the passage given above.

Solution:

The Bengal florican, also called Bengal bustard, is a bustard species. In India, it occurs in 3 states, namely Uttar Pradesh, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List because fewer than 1,500 individuals were estimated to be alive as of 2013. It has two disjunct populations, one in the Indian subcontinent, another in Southeast Asia. The former occurs from Uttar Pradesh (India) through the Terai of Nepal to Assam (where it is called ulu mora) and Arunachal Pradesh in India, and historically to Bangladesh. The South East Asian population occurs in Cambodia and perhaps adjacent southern Vietnam.
Habitat: Grasslands occasionally interspersed with scrublands.
Threats: Ongoing conversion of the bird‘s grassland habitat for various purposes including agriculture is mainly responsible for its population decline.

QUESTION: 48

With reference to the difference between the culture of Mauryan age and Gupta age, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In the Mauryan period, the political authority was concentrated in the hands of the king whereas the Gupta administration was decentralized in nature.
2. The Mauryas had an elaborate bureaucracy, whereas the Guptas did not have any bureaucratic structure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:
  • In the Mauryan period, the political authority was concentrated in the hands of the king. But the Gupta administration was decentralized in nature. It means that feudatories i.e. local Kings and smaller chiefs ruled a large part of their empire. The pompous titles such as maharajadhiraja, parambhattaraka, parameshvara etc were adopted by the imperial Guptas. These lesser rulers adorned their names with titles like raja and maharaja. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Gupta bureaucracy was less elaborate as compared to that of the Mauryas. The high level central officers under the Guptas were called the kumaramatyas. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
QUESTION: 49

Consider the following statements  about  Central Zoo Authority:
1. It is a statutory body  established under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
2. It is chaired by the Minister of Environment, Forests and Climate change.
3. It has the power to recognise or derecognize zoos across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The Central  Zoo  Authority  (CZA)  is  a  statutory  autonomous  body  under  the administrative control of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate change. The CZA was established in February, 1992 through an amendment of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Statement 2 is not correct: Chairman of the Central Zoo Authority is appointed by the Central Government.
Some of the following functions performed by the authority are:

  • It specify the minimum standards for housing, unkeep and veterinary care of the animals kept in a zoo.
  • It recognise or derecongnize zoos. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • It identify endangered species of wild animals for purposes of captive breeding and assigning responsibility in this regard to a zoo.
  • It provides technical and other assistance to zoos for their proper management and development on scientific lines
  • It co-ordinates training of zoo personnel in India and outside India.
  • It coordinates research in captive breeding and educational programmes for the purposes of zoos.
QUESTION: 50

Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of nomadic herding?
1. It is mainly practised in the semi-arid and arid regions of Sahara and Central Asia.
2. It involves intensive use of land.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Nomadic herding is practised in the semi-arid and arid regions of Sahara, Central Asia and some parts of India, like Rajasthan and Jammu and Kashmir. Herdsmen move from place to place with their animals for fodder and water, along defined routes. This type of movement arises in response to climatic constraints and terrain. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Nomadic herding is sometimes considered a form of subsistence agriculture. It actually is not. Subsistence farmers grow and harvest crops mostly for their immediate family and community. Unlike subsistence farmers, herders are traditionally wage-earners: They sell their herds‘ materials for goods and services, or herd other people‘s animals for a fee. Sheep, camel, yak and goats are most commonly reared. They provide milk, meat, wool, hides and other products to the herders and their families. Nomadic herding involves extensive use of land because several hectares are required to feed one animal. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following is/are a tool for deficit financing?
1. Printing of currency
2. Borrowing from international institutes
3. Devaluation of currency
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Deficit financing is required when budgetary expenditure is higher than the revenue. It is a practice adopted for financing the excess expenditure with outside resources. The expenditure revenue gap is financed by either printing of currency or through borrowing. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Devaluation is a deliberate downward adjustment to the value of a country's currency relative to another currency, group of currencies or standard. It directly impacts exchange rate and import/export of a country but does not help in financing expenditure made by government. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

QUESTION: 52

Which of the following events is the reason behind the choice of August 15th as the date for India's independence?

Solution:
  • Lord Mountbatten had been given a mandate by the British parliament to tran sfer power to Indians by June 30, 1948. Based on Mountbatten‘s inputs the Indian Independence Bill was introduced in the British House of Commons on July 4, 1947 and passed within a fortnight. It provided for the end of the British rule in India, on August 15, 1947, and the establishment of the Dominions of India and Pakistan.
  • On August 15, 1945, Japanese Emperor Hirohito gave a recorded radio address, which later came to be known as the Jewel Voice Broadcast. In the radio address, he announced the surrender of Japan to the Allies in the Second World War. Mountbatten chose August 15, 1947 as it was the second anniversary of Japan's surrender.
  • Hence, option (c) is correct.
QUESTION: 53

Beautiful colors seen in soap bubbles and oil films on water are produced due to:

Solution:

The superimposition of two (or more) waves of the same kind that pass the same point in space at the same time is called interference. One of the best examples of interference is demonstrated by the light reflected from a film of oil floating on water. Another example is the thin film of a soap bubble, which reflects a spectrum of beautiful colors when illuminated by natural or artificial light sources. The colours seen in a soap bubble arise from interference of light reflecting off the front and back surfaces of the thin soap film. Depending on the thickness of the film, different colours interfere constructively and destructively.

QUESTION: 54

Consider the following statements with respect to the NITI Forum for North East:
1. It is tasked to identify various  constraints in the way of accelerated, inclusive and sustainable economic growth of the north-eastern region.
2. The chief secretaries of all the eight states of the NER will be members  of the forum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Both the statements are correct.
Union Government has ordered setting up the 'NITI Forum for North-East'.
Task assigned to the forum- Identifying various constraints in the way of accelerated, inclusive and sustainable economic growth of the eight states of the north-eastern region (NER) of India and recommend suitable interventions for the same. It will also review the development works in the NE.
It may examine and address any other issues which are of importance but not specifically spelt out in its Terms of Reference.
Constitution- It will be co-chaired by the Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog and Minister of State, Ministry  of Development of North-eastern Region (MDoNER). The chief secretaries of all the eight states of the NER will be members of the forum. It will also have representations from various ministries.

QUESTION: 55

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the powers of the Governor?
1. He is consulted by the President while appointing the judges of the concerned state high court.
2. He makes appointments, postings and promotions of the district judges in consultation with the State High Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The judicial powers and functions of the Governor are:

  • He can grant pardons, reprives, respites and remissions of punishment or suspend, remit and commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the state extends.
  • He is consulted by the president while appointing the judges of the concerned state high court.
  • He makes appointments, postings and promotions of the district judges in consultation with the state high court.
  • He also appoints persons to the judicial service of the state (other than district judges) in consultation with the state high court and the State Public Service Commission.
QUESTION: 56

Which of the following committees are related to assessment of poverty in India?
1. Dr. N.C. Saxena Committee
2. Lakdawala Committee
3. Kelkar Committee
4. Tendulkar Committee
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The Ministry of Rural Development in 2008 appointed a committee headed by Dr. N. C. Saxena to calculate rural BPL figures in the states.
The Planning commission has been estimating the poverty line and poverty ratio since 1997 on the basis of the methodology spelt out in the report of the Expert Group on 'Estimation of Number and Proportion of Poor' popularly known as Lakdawala Committee Report.
Kelkar committee is related to reforms in tax structure.
Committee under the chairmanship of Prof. Suresh D. Tendulkar was setup to provide for a methodology for estimation of poverty in India.

QUESTION: 57

Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS), an Explorer-class planet finder, recently seen in news, is launched by

Solution:

The Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) is an Explorer-class planet finder recently launched by NASA In the first-ever spaceborne all-sky transit survey, TESS will identify planets ranging from Earth-sized to gas giants, orbiting a wide range of stellar types and orbital distances. The principal goal of the TESS mission is to detect small planets with bright host stars in the solar neighborhood, so that detailed characterizations of the planets and their atmospheres can be performed.

QUESTION: 58

Water alone is not sufficient for cooling a car engine and therefore a car coolant is also added. Which of the following functions are also performed by a car coolant?
1. It raises the boiling point of water.
2. It lowers the freezing point of water acting as an antifreeze.
3. It reduces corrosion and rusting of car engine by water.
4. It acts as a lubricant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Coolants such as Ethylene glycol, potassium dichromate, tri-sodium phosphate and spdium nitrate are used in automobiles. Without coolant, the heat produced through constant internal combustion would destroy the engine very quickly. Water alone is not entirely adequate to keep the system cool, for the high temperatures inside the motor would eventually boil it off. In time, the water in the system would evaporate entirely. Likewise, in very cold weather, the water would freeze when the car sat idle, rendering the cooling system useless. For these reasons, the mix of antifreeze is vital to the proper working of the coolant system. It also serves to reduce the harmful effects (corrosion, rusting) that water has on the metallic parts of the engine and acts as a lubricant.

QUESTION: 59

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the scheme of Youth Parliament?
1. Its objective is to acquaint the younger generations with practices and procedures of Parliament.
2. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports provides necessary training and encouragement to the states in introducing the scheme.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The scheme of Youth Parliament was started on the recommendation of the Fourth All India Whips Conference. Its objectives are:
1. to acquaint the younger generations with practices and procedures of Parliament;
2. to imbibe the spirit of discipline and tolerance cultivating character in the minds of youth; and
3. to inculcate in the student community the basic values of democracy and to enable them to acquire a proper perspective on the functioning of democratic institutions.
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs provides necessary training and encouragement to the states in introducing the scheme.

QUESTION: 60

Consider the following statements with respect to Casuarinas - a versatile group of plants:
1. These plants are known to fix atmospheric nitrogen through a symbiotic association with bacteria.
2. It is the principal species used in shelterbelts and windbreaks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Casuarinas are a versatile group of plants with wide-ranging adaptability to grow in different environments and provide multiple end uses and services. They fix atmospheric nitrogen through a symbiotic association with the bacteria, Frankia. Casuarina wood with a high calorific value is a renowned fuel wood in the tropics. In India Casuarina equisetifolia was introduced during the 19th century and is now estimated to be under cultivation in around half a million hectares mainly in the Peninsular region. Apart from fuel, the wood is extensively used for papermaking and of late is a preferred choice for biomass-based power generation. The straight cylindrical stems find use in rural house building and as scaffolds in construction sites. It is the principal species for developing shelterbelts in coastal areas and windbreaks for protecting agricultural crops. It also plays a key role in reclaiming mined areas and afforesting nutrient-poor sites. Hence both the statements are correct.

QUESTION: 61

Arrange the following in correct order of evolution of plants community.
1. Nudation
2. Migration
3. Invasion
4. Climax
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Some of the most important process involved in evolution of plant community are as follows:(1) Nudation (2) Migration including initial colonization (3) Ecesis (4) Aggregation of germules (5) Evolution of community relationships (6) Invasion (7) Reaction (8) Stabilization (9) Climax.
  • Nudation - The development of bare areas is initial prerequisite. The naked areas develop either by emersion, submergence, glacial recession, erosion, deposits and climatic change or by biotic agencies.
  • Migration - When the area becomes bare some plants from the nearby localities move into it in the form of germules, propagules or migrules (structures or off-springs reaching from different places). This process is known as migration. Migration starts when germules leave their parent areas and terminates when they reach the final resting place.The movement between these two places may complete in one or two steps. It is only by migration, plants from an area are brought into new areas. Several agencies help in the migration of plants to new areas.
  • Invasion: In the process of colonization, germules of aggressive and more adapted plants reach the adjacent area from time to time. There they grow and become established. This process is termed as invasion and the new aggressive and more adapted organisms are called invaders.
  • Climax: The final stage of vegetation development after the stabilization is called climax stage. The dominant species of climax community are nearly in complete harmony with its habitat and environment. Climax community is nearly stable and will not change so long as the climate and physiography remain the same.
QUESTION: 62

Ritchie's archipelago and Labyrinth islands lie in which of the following seas?

Solution:
  • Ritchie's Archipelago and Labyrinth Islands are two principal groups of islets in the Andaman and Nicobar Island archipelago. Ritchie's Archipelago is a cluster of smaller islands which lie some 25-30 km (16-19 mi) east of Great Andaman, the main island group of the Andaman Islands.

QUESTION: 63

Right to speedy trial is a:

Solution:
  • Our Constitution gives every citizen the right to „life and liberty‟: this means that every citizen must also have the right to fair and speedy trial.
  • In the case Katar Singh v. State of Punjab it was declared that right to speedy trial is an essential part of fundamental right to life and liberty. In the case Abdul Rahman Antulay v. R.S. Nayak, the bench declared certain aspects and guidelines regarding the speedy trial and quashing of cases should depend upon nature of the case. In Sheela Barse v. Union of India court reaffirmed speedy trial to be fundamental right.
  • This right is implicit in article 14, 19(1) (a) and 21 of the constitution as well as the CPC. It is the constitutional obligation of the government to devise such procedures as would ensure and implement speedy trial. Supreme Court being majestic authority has to act as guardian of fundamental rights of citizens.
QUESTION: 64

Consider the following statements:
1. Formation of a rain-shadow area is associated with orographic rainfall.
2. Formation of cumulus clouds is a primary feature of convectional rainfall.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Convectional Rain: The air, on being heated, becomes light and rises up in convection currents. As it rises, it expands and loses heat and consequently, condensation takes place and cumulous clouds are formed. With thunder and lightening, heavy rainfall takes place but this does not last long. Such rain is common in the summer or in the hotter part of the day. It is very common in the equatorial regions and interior parts of the continents, particularly in the northern hemisphere.
  • Orographic Rain: When the saturated air mass comes across a mountain, it is forced to ascend and as it rises, it expands; the temperature falls, and the moisture is condensed. The chief characteristic of this sort of rain is that the windward slopes receive greater rainfall. After giving rain on the windward side, when these winds reach the other slope, they descend, and their temperature rises. Then their capacity to take in moisture increases and hence, these leeward slopes remain rainless and dry. The area situated on the leeward side, which gets less rainfall is known as the rain-shadow area. It is also known as the relief rain.
QUESTION: 65

The World Happiness Report is published by

Solution:

The World Happiness Report is a survey of the state of global happiness where countries are judged on the happiness quotient. The 2018 report consists of 156 countries where they are ranked on their happiness levels. India is at 133rd position on the list of 156.

  • The report has been monitored by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network.

The report ranks the countries on the basis of social support, social freedom, life expectancy, corruption.

QUESTION: 66

Recently, government has initiated Scheme to Harness and Allocate Koyla (Coal) Transparently in India policy (SHAKTI). Consider the following statements regarding it:
1. It is being implemented under the administrative control of Ministry of Power.
2. It is aimed at auctioning long term coal linkages to power companies.
3. It will aid in reducing the non performing assets in banking sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Recently, government has initiated Scheme to Harness and Allocate Koyla (Coal) Transparently in India policy (SHAKTI). It is under the administrative control of Ministry ofCoal.
  • Statement 2 is correct: SHAKTI is aimed at auctioning long term coal linkages to power companies. Major provisions of the policy include:
  • Coal linkages would be awarded to designated state-owned power distribution companies (DISCOMs).
  • The independent power producers (IPPs) having Power purchase agreements (PPAs) will participate in  the auction and will bid for discounts on the existing tariff.
  • IPPs without Power Purchase Agreements (PPAs) shall be bidding for linkage over the notified price of the coal company.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Power sector has emerged as one of the major contributors to non -performing assets. One of the major reasons for stalling of power projects has been uncertainty regarding coal supply. SHAKTI scheme will help in easing supply of coal for power projects and hence, help in reducing non- performing assets.
QUESTION: 67

Bureau of Indian standards (BIS) Act 2016 was brought into force recently. In this context, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It establishes the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) as the National Standards Body of India.
2. The act provides for making the hallmarking of precious metal articles mandatory.
3. It also provides for self-declaration of conformity against a standard to manufacturers to get certificate of conformity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • All the statements are correct:
  • A new Bureau of Indian standards (BIS) Act 2016, has been brought into force with effect from 12th October, 2017. The Act establishes the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) as the National Standards Body of India.
  • The Act has enabling provisions for the Government to bring under compulsory certification regime any goods or article of any scheduled industry, process, system or service which it considers necessary in the public interest or for the protection of human, animal or plant health, safety of the environment, or prevention of unfair trade practices, or national security.
  • Enabling provisions have also been made for making hallmarking of the precious metal articles mandatory.
  • The new Act also allows multiple type of simplified conformity assessment schemes including self- declaration of conformity against a standard which will give simplified options to manufacturers to adhere to the standards and get certificate of conformity.
  • The Act enables the Central Government to appoint any authority/agency, in addition to the BIS, to verify the conformity of products and services to a standard and issue certificate of conformity. Further, there is provision for repair or recall, including product liability of the products bearing Standard Mark but not conforming to the relevant Indian Standard.
QUESTION: 68

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Engineering, Procurement and Construction (EPC) model deployed in development of highways?
1. The government agency is responsible for acquisition of land for the project.
2. The private player is responsible for collection of tolls.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

EPC model has been widely deployed by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) for construction of roads through Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs). Under the EPC model, NHAI pays private players to lay roads. They are paid a lump sum price awarded through competitive bidding. The government agency (NHAI) is responsible for getting environmental clearances, land acquisition and fulfilment of other regulatory norms. The contractor designs the installation, procures the necessary materials and builds the project, either directly or by subcontracting part of the work. After completion, the asset (road) is handed over to NHAI. The private player has no role in the road‘s ownership, toll collection or maintenance (it is taken care of by the government). Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

QUESTION: 69

In the context of earth’s atmosphere, consider the following statements:
1. Water vapour in the atmosphere decreases from the equator towards the poles.
2. Concentration of dust particles in the atmosphere is higher in equatorial regions as compared to sub-tropical regions.
3. Ozone is found in the atmosphere at an altitude of 200 km above earth’s surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Water vapour is a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude. In the warm and wet tropics, it may account for four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of desert and polar regions, it may be less than one per cent of the air. Water vapour also decreases from the equator towards the poles. Atmosphere has a sufficient capacity to keep small solid particles, which may originate from different sources and include sea salts, fine soil, smoke-soot, ash, pollen, dust and disintegrated particles of meteors. Dust particles are generally concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere; yet, convectional air currents may transport them to great heights. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions.

  • Ozone is another important component of the atmosphere found between 10 and 50 km above the earth‟s surface and acts as a filter and absorbs the ultra-violet rays radiating from the sun and prevents them from reaching the surface of the earth.
QUESTION: 70

Consider the following statements:
1. Aligarh Movement was a reformist movement while Deoband Movement was a revivalist movement.
2. Unlike the Deoband Movement, the Aligarh Movement supported formation of Indian National Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Syed Ahmed Khan started the Aligarh movement as a reformist movement. He wanted to reconcile western scientific education with the teachings of the Quran to be interpreted in the light of contemporary rationalism and science even though he also held the Quran to be the ultimate.The Deoband Movement was organized by the orthodox section among the Muslim ulema as a revivalist movement with the twin objectives of propagating pure teachings of the Quran and Hadis among Muslims and keeping alive the spirit of jihad against the foreign rulers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Deoband school welcomed the formation of the Indian National Congress. On the other hand, Syed Ahmed Khan was opposed to political activity by the Muslims and urged Muslims not to join Indian National Congress. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 71

The term 'gig economy' recently seen in news refers to

Solution:
  • In a gig economy, temporary, flexible jobs are commonplace and companies tend toward hiring independent contractors and freelancers instead of full-time employees. Due to the large numbers of people willing to work part-time or temporary positions, the result of a gig economy is cheaper, more efficient services (such as Uber or Airbnb).
  • In the modern digital world, it's becoming increasingly common for people to work remotely or from home. This facilitates independent contracting work. Meanwhile, workers in the gig economy are classed as independent contractors.
  • That means they have no protection against unfair dismissal, no right to redundancy payments, and no right to receive the national minimum wage, paid holiday or sickness pay.
QUESTION: 72

Which of the following states was recently granted the Geographical Indication for Kadaknath Chicken?

Solution:
  • Madhya Pradesh has recently got the Geographical Indications (GI) tag for Kadaknath, a chicken breed whose black meat is in demand in some quarters. The protein-rich meat of Kadaknath, chicks and eggs are sold at a much higher rate than other varieties of chicken. Chennai-based GI Registry accepted the application of Gramik Vikas Trust, Jhabua, which was filed in 2012.
  • The breed is native to Jhabua, Alirajpur and parts of Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh.
QUESTION: 73

With respect to economy, what does the term ‘depreciation’ mean?

Solution:

Depreciation:
Definition:
The monetary value of an asset decreases over time due to use, wear and tear or obsolescence. This decrease is measured as depreciation.
Description: Depreciation, i.e. a decrease in an asset's value, may be caused by a number of other factors as well such as unfavorable market conditions, etc. Machinery, equipment, currency are some examples of assets that are likely to depreciate over a specific period of time. Opposite of depreciation is appreciation which is increase in the value of an asset over a period of time.
Accounting estimates the decrease in value using the information regarding the useful life of the asset. This is useful for estimation of property value for taxation purposes like property tax etc. For such assets like real estate, market and economic conditions are likely to be crucial such as in cases of economic downturn.

QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements with respect to India State Level Disease Burden Report:
1. It is published by the Medical Council of India.
2. It provides a comprehensive assessment of the diseases causing premature deaths and ill-health in each state of the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
The India State-level Disease Burden Initiative, launched in October 2015, is a joint initiative between the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), Public Health Foundation of India (PHFI), and Institute for Health Metrics and Evaluation (IHME) in collaboration with the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India
along with experts and stakeholders associated with over 100 Indian institutions.
This Initiative reported an unprecedented comprehensive assessment of the diseases causing the most premature deaths and ill-health in each state of the country, the risk factors responsible for this burden, and their trends spanning 26 years from 1990 to 2016. The burden from 333 disease conditions and injuries and 84 risk factors was computed for each state of India as part of the WHO Global Burden of Disease Study 2016.

QUESTION: 75

Which of the following Greenhouse gases are emitted by Volcanoes?
1. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
2. Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S)
3. Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Volcanoes also give off greenhouse gases. The most abundant gas released from volcanic eruptions is water vapor. Other emitted gases include carbon dioxide (CO2), sulfur dioxide (SO2), hydrogen sulfide (H2S), carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen chloride (HCl), and hydrogen fluoride (HF).
Nitrogen oxides (also known as oxides if nitrogen, and abbreviated as NOx) is a collective term used to refer to two species of oxides of nitrogen: nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2). Nitric oxide is a colorless, flammable gas with a slight odour. Globally, quantities of nitrogen oxides produced naturally by bacterial and volcanic action, and lightning, outweigh man-made emissions. In the atmosphere, nitrogen oxides mix with water vapour producing nitric acid. This acidic pollution can be transported by win over many hundreds of miles, and deposited as acid rain.

QUESTION: 76

As the number of species in a food web increases, it leads to which of the following?

Solution:

More diverse ecosystems (in the sense of having a larger mean number  of  species)  are more stable, in the sense that they have lower fluctuations in community size compared to the less diverse ones. If there were many species in a complex food web, predators could adjust to fluctuations in population by switching from less abundant to more abundant prey species. This would eventually allow the density of the less common species to increase.

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following provisions create a strong central government?
1. Emergency provisions
2. Office of the State Governor
3. All-India Services
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Some of the provisions that create a strong central government:

  • The Constitution has certain very powerful emergency provisions, which can turn our federal polity into a highly centralised system once emergency is declared. During an emergency, power becomes lawfully centralised. Parliament also assumes the power to make laws on subjects within the jurisdiction of the States.
  • The Governor has certain powers to recommend dismissal of the State government and the dissolution of the Assembly. Besides, even in normal circumstances, the Governor has the power to reserve a bill passed by the State legislature, for the assent of the President. This gives the central government an opportunity to delay the State legislation and also to examine such bills and veto them completely.
  • The all-India services are common to the entire territory of India and officers chosen for these services serve in the administration of the States. Thus, an IAS officer who becomes the collector or an IPS officer who serves as the Commissioner of Police, are under the control of the central government.
QUESTION: 78

Recently, India’s first ‘Coastal Policing Academy’ has been set up in

Solution:
  • The Union Home Ministry recently sanctioned the launch of the National Academy of Coastal Policing (NACP). It is country‟s first national academy to train police forces in effectively safeguarding the Indian shoreline and will start functioning in Devbhumi Dwarka district of Gujarat soon.
  • It is first-of-its-kind institution of the country which will be created and run by a multiagency team of paramilitary and defence forces and sharpen the response and skills of the marine forces of multiple states which have sea lines. The academy will train marine police in professional manner and the best practises of various agencies like the navy, the BSF and the Coast Guard will be borrowed by it for teaching purposes.
QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements in reference to AURA :
1. It is an Earth Observation Satellite of European Space Agency.
2. It aims to understand how atmospheric composition affects and responds to Earth's changing climate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: AURA is an Earth Observation Satellite launched by NASA.
Statement 2 is correct: Launched in 2004, AURA helps scientists understand how atmospheric composition affects and responds to Earth's changing climate. Aura was exclusively designed to study the composition, chemistry, and dynamics of the Earth‘s upper and lower a tmosphere by employing four instruments on a single platform. Each instrument provides unique and complementary capabilities that will enable daily global observations of Earth‘s atmospheric ozone layer, air quality, and key climate parameters.

QUESTION: 80

In the context of history of India, 'Delhi Chalo Movement' is related to:

Solution:

Individual Satyagraha : In 1940, in response to August Offer, Gandhiji decided to initiate a limited satyagraha on an individual basis by a few selected individuals in every locality, that is, Individual Satyagraha. The demand of the satyagrahi would be the freedom of speech against the war through an antiwar declaration. If the Government did not arrest the satyagrahi, he or she would not only repeat it but move into villages and start a march towards Delhi, thus precipitating a movement which came to be known as the "Delhi Chalo Movement". Vinoba Bhave was the first to offer the satyagraha and Nehru, the second.

QUESTION: 81

‘Momentum for Change’ is an initiative of 

Solution:

Momentum for Change is an initiative spearheaded by the UN Climate Change secretariat to shine a light on the enormous groundswell of activities underway across the globe that are moving the world toward a highly resilient, low-carbon future.

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary standing committees.
1. Members of the committee are bound by party whips.
2. Once the Bill is disposed of, the select committee constituted to deliberate on the particular bill ceases to exist.
3. They also help in obtaining public feedback and building political consensus on contentious issues.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

1. Parliament is the embodiment of the people’s will. Committees are an instrument of Parliament for its own effective functioning.
2. Committees are platforms for threadbare discussion on a proposed law.
3. The smaller cohort of lawmakers, assembled on the basis of the proportional strength of individual parties and interests and expertise of individual lawmakers, could have more open, intensive and better-informed discussions.
4. Committee meetings are ‘closed door’ and members are not bound by party whips, which allows them the latitude for a more meaningful exchange of views as against discussions in full and open Houses where grandstanding and party positions invariably take precedence.
5. Members of Parliament may have great acumen but they would require the assistance of experts in dealing with such situations. It is through committees that such expertise is drawn into lawmaking.
6. Executive accountability to the legislature is enforced through questions in Parliament also, which are answered by ministers. However, department standing committees go one step further and hear from senior officials of the government in a closed setting, allowing for more detailed discussions.
7. This mechanism also enables parliamentarians to understand the executive processes closely.

QUESTION: 83

Dokdo or Takeshima Islands, sometimes seen in news is located between

Solution:
QUESTION: 84

The government had launched National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS). CPS and its associated technologies include:
1. Artificial Intelligence (Al)
2. Big Data Analytics
3. Quantum Computing
4. Cyber Security for physical infrastructure
Select the correct code:

Solution:

The first Phase of NM-ICPS will focus on establishing six Technology Innovation Hubs (TIHs) in the following domain areas:
1. Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning
2. Technologies for Internet of Things and Everything (IOT & IOE), Sensors, Activators and Control
3. Databanks & Data Services, Data Analytics
4. Advanced Communication Systems
5. Robotics & Autonomous Systems
6. Cyber Security and Cyber Security for Physical Infrastructure

QUESTION: 85

WHO’s REPLACE campaign is related to

Solution:

WHO launches REPLACE campaign to eliminate trans-fat in foods by 2023. World Health Organization (WHO) has launched comprehensive plan “REPLACE” to eliminate industrially-produced artificial trans-fats from global food supply by 2023.

QUESTION: 86

Consider the following statements with reference to E-2020 initiative.
1. E-2020 is the initiative supported by WHO where countries were identified by WHO in 2016 as having the potential to become malaria-free by 2020.
2. The Global technical strategy for malaria 2016-2030, calls for the elimination of malaria in at least 10 countries by the year 2020.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

E-2020 initiative was launched in 2016. It has been working in 21 countries, spanning five regions, to scale up efforts to achieve malaria elimination by 2020. A key milestone for 2020 is the elimination of malaria in at least 10 countries that had the disease in 2015

QUESTION: 87

Consider the following statements regarding Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
1. The Act grants legal recognition to the rights of traditional forest dwelling communities, partially correcting the injustice caused by the forest laws.
2. To be eligible to get the rights, the claimant must be a member of the Scheduled Tribes scheduled in that area or must have been residing in the forest for 70 years.
3. The act provides rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction or forced displacement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Why in News?

  • Recently Supreme Court asked states to free tracts of forest land in possession of people whose claims have been rejected under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006.
  • The judgement has triggered protests from forest rights groups, who contended that wildlife conservation cannot overcome natural justice goals.

Who can claim these Rights?

  • Members or community of the Scheduled Tribes who primarily reside in and who depend on the forests or forest lands for bona fide livelihood needs.
  • It can also be claimed by any member or community who has for at least three generations (75 years) prior to the 13th day of December, 2005 primarily resided in forests land for bona fide livelihood needs.
  • The Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of Individual Forest Rights (IFR) or Community Forest Rights (CFR) or both that may be given to FDST and OTFD.
QUESTION: 88

‘Gamosa’ a ubiquitous, white cotton towel woven with images of endangered turtles to spread the message of conservation, belongs to which state.

Solution:

The Gamosa is an article of significance for the indigenous people of Assam, India. It is generally a white rectangular piece of cloth with primarily a red border on three sides and red woven motifs on the fourth (in addition to red, other colors are used). Although cotton yarn is the most common material for making/weaving gamosas, there are special occasion ones made from Pat silk. A 1,455.3 meter long Gamocha displayed in Delhi created world record, as it became world’s longest hand woven piece of cloth.

QUESTION: 89

Which of the following statements is correct regarding ‘Bamboonomics’?

Solution:

Union Minister for Tribal Affairs launched the Biggest Tribal movement to promote tribal enterprise through Bamboonomics in the country which will be a beacon for the rest of the world. He launched the movement for combating desertification and the climate change at “The Indian Perspective through Bamboonomics” session at ‘COP 14 UNCCD : TRIFED-GIZ’.

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statements regarding Gundla Brahmeswaram Sanctuary.
1. Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Nallamala forests in Kurnool district.
2. Tiger population has seen a massive decline here due to Red sanders smuggling.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ek Bharat-Vijayee Bharat’ programme.
1. ‘Ek Bharat-Vijayee Bharat’ is a major contact programme to commemorate 50th year of Vivekanand rock memorial.
2. The programme will also focus on making people aware of the inspiring story of Vivekanand Rock Memorial.
3. Vivekanand rock memorial has been an iconic landmark at the Tri-junction of Indian ocean, Bay of Bengal and Arabian sea in Kanyakumari.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Kanyakumari-based Vivekanand Kendra and its state units will launch a year-long nation-wide contact programme to spread the messages of Swami Vivekananda, officials said on Friday.
The mass contact programme, titled “Ek Bharat Vijayi Bharat”, coincides with the 50th foundation year of Vivekanand Rock Memorial in Kanyakumari and will be launched on Sunday.
Involving around 20,000 workers of around 1,005 units of Vivekanand Kendra across the country, the programme will get underway with a meeting with President Ram Nath Kovind on Sunday. All state teams of Vivekananda Kendra would contact the governors and chief ministers of all states and a sizeable number of people from all segments of society with the messages of Swami Vivekanand, said D Bhanudas, General Secretary of Vivekanand Kendra.
The programme will also focus on making people aware of the inspiring story of Vivekanand Rock Memorial and the activities of Vivekanand Kendra.
The memorial stands on a mid-sea rock off the Kanyakumari shore where Swami Vivekananda mediated in December 1892 and decided to restore the glory of Bharta, Bhanudas said.
Vivekananda Kendra works in the field of yoga, education, rural development, youth motivation, natural resource development, cultural research among other areas.

QUESTION: 92

Consider the following statements regarding Maternal Mortality in India.
1. Maternal mortality ratio is measured as the number of maternal deaths per lakh live births.
2. Kerala is the only state in India to achieve the sustainable development goals target of 70 per 100,000 MMR.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 93

Consider the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
1. It converts multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application of any participating bank, merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood.
2. It was launched by RBI.
3. Money can be transferred through mobile devices round the clock 24*7 except on public holidays.
4. It may also be used for Utility Bill Payments, Over the Counter Payments and Barcode based payments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The interface is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and not launched.

QUESTION: 94

Torrefaction, recently seen in news is related to

Solution:

Torrefaction changes biomass properties to provide a better fuel quality for combustion and gasification applications. Torrefaction produces a relatively dry product, which reduces or eliminates its potential for organic decomposition.

QUESTION: 95

MARPOL Convention, sometimes seen in news is related to

Solution:

The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) is the main international convention covering prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships from operational or accidental causes. The MARPOL Convention was adopted on 2 November 1973 at IMO.

QUESTION: 96

Fordow Nuclear Plant, recently seen in news is located in

Solution:

Iran resumed uranium enrichment at its underground Fordow nuclear facility.

QUESTION: 97

Consider the following statements regarding Earth Day.
1. Earth Day aims to build the world’s largest environmental movement to drive transformative change for people and the planet.
2. The year 2020 marks the 50th anniversary of the annual celebrations of Earth Day.
3. The landmark Paris Agreement was signed on Earth Day 2016.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

Consider the following statements regarding Bengal florican.
1. Bengal florican is a bustard species native to the Indian subcontinent.
2. Its habitat includes Terai and Dooars grassland regions of the Indo-Gangetic and Brahmaputra floodplains.
3. Recently India proposed the inclusion of Bengal florican on Appendix-I of Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

Consider the following statements.
1. India has successfully achieved the complete phase out of Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b, which is a chemical used by foam manufacturing enterprises.
2. Before the phase out of Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b, India was one of the major producers of HCFC-141b.
3. The complete phase out of HCFC 141 b from the country is as agreed under Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

India has successfully achieved the complete phase out of Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b, which is a chemical used by foam manufacturing enterprises and one of the most potent ozone depleting chemical after Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) .(HCFC)-141 b is used mainly as a blowing agent in the production of rigid polyurethane (PU) foams.
India has consciously chosen a path for environment friendly and energy efficient technologies while phasing out Ozone Depleting Substances (ODSs). Importantly, India is one among the few countries globally and a pioneer in some cases in the use of technologies, which are non-Ozone Depleting and have a low Global Warming Potential (GWP). India had proactively and successfully taken the challenge of complete phase out of Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b, which is a chemical used by foam manufacturing enterprises by 1.1.2020.

QUESTION: 100

Signal fish, recently seen in news, was discovered near

Solution:

Called Pteropsaron indicum, it is the first one of the genus recorded in Indian waters
The deep waters of the Lakshadweep sea off the Kerala coast are home to an unusual species of fish with a unique colour pattern and an interesting behaviour that allows it to communicate with others of the same species by flipping its highly specialised dorsal fins.