UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 11 (August 12, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 11 (August 12, 2021)


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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 11 (August 12, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 11 (August 12, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 11 (August 12, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 11 (August 12, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 11 (August 12, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Section 69 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, recently seen in the news is related to

Solution:

Section 69 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with power to issue directions for interception or monitoring or decryption of any information through any computer resource:
Where the Central Government or a State Government or any of its officers specially authorised by the Central Government or the State Government, as the case may be, in this behalf may, if satisfied that it is necessary or expedient to do in the interest of the sovereignty or integrity of India, defence of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States or public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognizable offence relating to above or for investigation of any offence, it may, subject to the provisions of sub-section (2), for reasons to be recorded in writing, by order, direct any agency of the appropriate Government to intercept, monitor or decrypt or cause to be intercepted or monitored or decrypted any information generated, transmitted, received or stored in any computer resource.

  • The procedure and safeguards subject to which such interception or monitoring or decryption may be carried out, shall be such as may be prescribed.
  • The subscriber or intermediary or any person in-charge of the computer resource shall, when called upon by any agency referred to in sub-section (1), extend all facilities and technical assistance to-
    (a) provide access to or secure access to the computer resource generating, transmitting, receiving or storing such information; or
    (b) intercept, monitor, or decrypt the information, as the case may be;or
    (c) provide information stored in computer resource.
    (d) The subscriber or intermediary or any person who fails to assist the agency referred to in sub- section (3) shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.

Recently in December 2018, the government has empowered 10 central agencies to monitor and decrypt any information on any computer in India. The order authorizes the Intelligence Bureau,  Narcotics Control Bureau, Enforcement Directorate, Central Board of Direct Taxes, Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, Central Bureau of Investigation, National Investigation Agency, Cabinet Secretariat (R&AW), Directorate of Signal Intelligence (for service areas of Jammu and Kashmir, North-East and Assam only) and the Commissioner of Police, Delhi, to track content ―generated, received and stored" in any computer belonging to any individual or organization.

QUESTION: 2

In the context of Indian polity, consider the following statements regarding the doctrine of pleasure:
1. It is only applicable to persons who are members of the All-India Services and Central Services not to the members of State services.
2. It is used to remove Comptroller and Auditor General of India and Chief Election Commissioner from their office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: Doctrine of pleasure means all the persons who are members of the All-India Services and Central Services hold office during the pleasure of the President. Similarly, the personnel of the state services hold office during the pleasure of the governor. So this doctrine is also applicable to persons of the state services.

Statement 2 is not correct: Doctrine of pleasure is not applicable for Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) and Chief Election Commissioner (CEC). Though they are appointed by the President, they may be removed from their office only on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity on the resolution for the same being passed by the parliament with a special majority.

QUESTION: 3

With respect to the national freedom movement, consider the following statements about Phoenix Settlement:
1. It was a group of Indians, living across Europe, to create awareness among Europeans about India's cause for freedom.
2. It was founded by Mahatma Gandhi. 

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution:
  • When Gandhi decided that the Indian Opinion, his weekly paper, should be printed at a farm away from the city, he purchased an estate in Natal province, fourteen miles from Durban (South Africa). This would be a place where everyone would labour, and draw the same salary. He called this the Phoenix Settlement. It was desolate, overgrown with grass and trees, snake infested and suffered from severe winters as well as water scarcity. In this inhospitable area came and settled some Englishmen, a few Tamil and Hindi speaking people, one or two Zulus, and six Gujarat is.
  • Gandhi could not actually live on the land for long, but would visit it at frequent intervals. His visits were special occasions which the children of the Settlement eagerly looked forward to. He would laugh and play with them. The settlers would prepare special dishes, Gandhi relishing good food in those days, and eat together on Sundays. The press-workers did all the work in the press themselves, bringing out the Indian Opinion. On nights when the final printing was done, they would need to stay up all night. To encourage them, kheer would be served
QUESTION: 4

Consider the following statements regarding Magnetic field of Sun:
1. Heliosphere refers to the domain of Sun’s magnetic field in Space.
2. Sunspots are regions of weak magnetic field on the surface and appear as dark spots compared to their surroundings.
3. The time period required for reversal of polarity of Sun’s magnetic field is more than that of Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Sun generates a magnetic field that extends out into space. However, the sun's magnetic field changes both its shape and intensity over the surface, and over time, much more rapidly.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Heliosphere is often described as a kind of bubble that contains our solar system. It is the domain of the Sun‘s magnetic influence, which extends beyond Pluto and is caused by the Sun‘s solarwinds.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: Sunspots form on the surface of the Sun due to strong magnetic field lines coming up from within the Sun through the solar surface and appear visibly as dark spots compared to their surroundings. These sunspots which can become many times bigger than the Earth are always dark because they are much cooler than the surrounding surface of the Sun itself. A big sunspot can have a temperature of 3700°C.
  • Statement 3 is not correct: The Sun's magnetic field changes polarity approximately every 11 years. It happens at the peak of each solar cycle as the sun's inner magnetic dynamo re-organizes itself. On the other hand, Earth has settled in the last 20 million years into a pattern of a pole reversal about every 200,000 to 300,000 years, although it has been more than twice that long since the lastreversal.
QUESTION: 5

Consider the following statements with respect to Buddhist Councils:
1. The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajgriha under the chairmanship of Gautama Buddha.
2. The debate between followers of Mahayana and Hinayana traditions was commonly found in every Buddhist Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

(i) The first Buddhist Council was held at Rajagraha under the chairmanship of Mahakasapa immediately after the death of Buddha. Its purpose was to maintain the purity of the teachings of the Buddha. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
(ii) The second Buddhist Council was convened at Vaisali around 383 B.C. The third Buddhist Council was held at Pataliputra under the patronage of Asoka. Moggaliputta Tissa presided over it. The final version of Tripitakas was completed in this council. The fourth Buddhist Council was convened in Kashmir by Kanishka under the chairmanship of Vasumitra. Asvagosha participated in this council. The new school of Buddhism called Mahayana Buddhism came into existence during this council.
(iii) The Buddhism preached by the Buddha and propagated by Asoka was known as Hinayana. So, during the earlier Buddhist Councils the debate between followers of Hinayana and Mahayana sects was not found as the Mahayana tradition as a different sect did not come into existence. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements regarding jurisdiction of Supreme Court and High Court:
1. Disputes related to the election of members of Parliament comes under the Original jurisdiction of High Court.
2. Disputes between the two states are the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
3. Both the Supreme Court and the High Court are Court of Records.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Original jurisdiction means the power to hear the appeal in the first instance, not by way of appeal. Original jurisdiction of High Court extends to –
(a) Matters of admiralty, will, marriage, divorce, company laws and contempt of court.
(b) Disputes related to election of members of Parliament and State legislature ( Article 329(b)).
(c) Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection.
(d) Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens.
(e) Cases ordered to be transferred from subordinate court involving the interpretation of the constitution to its own file.
(f) The four High Courts (Calcutta, Bombay, Madras and Delhi) have original civil jurisdiction in cases of higher value.

Statement 2 is correct: Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court extends to the disputes between– 
(a) Centre and one or more states.
(b) Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on other side
(c) Between two or more states( Article131)

Statement 3 is correct: Jurisdiction and powers of Supreme court are – 
(a) Original jurisdiction
(b) Writ jurisdiction
(c) Appellate jurisdiction
(d) Advisory jurisdiction
(e) Court of record ( Article 129)
(f) Power of judicial review
(g) Other powers
(h) Jurisdiction and power of High court are – 
(i) Original jurisdiction
(ii) Writ jurisdiction
(iii) Appellate jurisdiction
(iv) Supervisory jurisdiction
(v) Control over subordinate courts
(vi) Court of record ( Article 215)
(vii) Power of judicial review

QUESTION: 7

Which of the following is/are correct with reference to Transformative Carbon Asset Facility (TCAF)?
1. It supports developing countries in implementing and scaling up their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) to accelerate the transition to low-carbon economies.
2. It functions under UNEP.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is not correct: The World Bank’s Transformative Carbon Asset Facility (TCAF) supports developing countries in establishing and implementing market-based climate change mitigation mechanisms by providing results-based financing for proven emission reductions achieved at sectoral level. TCAF supports developing countries in planning, implementing, and scaling up their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) to accelerate the transition to low-carbon economies. As well, TCAF helps shape international carbon markets for the post-Kyotoera.
  • The TCAF will fund emission reduction activities using broad-based programmes to overcome the project-based approach, achieving a transformative effect in partner countries. The funded measures are integrated into the respective national climate change strategies, thus boosting national climate change mitigation effort and securing a lasting contribution to achieving climatically sound sustainable development.
  • Transformative Carbon Asset Facility is an international finance facility piloting innovative, results-based carbon market mechanism set up at Paris Climate Change summit 2015.
QUESTION: 8

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

3. Dharanikota (now called Dharanikota) is a village in Guntur district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It is located in Amaravathi mandal of Guntur revenue division.

QUESTION: 9

In medieval India the terms Khud kashta and Pahi Kashta were used for:

Solution:

Sources of the seventeenth century refer to two kinds of peasants  –  khud-kashta  and  pahi-  kashta. The former were residents of the village in which they held their lands. The latter were non- resident cultivators who belonged to some other village, but cultivated lands elsewhere on a contractual basis. People became pahi-kashta either out of choice
Example, when terms of revenue in a distant village were more favourable – or out of compulsion
Example, forced by economic distress after a famine

QUESTION: 10

With reference to Indus Valley Civilisation, which city had the practice of "double burial"?

Solution:
  • The burials in the Harappan period were all in brick or stone lined rectangular or oval pits. The body was usually interred clothed shrouded or in a wooden coffin in the north south direction in a straight direction. It was important that the body did not come into contact with the ground. The only evidence of wooden coffins is the presence of a wooden stain in the body of the corpse. The bodies of the individuals were usually buried with their jewellery which usually consisted of bangles made from shell, steatite beads, etc, and the men usually wore earrings. Copper mirrors have been found only amongst the bodies of the females which show specificity of grave goods bygender.
  • A few unique burials were found in the grave sites of Lothal, Ropar, and Rojdi. In Ropar a man was found buried with a dog. In Rodji two infants were found buried beneath the floor of a house. In Lothal three double burials have been found. There are some examples from Lothal of pairs of skeletons with a male and a female each buried together. Hence option (c) is correct. The unique burials in this site show that not all burials were solely centred on social hierarchy andstatus.
QUESTION: 11

Consider the following pairs of digestive enzymes and enzyme-secreting organs:

Which of the pairs given aboveis/arecorrectly matched?

Solution:
  • The process of digestion allows large food particles to be broken down into nutrient molecules that are small enough for intestines to absorb. The activity of digestive enzymes is a driving force in breaking down the foods we consume. These enzymes come from a variety of sources as food moves through your digestivetract.
  • Salivary Glands: Although food stays in mouth for a relatively short time, carbohydrate digestion begins here. Saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase, which initiates the digestion of starch into maltose.
  • Stomach: Glands within stomach secrete gastric juice, a fluid containing hydrochloric acid and a protein- digesting enzyme known as pepsin. Unlike other digestive enzymes that are inactive in a highly acidic environment, pepsin becomes active in the presence of acid. This enzyme serves to break down large protein molecules into smaller fragments known as peptides. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
  • Pancreas: Pancreas secretes enzymes into your small intestine that digest starches, fats and peptides. Specifically, pancreatic amylase completes the digestion of starches, begun in mouth, to release molecules of maltose, while pancreatic lipase breaks down fats into fatty acids and monoglycerides. A number of proteases and peptidases secreted by pancreas into small intestine further break down proteins into peptides and large peptides into smaller peptides.
  • Small Intestine: The remainder of digestive enzymes comes from the cells lining small intestine. These enzymes include maltase, lactase and sucrase that digest maltose to two glucose units, lactose to glucose plus galactose and sucrose to glucose plus fructose, respectively. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched and pair 2 is not correctly matched.
QUESTION: 12

Regarding Know India Program, which of the following statements is correct?

Solution:
  • The Know India Programmes (KIP) is an important initiative of the Government of India with an aim to engage and make the students and young professionals of Indian Diaspora, in the age group of 18 to 30years, feel a sense of connect with their motherland, to be motivated and inspired by transformational changes taking place in India and to give them an exposure to various aspects of contemporary India‘s forms of art, heritage and culture.
  • KIP provide a unique forum for students & young professionals of Indian origin to visit India, share their views, expectations & experiences and to develop closer bonds with the contemporary India. Know India Programme is organized by the Ministry of External Affairs.
QUESTION: 13

It is a critically endangered large migratory bird that breeds and winters in wetlands. It is known to winter at Keoladeo National park in India. The last documented sighting of them in India was during the winter months of 2002.

The above passage describes which of the following?

Solution:
  • Siberian cranes are a large, strikingly majestic migratory bird that breeds and winters in wetlands. They are known to winter at Keoladeo National park in India, The last documented sighting of them in India was during the winter months of 2002.
  • This critically endangered species is now found only in two populations, the Eastern (Siberia to China) and the Western. All but a few existing birds belong to the eastern population, which breed in north- eastern Siberia and spend their winter along the middle Yangtze River in China. The western population winters at a single site along the south coast of the Caspian Sea in Iran and breeds just south of the Ob River east of the Ural Mountains in Russia.
  • THREATS: Habitat loss, especially due to changing hydrology caused by water diversions and conversion of wetlands, illegal take including hunting, trapping and poisoning, pollution and environmental contamination.
QUESTION: 14

Consider the following statements with reference to the provisions related to Scheduled Castes (SCs):
1. President, after consulting with the Governor of a state concerned, issues a notification to specify which castes are to be included in SCs.
2. Any inclusion or exclusion of castes from the Presidential notification has to be done through a subsequent Presidential notification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • In order to realise the objectives of equality and justice as laid down in the Preamble, the Constitution makes special provisions for the scheduled castes (SCs), the scheduled tribes (STs), the backward classes (BCs) and the Anglo-Indians.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called the SCs or the STs. It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what castes or tribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs. In case of the states, the President issues the notification after consulting the governor of the state concerned.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: Any inclusion or exclusion of any caste or tribe from Presidential notification can be done only by the Parliament and not by a subsequent Presidential notification. The lists of the SCs or STs vary from state to state and union territory to union territory.
QUESTION: 15

With reference to the ‘Asian Premium’ on oil imports sometimes mentioned in news, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Asian Premium makes the oil imports costlier for Asian countries.
2. Asian Premium is charged by the International Energy Forum(IEF).
3. Recently the oil-producing countries have decided to scrap the ‘Asian Premium’ on oil from June 2019.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Asian Premium is an extra charge being collected by OPEC countries from Asian countries when selling oil in comparison to western countries.
  • The Asian Premium has its origins in the late 1980s when Saudi Arabia, the de-facto OPEC leader, adopted a marker based price system for its oil exports – West Texas Intermediate (WTI) for the US, Brent for Europe and Dubai/Oman for Asia.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: It is charged by the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC).
  • Statement 3 is not correct: India is coordinating with China and other Asian countries to voice against the "Asian Premium", in order to scrap the discriminatory treatment.
QUESTION: 16

Consider the following countries:
1. Iceland
2. Turkey
3. Finland
4. Norway
5. Switzerland

Which of the countries given above is/are not part of the European Economic Area (EEA)?

Solution:
  • The European Economic Area (EEA) The EEA includes EU countries and also Iceland, Liechtenstein  and Norway. It allows them to be part of the EU‘s single market.
  • The EEA Agreement guarantees equal rights and obligations within the internal market for individuals  and economic operators in the EEA. It provides for the inclusion of EU legislation covering the four freedoms — the free movement of goods, services, persons and capital — throughout the 31 EEA States. In addition, the Agreement covers cooperation in other important areas such as research and development, education, social policy, the environment, consumer protection, tourism and culture, collectively known as―flanking and horizontal‖policies. The Agreement guarantees equal rights and obligations with in the Internal Market for citizens and economic operators in the EEA. The EEA Agreement also states that when a country becomes a member of the European Union, it shall also apply to become party to the EEA Agreement (Article 128), thus leading to an enlargement of the EEA.
  • The European Union (EU) is an economic and political union of 28 countries. It operates an internal (or single) market which allows free movement of goods, capital, services and people between member states.
  • EU countries:
    The EU countries are: Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Croatia, Republic of Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the UK.
  • Switzerland is neither an EU nor EEA member but is part of the single market - this means Swiss nationals have the same rights to live and work in the UK as other EE Anationals.
  • Turkey is also not a member of EU or EEA.
QUESTION: 17

Which of the following states possesses elephant reserves?
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Bihar
4. Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The Indian elephant (Elephas maximus) occurs in the central and southern Western Ghats, North-east India, eastern India and northern India and in some parts of southern peninsular India. It is included in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna (CITES).

QUESTION: 18

Which of the following events will not aid in increasing Monsoon rainfall in India?
1. Presence of Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) over the Pacific Ocean
2. Increased Snowfall over Tibet
3. Southward movement of Subtropical Westerly Jet

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • The Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO) is an oceanic-atmospheric phenomenon which affects weather activities across the globe including Monsoons. It can be defined as an eastward moving 'pulse' of clouds, rainfall, winds and pressure near the equator that typically recurs every 30 to 60 days.
  • The journey of MJO goes through eight phases. When it is over the Indian Ocean during the Monsoon season, it brings good rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. On the other hand, when it witnesses a longer cycle and stays over the Pacific Ocean, MJO brings bad news for the Indian Monsoon. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Tibetan plateau, heats up during summer and thereby establishes an atmospheric circulation that is conducive for the monsoon. As the vast Tibetan plateau, high up in the mountains, warms during the summer months, it heats the air above, which then rises and creates an areas of low pressure. That belt of low pressure takes in moisture from the oceans, thus initiating the monsoon. However, increased snowfall in Tibet will reduce the temperature and consequently weaken the atmospheric circulation which is conducive for the Monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream maintain a high pressure over the North Indian Plain and inhibits the formation of Monsoons. It is only after the northward movement of Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream,  leads to formation of a zone of low pressure, which attracts inflow of Monsoon winds. Any, southward movement of Subtropical Westerly Jet will lead to formation of High pressure in North India and inhibit the formation of Monsoons. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
QUESTION: 19

Arrange the following European traders in the chronological order in which they came to India:
1. French
2. Dutch
3. English
4. Portuguese

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • The first Portuguese encounter with the subcontinent was on 20 May 1498 when Vasco da Gama reached Calicut on Malabar Coast.
  • The people of Holland (present Netherlands) are called the Dutch. Next to the Portuguese, the Dutch set their feet in India. Historically the Dutch have been experts in sea trade. In 1602, the United East India Company of the Netherlands was formed and given permission by the Dutch government to trade in the East Indies including India.
  • In 1608 AD, the British East India Company sent Captain William Hawkins to the court of the Mughal emperor Jahangir to secure royal patronage. He succeeded in getting royal permit for the Company to establish its factories at various places on the Western coast of India. Then in 1615 AD, Sir Thomas Roe was sent by Emperor James I of England to Jahangir‘s court, with a plea for more concession for the Company. Roe was very diplomatic and thus successfully secured a royal charter giving the Company freedom to trade in the whole of the Mughal territory.
  • The last European people to arrive in India were the French. The French East India Company was formed in 1664 AD during the reign of King Louis XIV to trade with India. In 1668 AD the French established their first factory at Surat and in 1669 AD established another French factory at Masaulipatam. In 1673 AD the Mughal Subedar of Bengal allowed the French to set up a township at Chandernagore.
QUESTION: 20

Consider the following statements regarding 'Committee on Government Assurances':
1. It examines the assurances, promises and undertakings given by members of parliament from time to time.
2. It consists of 30 members out of which 20 members are from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya sabha.
3. On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha all pending assurances that are to be examined by the committee lapse.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Solution:
  • Committee on Government assurances examines the assurances, undertakings and promises given by ministers from time to time on the floor of house and reports on the extent to which they have been carried through. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • In the Lok Sabha, It consists of 15 members and in the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members. It was constituted in 1953. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • When the Lok sabha has dissolved all business including bills, motions, resolutions, notices, petitions, and so on pending before it or its committees lapse. However, some pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the committee on Government assurances do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok sabha. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
QUESTION: 21

Consider the following statements with reference to the steel industry in India:
1. India has replaced Japan as the world's second-largest steel producing country.
2. India meets more than 50% of its coking coal requirement, a raw material in the steel production, through import. The Government of India does not have any dedicated national steel policy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:
  • India has replaced Japan as world's second largest steel producing country, while China is the largest producer of crude steel accounting for more than 51 percent of production, according to World Steel Association. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • India's crude steel production in 2018 was at 106.5 MT, up by 4.9 percent from 101.5 MT in 2017, meaning India has replaced Japan as the world's second largest steel producing country. Japan produced 104.3 MT in 2018, down 0.3 percent compared to 2017.
  • The Government of India gave its approval for the National Steel Policy (NSP) 2017. A National Steel Policy is already in place. The new Steel Policy enshrines the long term vision of the Government to give impetus to the steel sector. It seeks to enhance domestic steel consumption and ensure high quality steel production and create a technologically advanced and globally competitive steel industry. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • A reduction in the import of coking coal is a challenge before the country’s steel players in meeting the target production of 300 million tonnes by 2030-31. According to the steel industry, around 85% of the coking coal requirement of manufacturers is currently coming from imports, while the remaining is from domestic production, including that of Coal India. However, the National Steel Policy has envisaged an increase in the share of domestic washed coking coal and a lowering of import dependence to 50% by 2030-31. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION: 22

With reference to Ashokan inscriptions, consider the following statements:
1. Kharoshthi was the script used for the inscriptions throughout the Mauryan territory
2. Thirteenth Major rock edict mentions about the Mauryan victory over Kalinga.
3. James Princep was the first person to decipher the Ashokan inscriptions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The great Emperor Ashoka, the third monarch of the Maurya dynasty converted to Buddhism after witnessing the horrific effects of war in Kalinga. He became a champion and patron of Buddhism and strove to spread Dhamma throughout his empire and beyond. He erected pillars and edicts all over the subcontinent and even in modern-day Afghanistan, Nepal, Bangladesh and Pakistan to spread the Buddha’s word. James Prinsep, a British antiquary and colonial administrator was the first person to decipher Ashoka’s edicts. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • In eastern part of the empire, Magadhi language in Brahmi script is used. (Magadhi is the dialect of Prakrit found in Magadha). In western parts of the Mauryan Empire, Prakrit in kharoshti script is used. Major Rock Edict XIII contains an extract in Greek and Aramaic as well. Hence, statement 1 is not correct
  • Major Rock Edict XIII mentions the victory over Kalinga. It also mentions Ashoka’s Dhamma victory over Greek Kings Antiochus of Syria (Amtiyoko), Ptolemy of Egypt (Turamaye), Magas of Cyrene (Maka), Antigonus of Macedon (Amtikini), Alexander of Epirus (Alikasudaro). Also mentions Pandyas, Cholas, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION: 23

Consider the following statements about the Fisheries sector in India:
1. India is the 2nd largest fish producing country in the world.
2. Inland fish production is greater than the marine fish production.
3. Blue Revolution is an attempt of the government to focus exclusively on the marine fisheries sector to make India the largest fish producer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct. Recently, India has become the second largest fish producing country in the world contributing to 5.43% of global fish production.
  • Statement 2 is correct. There are two branches of the fishery sector namely Inland Fisheries and Marine Fisheries. The total fish production during 2017-18 is estimated to be 12.60 million metric tonnes, of which nearly 65% is from the inland sector and about 50% of the total production is from culture fisheries and constitutes about 6.3% of the global fish production.
  • Statement 3 is not correct. Fish and fish products account for around 10% of the total exports of the country and nearly 20% of the agricultural exports. An umbrella scheme ‘Blue Revolution: Integrated Development and Management of Fisheries’ has been formulated by merging all the existing schemes. The scheme 'Blue Revolution' has been launched with the outlay of Rs. 300 crore for the integrated development of the Fisheries sector in the country. It aims to fully tap the total fish potential of the country both in the inland and the marine sector and triple the production by 2020. Government had notified National Policy on Marine Fishing 2017 to ensure the health and ecological integrity of the marine living resources of India’s EEZ through sustainable harvests.
QUESTION: 24

Which of the following Government schemes/Initiatives are related to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)?
1. Udyami Mitra Portal
2. Prime Minister Employment Generation Programme.
3. SFURTI.
4. CriSidEx

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Option 1 is correct. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has launched the ‘Udyami Mitra’ Portal to improve the accessibility of credit and handholding services to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises(MSMEs).
  • Option 2 is correct. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) is implementing Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP), which is a major credit-linked subsidy programme, aimed at generating self-employment opportunities through establishment of micro- enterprises in the non-farm sector by helping traditional artisans and unemployed youth.
  • Option 3 is correct. The objectives of the scheme is to organize the traditional industries and artisans into clusters to make them competitive and provide support for their long term sustainability, sustained employment, to enhance marketability of products of such clusters,to equip traditional artisans of the associated clusters with the improved skills.
  • Option 4 is correct. CriSidEx is a composite index based on a diffusion index of 8 parameters and measures MSE business sentiment on a scale of 0 (extremely negative) to 200 ( extremely positive) . It is developed jointly by CRISIL & SIDBI
QUESTION: 25

An MP or an MLA is barred from holding any 'office of profit' under the central or state government. Consider the following statements regarding this provision:
1. Constitution puts a limit on the number of offices that can be exempted from purview of office of profit.
2. It aims to enforce the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Under the provisions of Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the central or state government. The articles clarify that “a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the government of India or the government of any state by reason only that he is a minister”. The Constitution specifies that the number of ministers including the Chief Minister has to be within 15% of the total number of members of the assembly (10% in the case of Delhi, which is a union territory with legislature).
  • The intent is that there should be no conflict between the duties and interests of an elected member.Provisions of Articles 102 and 191 also protect a legislator occupying a government position if the office in question has been made immune to disqualification by law. In the recent past, several state legislatures have enacted laws exempting certain offices from the purview of office of profit. Parliament has also enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been amended several times to expand the exempted list.There is no bar on how many offices can be exempted from the purview of the law. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution- the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION: 26

With reference to the cultural history of India consider the following statements about Lal Ded:
1. She was a Kashmiri mystic poet of the Shaivism school of philosophy.
2. She was the creator of poetry called vatsun or vakhs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Born in modern-day Kashmir, 14th-century Kashmiri saint and mystic poet Lal Ded (Mother Lalla), also known as Lalla or Lalleshwari, was married at the age of 12 into a family that was reported to have regularly mistreated her. After becoming a disciple of Sidh Srikanth, she renounced her material life and marriage to become a devotee of the god Shiva. Hence statement 1 is correct. As a mystic, she wandered naked, reciting her proverbs and quatrain-based poems. Lal Ded often used her poetry as a peaceful means of engagement with both Shaivism and Sufism. She was the creator of the style of mystic poetry called vatsun or Vakhs, literally "speech" (Voice). Known as Lal Vakhs, her verses are the earliest compositions in the Kashmiri language and are an important part in the history of modern Kashmiri literature. Hence statement 2 is correct

Her poetry has been translated widely, including English translations by Jane Hirshfield in Women in Praise of the Sacred: 43 Centuries of Spiritual Poetry by Women (1994), Coleman Barks in Naked Song: Lalla (1992), and K.C.I.E. Sir George Grierson in Lalla-Vakyani or The Wise Sayings of Lal-Ded, A Mystic Poetess of Ancient Kashmir (1920)

QUESTION: 27

Consider the following statements about Elephants in India:
1. The Asiatic elephant is smaller in size than its African counterpart.
2. Elephant has been declared the National Heritage Animal of India by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
3. The Gaj Yatra is conducted to generate support for Right of Passage for elephants.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Both types of elephant are members of the same taxonomical family, elephantidae, but are of a different genus; elephas maximus (Asian elephants), Loxodonta africana (African savanna elephants) and Loxodonta cyclotis (African Forest Elephant). The African elephant is significantly larger, with bulls growing up to 4 m tall. The biggest Asian males reach no more than 3.5 m.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Elephant has been declared the National Heritage Animal of India by the MoEFCC in 2010.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Led by partners Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) and International Fund for Animal Welfare (IFAW), Gaj Yatra is the biggest event ever planned around India’s National Heritage Animal – the Asian elephant. It will move through 12 elephant range States over the next few months, generating a groundswell of popular and policy support to help secure Right of Passage for elephants through 101 vital migratory corridors mapped across India.
QUESTION: 28

Which of the following organisations publishes the ‘Inclusive Development Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?

Solution:
  • The Inclusive Development Index (IDI) is an annual assessment of 103 countries is released by the World Economic Forum. The index measures the countries performance on eleven dimensions of economic progress in addition to GDP. It has 3 pillars; growth and development; inclusion and; inter generational equity – sustainable stewardship of natural and financial resources.
  • The index has also classified the countries into five sub-categories in terms of the five-year trend of their overall Inclusive Development Growth score — receding, slowly receding, stable, slowly advancing and advancing. Despite its low overall score, India is among the ten emerging economies with ‘advancing’ trend. Only two advanced economies have shown ‘advancing’ trend. Recently, India was ranked at the 62nd place among emerging economies on an Inclusive Development Index.
QUESTION: 29

Consider the following treaties and associated signatories:
1. Treaty of Salbai: Nizam of Hyderabad and East India Company
2. Treaty of Seringapatnam: Hyder Ali and East India Company
3. Treaty of Allahabad: Shah Alam II and East India Company.

Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?

Solution:
  • The Treaty of Salbai was signed on 17 May 1782, by representatives of the Maratha Empire and the British East India Company after long negotiations to settle the outcome of the First Anglo-Maratha War. Under its terms, the Company retained control of Salsette and Broach and acquired guarantees that the Marathas would defeat Hyder Ali of Mysore and retake territories in the Carnatic. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
  • The Treaty of Seringapatam was signed on 18 March 1792 at the end of the Third Anglo-Mysore War. Its signatories included Lord Cornwallis on behalf of the British East India Company, representatives of the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Maratha Empire, and Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysore. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on August 12, 1765, between Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and Robert Clive as a result of the Battle of Buxar. With this treaty, East India Company got a strong political footing in India. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
QUESTION: 30

"These are a collection of prose commentaries attached to the Vedas and extensively cover the various aspects of sacrifice."

Which type of sacred Indian literature has been referred to in the passage given above?

Solution:
  • Brahmanas are a number of prose commentaries attached to the Vedas, the earliest writings of Hinduism, explaining their significance as used in ritual sacrifices and the symbolic import of the priests’actions.
  • The main content of the Brahmanas is to specify prescriptions(Vidhi) and proscriptions(Nishedha) while performing yagas.
  • All Vedas, in course of time, gave rise to Brahmanas.
  • The Brahmanas are prose explanations of the Samhita (a collection of hymns or sacred formulas) portions of Vedas. They detail every possible aspect of the sacrifice, from the configuration of bricks for the altar, to the materials to be used for sacrifice, to the amount of grass one should strew on the ground, to the size of the spoon used to ladle clarified butter into the fire,etc.
  • Appended to the Brahmanas are chapters written in similar language and style, but with a more philosophical content, which specifically instruct that the matter of these chapters should be taught only in the forest, away from the village.
    ⇒ Those later works, called Aranyakas, served as a link between the Brahmanas and the Upanishads, the speculative philosophical texts that constitute the latest genre of Vedic literature. In these two categories of literature, the emphasis shifts from the power of the sacrifice to speculation on the power behind the sacrifice.
  • Because the Upanishads constitute the concluding portions of the Vedas, they are called vedanta (“the conclusion of the Vedas”), and they serve as the foundational texts in the theological discourses of many Hindu traditions that are also known as Vedanta.
  • Purana, (Sanskrit: “Ancient”) refers to a number of popular encyclopaedic collections of myth, legend, and genealogy, varying greatly as to date and origin. There are traditionally 18 Puranas, but there are several different lists of the 18, as well as some lists of more or fewer than 18.
    ⇒ The earliest Puranas, composed perhaps between 350 and 750 CE, are the Brahmanda, Devi, Kurma, Markandeya, Matsya, Vamana, Varaha, Vayu, and Vishnu. The next earliest, composed between 750 and 1000, are the Agni, Bhagavata, Bhavishya, Brahma, Brahmavaivarta, Devibhagavata, Garuda, Linga, Padma, Shiva, and Skanda. Finally, the most recent, composed between 1000 and 1500, are the Kalika, Kalki, Mahabhagavata, Naradiya, and Saura.
QUESTION: 31

Which of the following is not the objective of National Water Mission?

Solution:
  • The main objective of the National Water Mission is “conservation of water, minimizing wastage and ensuring its more equitable distribution both across and within states through integrated water resources development and management”.

The five identified goals of the mission are:
(a) comprehensive water database in public domain and assessment of impact of climate change on water resource
(b) promotion of citizen and state action for water conservation, augmentation and preservation
(c) focused attention to vulnerable areas including over-exploited areas
(d) increasing water use efficiency by 20 per cent
(e) promotion of basin level integrated water resources management.

QUESTION: 32

Which of the following can be produced by Industrial Fermentation process?
1. Antibiotics
2. Vinegar
3. Enzymes
4. Single Cell Protein

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Fermentation is a chemical process by which molecules such as glucose are broken down anaerobically. Industrial fermentation is the intentional use of fermentation by microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi and insect cells, to make products useful to humans. Fermented products have applications as food as well as in general industry. Industrial fermentation processes begin with suitable microorganisms and specified conditions, such as careful adjustment of nutrient concentration. The products are of many types: alcohol, glycerol, and carbon dioxide from yeast fermentation of various sugars; butyl alcohol, acetone, lactic acid, monosodium glutamate, and acetic acid from various bacteria; and citric acid, gluconic acid, and small amounts of antibiotics, vitamin B12, and riboflavin (vitamin B2) from mold fermentation. Ethyl alcohol produced via the fermentation of starch or sugar is an important source of liquid bio fuel. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • Enzyme Production: Enzymes are proteins, which act as catalysts. Enzymes lower the energy required for a reaction to occur, without being used up in the reaction. Fermentation involves the use of microorganisms, like bacteria and yeast to produce the enzymes. There are two methods of fermentation used to produce enzymes. These are submerged fermentation and solid-state fermentation. Submerged fermentation involves the production of enzymes by microorganisms in a liquid nutrient media. Solid- state fermentation is the cultivation of microorganisms, and hence enzymes on a solid substrate. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Single Cell Protein: Single-cell proteins are the dried cells of microorganism, which are used as protein supplement in human foods or animal feeds. The production of single cell protein takes place in a fermentation process. This is done by selected strains of microorganisms which are multiplied on suitable raw materials in technical cultivation process directed to the growth of the culture and the cell mass followed by separation processes. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Vinegar production: Vinegar is the product of a two-stage fermentation. In the first stage, yeast convert sugars into ethanol anaerobically, while in the second ethanol is oxidized to acetic (ethanoic) acid aerobically by bacteria of the genera Acetobacter and Gluconobacter. Hence, option 2 is correct.
QUESTION: 33

Energy Efficiency revolving Fund has been constituted by Energy Efficiency Services Ltd (EESL) and

Solution:
  • The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has granted $13 million to the government-owned Energy Efficiency Services Ltd (EESL) to set up an energy efficiency revolving fund (EERF). The fund seeks to support investments in new, innovative and scalable business models. The fund aims to expand and sustain investments in the energy efficiency market in India, build market diversification, and scale up existing technologies.
  • EESL is under the administration of Ministry of Power and is working towards main streaming energy Efficiency. It is a joint venture of Power sector PSUs.
QUESTION: 34

Consider the following statements:
1. The All India Tiger Estimation by National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a quadrennial census.
2. There has been a consistent increase in number of tigers in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct: India conducts the All India Tiger Estimation every four years. It is conducted by the National Tiger Conservation Authority. Three cycles of the estimation have already been completed in 2006, 2010 and 2014. These estimates showed estimates of 1411, 1706 and 2226 tigers respectively. Thus, there has been a consistent increase in number of tigers as per the the All- India Tiger Estimation in the last decade.

QUESTION: 35

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)?
1. It is a government enterprise under the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. It provides financial assistance for procurement of raw materials to small industries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC), is an ISO 9001-2015 certified Government of India Enterprise under Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • NSIC has been working to promote, aid and foster the growth of micro, small and medium enterprises in the country. Its mission is “To promote and support Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) Sector” by providing integrated support services encompassing Marketing, Technology, Finance and other services. NSIC operates through countrywide network of offices and Technical Centres in the Country. NSIC's Raw Material Assistance Scheme aims at helping Small Enterprises by way of financing the purchase of Raw Material (both indigenous & imported). The salient features are:
    (a) Financial Assistance for procurement of Raw Materials upto 90 days. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    (b) Bulk purchase of basic raw materials at competitive rates.
  • NSIC operates through countrywide network of offices and Technical Centres in the Country. In addition, NSIC has set up Training cum Incubation Centre managed by professional manpower.
QUESTION: 36

Consider the following statements regarding Desertification in India:
1. More than half of the country's land is reeling under land degradation.
2. India is committed to achieving land degradation neutral status by 2030.
3. ISRO has prepared the Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Desertification is a form of land degradation where fertile land gradually deteriorates into a wasteland leading to loss of vegetation and wildlife. The main factors responsible for desertification in India are the extension of cultivation in marginal lands, inadequate soil and water conservation measures, intensive cropping systems and poor irrigation management and over exploitation of ground water.
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Recent analysis reveals that the area under desertification in India is increasing with 29.32 percent of the Total Geographic Area (TGA) of the country found to be undergoing land degradation/desertification and 23.95 percent of it is contributed by the states of Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Jammu & Kashmir, Karnataka, Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and  Telangana.
  • Statement 2 is correct: India is signatory to the United Nations Convention on Combating Desertification (UNCCD). It is committed to combat desertification and land degradation and intends to achieve land degradation neutral status by 2030.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The desertification and land degradation status maps of the entire country have been compiled in the form of an Atlas for easy reference for use by concerned policy makers, planners, managers and researchers by Space Applications Centre, Ahmedabad of ISRO in collaboration with MoEFCC.
QUESTION: 37

The Supreme Court is authorized to grant special leave to appeal from judgment passed by other judicial bodies. Consider the following statements regarding 'Appeal by special leave':
1. It can be granted in final judgements only.
2. It can be granted against any tribunal except military tribunals.
3. It is limited to only constitutional matters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Appeal by Special Leave The Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). This provision contains the four aspects as under:

  • It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
  • It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • It may be related to any matter—constitutional, civil, criminal, income tax, labour, revenue, advocates, etc. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • It can be granted against any court or tribunal and not necessarily against a high court (of course, except a military court). Hence statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION: 38

Consider the following regions:
1. Scotland
2. Wales
3. Republic of Ireland.
4. Northern Ireland

Which of the regions given above are part of the United Kingdom (UK)?

Solution:
  • The United Kingdom is a state made up of the countries of England, Wales and Scotland, as well as Northern Ireland. Apart from England, These countries have their own devolved governments, each with varying powers
  • Ireland(also known as Republic of Ireland) is a sovereign state which is a part of European Union(EU) and is not a part of UK.
  • During Brexit Voting, England and Wales votes in favour of exit from the EU. Scotland and Northern Ireland voted in favour of stay in the EU.
  • Geographically, The United Kingdom includes the island of Great Britain, the north-eastern part of the island of Ireland and many smaller islands. Northern Ireland is the only part of the United Kingdom that shares a land border with another sovereign state—the Republic of Ireland.
QUESTION: 39

"This movement was launched by Haipou Jadonang. It aimed to reform and popularize traditional religion by abolishing irrational customs and superstitions. This was done through preaching a new cult of 'Heraka.' It also called for the establishment of 'Naga Raj' by driving out outsiders such as the Britishers and the Kukis."

Which of the following movements has been described in the passage given above?

Solution:
  • The nomenclature Zeliangrong is a collective ethnocultural entity of the people who speak the dialect of Zemi, Liangmei and Rongmei (Kabui) including Puimei tribes of North East India. So, it is a combined name of kindred tribes of the Zemi, the Liangmei and the Rongmei (Kabui) including the Puimei with the prefixes taken together to form the term 'ZELIANGRONG' (Ze+Liang+Rong).
  • It was Haipou Jadonang who started a movement which later came to be known as the Zeliangrong Movement, in 1925.
  • The aims and objectives can be broadly dividedas:
    (a) Reformation of traditional religion by abolishing irrational customs and superstitions.
    (b) Establishment of ethnic identity by integrating tribes such as Zemi, Liangmei, and Rongmei (Kabui) including Puimei.
    (c) Establishment of 'Makam Gwangdi' or proclamation of 'Naga Raj' by driving out the outsiders such as the British and the Kukis.
  • It was a movement to popularize the traditional religion by preaching a new cult of 'Heraka'. To Jadonang, Heraka meant a new cult believing in one high God in place of many, removing superstitions, organizing temples, introducing hymns and discourses and uniting the tribes to establish an independent Kingdom.
  • The outbreak of the movement was a renaissance of the Zeliangrong people because it touched almost all aspects of their collective life. However, Jadonang was arrested and imprisoned by the British for proclaiming himself as the king and for declaring the impending end of the British Raj. This made him more popular in the eyes of his people. He was then released but re-arrested and finally hanged on 29th August 1931 on the alleged murder of four Manipuri traders.
  • Jadonang was succeeded by his disciple Gaidinliu when she was barely 17 years old. She had joined the Heraka religious movement when she was 13. Within the Heraka cult, she came to be considered an incarnation of a goddess. She used Gandhiji's name and Jadonang's songs in order to mobilize the people. She propagated that the British would be soon driven out with the help of Gandhiji and Nehru.
  • She urged the people not to pay taxes and not to work for the British which were the practices of the freedom struggle at that time. She even went underground and led many attacks on the British administration. She was arrested in 1932 and sentenced to life imprisonment after a trial. From 1933 to 1947 she stayed in Guwahati, Shillong, Aizawl and Turajails.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru described Gaidinliu as a daughter of the hills and he gave her the title 'Rani' or Queen of her people. After the Interim Government of India was set up in 1946, Rani Gaidinliu was released from Tura jail in 1947, having spent 14 years in various prisons.
QUESTION: 40

Which of the following have been classified as nutri-cereals by the Government of India?
1. Sorghum
2. Oats
3. Finger Millet
4. Pearl Millet
5. Buckwheat

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • National Food Security Mission programme is being implemented in 638 districts of 29 states of the country for increasing the production and productivity of food grain crops (rice, wheat, pulses, coarse cereals & Nutri-cereals). From the year 2018-19, NFSM-Nutri-Cereals are being implemented in 202 districts of 14 states (Jowar in 88 districts of 10 states, Bajra in 88 districts of 9 states, Ragi in 44 districts of 8 states and other millets in 43 districts of 7 states). The North-eastern states, J&K and Himachal Pradesh have given flexibility for implementing the NFSM- Nutri-cereals programme.
  • Recognizing millets’ anti-diabetic properties and other nutritious characteristics, the Centre has notified it as "Nutri-Cereals" for production, consumption and trade.
  • The list of “Nutri-Cereals” includes ‘Kuttu’ (Buckwheat) whose flour is commonly used during ‘navratras’ or during any religious fasting day in many parts of the country. The other millets in the category of “Nutri-Cereals” include Sorghum (Jowar), Pearl Millet (Bajra), Finger Millet (Ragi/Mandua), Minor Millets i.e. Foxtail Millet (Kangani/Kakun), Proso Millet (Cheena), Kodo Millet (Kodo), Barnyard Millet (Sawa/Sanwa/ Jhangora), Little Millet (Kutki) and Ameranthus (Chaulai).
QUESTION: 41

Consider the following chemical compounds:
1. Ammonium nitrate
2. Nitroglycerin
3. Nitrocellulose

Which of the compounds given above is/are used in manufacturing of explosives?

Solution:
  • Ammonium nitrate: Ammonium nitrate is the ammonium salt of nitric acid. It is commercially available both as a colorless crystalline solid and processed into prills for specific applications. It is highly soluble in water. It has a role as a fertilizer, an explosive and an oxidising agent. It is not, on its own, an explosive, but it readily forms explosive mixtures with varying properties when combined with primary explosives such as azides or with fuels such as aluminium powder or fueloil.
  • Nitroglycerin: Nitroglycerin is a dense, colorless, oily, explosive liquid. In medicine It has been used as a potent vasodilator (dilation of the vascular system) to treat heart conditions such as chronic heart failures. It is also used as a an explosive that is so unstable that the slightest jolt, impact or friction can cause it to spontaneously detonate. Since the molecule contains oxygen, nitrogen and carbon, when it explodes a lot of energy is released as the atoms rearrange to form new molecules with strong, stable bonds. It is the speed of the decomposition reaction which makes nitroglycerin such a violent explosive.
  • Nitrocellulose: Nitrocellulose, also called cellulose nitrate is a mixture of nitric esters of cellulose. It is a highly flammable compound and is the main ingredient of modern gunpowder. It is also employed in certain lacquers and paints. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries it was the basis of the earliest man- made fibres and plastic materials.
QUESTION: 42

Consider the following statements about cold water corals:
1. Unlike warm water corals, cold water corals do not need sunlight to survive.
2. Cold water corals do not form coral reefs.
3. They inhabit the ocean only near the surface.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Many of the known coral species exist in the dark, cold waters of the deep sea. These corals, referred toas ‘deep-sea‘ or ‘cold-water‘ corals, form complex structures that provide shelter and food for vast numbers of fish and invertebrate species.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Unlike tropical corals, cold-water corals don't have symbiotic algae living in their polyps so they don‘t need sunlight to survive. They feed solely by capturing food particles from the surrounding water. Their polyps tend to be much bigger than tropicalcorals.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: Deep-sea corals grow slowly (5-25 mm a year), but over time they form extensive reefs. The largest reef yet discovered, off the coast of Norway's Rost Island, is 40 km long and 2-3 km wide. Deep reefs take tens of thousands of years to grow, and many deep-sea corals can live for centuries. The longevity and slow growth rate of deep-sea corals make them extremely slow to recover from disturbance.
  • Statement 3 is not correct: Cold-water coral reefs are commonly found where current flow is accelerated. They are found on the continental shelf, and also in deep-sea areas with topographic highs, such as seamounts, mounds, ridges, and pinnacles.Other information on cold water corals (also known as deep water corals):
  • Deep-sea coral reefs are made up of only a few coral species but they provide a home for many other animals, including sea fans, sponges, worms, starfish, brittle stars, sea urchins, crustaceans, and fish.
  • The number of invertebrate species on reefs in the Northeast Atlantic Ocean can be as high as that found in shallow-water tropical reefs.
  • They grow in all the world‘s ocean basins, where they form deep-water havens on continental shelves and slopes, in ocean canyons, and on tallsea mounts.
  • Damage from fishing gear, especially equipment that trawls the sea bottom, poses a major threat to deep- sea corals. Decades of bottom trawling has been shown to actually smooth out the sea-floor, changing the ecosystem entirely, in addition to destroying deep-seacoral.
  • Oil and gas exploration and development also lead to coral reef destruction, particularly when accidents occur. Deep-sea coral were damaged by the Deep Water Horizon oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico. Climate change and, especially, ocean acidification, are additional problems. Ocean acidification occurs when the ocean absorbs excess carbon dioxide in the air, changing the ocean‘s chemistry and causing slower growth and weaker skeletons in corals.
QUESTION: 43

With reference to the Kuka movement, consider the following statements:
1. It was named after the village where it first started.
2. Baba Ram Singh served as a chief of the Kukas.
3. The Kuka followers did not associate themselves with civil disobedience against British rule.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Kuka Movement marked the first major reaction of the people in the Punjab to the new political order initiated by the British after 1849.
  • The Namdhari Movement, of which the Kuka Movement was the most important phase, aimed at overthrowing the British rule.The Namdharis were also known as ―Kukas‖because of their trademark style of reciting the ―Gurbani‖ (Sayings/Teachings of the Guru). This style was in a high-pitched voice called―Kook‖in Punjabi. Thus,the Namdhariswere also called ―Kukas‖.
  • Satguru Ram Singh, son of a poor carpenter, who was born on 3rd February, 1816 in a small village of Bhaini, around 7 kilometres away from Ludhiana, founded the Namdhari Sect on 12th April, 1857 at Bhaini Sahib. He asked his followers to boycott everything which bore the stamp of the British Government.
  • In course of time, Baba Ram Singh became a chief of Kukas. He would go about surrounded by horsemen and held his court every day. He appointed Governors and Deputy Governors to organize Kukas in different districts of the Punjab. He also inspired young men by giving them military training.
  • The Kuka Movement made the people aware of their serfdom and bondage. It evoked the feelings of self respect and sacrifice for the country. Within a few years, the followers of the Kuka Movement increased manifold.
  • They called for boycott of educational institutions of British and laws established by them. They were rigid in their clothing and wore only hand-spun white attire. The Kuka followers actively propagated the civil disobedience.
QUESTION: 44

Stockholm agreement, sometimes mentioned in the news recently, is related to:

Solution:
  • Stockholm agreement is an outcome of UN-mediated talks held in Stockholm in December, 2018 between Yemen‘s Houthi rebels and its internationally recognized government.
  • The parties have agreed to withdraw their troops from Hodeidah and for the port to be managed and monitored with UN support, which will enable the import of vital provisions to the country.
  • Some key elements of agreement include: a prisoner swap, the creation of a demilitarized zone around the country‘s vital Red Sea trade corridor through a series of withdrawals by rival Yemeni forces, the formation of a committee to discuss the future of the contested city of Taiz.
  • Yemen Crisis: The Yemeni Civil War is an ongoing conflict that began in 2015 between two factions claiming to constitute the Yemeni government. One is Yemen‘s Shia Houthi rebels, loyal to the former President. The other being loyal to the current government. The Houthi forces captured huge swathes of territory, significantly the Yemen capital Sana'a. Saudi Arabia led military intervention in Yemen began over 3 years ago to restore the Yemeni government which is overthrown by Houthi. The Saudi-led coalition is backed by the U.S.
QUESTION: 45

Which of the following subjects comes under the State List of Schedule VII under the Indian Constitution?

Solution:
  • Seventh Schedule under Article 246 provides for division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). Presently, the Union List contains 100 subjects (originally 97), the state list contains 61 subjects (originally 66) and the concurrent list contains 52 subjects (originally 47)
  • State list - Public health and sanitation
  • Union list -Railways
  • Concurrent list - Education and Marriage and divorce
QUESTION: 46

Which of the following electrical appliances have been included under the Standards & Labelling Programme of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) for assigning star ratings based on their energy efficiency metrics?
1. LED Lamps
2. Microwave ovens
3. Washing machines
4. Color Televisions

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Recently Ministry of Power said that microwave ovens and washing machines (water consumption has been included in it) will now be assigned star ratings based on their energy efficiency metrics. Initially, the program for the above two appliances will be implemented on a voluntary basis and will be valid up to December 31, 2020.
  • About Standards & Labelling Programme:
    The Standards & Labelling Programme is one of the major thrust areas of BEE. A key objective of this scheme is to provide the consumer an informed choice about the energy saving and thereby the cost saving potential of the relevant marketed product. The scheme targets display of energy performance label son high energy end use equipment & appliances and lays down minimum energy performance standards. The star labelling program has been formulated by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) as part of its mandate, under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
  • Mandatory appliances: 1. Room Air Conditioners 2. Frost Free Refrigerators 3. Tubular Florescent Lamp 4. Distribution Transformer 5. Room Air Conditioner (Casettes, Floor Standing) 6. Direct Cool Refrigerator 7. Color TV 8. Electric Geysers 9. Variable Capacity Inverter- Air conditioners 10. LED Lamps
  • Voluntary Appliances: 1. Induction Motors 2. Pump Sets 3. Ceiling Fans 4. LPG- Stoves 5. Washing Machine 6. Computer(Notebooks/ Laptops) 7. Ballast ( Electronic/ Magnetic) 8. Office equipment's (Printer, Copier, Scanner) 9. Diesel Engine Driven Mono-set Pumps 10. Solid State-Inverter 11. Diesel Generator Sets
QUESTION: 47

Consider the following statements about Kelp:
1. They are large brown algae seaweeds which grow in shallow oceans.
2. It has a high rate of growth in contrast to corals.
3. Kelps do not need sunlight to produce their own food.
​Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:
  • Kelps are large brown algae that live in cool, relatively shallow waters close to the shore. They grow in dense groupings much like a forest on land. These underwater towers of kelp provide food and shelter for thousands of fish, invertebrates, and marine mammal species. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Kelp forests harbor a greater variety and higher diversity of plants and animals than almost any other ocean community. Many organisms use the thick blades as a safe shelter for their young from predators or even rough storms.
  • Among the many mammals and birds that use kelp forests for protection or feeding are seals, sea lions, whales, sea otters, gulls, terns, snowy egrets, great blue herons, cormorants, and shorebirds.
  • In ideal conditions, kelp can grow up to 18 inches per day, and in stark contrast to the colorful and slow- growing corals, the giant kelp canopies tower above the ocean floor. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • These dense canopies of algae generally occur in cold, nutrient-rich waters. Because of their dependency upon light for photosynthesis, kelp forests form in shallow open waters and are rarely found deeper than 49-131 feet. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
QUESTION: 48

Which of the following are the members of Defence Planning Committee?
1. National Security Advisor
2. Secretary of Department of Expenditure
3. Union Minister of Defence
4. Foreign Secretary of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
  • The Defence Planning Committee is a senior decision-making body created in April 2018 by the Central Government to facilitate "comprehensive" planning for the defence forces besides focusing on military doctrines to deal with emerging security challenges for India.
  • Mandates: Prepare a draft National Security Strategy Develop a capability development plan Work on defence diplomacy issues Improving defence manufacturing ecosystem in India.
  • DPC would also analyse all inputs relating to the defence planning and foreign policy imperatives. The committee would focus on the defence acquisition and infrastructure development plans including the 15 year long integrated perspective plan. The committee will work for the development of Indian defence industry and technology advancements.
  • Structure: DPC is chaired by the National Security Advisor of India and the Chief of Integrated Staff in the Ministry of Defence will be the member secretary of DPC, and his headquarters will be the secretariat for the committee. The DPC will submit its reports to the Defence Minister of India.
  • Members: DPC consists of
    (a) National Security Advisor of India as Chairman,
    (b) Foreign Secretary of India, Defence Secretary of India
    (c) three service chiefs Chief of the Army Staff (COAS) Chief of the Naval Staff(CNS)
    (d) Chief of the Air Staff (CAS)
    (e) Department of Expenditure Secretary — Chief of Integrated Defence Staff.
  • Integrated Defence Staff (IDS): The Integrated Defence Staff (IDS) is an organisation responsible for fostering coordination and enabling prioritisation across the different branches of the Indian Armed Forces. It is composed of representatives from the Indian Army, Indian Navy, Indian Air Force, Ministry of External Affairs, Defence Research and Development Organisation, Ministry of Defence and Ministry of Finance. The IDS is headed by Chief of Integrated Defence Staff along with Deputy Chiefs of Integrated Defence Staff. The body advises and assists the chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. It was established on 23 November 2001 after the recommendations of the Kargil Review Committee.
QUESTION: 49

Consider the following statements about terrestrial and Jovian planets:
1. The density of jovian planets is more than that of terrestrial planets due to their large sizes.
2. Jovian planets have more natural satellites as compared to terrestrial planets.
3. The Jovian and terrestrial planets are separated by the asteroid be lt.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is not correct. The density of jovian planets is less than terrestrial planets because the jovian planets are gas giants whereas the terrestrial planets are made up of rocks. For comparison, the average density of Earth is 5.5 gm/cc compared to Saturn's 0.687gm/cc.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The Jovian planets are characterised by larger number of moons compared to fewer moons for the terrestrial planets due to their large gravitational pulls.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The terrestrial planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars) are closer to the sun and separated by the Jovian planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune) by the asteroid be lt.
QUESTION: 50

With reference to the writs of Prohibition and Certiorari, consider the following statements:
1. Both the writs can be issued only against the judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
2. Writ of Prohibition is issued before the order is made, while the writ of Certiorari is issued only after the order has been made.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Earlier, both the writs of Prohibition and Certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. But, later judgements in case of writ of Certiorari, obliterated the distinction between administrative and quasi-judicial bodies. This means that the Courts may quash the so-called administrative decision by the means of a writ of Certiorari i.e. writ of certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting rights of individuals.
  • Statement 2 is correct: There is a fundamental distinction between writs of prohibition and certiorari. They are issued at different stages of proceedings . When an inferior court takes up a hearing for a matter over which it has no jurisdiction , the person against whom hearing is taken can move the superior court for writ of prohibition on which order would be issued forbidding the inferior court from continuing the proceedings . On the other hand if the court hears the matter and gives the decision, the party would need to move to superior court to quash the decision / order on the ground of want of jurisdiction. Certiorari is issued to quash the order or decision of the tribunal while Prohibition is issued to prohibit the tribunal from making the ultra vires order ordecision.
QUESTION: 51

Consider the following statements regarding Central Water Commission:
1. It is a statutory body constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
2. It is responsible for initiating and coordinating schemes for conservation and utilization of water resources throughout the country.
3. It acts as a Central Bureau of Information for Hydro-meteorological data and Water resources utilisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: Central Water Commission is a premier Technical Organization of India in the field of Water Resources and is currently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Government of India.
Statement 2 and 3 are correct: The major activities of the Commission include -:
• The CWC is charged with the general responsibility of initiating, coordinating and furthering in consultation with the State Governments concerned, schemes for the control, conservation and utilization of water resources in the respective state for the purpose of flood management, irrigation, drinking water supply and water power generation.
• To undertake necessary surveys and investigations as and when so required, to prepare designs and schemes for the development of river valleys in respect of power generation, flood management, environmental management, reclamation of alkaline and saline soils, drainage and for drinking water supply;
• To undertake construction work of any river valley development scheme on behalf of the Government of India or State Government concerned;
• To advise the Government of India and the concerned State Governments on the basin-wise development of water resources;
• To collect, coordinate, analyse, and publish and to act as the Central Bureau of Information broadly in respect of the following:
(i) Hydro-meteorological data,
(ii) Water resources availability and its utilisation.

QUESTION: 52

Which of the following can be ground for disqualification of members under 'Anti- defection law'?
(1) If he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected.
(2) If any independently elected member joins any political party.
(3) If a nominated member joins any political party within six months of his becoming a member of the house.
(4) If he is involved in the campaigning for other political parties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Disqualification on Ground of Defection: The Constitution also lays down that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament if he is so disqualified on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. A member incurs disqualification under the defection law:
• if he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House; Hence statement 1 is correct.
• if he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party;
• if any independently elected member joins any political party; Hence statement 2 is correct. and
• if any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.
Hence statement 3 is not correct.
The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha (and not by the president of India). In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Chairman/Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.

QUESTION: 53

With reference to Statutory Grants under Article 275 of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
(1) It empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state.
(2) It is given to states on the recommendation of Finance Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Besides sharing of taxes between the Centre and the states, the Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to the states from the Central resources. There are two types of grants-in-aid, viz, statutory grants and discretionary grants.
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state. Also, different sums may be fixed for different states. These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India every year.
• Statement 2 is correct: The statutory grants under Article 275 (both general and specific) are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.

QUESTION: 54

With reference to the Buddha's teachings, the term patichcha-samuppada refers to

Solution:

An important aspect of the Buddha‘s teaching was patichcha-samuppada—the law of dependent origination.
• This was both an explanation of all phenomena as well as an explanation of dukkha (suffering). The elements of this law were presented as a wheel consisting of 12 nidanas, one leading to the next: ignorance (avijja), formations (sankhara), consciousness (vinnana), mind and body (nama-rupa), the six senses (salayatana), sense contact (phassa), feeling (vedana), craving (tanha), attachment (upadana), becoming (bhava), birth (jati), and old age and death (jara-marana).
The nidanas were later divided into  three  groups pertaining to the  past, present, and future lives, and patichcha-samuppada therefore also became an explanation of how the origins of rebirth lay in ignorance.

QUESTION: 55

According to Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, visible light can be deflected by which of the following?
(1) Electric field
(2) Magnetic field
(3) Gravity
Select the correct answer using code given below.

Solution:

Visible light is a form of electromagnetic (EM) radiation, as are radio waves, infrared radiation, ultraviolet radiation, X-rays and microwaves. Generally, visible light is defined as the wavelengths that are visible to most human eyes. Effect of electric and magnetic fields: EM waves travel with the velocity of light in vacuum. They are deflected neither by the electric field, nor by the magnetic field as they do not contain charged particles. So visible light being part of EM waves are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields. The Alpha and Beta radiations are deflected by electric and magnetic fields as they contain charged particles. Hence, options 1 and 2 are not correct.
Effect of gravity: Newton thought that only objects with mass could produce a gravitational force  on each other. According to Newton‘s theory, the force of gravity should not affect light. Einstein discovered that the situation is a bit more complicated than that. First he discovered that gravity is produced by a curved space-time. Then Einstein theorized that the mass of an object actually curves space-time. Mass is linked to space in a way that physicists today still do not completely understand. However, we know that the stronger the gravitational field of an object, the more the space around the object is warped. In other words, straight lines are no longer straight if exposed to a strong gravitational field; instead, they are curved. Since light ordinarily travels on a straight-line path, light follows a curved path if it passes  through a strong gravitational field. This is what is meant by "curved space," and this is why light becomes trapped in a black hole. In 1919, a team led by Sir Arthur Eddington proved Einstein‘s theory when they observed the bending of star light when it traveled close to the Sun. This was the first successful prediction of Einstein‘s General Theory of Relativity. Hence, option 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 56

With reference to mugger crocodile, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
(1) It is a freshwater species of crocodile.
(2) It has been listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List.
(3) In India, it is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 

Solution:

The mugger crocodile, also called marsh crocodile or broad-snouted crocodile, is a species (Crocodylus palustris) native to freshwater habitats from southern Iran and Pakistan to the Indian subcontinent and Sri Lanka. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Government has started evacuating muggers from two ponds on the Sardar Sarovar Dam premises on the Narmada, to facilitate a seaplane service at the Statue of Unity.
Already extinct in Bhutan and Myanmar, the mugger has been listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List since 1982. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
In India, it is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Among the six schedules in the Act, Schedule I and part II of Schedule II provide the highest degrees of protection to listed species, with the most stringent penalties for offenders. Hence statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 57

Which of the following are eligible to deposit gold under the Gold Monetisation Scheme, 2015?
(1) Charitable institutions
(2) Central and State Government
(3) Hindu Undivided Families
(4) Mutual Funds registered under SEBI Regulations
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 09 January 2019 has changed its Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS), 2015 to make charitable institutions and the government entities eligible to deposit under the scheme.
In addition to existing resident individual (Individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), Proprietorship & Partnership firms, Trusts including Mutual Funds/Exchange Traded Funds registered under SEBI (Mutual Fund) Regulations and Companies), the scheme is now extended to charitable institutions, Central Government, State Government or any other entity owned by Central Government or State Government.
The government had launched the GMS in 2015 to mobilise the gold held by households and institutions in the country. The scheme allows banks' customers to deposit their idle gold holdings for a fixed period in return for interest in the range of 2.25-2.50%.
 

QUESTION: 58

Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri Vidya Lakshmi Karyakram:
(1) Under the karyakram an online platform has been set up for students seeking loans and scholarships.
(2) It is meant to serve only the students from rural areas.
(3) It is a Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Union Finance Minister in his budget speech for FY 2015-16 had proposed to set up a fully IT based Student Financial Aid Authority to administer and monitor Scholarship as well Educational Loan Schemes, through the Pradhan Mantri Vidya Lakshmi Karyakram. The IT based mechanism under the Pradhan Mantri Vidya Lakshmi Karyakram is expected to provide to students a single window electronic platform for Scholarships and Educational Loans. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It was set up with a view to enable all poor and middle class students to pursue higher education of their choice without any constraint of funds and to ensure that no student misses out on higher education for lack of funds. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Vidya Lakshmi is a first of its kind portal for students seeking Education Loan. This portal has been developed under the guidance of Department of Financial Services, (Ministry of Finance) , Department of Higher Education (Ministry of Human Resource Development) and Indian Banks Association (IBA).The portal has been developed and being maintained by NSDL e-Governance Infrastructure Limited. Students can view, apply and track the education loan applications to banks anytime, anywhere by accessing the portal. The portal also provides linkages to National Scholarship Portal. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

QUESTION: 59

Which among the following events happened earliest?

Solution:

The Indian Opinion was a newspaper established by Mohandas Gandhi in 1903. The publication was an important tool for the political movement led by Gandhi and to fight racial discrimination and win civil rights for the Indian immigrant community in South Africa.
Anti-Rowlatt Satyagraha movement was started by Gandhi Ji against The Rowlatt Act,1919. This act authorized the government to imprison even without trial. Gandhi organized mass protest at all India  level. By March 1919, the volunteers started courting arrests.
Surat Split (1907) refers to the splitting of the Indian National Congress into 'Moderates' and 'Extremists' after a violent clash at the session. The extremists were led by Lokmanya Tilak, Lajpat Rai, V. O. Chidambaram Pillai and Sri Aurobindo and the moderates were led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Pherozeshah Mehta and Surendranath Banerjee. The divided Congress re-united in the crucial Lucknow session of congress in 1916.
Muslim League, original name All India Muslim League, was a political group that led the movement calling for a separate Muslim nation to be created at the time of the partition of British India (1947). The Muslim League was founded in 1906 to safeguard the rights of Indian Muslims. At first the league was encouraged by the British and was generally favourable to their rule, but the organization adopted self-government for India as its goal in 1913. For several decades the league and its leaders, notably Mohammed Ali Jinnah, called for Hindu-Muslim unity in a united and independent India. It was not until 1940 that the league called for the formation of a Muslim state that would be separate  from the projected independent country of India. The league wanted a separate nation for India‘s Muslims because it feared that an independent India would be dominated by Hindus.

QUESTION: 60

Gene Pyramiding refers to

Solution:

Gene pyramiding refers to a method aimed at assembling multiple desirable genes from multiple parents into a single genotype. Thus it differs from multiline, where each major gene is incorporated into separate genotype and then resistant genotypes are mixed together. In pyramiding approach all major genes are incorporated in a single cultivar. Combination of several major genes for specific resistance provides protection against several new races that may develop in the pathogen. The new varieties can be developed with a contribution of 2, 3 or more major genes. Such varieties have durable resistance. Gene pyramiding approach has been used in oat against crown rust in Canada.

QUESTION: 61

With reference to the Women's Livelihood Bonds, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
(1) It aims to facilitate access to credit to individual women entrepreneurs.
(2) It has been launched by SIDBI with support from the World Bank and UN Women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

World Bank, UN Women, and Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) have joined hands to launch a new social impact bonds exclusively for women, called Women‘s Livelihood Bonds (WLBs), with an initial corpus of Rs 300 crore.
The WLBs will be unsecured, unlisted bonds and offer fixed coupon rate of 3 per cent per annum to bond investors. The proposed bond will enable individual women entrepreneurs in sectors like food processing, agriculture, services and small units to borrow around Rs 50,000 to Rs 3 lakh at an annual interest rate of around 13-14 per cent or less. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The bonds, which will have a tenure of five years, will be launched by SIDBI with the support of World Bank and UN Women. SIDBI will act as the financial intermediary and channel funds raised to women entrepreneurs through participating financial intermediaries like banks, NBFCs or microfinance institutions. Hence statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 62

With reference to Vedic tradition, the term Samavartana refers to the ceremony associated with

Solution:

The guru–shishya tradition plays an important part in the Shruti tradition of Vedic dharma. The Hindus believe that the Vedas have been handed down through the ages from guru(teacher) to shishya(student).
The Vedas themselves prescribe for a young brahmachari to be sent to a Gurukul where the Guru teaches the pupil the Vedas and Vedangas.
The term of stay varies (Manu Smriti says the term may be 12 years, 36 years or 48 years). After the stay at the Gurukul the brahmachari returns home after performing a ceremony called samavartana.
The studentship was formally brought to a close by this ceremony of Samavartana, which literally means ‗the returning home of the student‘.
It included a number of acts signifying the end of the austerities imposed upon the condition of studentship.
• First, the brahmacari was given a solemn bath, and he thus became a Snātaka.
• Second, he was given new garments, earrings, accompanied by the use of powder, perfumes, and sandalwood, etc.
• Third, a homa or sacrifice was performed with a prayer that the Snātaka will have any number of students to teach in his turn.
• Finally, donned in his new robes, he was to pay a visit to the local assembly in a chariot or on an elephant to be introduced to them as a full-fledged scholar. The student‘s return to his own home was made an occasion of great festivity.

QUESTION: 63

With reference to Asian Productivity Organization, consider the following statements:
(1) It is an inter-governmental organization for the socio-economic development of Asia and the Pacific through enhancing productivity.
(2) Its membership is open to countries in Asia and the Pacific which are members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UN ESCAP)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Asian Productivity Organization (APO) was established on 11 May 1961 as a regional inter- governmental organization comprising of 20 member countries from Asia and the Pacific. The APO headquarter is located in Tokyo, Japan. Its mission is to contribute to the socio-economic development of Asia and the Pacific through enhancing productivity. The APO is non-political, non-profit, and non- discriminatory in  character.
APO membership is open to countries in Asia and the Pacific which are members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UN ESCAP). The current membership is 20 economies, comprising Bangladesh, Cambodia, Republic of China, Fiji, Hong Kong, India, Indonesia, Islamic Republic of Iran, Japan, Republic of Korea, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Vietnam. These countries/economies pledge to assist each other in their productivity drives in a spirit of mutual cooperation by sharing knowledge, information, and experience.
As a part of Industry 4.0 activities, recently, a Demonstration project is to be undertaken on Industry 4.0 in small and medium enterprises (SMEs) across the country by National Productivity Council (NPC) in collaboration with Asian Productivity Organization (APO).
NPC under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) established a―Centre of Excellence‖ on Industry 4.0 (CoE for I4.0) in collaboration with APO, Japan with an aim to function as knowledge centre for developing an ecosystem of digital platform with special focus on MSMEs andstart-ups.

QUESTION: 64

With reference to Global Digital Health Partnership, consider the following statements:
(1) It is a partnership of governments and the World Health Organization for implementation of digital health services.
(2) First ever Global Digital Health Partnership Summit was recently hosted by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Global Digital Health Partnership (GDHP) is  a collaboration of governments and territories, government agencies and the World Health Organization, formed to support the effective implementation of digital health services. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Established in February 2018, the GDHP provides an opportunity for transformational engagement between its participants, who are striving to learn and share best practice and policy that can support their digital health systems. In addition, the GDHP provides an international platform for global collaboration and sharing of evidence to guide the delivery of better digital health services within participant countries.
The Australian Digital Health Agency is providing the secretariat services for the first eighteen months of the GDHP. Australia was the host country for the inaugural summit on February 19 and 20, 2018.
In February 2019, India hosted the ‗4th Global Digital Health Partnership Summit‘. The global intergovernmental meeting on digital health is being hosted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in collaboration with World Health Organization (WHO) and the Global Digital Health Partnership (GDHP). The GDHP facilitates global collaboration and co-operation in the implementation of digital health services. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 65

Consider the following statements with respect to EMV chip technology used in Debit and Credit cards?
(1) EMV chip technology is a global standard for card technology developed by Bank of International Settlements.
(2) When a person uses EMV card, it generates a unique encrypted code which is specific and unique to that particular transaction only.
(3) EMV chip cards are more secure than magnetic stripe cards.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

EMV chip technology is the latest global standard for card payments. EMV is an acronym for Europay Mastercard and Visa, who developed this technology. EMV cards are chip-based payment cards with enhanced safety features that are designed to prevent fraudulent practices such as card skimming and cloning. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Old credit and debit cards store data on the magnetic stripe found on the reverse side of card. This makes it easy for a fraudster to copy data when a person swipe the card. EMV cards, in contrast, store data on a microprocessor chip embedded in the card. This means that the card generates fresh user data every time a person transacts, making it impossible for fraudsters to copy original data from the card. The other feature of EMV cards is that they use both the card and a secret PIN to complete a transaction. When a person use EMV credit or debit card at a terminal, it generates a unique encrypted code called a token or cryptogram, which is unique and specific only to that transaction. Hence, statements 2 and 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following has/have been provided under Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA)?
(1) Gram Sabha shall be responsible for the identification of beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other programmes.
(2) Gram Sabha shall be consulted before making the acquisition of land in the Scheduled Areas for development projects.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
 

Solution:

PESA exclusively empowers Gram Sabha to: (i) safeguard and preserve the:- (a) traditions and customs of the people, and their cultural identity, (b) community resources, and (c) customary mode of dispute resolution(ii) carry out executive functions to:-(a) approve plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development;(b) identify persons as beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other programmes; Hence statement 1 is correct. (c) issue a certificate of utilisation of funds by the Panchayat for the plans; programmes and projects
PESA empowers Gram Sabha/ Panchayat at appropriate level with:
• right to mandatory consultation in land acquisition, resettlement and rehabilitation of displaced persons: Hence statement 2 is correct.
• panchayat at an appropriate level is entrusted with planning and • management of minor water bodies
mandatory recommendations by Gram Sabha or Panchayat at appropriate level for prospective licenses/lease for mines and concession for the exploitation of minor minerals
• regulate sale/consumption of intoxicants
• ownership of minor forest produce
• prevent land alienation and restore alienated land
• manage village markets
• control over money lending to STs
• control over institutions and functionaries in social sector, local plans including Tribal sub plans and resources.

QUESTION: 67

In the context of market discipline in economics, Liquidity Coverage Rati ios

Solution:

The liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) refers to the proportion of highly liquid assets held by financial institutions, to ensure their ongoing ability to meet short-term obligations.
This ratio is essentially a generic stress test that aims to anticipate market-wide shocks and make sure that financial institutions possess suitable capital preservation, to ride out any short-term liquidity disruptions, that may plague the market. Hence, option (d) is correct.

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following chemical compounds is/are used to neutralize the compound injected by an ant's sting?
(1) Baking soda
(2) Dilute solution of acetic acid
(3) Zinc carbonate
Select the correct answer using code given below.

Solution:

The reaction of an acid and a base is called neutralisation. In this reaction, the acidity of an acid is neutralised by an alkali. At the same time, the alkalinity of the alkali is neutralised by the acid. A salt and water are the only products of neutralisation. When an ant bites, it injects the acidic liquid (formic acid) into the skin. The effect of the acid can be neutralised by rubbing moist baking soda (sodium hydrogencarbonate) or calamine solution, which contains zinc carbonate. Acetic acid being an acid cannot neutralise the formic acid. Hence, option (c) is correct.

QUESTION: 69

Consider the following statements:
(1) Net National Product of an economy will always be greater than its Gross National Product.
(2) In an economy, Personal Income of an individual can never be less than his Personal Disposable Income.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Gross National Product or GNP is the value of all the final goods and services that are produced by the normal residents of India and is measured at the market prices, in a year. It refers to all the economic output produced by a nation‘s normal residents, whether they are located within the national boundary or abroad. While Net National Product (NNP) = GNP- depreciation (the wear and tear of capital). Depreciation is either zero or positive. Hence, NNP can never be greater than GNP. Hence, statement 1  is not correct.
Personal Disposable Income is the income with the households after they had made personal tax payments and non-tax payments from their Personal Income. Hence, Personal Disposable Income will always be less than Personal Income. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
 

QUESTION: 70

The power to establish a common High court for two or more states is vested in

Solution:

Article 214 provides that every State shall have a High Court. However, Article 231 states that Article 214 shall not be a bar for constituting a common high court for two or more States. Only Parliament may by law establish a Common High Court for two or more States. This means that, unless Parliament by law establishes a Common High Court for two or more States, every State has to have a High Court, i.e., upon formation of a new State a new High Court is also formed. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 71

Consider the following statements regarding Thermal Equator:
(1) It refers to the zone of highest mean temperature over the Earth
(2) It is found to the north of the geographical equator.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: Thermal equator is the Zone of highest mean temperature over the Earth, either in the annual or long-term average or at a given moment.
Statement 2 is correct: On the long-term average, it is located around 5°N latitude. This position north of the geographical equator results from the generally rather higher temperature of the northern hemisphere as compared with the southern hemisphere. This is because the glaciated Antarctic continent maintains colder summers in the southern hemisphere than does the Arctic, with a much smaller land area, in the northern hemisphere.

QUESTION: 72

Consider the following statements:
(1) The Returning officer of a constituency is responsible for the conduct of the election in the constituency concerned.
(2) Respective state governments designate an officer as returning officer for each of the constituency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Returning Officer of a Parliamentary or assembly constituency is responsible for the conduct of elections in the Parliamentary or assembly constituency concerned. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an officer of the Government or a local authority as the Returning Officer for each of the assembly and parliamentary constituencies in consultation with the State Government / Union Territory Administration. In addition, the Election Commission of India also appoints one or more Assistant Returning Officers for each of the assembly and Parliamentary constituencies to assist the Returning Officer in the performance of his functions in connection with the conduct of elections. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 73

Pag-asa Island (also called Thitu Island) is a disputed island between:

Solution:

Thitu Island also called Pag-asa island is the second largest of the naturally occurring Spratly Islands and the largest of the Philippine-administered islands. It is located in South China Sea. It is having an area of 37.2 hectares.This island is disputed between China and Phillipines. It falls within the Nine Dash Line- a boundary claimed by China as its own territory as historic rights.
Recently, hundreds of Chinese coast guard and fishing vessels had "swarmed" the Manila-held Pag-asa island. Therefore, Philippine President Rodrigo Duterte has warned Beijing to back off from a disputed island in the South China Sea, warning of possible military action if China "touches" it amid rising tensions over the key waterway.

QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements regarding Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs):
(1) It is a maritime area which can extend to a maximum of 2000 nautical miles from the baselines.
(2) A Coastal State has sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring and exploiting the natural resources in the Exclusive Economic Zone.
(3) The mapping of India’s EEZ is under the purview of Indian Space Research Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is one of the major innovations in the law of the sea and was born of a political demand strongly expressed by countries undergoing development. The EEZ, a formula based on compromise, was recognized by the Conference on the Law of the Sea in 1976. It is defined as an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea which can extend to a maximum 200 nautical miles from the baselines.
Statement 2 is correct: Within the EEZ, a coastal State enjoys sovereign rights over its natural resources. It can exercise its jurisdiction over certain activities for the purpose, among others, of protecting the environment.
Statement 3 is not correct: India has a wide exclusive economic zone (EEZ) of about 2.1 million square km in the sea all along the 7500 km long coastline around it. The task of EEZ mapping is being carried out by National Centre for Polar & Ocean Research, Goa in collaboration with other national institutions, like NIOT (Chennai), NCAOR (Vasco), GSI and Universities.

QUESTION: 75

The Adivasi leader Jaipal Singh Munda participated in the

Solution:

Jaipal Singh Munda (1903-1970), was a multi-faceted personality-a distinguished parliamentarian, a champion sportsman, an educationist, a powerful orator and above all, the leader of the Adivasis.
• He graduated from St John's College, Oxford with Honours in Economics and was selected in the Indian Civil Service from which he later resigned.
• In 1928 Amsterdam Olympics, he captained the Indian hockey team which won the gold medal.
• In 1934, he joined teaching at the Prince of Wales College at Achimota, Gold Coast, Ghana.
• In 1937, he returned to India as the principal incumbent of the Rajkumar College, Raipur.
• In 1938, the joined the Bikaner princely State as foreign secretary.
The united Adivasi forum called Adivasi Sabha, formed in 1938, made him the President of the organisation. He declared that the Adivasi movement stands primarily for the moral and material advancement of Chhotanagpur and Santhal Parganas and set as his goal a separate administrative status for the area.
He was instantly the people's "Marang Gomke" - their Supreme Leader. He worked ceaselessly for a better future for his fellow Adivasis everywhere, even beyond the frontiers of south Bihar.
The Adivasi Sabha was changed into All India Adivasi Mahasabha. On the national political front, Jaipal had alienated himself from the Congress personally. He played an active role in the anti-Compromise Congress conference at Ramgarh in 1940 in close alliance with Subhas Bose. He went against the Congress stand and supported the British in World War II and recruited men and women from Chhotanagpur for the British army.
Since 1946, he was a member of the Constituent Assembly, the Provisional Parliament and was elected four times to the Parliament until his death in 1970.
As a member of the Constituent Assembly, he played a key role in raising the issue of Adivasi identity. He emphasised that the tribal people were the true and original inhabitants of India, and as such had a claim to the whole of India. He argued that reservation of seats for tribals in the legislatures was necessary. He also made an effort to divorce the case of Scheduled Tribes from that of the Scheduled Castes. He argued that Adivasi Society always emphasised on equality and democracy.
With the creation of the Jharkhand Party and the induction of non-Adivasis into it in 1950, he changed the emotive cultural movement in Jharkhand into a regional political movement, free from any communal bias.
The Jharkhand Party was the first legitimate political party that drew the political agenda and gave the direction to the future of Jharkhand politics. The party became so strong that it played a vital role in the formation of the government in the neighbouring province of Orissa in 1957.

QUESTION: 76

Consider the following statements regarding National Water Informatics Centre (NWIC):
(1) It is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
(2) It acts as a repository of nation-wide water resources data.
(3) It is responsible for providing updated and reliable water data through India Water Resources Information System (India-WRIS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: National Water Informatics Centre (NWIC) has been created by Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation. It is a repository of nation-wide water resources data and works as a Subordinate Office under the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation. It is headed by a Joint Secretary level officer.
Statement 3 is correct: NWIC is expected to provide a ‘Single Window‘ source of updated data on water resources & allied themes; and provides value added products and services to all stake holders for its management and sustainable development.
It is also expected to empower, inform and enrich every citizen with upto date and reliable water data (other than classified data) and information through web based India Water Resources  Information System (India-WRIS) on a GIS platform in Public Domain; and to develop value added products and services for all aspects of integrated water resources management serving the nation through research, capacity building, linkages, outreach and better governance in water resources sector.

QUESTION: 77

Why do the migrating birds fly very high in the sky?
(1) To take advantage of upper atmospheric wind flow
(2) Due to High Oxygen levels at higher altitudes
(3) Cooler conditions at high altitudes help in dissipating heat generated by their flight
Select the correct answer using code given below.

Solution:

Some migratory birds travel as much as 15000  km  to  escape  the  extreme  climatic  conditions  at  home. Generally they fly high where the wind flow is helpful and the cold conditions allow them to disperse the heat generated by their flight muscles. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.
But how these birds travel to the same place year after year is still a mystery. It seems that these birds have a built–in sense of direction and know in which direction to travel. Some birds probably use landmarks to guide them. Many birds may be guided by the sun during the day and stars at night. There is some evidence that birds may use the magnetic field of the earth to find direction. And it is not only birds that migrate; mammals, many types of fish and insects are also known to migrate seasonally in search of more hospitable climates.
Flying birds gulp air, deriving oxygen to fuel their hard-working muscles. But this critical element is in short supply at high elevations, with only one-third to half the oxygen levels at sea level. Such a low oxygen condition is called hypoxia. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 78

Hemophilia is a rare genetic disorder in which blood doesn't clot normally because it lacks sufficient blood clotting proteins. In this context consider the following: A Women suffers from Haemophilia. Her husband does not carry any mutation related to Haemophilia. They have a son and a daughter. In this context, which one of the following statements is most probably correct?

Solution:

Hemophilia is a bleeding disorder that slows the blood clotting process. People with this condition experience prolonged bleeding or oozing following an injury, surgery, or having a tooth pulled. The major types of this condition are hemophilia A (also known as classic hemophilia) and hemophilia B (also known as Christmas disease ). Although the two types have very similar signs and symptoms, they are caused by mutations in different genes.
Hemophilia A and hemophilia B are inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The genes associated with these conditions are located on the  X  chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes.  In males (who have only one X chromosome), one altered copy of the gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the condition. In females (who have two X chromosomes), a mutation would have to occur in both copies of the gene to cause the disorder. Because it is unlikely that females will have two altered copies of this gene, it is very rare for females to have hemophilia. A characteristic of X-linked inheritance is that fathers cannot pass X-linked traits to their sons.
A male child inherits X chromosome from his mother and Y chromosome from his father. In the given context, he inherits mutated X chromosome from his mother and unaffected Y chromosome from his father. So he suffers from the disease. A female child inherits X chromosomes one each from mother and father. In the given context she inherits mutated X chromosome from mother and unaffected Y chromosome from father. So, she will not suffer from the disease but becomes a carrier for the gene mutation. Hence option c is correct.

QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements in the context of the Balance of Payment of a country:
(1) Visible trade forms a part of the capital account, while invisible trade (invisibles) forms a part of the current account.
(2) Importing services comes under Invisibles, while receiving gifts forms a part of the visible trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Balance of Payment (BoP) of a country is a systematic record of all its economic transactions (both public and private) with the outside world in a given year.
BoP is made up of two parts: Current account and Capital account. (As per IMF definition, three parts: Current Account + Capital account+ Financial Account).
Current Account
• Import and Export of goods (form a part of the visible trade) and that of services (form a part of the invisble trade). Thus, both trade of visibles and invisbles form a part of the current account. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Gifts and Remittance also come under Invisibles (and thus under current account). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Capital Account
• Capital Account comprises of Foreign investment in India (FDI, FII, ADR, direct purchase of land, assets). External commercial borrowing, external assistance etc.

QUESTION: 80

Which of the following rivers is/are transboundary rivers between India and Myanmar?
(1) Kaladan
(2) Teesta
(3) Karnaphuli
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Kaladan river has its source in Mizoram. It runs approximately 350 kilometres in length, cutting a narrow valley through the mountains of Chin State (Myanmar) and emptying into the Bay of Bengal at Sittwe in Arakan State. The lower part of the river opens up to form a fertile plain that stretches approximately 110 kilometres and covers a total area of 3,640 square kilometres from upper  Kyauktaw  Township  to  Sittwe. Hence option 1 is correct.
The Teesta River originates in the Himalayas and flows through the Indian States of Sikkim and West Bengal before entering Bangladesh, where it flows into the Brahmaputra. Flowing through the length of Sikkim, the Teesta River is considered to be the lifeline of the state. Hence, option 2 is not correct.
Karnaphuli River rises in the Mizo Hills of Mizoram state, northeastern India. It flows about 170 miles (270 km) south and southwest through the southeastern arm of Bangladesh to empty into the Bay of Bengal. Hence, option 3 is not correct.

QUESTION: 81

An estimated 4.2 million premature deaths globally are linked to ambient air pollution. Worldwide ambient air pollution can lead to
1. Lung cancer
2. Acute lower respiratory infection
3. Stroke
4. Ischaemic heart disease
5. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Select the correct answer code:

Solution:

Worldwide ambient air pollution accounts for:
• 29% of all deaths and disease from lung cancer
• 17% of all deaths and disease from acute lower respiratory infection
• 24% of all deaths from stroke
• 25% of all deaths and disease from ischaemic heart disease
• 43% of all deaths and disease from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements.
1. Guru Ghasidas National Park is set to become Chattisgarh’s first tiger reserve.
2. In-principle approval has to be accorded by the National Tiger Conservation Authority for the creation of new tiger reserves.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 

Solution:

Chhattisgarh government announced that the state is set to have Guru Ghasidas National Park in Kotiya district as its fourth ‘tiger reserve’. This decision was taken in 11th meeting of Chhattisgarh State Wildlife Board chaired by Chief Minister Bhupesh Baghel. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) had approved to declare Guru Ghasidas National Park as a tiger reserve in 2014.

QUESTION: 83

White Island, recently seen in news is located in

Solution:

Whakaari / White Island is an active andesite stratovolcano situated 48 km (30 mi) from the east coast of the North Island of New Zealand, in the Bay of Plenty. The island covers an area of approximately 325 ha (800 acres), which is only the peak of a much larger submarine volcano.
The island is New Zealand's most active cone volcano, and has been built up by continuous volcanic activity over the past 150,000 years.The nearest mainland towns are Whakatane and Tauranga. The island has been in a nearly continuous stage of releasing volcanic gas at least since it was sighted by James Cook in 1769. Whakaari erupted continually from December 1975 until September 2000, marking the world's longest historic eruption episode, according to GeoNet, and also in 2012, 2016, and 2019.

QUESTION: 84

Consider the following statements regarding Payments Bank.
1. Payments Bank can accept deposits only upto 2 lakh per individual customer.
2. Issues debit cards, but not credit cards.
3. Can distribute financial products such as mutual funds and insurance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 

Solution:

Payments banks is an Indian new model of banks conceptualised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). These banks can accept a restricted deposit, which is currently limited to ₹500,000 per customer and may be increased further. These banks cannot issue loans and credit cards. Both current account and savings accounts can be operated by such banks. Initially, the deposits will be capped at ₹100,000 per customer, but it may be raised by the RBI based on the performance of the bank.

QUESTION: 85

In the National Policy for Farmers, 2007 the term ‘FARMER’ includes
1. Agricultural operational holders
2. Gardeners
3. Pastoralists
4. Person engaged in shifting cultivation
5. Non-corporate planters
Select the correct answer code:

Solution:

According to the National Policy for Farmers, 2007, beekeepers are considered as farmers.
According to the National Policy for Farmers,2007 drafted by the National Commission of Farmers headed by M.S. Swaminathan.
• The term ‘FARMER’ is referred to a person actively engaged in the economic and/or livelihood activity of growing crops and producing other primary agricultural commodities.
• It will include all agricultural operational holders, cultivators, agricultural labourers, sharecroppers tenants, poultry and livestock rearers, fishers, beekeepers, gardeners, pastoralists, non-corporate planters and planting labourers.
• It will also include persons engaged in various farming-related occupations such as sericulture, vermiculture and agro-forestry.
The term will also include tribal families/persons engaged in shifting cultivation and in the collection, use and sale of minor and non-timber forest produce.

QUESTION: 86

Consider the following statements regarding NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer).
1. NEFT has become a 24×7 facility on all days except on bank holidays.
2. NEFT has no upper limit to the transaction amount.
3. NEFT transactions will only be credited to the beneficiary account in batches, unlike the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) system.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

NEFT has no upper limit to the transaction amount.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to make available the National Electronic Funds Transfer ( NEFT) system for transfer of money on a 24x7 basis from December 2019, according to its Statement on Development and Regulatory policies.

NEFT transactions will only be credited to the beneficiary account in batches, unlike the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) system.

 

QUESTION: 87

Consider the following statements regarding Frog Phone.
1. It is the world’s first solar-powered remote survey device that will allow scientists to monitor frogs in the wild.
2. It can be installed at any frog pond and receives a 3G or 4G cellular network.
3. Environmental data such as air temperature and water temperature can be retrieved through Frog Phone.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Researchers have developed a device that will allow scientists to monitor frogs in the wild. Described as the world’s first solar-powered remote survey device that can be installed at any frog pond and which receives a 3G or 4G cellular network, it has been named “Frog Phone”.
It has been developed by a team from various Australian institutions, including the University of New South Wales and the University of Canberra. A field trial conducted between August 2017 and March 2018 in Canberra proved successful, the British Ecology Society said in a statement.
With Frog Phone, researchers can simply “call” a frog habitat. After a call is made to one of the Frog Phones already on a site, the device will take three seconds to receive it. During these few seconds, the device’s temperature sensors will get activated, and environmental data such as air temperature, water temperature and battery voltage will be sent to the caller’s phone via a text message.

QUESTION: 88

Consider the following statements about Investigation Tracking System for Sexual Offences (ITSSO).
(1) ITSSOis an online module available to law enforcement agencies at National, State and District levels.
(2) It allows the state to undertake real-time monitoring and management for completion of investigation in rape cases in 6 months.
(3) ITSSO leverages the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS)which is a nationwide network enabling sharing of information between Police Stations, State officers and security agencies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The Investigation Tracking System for Sexual Offences (ITSSO) is an online module available to law enforcement agencies at all levels, national, state, district and police station.
It allows the state to undertake real-time monitoring and management of cases of rape to be able to complete the investigation in two months.
ITSSO leverages the existing Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems which is a nationwide network enabling sharing of information between Police Stations, State officers and security agencies.
ITSSO will aid in the effective implementation of the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2018 mandates completion of investigation and trials in rape cases within two months.

QUESTION: 89

Consider the following statements.
(1) The Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (VGDS), from Sultanganj to Kahalganj on the Ganga in Bihar is the only dolphin sanctuary in the country.
(2) Gangetic river dolphin is India’s national aquatic animal.
(3) The Gangetic river dolphin is found only in the Ganges River and their tributaries in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Measures being taken by the Ministry of Shipping to safeguard the population of the Ganges River Dolphin in the VGDS: 
• Vessel speed would be restricted to 2.7 knots in VGDS area to reduce the noise generation from propeller. 
• lf any aquatic mammal/dolphin is spotted, then the measures will be taken to push it away through sirens/signals. 
• Vessels to be fitted with propeller guards and dolphin deflectors to minimise dolphin accidents. 
• Using non-toxic paints for painting vessels. 
The Ganges river dolphin is important because it is a reliable indicator of the health of the entire river ecosystem. The government of India declared it the National Aquatic Animal in 2009.

The Ganges River Dolphin Platanista gangetica gangetica is a mammal primarily found in the Ganges and Brahmaputra Rivers and their tributaries in India, Bangladesh and Nepal. A closely aligned species, the Indus River Dolphin has recently been found in Punjab.

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statements.
(1) Recently asister-city agreement has been inked between Kobe in Japan and Ahmedabad in Gujarat.
(2) Sister cities are a form of legal or social agreement between cities in geographically and politically distinct areas to promote cultural and commercial ties.
(3) India has no sister-city agreement with China and Pakistan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements about Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission (SPMRM).
(1) It aims to deliver integrated project-based infrastructure in the rural areas, which will also include development of economic activities and skill development.
(2) The preferred mode of delivery is through Public Private Partnerships (PPPs) while using various scheme funds for financing.
(3) Substantial part of the works identified for development is focused on provision of basic and economic amenities like 24/7 Water Supply to all households, Solid and Liquid Waste Management facilities at the household and Skill development to promote Small and Medium Scale Enterprises.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The 4th Anniversary of the launch of Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission (SPMRM) was observed on 21st February, 2020.
• SPMRM is a scheme launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) in 2016 to deliver integrated project based infrastructure in the rural areas, which will also include development of economic activities and skill development.
• A predecessor to SPMRM was the Provision of Urban Amenities to Rural Areas (PURA), announced in 2003.
Provision of Urban Amenities to Rural Areas
• Provision of Urban Amenities to Rural Areas (PURA) was aimed at provision of urban amenities and livelihood opportunities in rural areas to bridge the rural urban divide thereby reducing the migration from rural to urban areas.
• PURA was treated as a “Project” and not a government scheme – Private sector partners had to prepare a detailed business plan.

QUESTION: 92

Consider the following statements:
(1) The four-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI was constituted by the Central Government for the first time in 2016.
(2) The implementation of a flexible inflation targeting framework by the MPC has a statutory basis.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The central government will soon, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), begin the process of review of the monetary policy framework that was notified on 5 August 2016 and is in place until 31 March next year.
Once concluded, the review will lead to a new inflation target for a five-year period beginning April 2021 onwards. The new inflation target would also be accompanied by the Centre nominating three new members to the six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), which determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the targeted rate of inflation.

QUESTION: 93

Head on Generation (HOG) technology, recently seen in news is related to

Solution:
QUESTION: 94

Diwan-i-Khairat, established by Firoz Shah Tughlaq is

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

Consider the following statements regarding Participatory Guarantee Scheme (PGS).
(1) PGS is a process of certifying organic products, which ensures that their production takes place in accordance with laid-down quality standards.
(2) PGS is locally focused quality assurance systems and involves the participation of producers and consumers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The head of India’s food safety regulator has said that she expects the Union Agriculture Ministry’s Participatory Guarantee Scheme (PGS) to incentivise more farmers to grow organic food.
“The certified organic food production is still very low. The PGS brings together peer group of farmers and the costs are low. It is being popularised,” Rita Teotia, chairperson of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) said on the sidelines of a function of Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and the World Health Organisation’s (WHO’s) Coordinating Committee for Asia (CCASIA) in Panaji Monday.
What is the PGS, and how does it work?
PGS is a process of certifying organic products, which ensures that their production takes place in accordance with laid-down quality standards. The certification is in the form of a documented logo or a statement.
According to ‘Participatory Guarantee System for India [PGS-India]’, an ‘Operational Manual for Domestic Organic Certification’ published in 2015 by the National Centre of Organic Farming, Ghaziabad, under the Ministry of Agriculture’s Department of Agriculture and Co-operation, PGS is a “quality assurance initiative that is locally relevant, emphasize[s] the participation of stakeholders, including producers and consumers, and (which) operate[s] outside the framework of third-party certification”.
According to a 2008 definition formulated by the International Federation of Organic Agriculture Movements (IFOAM), the Bonn-based global umbrella organisation for the organic agriculture movement, PGSs are “locally focused quality assurance systems” that “certify producers based on active participation of stakeholders and are built on a foundation of trust, social networks and knowledge exchange”.
PGS, according to this definition, is “a process in which people in similar situations (in this case small holder producers) assess, inspect and verify the production practices of each other and take decisions on organic certification”.

QUESTION: 96

Consider the following statements about Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC).
(1) OPEC is a group of all the oil-producing nations.
(2) The mission of OPEC is to unify the petroleum policies of its Member Countries and ensure regular supply of petroleum to consumers.
(3) Iran, Iraq, United Arab Emirates and Qatar are the members of OPEC.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Qatar left OPEC on 1 January 2019, after joining the organization in 1961, to focus on natural gas production, of which it is the world's largest exporter in the form of liquified natural gas (LNG).

QUESTION: 97

Consider the following statements regarding Agreement on Reciprocal Logistics Support (ARLS).
(1) It is a defence agreement between India and USA.
(2) The agreement will simplify interoperability and enable military platforms to receive support and supplies across bases in both nations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The Agreement on Reciprocal Logistics Support (ARLS) is a proposed Military Logistics Support Agreement between India and Russia.
• Recently, India signed an agreement with Russia to “operationalize a mechanism for collaboration on joint manufacturing of spare parts, components, aggregates and other products.

QUESTION: 98

Consider the following statements regarding Kartarpur Sahib pilgrim corridor.
(1) It is a visa-free border crossing and secure corridor, connecting the Gurdwara Darbar Sahib in Pakistan to the border with India.
(2) The gurdwara in Kartarpur stands on the bank of the river Ravi.
(3) The place holds significance because the first guru of Sikhism, Guru Nanak was born in Kartarpur.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The Kartarpur Corridor is a visa-free border crossing and secure corridor, connecting the Gurdwara Darbar Sahib in Pakistan to the border with India.

Guru Nanak founded the Kartarpur town by Ravi River in 1515, plowing the fields and setting up a community kitchen, or Langar. It is the second holiest site of the Sikh religion after Gurdwara Janam Asthan – the birthplace of Guru Nanak located in Nankana Sahib, Pakistan.

QUESTION: 99

Consider the following statements regarding TechSagar.
(1) TechSagar is a consolidated and comprehensive repository of India’s cyber tech capabilities.
(2) The National Cyber Security Coordinator’s office in partnership with Data Security Council (DSCI) of India launched TechSagar.
(3) Data Security Council (DSCI) is a not-for-profit, industry body on data protection in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The National Cyber Security Coordinator's office in partnership with the Data Security Council of India (DSCI) has launched ‘TechSagar’, an online portal of India’s technological capability.
• It provides actionable insights about capabilities of the Indian Industry, academia and research across 25 technology areas like Internet of Things (IoT), Artificial Intelligence (AI), etc.
(i) It currently features over 4,000 entities.
(ii) It will be frequently updated with new entities and information to maintain its relevance and usefulness.
(iii) The losses due to cyber crime globally on an average is 2.5% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
(iv) Thus, India’s dream of growing to $5 trillion economy by 2025 is being seriously threatened by the losses due to cyber crimes.
(v) TechSagar will facilitate new opportunities for businesses and academia to collaborate, connect and innovate in the future.
National Cyber Security Coordinator
• In 2014, the Prime Minister’s Office created the position of the National Cyber Security Coordinator.
• The NCSC office coordinates with different agencies at the national level for cyber security matters.
Data Security Council of India
• DSCI is a not-for-profit premier industry body on data protection in India, setup by NASSCOM, committed to making cyberspace safe, secure and trusted by establishing best practices, standards and initiatives in cyber security and privacy.
(i) NASSCOM is a not-for-profit trade body and chamber of commerce of the Tech industry in India and comprises over 2800 member companies including both Indian and multinational organisations that have a presence in India.
• Its Registered Office is located in New Delhi.

QUESTION: 100

Consider the following statements regarding Yada Yada virus (YYV).
(1) It is a new virus detected in mosquitoes.
(2) Recently Yada Yada virus outbreak was reported in China.
(3) Yada Yada does not pose a threat to human beings.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

A novel virus detected in Australian mosquitoes has been provisionally named the Yada Yada virus (YYV), after the catchphrase made famous by the American sitcom Seinfeld.