UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 12 (August 19, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 12 (August 19, 2021)


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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 12 (August 19, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 12 (August 19, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 12 (August 19, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 12 (August 19, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 12 (August 19, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Project Asita is associated with which of the following rivers in India?

Solution:
  • Asita Project (Asita is another name of Yamuna)
  • It's a Yamuna River Front Development Project, aims to restore, revive and rejuvenate the river‘s floodplains and make them accessible to the people of Delhi.
  • Reviving Ecosystem by creating a wetlands, to store the flood waters and to improve the groundwater recharge which will eventually result in flourishing of biodiversity in the floodplains.
  • National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) is monitoring the development of project.
QUESTION: 2

With reference to 'Gross Fixed Capital Formation', consider the following statements:
1. It refers to the gross increase in physical assets without accounting for disposals of fixed assets.
2. It is a component of expenditure approach to calculating GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Gross fixed capital formation (GFCF) refers to the net increase in physical assets (investment minus disposals) within the measurement period. It does not account for the consumption (depreciation) of fixed capital, and also does not include land purchases. To be more precise Gross fixed capital formation measures the net increase in fixed capital. It is a component of expenditure approach to calculating GDP. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • GDP as defined by the expenditure method consider the end use of incomes generated on expenditure and investments. It is distinct from GDP estimated by economic activity, where the economy is divided into segments like agriculture, industry and services and GDP is estimated by measuring the value added at each stage of the production process.
  • GDP as measured through the expenditure method is the sum of Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE), Government Final Consumption Expenditure (GFCE), Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF), Change in stocks or inventories, Valuables and the Net Exports (NX). Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • GFCF measures the addition of fixed assets through expenditure on construction, purchase of machinery and equipment and software
QUESTION: 3

With reference to temple architecture in Kashmir region, consider the following statements:
1. The architecture in Kashmir had the influence of both Gandhara and Mathura tradition.
2. Both Hindu and Buddhist temples were constructed in the region.
3. Pandrethan is a famous hindu temple built in the region.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • A unique form of architecture developed in the hills of Kumaon, Garhwal, Himachal and Kashmir. Kashmir‘s proximity to prominent Gandhara sites (such as Taxila, Peshawar and the northwest frontier) lent the region a strong Gandhara influence by the fifth century CE. This began to mix with the Gupta and post-Gupta traditions that were brought to it from Sarnath, Mathura and even centres in Gujarat and Bengal. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The Karkota period of Kashmir is the most significant in terms of architecture. One of the most important temples is Pandrethan, built during the eighth and ninth centuries. In keeping with the tradition of a water tank attached to the shrine, this temple is built on a plinth built in the middle of a tank. Although there are evidences of both Hindu and Buddhist followings in Kashmir, this temple is a Hindu one, possibly dedicated to Shiva. Few more temples in Kashmir, the Martand Sun Temple, the Awantipora temples, the Sankara-Gauresvara temple, temple of Sugandhesa at Patan, the Pandrethan temples, the Shiva Bhutesa and Siva Jeyshthesa temples at Vangath, the Parihasakesva, Muktakesva, Mahavarha and Goverdhanadhara temples in Parihasapura, and the famous Mameswara Siva temple at Mamalaka are some specimens of great archaeological value. Hence, statement 2 and 3 are correct
QUESTION: 4

With reference to Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS), consider the following statements:
1. GIAHS are outstanding landscapes of aesthetic beauty that combine agricultural biodiversity, resilient ecosystems, and valuable cultural heritage.
2. GIAHS sites are designated by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
3. Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System in the state of Kerala is one of such designated GIAHS sites in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) are outstanding landscapes of aesthetic beauty that combine agricultural biodiversity, resilient ecosystems and a valuable cultural heritage. Located in specific sites around the world, they sustainably provide multiple goods and services, food and livelihood security for millions of small-scale farmers.
  • Unfortunately, these agricultural systems are threatened by many factors including climate change and increased competition for natural resources. They are also dealing with migration due to low economic viability, which has resulted in traditional farming practices being abandoned and endemic species and breeds being lost.
  • These ancestral agricultural systems constitute the foundation for contemporary and future agricultural innovations and technologies. Their cultural, ecological and agricultural diversity is still evident in many parts of the world, maintained as unique systems of agriculture.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: These sites as designated by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) of the UN.
  • Statement 31 is correct: India has 3 sites designated as GIAHS: Saffron Heritage of Kashmir, Koraput Traditional Agriculture (Odisha) and Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System (Kerala).
QUESTION: 5

Karakoram Anomaly, recently mentioned in the "Hindu Kush Himalaya Assessment", refers to

Solution:
  • The Kathmandu-based International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development‘s (ICIMOD) ―Hindu Kush Himalaya Assessment‖ reveals that more than one-third of the glaciers in the region could retreat by 2100, even if the global temperature rise is capped at 1.5ºC.
  • Since 1970s, nearly 15% of the glaciers in the HKH has disappeared. Eastern Himalaya glaciers have tended to shrink faster than glaciers in the central or western Himalaya.
  • In contrast to the Himalayan glaciers, on average, glacier areas in the Karakoram have not changed significantly. Given the context of glacier retreat throughout the rest of the extended HKH region, this behaviour has been designated the Karakoram anomaly‘.
QUESTION: 6

With reference to District Cooling System, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an energy efficient technology in which chilled water is utilized for air conditioning of buildings.
2. It uses only 50 per cent of the primary energy consumption.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • National Central Cooling Company PJSC (DFM: Tabreed), a leading UAE -based international cooling provider, has entered into a 30 year concession to offer District Cooling solutions to the greenfield city of Amaravati. The contracted cooling capacity for 20,000 refrigeration tons (RTs) entails build, own, operate and transfer India‘s first district cooling system in Amaravati, the new capital of Andhra Pradesh.
  • District cooling systems produce chilled water at a central plant and then pipe that energy out to buildings for air conditioning. As a result, these buildings do not  require their own chillers or air  conditioners. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Compared to other cooling systems, district cooling uses only 50 per cent of the primary energy consumption for cooling urban buildings, thereby reducing CO2 emissions. It also helps in improving the air quality and reducing general noise levels when compared to other traditional air conditioning systems. Hence statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION: 7

Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to provisions related to the removal and suspension of Chairperson and members of Lokpal?

Solution:
  • Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) seeks to establish the institution of the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta at the level of the State and thus seeks to provide a uniform vigilance and anti-corruption road map for the nation both at the Centre and at the States. The jurisdiction of Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, Members of Parliament and Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of the Central Government. Hence option d is correct.
  • Provisions related to Removal and suspension of Chairperson and Members of Lokpal:
  • The Lokpal shall not inquire into any complaint made against the Chairperson or any Member. Hence option a is correct.
  • The Chairperson or any Member shall be removed from his office by order of the President on grounds of misbehaviour after the Supreme Court, on a reference being made to it by the President on a petition signed by at least one hundred Members of Parliament has, on an inquiry held in accordance with the procedure prescribed in that behalf, reported that the Chairperson or such Member, as the case may be, ought to be removed on such ground. If the Chairperson or any Member is, or becomes, in any way concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or the Government of a State or participates in any way in the profit thereof or in any benefit or emolument arising there from otherwise than as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company, he/she shall be deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour. Hence option b is correct and option c is not correct.
  • Not withstanding the above provisions, the President may, by order, remove from the office, the Chairperson or any Member if the Chairperson or such Member, as the case may be,
    (i) is adjudged an insolvent; or
    (ii) engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
    (iii) is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
QUESTION: 8

Which among the following are sites of Ashoka's inscriptions?
1. Jaugada
2. Girnar
3. Rampurva
4. Sannati
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • The practice of inscribing imperial proclamations on stone is a marked feature of Ashoka‘s reign.
  • Ashoka‘s inscriptions are divided into various categories.The two main categories are of the major rock edicts and the pillar edicts. The rock and pillar edicts are sets of inscriptions that occur, with minor variations, in different places.
  • There are also several minor rock edicts, minor pillar edicts, and cave inscriptions. The minor rock edicts are considered among the earliest inscriptions, the major rock edicts later than them, and the pillar edicts still later.
  • What makes Ashoka‘s edicts unique is that unlike royal inscriptions of later times, which follow a conventional pattern and phraseology, Ashoka‘s inscriptions reveal the voice and ideas of the king.
  • The set of 14 major rock edicts (or portions thereof) occur at:
    (i) Kandahar (in Kandahar district, south Afghanistan) (only portions of rock edicts 12 and13)
    (ii) Shahbazgarhi (Peshawar district, North-West Frontier Province, Pakistan) o Mansehra (Hazara district, NWFP, Pakistan) (iii) Kalsi (Dehradun district, Uttarakhand)
    (iv) Girnar (Junagadh district, Gujarat)
    (v) Bombay–Sopara (originally at Sopara in Thane district, Maharashtra; now in the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahalaya, Mumbai; only fragments of rock edicts 8 and 9)
    (vi) Dhauli (Puri district, Orissa; separate rock edicts 1 and 2 replace major rock edicts 11–13)
    (vii) Jaugada (Ganjam district, Orissa; separate rock edicts 1 and 2 replace major rock edicts11–13)
    (viii) Erragudi (Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh)
    (xi) Sannati (Gulbarga district, Karnataka; portions of rock edicts 12 and 14 and separate rock edicts 1 and 2 were found on a granite slab in a medieval goddess temple.
  • The set of six (and in one case seven) pillar edicts, or portions thereof, occur at:
    (i) Kandahar (Kandahar district, south Afghanistan) (only portions of pillar edict 7)
    (ii) Delhi. The Delhi–Topra pillar originally stood in Topra (Ambala district, Haryana). This pillar has seven edicts.
    (iii) Delhi. The Delhi–Meerut pillar originally stood in Meerut (Meerut district, UP).
    (iv) Allahabad. The Allahabad–Kosam pillar was probably originally located in Kosam, i.e., Kaushambi (Allahabad district, UP).
    (v) Lauriya–Araraj (Champaran district, Bihar)
    (vi) Lauriya–Nandangarh (Champaran district, Bihar)
    (vii) Rampurva (Champaran district, Bihar)
QUESTION: 9

Which of the following components of Current Account in India are a cause of deficit in Balance of Payment?
1. Merchandise Trade
2. Foreign Investment Income
3. Remittances
4. Travel
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Current account is a part of the overall balance of payment and reflects a country‘s international trade. It primarily measures net trade in goods and services along with all other earnings or payments that are required to be completed in a defined time period. Latest data shows India has a $48 billion current account deficit. India‘s exports, which are much lower than imports, is the main cause of current account deficit. Another major component of India‘s deficit is foreign investment income, where profits are repatriated to a company‘s origin country. India is in surplus in trade in services and a net gainer of remittances. These two surplus components, however, are not large enough to offset the trade deficit.
The detailed analysis of service component of current account deficit shows that the largest component of India‘s services surplus comes from IT industries. Similarly, India is a net exporter of travel meaning foreigners visiting India spend more money than Indians visiting foreign countries. India has to send abroad a significant amount of money for use of intellectual property. India is a net importer of recreational services that include services in film, music industry and so on.

QUESTION: 10

With reference to the Sapru Committee 1944, consider the following statements:
1. It was formed by the Indian National Congress.
2. It called for setting up a constitution- making body with equal representation of Muslims and Hindus.
3. It contained provisions related to fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Constitutional Proposals of the Sapru Committee, commonly referred to as the Sapru Committee Report, was first published in 1945. It was prepared by a committee appointed by the Non-Party Conference in November 1944.

  • Tej Bahadur Sapru, a well-renowned lawyer, convened the first meeting of the Non-Party Conference in 1941. This group consisted of individuals who represented a variety of interests except those of the Indian National Congress, Muslim League and the Communist Party.
  • The Committee was briefed ‗...to examine the whole communal and minorities question from a constitutional and political point of view, put itself in touch with the different parties and their leaders, including the minorities interested in the question, and present a solution...‘
  • The Sapru Committee consisted of thirty members who had distinguished themselves in public affairs and did not operate under the mandate of any political party.
  • The Report contained detailed expositions on various aspects of India‘s constitutional future.
  • The Report rejected the Muslim League‘s demand for Pakistan: it was not convinced that a separate state would be advantageous to any community and felt that the division of India would ‗endanger the peace and progress of the whole country‘.
  • It called for the setting up of a constitution-making body that would frame a new constitution for India; representation of Muslim and Hindus in this body would be equal.
  • It rejected separate electorates for Muslims for the Union Legislature and instead proposed joint electorates with reservation of seats.
  • It introduced a ‘’Minorities Commission’’ that would assess the welfare of minorities and had powers to recommend measures to the government.
  • The Report had a section on fundamental rights (similar to constitutional antecedent documents that preceded it like the Nehru Report, 1928) and contained provisions that included: freedom of speech, freedom of press, religious freedom and equality. It called for the future constitution body to precisely formulate these rights.
  • In the explanatory sections of the study, the Committee engaged with the issue of dividing rights into justiciable and non-justiciable though it did not propose anything in its recommendation; it alerted future drafters of the question to pay attention to this question. This was arguably the first time a constitutional document brought up the question of justiciable and non-justiciable rights.
QUESTION: 11

With reference to 'Differentiated Banks', consider the following statements:
1. These banks are issued a Universal Banking License from the RBI.
2. All scheduled commercial banks are differentiated banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • There are two kinds of banking licences that are granted by the Reserve Bank of India – Universal Bank Licence and Differentiated Bank Licence. Differentiated Banks (niche banks) are banks that serve the needs of a certain demographic segment of the population. Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks are examples of differentiated banks in India.
  • Differentiated licensing refers to the system of different licenses in contrast to the existing universal bank (SBI, ICICI etc). The universal banks including the PSBs and private sector banks can provide all banking services and products. On the other hand, under differentiated banking license, the Small Finance Banks and Payments Banks can provided only selected products (and in prescribed geographies). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • The scheduled commercial banks are those banks which are included in the second schedule of RBI Act 1934 and which carry out the normal business of banking such as accepting deposits, giving out loans and other banking services. They include Universal banks such as Public Sector Banks, Private Banks, Foreign Banks and Regional Rural Banks. Whie Regional Rural Banks are a sort of differentiated bank (as they have their own niche and operate in specific locations) others have been granted Universal Banking licences. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
QUESTION: 12

With reference to the recently conducted 'Forex Swap Auctions' by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
1. It is the purchasing of dollars by banks from the RBI for a specified period.
2. It leads to injection of liquidity into the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Reserve Bank of India‘s attempt to inject rupee liquidity through foreign exchange swap auction has received good response. The RBI has different tools through which it injects liquidity into financial markets. The "swap auction‘ which was conducted recently is one such tool. Hence statement 2 is correct. This is being done to increase the supply of rupees in the market. Technically, this activity is termed as a USD/INR buy/sell swap auction.
  • Through this auction, the RBI will buy US dollars from banks. Hence statement 1 is not correct. In turn the RBI will pay rupees to the participating banks at the current spot rate. At an average spot rate of 70 per dollar, the RBI will able to infuse about ₹ 35,000 crore into the system through this auction  process.
  • Simultaneously, the banks will agree to buy-back the same amount of dollars from the RBI after three years — the tenor of this auction. The participating banks have to bid in the auction by quoting a forward premium in terms of paisa that they will pay to buy back the dollars. For example, if the spot exchange rate is 70 to a dollar, say Bank A quotes a premium of 150 paisa and bids for $25 million. So, the bank  will get ₹ 175 crore ($25 million multiplied by the exchange rate of 70). After three years, the bank has to pay back approximately ₹ 179 crore ($25 million multiplied by the exchange rate of 71.5) to the RBI to buy back $25 million.
  • The dollar amount mobilised through the auction would reflect in the RBI‘s foreign exchange reserves for the tenor of the swap as also in the RBI‘s forward liabilities.
QUESTION: 13

Consider the following statements:
1. The Pallava ruler Narasimhavarman I assumed the title of 'Vatapikonda.'
2. The Chola ruler Parantaka assumed the title of 'Maduraikonda.'
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Pallavas reached their zenith during the reign of Mahendravarman I (c. 600–630), a contemporary of Harsha and Pulakeshin II. The struggle for Vengi between the Pallavas and the Chalukyas became the immediate pretext for a long, drawn-out war, which began with the defeat of the Pallavas.
    (i) Mahendravarman‘s successor, Narasimhavarman I (reigned c. 630 –668), also called Mahamall or Mamalla, avenged the Pallava defeat by capturing Vatapi. He assumed the title of Vatapikonda.
  • The Chola ruler Parantaka succeeded his father Aditya I on the throne in 907 and ruled for forty- eight years. Soon after his accession, as early as 910, he invaded the Pandyan country and assumed the title Maduraikonda (‗ Capturer of Madura ‘).
    (i) The Pandyan ruler at the time, Maravarman Rajasimha II (900-20) appealed for help to Kassapa V, ruler of Ceylon, who sent an army to his aid. In due course, however, Parantaka defeated the combined armies at the battle of Vellur.
    (ii) Rajasimha had to flee to Ceylon and the Chola conquest of the Pandya country was completed soon after.
    (iii) Some years later, in the reign of Udaya IV of Ceylon (940 -53), Parantaka made an unsuccessful attempt to capture the insignia of the Pandyan king. His failure was remembered and made up for several years later by his powerful descendant Rajendra I.
QUESTION: 14

Which of the following is/are the objectives of Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY), an initiative by the government?
1. Correcting regional imbalances in availability of affordable tertiary healthcare in the country
2. Increasing health insurance coverage in the country
3. Setting up of AIIMS like Institutions
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Solution:
  • The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) was announced in 2003 with objectives of correcting regional imbalances in the availability of affordable/reliable tertiary healthcare services and also to augment facilities for quality medical education in the country.
  • PMSSY has two components:
    • Setting up of AIIMS like Institutions
    • Upgradation of Government Medical College Institutions
  • A new AIIMS, in Haryana, was recently announced in the Interim Budget Speech 2019 -20, under Phase- VIII of the program.
QUESTION: 15

Consider the following statements regarding Methanogens:
1. They are the only known microorganisms capable of methane production.
2. They are found mostly in an anaerobic environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Methanogens are the only known microorganisms that produce methane as a metabolic byproduct in hypoxic conditions. (Hypoxia is a condition in which the body or a region of the body is deprived of adequate oxygen supply at the tissue level.)
    (i) Process of methane production is known as Methanogenesis
    (ii) They are common in wetlands, where they are responsible for marsh gas, and in the digestive tracts of animals such as ruminants and humans, where they are responsible for the methane content of belching in ruminants and flatulence in humans.
    (iii) Among livestock, methane production is greatest in ruminants, as methanogens are able to produce methane freely through the normal process of feed digestion.
  • Statement 2 is correct:
    (i) Methanogens are strict anaerobes that do not use oxygen to respire; in fact, oxygen inhibits the growth of methanogens.
QUESTION: 16

Which of the following aspects of technology/crafts were present in the Gupta period?
1. Use of knowledge of the monsoons for navigation
2. Making rust-proof iron and copper alloys
3. Use of dyes in colouring textiles
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • In the Gupta period, the crafts greatly improved in terms of quality as well as variety.
  • Rust-proof iron and copper alloys were found and worked into intricate articles for civilian as well as military purposes.
    (i) The quality of the articles was so good that they were widely exported, even as far as Africa.
    (ii) In the design of these articles, there was, to an extent, Greco-Roman and Central Asian influence. However, on the whole, they had a local character.
  • In weaving, techniques were perfected for the making of cotton and silk materials.
    (i) Manufacture of dyes and their widespread use in colouring textiles came into practice.
    (ii) Indian textile materials, especially from Varanasi and Bengal became famous for their light weight and fine texture.
    (iii) The textiles became popular in the West and became an important commodity for export and trade.
  • Opening up of previously inaccessible and uninhabited regions, organisation of better transport, communication and trade routes helped the growth of trade.
    (i) Internal trade was augmented by rapid development of foreign trade.
    (ii) Improvement in navigation by the Indians, especially using the knowledge of monsoons, and a new design of seaworthy ships played an important role in this.
    (iii) The Indians traded with Arabs, the Mediterranean countries, especially Rome, Africa, south-east Asian countries such as Java, Sumatra and Sri Lanka.
QUESTION: 17

With reference to Chola administration, the Kudavolai system is associated with the

Solution:
  • An important feature of the Chola administration was the local administration at districts, towns and villages level.
  • The Uttaramerur inscriptions in the modern Kanchipuram district speak much about the Chola administration. Village autonomy was the most unique feature of the Chola administrative system.
  • The lowest unit of the Chola administration was the village. The entire responsibility of the village administration was in the hands of the village assembly.
  • The village assemblies looked after the maintenance of peace, tanks, roads, public ponds, revenue collection, judiciary, education and temples. The village assemblies were in charge of the payment of taxes due from the villages to the treasury. They regulated public markets and helped people in times of famine and flood. Assemblies provided provisions for education. They maintained law and order in every village.
  • There were thirty wards in each village. A representative for each ward was elected through Kudavolai system. Each ward prepared a list of persons qualified for election to the various committees. There were qualifications for a candidate standing for election to different committees.
    (i) The candidate for instance, needed minimum educational qualification, had to be between 35 and 70 years of age, own landed property, have a house built in his own land, and be a taxpayer, etc.
  • The Uttramerur inscriptions depict details about the method of electing members to the various committees.
    (i) In the Kudavolai system, the names of suitable candidates from a ward were written on palm leaf tickets and put into a mud pot and placed before the general body. After shaking them well, a small boy was asked to choose a ticket and give it to the arbitrator and he read out the name which was again read out by priest. In this fashion thirty members for wards were elected.
QUESTION: 18

Consider the following statements about HOPE - Healthcare Organizations’ Platform for Entry-Level-Certification:
1. This portal will help in increasing coverage for Ayushman Bharat scheme.
2. National Accreditation Board for Hospitals and Healthcare Organizations (NABH) is the implementing agency for the platform.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 2 is correct: HOPE - Healthcare Organizations‘ Platform for Entry-Level-Certification is a portal for Entry-Level Certification Process with a focus to promote quality at nascent stages by enrolling a wide range of hospitals across the country including Healthcare Organizations (HCOs) and Small Healthcare Organizations (SHCOs). It will make Entry-Level Certification Process simpler, digital, faster and userfriendly.
  • It is an online platform for smooth and secure registration which provides a self -explanatory questionnaire to be filled by the HCO/SHCOs. HOPE also enables them to comply with quality protocols, improve patient safety and the overall healthcare facility of the organization.
  • NABH is the implementing agency which is a constituent body of QCI (Quality Council of India(QCI)).
  • Statement 1 is correct: The aim is to create a momentum for HCOs and SHCOs that want to avail benefits associated with Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and Ayushman Bharat by getting themselves NABH certified along with the primary aim of creating a quality healthcare ecosystem in India. It will promote the idea of cashless payment to patients under insurance coverage. T
  • About NABH: NABH, a constituent body of QCI, has been working to ensure reliability, efficiency and global accreditation in Indian healthcare sector.It uses contemporary methodologies and tools, standards of patient safety and infection control.
  • About QCI- Established in 1997 Quality Council of India (QCI) is an autonomous organization under the DPIIT, MINISTRY OF COMMERCE AND INDUSTRY.It is the Quality Apex and National Accreditation Body for accreditation and quality promotion in the country.The Council was established to provide a credible, reliable mechanism for third party assessment of products, services and processes which is accepted and recognized globally.
QUESTION: 19

With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks (UCB), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They are registered as cooperative societies under the State Cooperative Societies Act.
2. The Reserve Bank regulates and supervises the banking functions of UCBs.
3. UCBs with minimum net worth of 10 crores can voluntarily transition into Small Finance Banks.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced a Scheme on voluntary transition of Urban Cooperative Bank into Small Finance Bank based on the recommendations of High-Powered Committee on Urban Cooperative Banks under Rama Subramaniam Gandhi.
  • UCBs with a minimum net worth of Rs.500 million (Rs  50  crore) and  maintaining  Capital  to Risk (Weighted) Assets Ratio of 9% and above are eligible to apply for voluntary transition to SFB. Hence statement 3 is not correct. The promoters shall incorporate a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013 having the word ‗bank‘ in its name after receiving the in-principle approval from RBI.
  • As per Banking Regulation Act, 1949 a primary co-operative bank (Urban Co-operative Bank or UCB) means a co-operative society, other than a primary agricultural credit society, whose,
    (i) Principal business is the transaction of banking business;
    (ii) Paid-up share capital and reserves are not less than one lakh of rupees; and
    (iii) Bye-laws of which do not permit admission of any other co-operative society as a member: Provided that this sub-clause shall not apply to theadmission of a cooperative bank as a member by reason of such co-operative bank subscribing  to  the  share capital of such  co-operative society  out of  funds provided by the State Government for the purpose.
  • The UCBs are registered as cooperative societies under the provisions of, either the State Cooperative Societies Act of the concerned State or the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002. The Reserve Bank regulates and supervises the banking functions of UCBs under the provisions of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (As Applicable to Cooperative Societies). Hence both statement 1 and 2 are correct.
QUESTION: 20

Which of the following is/are malarial parasites?
1. Bacteria
2. Virus
3. Fungus
4. Protozoa
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • A parasite is an organism that lives on or in a host organism and gets its food from or at the expense of its host.
  • There are three main classes of parasites that can cause disease in humans:
    (i) Protozoa
    (ii) Helminths
    (iii) Ectoparasites
  • Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites called Plasmodia o Human malaria is caused by four different species of Plasmodium: P. falciparum, P. malariae, P. ovale and P. vivax
  • In humans, the parasites grow and multiply first in the liver cells and then in the red cells of theblood.
  • In the blood, successive broods of parasites grow inside the red cells and destroy them, releasing daughter parasites (―merozoites‖) that continue the cycle by invading other red cells.
  • The blood stage parasites are those that cause the symptoms of malaria
QUESTION: 21

Which among the below given industries constitutes the list of industries reserved for the public sector and where private companies cannot enter?
1. Atomic energy
2. Railway transport
3. Arms and Ammunition and defence equipments
4. Mining
Choose the appropriate code:

Solution:

From 8 industries reserved for the public sector in 1991, there are only following 2 industries reserved for public sector at present:
1. Atomic energy – Production, separation or enrichment of special fissionable materials and substances and operation of the facilities.
2. Railway transport.

QUESTION: 22

Consider the below statements about Foreign Institutional investors (FIIs):
1. FIIs are entities established or incorporated outside India and make proposals for investments in India.
2. The nodal point for FII registrations is SEBI and hence all FIIs must register themselves with SEBI and should also comply with the exchange control regulations of the central bank.
3. In order to act as a banker to the FIIs, the SEBI has designated banks that are authorised to deal with them.
Select the correct statements from the codes given below:

Solution:

Foreign Institutional investors (FIIs) are entities established or incorporated outside India and make proposals for investments in India. These investment proposals by the FIIs are made on behalf of sub accounts, which may include foreign corporates, individuals, funds etcetera. In order to act as a banker to the FIIs, the RBI (not SEBI) has designated banks that are authorised to deal with them.
FIIs can invest in the stocks and debentures of the Indian companies. In order to invest in the primary and secondary capital markets in India, they have to venture through the portfolio investment scheme (PIS).
In fact, recently SEBI allowed FIIs to invest in unlisted exchanges as well, which means both BSE and NSE can now allot shares to FIIs also.
The nodal point for FII registrations is SEBI and hence all FIIs must register themselves with SEBI and should also comply with the exchange control regulations of the central bank. Apart from being allowed to invest in securities in primary and secondary markets, FIIs can also invest in mutual funds, dated government securities, derivatives traded on a recognised stock exchange and commercial papers.

QUESTION: 23

Consider the following statements with regard to Writ Jurisdiction of the Judiciary
1. Writ jurisdiction of High court is concurrent with respect to writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court.
2. Parliament can confer on the Supreme Court to issue writs for other purposes apart from fundamental rights also.
Choose the correct codes from the below options

Solution:

Writ jurisdiction of High Court V/s Supreme court:

  • Concurrent: When the fundamental right of a citizen is violated , the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the High court or Supreme Court directly.
  • Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for enforcement of ordinary legal right but High court can issue writs to enforce both Fundamental rights and Ordinary legal rights. But Parliament can confer on the Supreme Court to issue writs for other purposes apart from fundamental rights also
  • Writ jurisdiction of Highcourt can be issued to any person , authority and government outside of its territorial jurisdiction also.
  • Note:
  • In Chandra kumar case(1971 ) Supreme Court ruled that writ jurisdiction of both high court and Supreme Court constitute a part of the basic strucutre of the Constitution.
QUESTION: 24

Which of the below statement[s] is/are correct with regard to Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs)?
1. It is a statutory body
2. It helps in investigating financial irregularities.
3. Members of these committees are selected from both houses of the Parliament.
Choose the correct code

Solution:
  • Joint Parliamentary Committees(JPCs) isad hoc parliamentary committee.
  • It can be set up for the purpose of discussing a particular bill, or the purpose of investigating financial irregularities.
  • The parliament rarely rejects the suggestions made by the committees.
  • Members of these committees are selected from both houses and the Lok sabha members are double compared to Rajya sabha.
  • Joint committees are set up by a motion passed in one house of Parliament and agreed to by the other. The details regarding membership and subjects are also decided by Parliament.
  • For example, the motion to constitute a JPC on the stock market scam (2001) and pesticide residues in soft drinks (2003) was moved by the government in the Lok Sabha. The motion on the stock market scam constituted a JPC of 30 members of which 20 were from the Lok Sabha and 10 were from the Rajya Sabha. The terms of reference for the JPC on the stock market scam asked the committee to look into financial irregularities, to fix responsibility on persons and institutions for the scam, to identify regulatory loopholes and also to make suitable recommendations.
QUESTION: 25

Which of the following industries require compulsory license?
1. Alcoholic drinks
2. Cigarettes and tobacco products
3. Electronic aerospace and defense equipment
4. Explosives
Choose appropriate code:

Solution:

The following industries require compulsory license: -
1. Alcoholics drinks
2. Cigarettes and tobacco products
3. Electronic aerospace and defense equipment
4. Explosives
5. Hazardous chemicals such as hydrocyanic acid, phosgene, isocynates and diisocynates of hydro carbon and derivatives

QUESTION: 26

The components of balance of payments are:
1. Current Account
2. Capital Account
3. Financial Account
4. Net Errors and Omissions
5. Official reserves
Choose appropriate answer:

Solution:

Balance of Payments:
The balance of payments, (or BOP) measures the payments that flow between any individual country and all other countries. It is used to summarize all international economic transactions for that country during a specific time period, usually a year.
The BOP is determined by the country's exports and imports of goods, services, and financial capital, as well as financial transfers. It reflects all payments and liabilities to foreigners (debits) and all payments and obligations received from foreigners (credits). The components of balance of payments are:
1. Current Account
2. Capital Account
3. Financial Account
4. Net Errors and Omissions
5. Official reserves

QUESTION: 27

When a constitutional amendment aims to modify an article related to the federal structure, then

Solution:

For some articles of the Constitution, special majority is not sufficient. When an amendment aims to modify an article related to distribution of powers between the States and the central government, or articles related to representation, it is necessary that the States must be consulted and that they give their consent. We have studied the federal nature of the Constitution. Federalism means that powers of the States must not be at the mercy of the central government. The Constitution has ensured this by providing that legislatures of half the States have to pass the amendment bill before the amendment comes into effect i.e, consent of only half the States is required and simple majority of the State legislature is sufficient

QUESTION: 28

The National Board for Wildlife has approved phase 1 of the Ken-Betwa river interlinking project. Consider the following statements with respect to same
1. The project aims at providing water to the drought-prone Bundelkhand area.
2. As part of the project the government will have to divert thousands hectares of land including Panna Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh. 

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Solution:

As part of the project, the government will have to divert 5,258 hectares of forests. This includes 4,141 hectares of the Panna Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
The project has a significant environment and wildlife impact as it passes right through the reserve where tigers had vanished in 2009 The Ken-Betwa project aims at providing water to the drought-prone Bundelkhand area. The purpose is to irrigate 6.35 lakh hectares of land, provide drinking water and generate hydroelectricity.
The Ken-Betwa project aims to transfer 591 million cubic metre of surplus water in the Ken basin through a 231.45 km canal to the Betwa river.

QUESTION: 29

Which of the following tribes are not found in Meghalaya?

Solution:

Khasi, Garo and
Jaintias – Meghalaya
Gond - Chattisgarh

QUESTION: 30

Consider the following statements
1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy attracted a band of young men and with their cooperation he started “Atmiya Sabha” in 1814 in Calcutta
2. He started Samvad Kaumudi paper in 1821
3. Vedanta college was started by him in 1825 
Select the correct statements

Solution:

All the 3 statements are correct.

QUESTION: 31

Which of the following countries share the longest land boundary with India?

Solution:

Bangladesh and India share a 4,096-kilometer (2,545-mile)-long international border, the fifth-longest land border in the world, including 262 km in Assam, 856 km in Tripura, 180 km in Mizoram, 443 km in Meghalaya, and 2,217 km in Bengal.

QUESTION: 32

Arrange following committees w.r.t. Poverty Alleviation in chronological order
1. Y K Alag Committee
2. C Rangarajan Committee
3. Lakadwala Committee
4. Suresh Tendulkar Committee
5. N C Saxena Committee 
Select the correct answer:

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

Consider the following statement regarding Indian ‘Thar’ Desert:
1. It lies in the rain shadow region of Himalayas
2. It is dotted with sand dunes and Barchans
3. Rate of evapotranspiration is higher than precipitation
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:

To the northwest of the Aravali hills lies the Great Indian desert. It is a land of undulating topography dotted with longitudinal dunes and barchans. This region receives low rainfall below 150 mm per year; hence, it has arid climate with low vegetation cover. It is because of these characteristic features that this is also known as Marusthali. Low precipitation and high evaporation makes it a water deficit region.

QUESTION: 34

Which of the following tree species are found in Tropical Evergreen forests of India?
1. Rosewood
2. Mahogany
3. Ebony
4. Teak
5. Sal
Select the code from the following:

Solution:

Rosewood, Mahogany and Ebony are found in Tropical Evergreen Forests. Teak and Sal are found in deciduous forests of India.

QUESTION: 35

Consider the following regarding ‘Optical Fibres’
1. It works on the principle of ‘Total Internal Reflection’
2. Optical fibres have a high bandwidth (data carrying capacity) of the order of GHz.
3. Optical fibres are made from silica
Select the correct code

Solution:

Glass optical fibers are almost always made from silica, but some other materials, such as fluorozirconate, fluoroaluminate, and chalcogenide glasses as well as crystalline materials like sapphire, are used for longer-wavelength infrared or other specialized applications. Silica and fluoride glasses usually have refractive indices of about 1.5, but some materials such as the chalcogenides can have indices as high as 3.

QUESTION: 36

Which of the following statements define the term ‘Transhumance’?

Solution:

Transhumance: It is a seasonal movement of people—people who rear animals move in search of new pastures according to changes in seasons.
Gujjar-Bakarwal tribe of Jammu and Kashmir is famous for transhumance. During winters they come down to plains with their sheeps and goats. While during summer they migrate to mountain pastures to use nutrient rich grass for their herds

QUESTION: 37

Jets flying in atmosphere, leaves a white trail. It is made of:

Solution:

It’s not smoke. It's pure ice.
The moisture from their engines condenses. We see trails of this condensed moisture for some time when there is no air movement to disturb it.

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following statements correctly defines ‘Mixed cropping’?

Solution:

Mixed cropping, also known as inter- cropping or co-cultivation, is a type of agriculture that involves planting two or more of plants simultaneously in the same field. In general, the theory is that planting multiple crops at once will allow the crops to work together.

QUESTION: 39

Consider the following statements in the context of instruments of Money Market Management:
1. A certificate of deposits is a time deposit, commonly offered to consumers by banks, thrift institutions, and credit unions and which has a specific, fixed term usually, and a fixed interest rate.
2. Commercial papers is a moneymarket security issued (sold) by large corporations to get money to meet short term debt obligations, and is only backed by an issuing bank or corporation’s promise to pay the face amount on the maturity date specified on the note.
3. Treasury bills can be purchased by any one (including individuals) except State govt. which are issued by RBI and sold through fortnightly or monthly auctions at varying discount rate depending upon the bids.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:

All the given statements are correct.

QUESTION: 40

Which of the following is not helpful in controlling money supply?

Solution:

Central Bank, i.e. RBI in India, controls the quantity of money in an economy through measures like - reserve requirement, CRR, Bank rate, Open Market Operations, Quantitative Easing Program etc. (not Free market policy)
Central banks work hard to ensure that a nation's economy remains healthy. One way central banks do this is by controlling the amount of money circulating in the economy. They can do this by influencing interest rates, setting reserve requirements, and employing open market operation tactics, among other approaches. Having the right quantity of money in circulation is crucial to ensuring a healthy and sustainable economy.

QUESTION: 41

Consider the following statements
1. Shivaji’s system of administration was largely borrowed from the administrative practices of Deccani states.
2. Asthapradhan’s nature was like council of ministers.
3. Shivaji preferred to give revenue grants to regular soldiers but cash salaries to chiefs.
Select the correct code

Solution:

Statement 1 - Shivaji died in 1680, shortly after his return from the Karnataka expedition. Meanwhile, he had laid the foundations of a sound system of administration. Shivaji’s system of administration was largely borrowed from the admin administrative practices of the Deccani states.
Statement 2 – He designated 8 ministers. They were called as Ashtapradhan. But their nature wasn’t of today’s council of ministers as each minister was directly responsible to the ruler while today they are responsible to legislature.
Statement 3 – Shivaji preferred to give cash salaries to the regular soldiers, though sometimes the chiefs received revenue grants (saranjam). Strict discipline was maintained in the army, no women or dancing girls being aIIowed to accompany the army. The plunder taken by each soldier during campaigns was strictly accounted for (it wasn’t like the soldier saying let’s take the plunder home)

QUESTION: 42

Consider the following statements about Portuguese impacts on Indian trade, society and politics
1. They had helped in transmitting the agricultural products like potatoes, tobacco from America to India.
2. Science and technology which had grown in Europe was also transmitted to India by them.
3. Opened India’s trade with Japan.
Which of the above statement/statements is or are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1

  • Portuguese had helped to transmit a no. of agricultural products from Central America, such as potato, tobacco, etc.
  • But these became widespread only after the rise to power of the Mughals.

Statement 2

  • The Portuguese could not act as bridge for transmitting to India the science and technology which had grown in Europe since the Renaissance.
  • This was partly because the Portuguese were themselves not as deeply affected by the renaissance as Itlay and North Europe.
  • Later, with the growth of a Catholic religious’ reaction led by the Jesuits, they even set their face aginst it.

Statement 3

  • The Portuguese did, however open up India’s trade with Japan from which copper and silver were obtained.
  • They also demonstrated how naval power could be used to harass and hamper trade even of such a well-developed country as India.
QUESTION: 43

Consider the map given below:

The route indicated in map, during course of his military exploits was followed by:

Solution:

You can easily eliminate the options (b) and (d) if you have read Akbar and Muhammad bin Tughlaq. While this map is related to Alaudin Khalji but only because of Malik Kafur who was his military caommander.
See this image. Hope you remember something –

  • Alauddin Khalji’s greatest achievement was the conquest of Deccan and the far south.
  • This region was ruled by 4 important dynasties –

1. Yadavas of Devagiri – ruler Ramachandra Deva
2. Kakatiyas of Warangal - Pratabarudra Deva
3. Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra - Vira Ballala III
4. Pandyas of Madurai - Vira Pandya
Malik Kafur, Alauddin’s military commander, subdued all the 4 region’s rulers one by one and seized vast quantity of booty and returned to Delhi.

QUESTION: 44

National Income estimates in India is prepared by:

Solution:

The Central Statistical Office which is one of the two wings of the National Statistical Organisation (NSO) is responsible for coordination of statistical activities in the country and for evolving and maintaining statistical standards. Its activities include compilation of National Accounts; conduct of Annual Survey of Industries and Economic Censuses, compilation of Index of Industrial Production, as well as Consumer Price Indices. It also deals with various social statistics, training, international cooperation, Industrial Classification etc.
The CSO is headed by a Director-General who is assisted by 5 Additional Director Generals looking after the National Accounts Division, Social Statistics Division, Economic Statistics Division, Training Division and the Coordination and Publication Division.

QUESTION: 45

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is a

Solution:

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory authority established under the SEBI Act 1992 and is the principal regulator for Stock Exchanges in India. SEBI's primary functions include protecting investor interests, promoting and regulating the Indian securities markets.

QUESTION: 46

Consider the following statements about MERCOSUR
1. It is a South American and Central American trading bloc
2. None of the ‘full members’ of the bloc is landlocked a country
3. The members of ANDEAN community are associate members of MERCOSUR
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect ?

Solution:

It is a South American sub-regional trading bloc.
Full Members - Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay and Venezuela Paraguay is a landlocked country
Associate Members - Bolivia, Chile, Peru, Colombia, Ecuador and Suriname
Observer Members – New Zealand and Mexico
Andean Community Members - Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Peru

QUESTION: 47

Which of the following states accounts for the highest number of endemic flowering plants

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

Consider the following statements:
1. Recently launched Gatimaan express has become the fastest train of India.
2. Gatimaan Express connects Agra and Delhi.
3. The top speed of Gatimaan Express is 250km per hour.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:

Gatimaan express is the fastest train of the country.
Gatimaan Express is an Indian first semi high speed train (semi bullet train) that runs between Delhi and Agra in India. It operates at a max speed of 160 km/h (99 mph) and is the fastest train in India. The train takes 100 minutes to cover the 188 kilometres (117 mi) journey from Hazrat Nizamuddin(Delhi) to Agra railway stations which makes the average speed as 112 km/h (70 mph)

QUESTION: 49

Cotton textile industry is found in almost all parts of the country. Which of the following statements are correct reasons for this?
1. It is neither a weight gaining nor weight losing industry.
2. Cotton can be easily grown in all types of climatic conditions.
3. Cotton can be grown in all type of soils in India.
4. Government is providing special subsidy to cotton industries to promote their growth.
Select the code from below:

Solution:

We have already discussed the factors of location of industries in our previous value add.
The most important factor of location is the transportation cost of the raw materials and finished goods. On the basis of weight, an industry can be weight gaining, weight 
losing or a constant weight industry.
A weight gaining industry is located near the market, so that final cost of transportation is less. Example, automobiles, heavy engineering etc.
A weight losing industry is located near the raw materials. Like iron and steel, aluminium smelting etc.
A constant weight industry is a footloose industry, which can be developed anywhere. It includes, cotton, leather etc.

QUESTION: 50

Water in atmosphere can be found in the form of:
1. Water vapour
2. Liquid droplets
3. Ice crystals
Select the code from following:

Solution:

The water in atmosphere is found in all the three states- solid, liquid and gas. In the lower atmosphere, the water is found in the form of water vapour.
Clouds are nothing but condensed water droplets suspended in air.
Higher clouds, especially cirrus, contain ice crystals. They are formed when water vapour gets condensed below freezing point.

QUESTION: 51

Consider the following:
1. Lodhi garden
2. Qutab MInar
3. Fatehpur Sikri
4. Itimaddaulah’s Tomb
The correct chronological order in which they were built is:

Solution:

Even if you remember the chronology of the rulers who have built these buildings you will be able to correct this question.
Lodhi Garden

  • Lodhi Gardens is a city park situated in New Delhi, India.
  • It contains, Mohammed Shah's Tomb, Tomb of Sikandar Lodi, Shisha Gumbad and Bara Gumbad.
  • It was built by Lodhi’s, last dynasty of Delhi sultanate.
QUESTION: 52

Select the correctly matched pairs:
1. habeas corpus: both public authorities as well as private Individuals
2. Mandamus: by the court to a public official
3. Prohibition: only against judicial and quasijudicial authorities
4. Certiorari: against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies
Choose the appropriate code

Solution:
QUESTION: 53

Consider the following statements
1. Charter Act 1833 ended the activities of East India Company as a commercial Body
2. William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
Select the correct answer from the codes below:

Solution:

Main features of the Charter Act 1933 are

  • This Act was the final step towards centralisation in British India.
  • It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
  • It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord
  • William Bentick was the first governor-general of India. · It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
  • It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
  • The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
QUESTION: 54

In India the term Black Revolution is associated with:

Solution:

Self-dependence in the production of petroleum crude oil.

QUESTION: 55

As per RBI guidelines, which of the following is covered under Nonperforming Assets (NPA)?
1. Non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or an advance where Interest and/ or installment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than a year in respect of a term loan.
2. It is a loan or an advance where the account remains ‘out of order’ in respect of an Overdraft/Cash Credit.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:

Non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or an advance where Interest and/or installment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than 90 days in respect of a term loan.

QUESTION: 56

Consider the following statements:
1. Agreement on Agriculture is a multilateral trade negotiation under the aegis of World Bank.
2. The agreement is concerned with reduction in subsidies given by different countries to their agricultural sector.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

AOA is a multilateral trade negotiation of World Trade Organization (WTO).

QUESTION: 57

Consider the following statements about Algeria
1. It shares its borders with Nigeria, Tunisia, Morocco and Libya
2. It was colonized by the Spanish
3. Mediterranean Sea is to the west of Algeria 
Which of the following statements is are correct?

Solution:

It does not share its border with Nigeria Mediterranean Sea is to the north of Algeria It
was colonized by the French

QUESTION: 58

Consider the following:

Which of the above National Parks are correctly matched with the species they protect?

Solution:

Kaziranga National Park (Assam) – One horned Rhinoceros
Ranthambor National Park (Rajasthan) – Tiger
Dachigam National Park (Kashmir) – Hangul (Kashmir stag)

QUESTION: 59

Consider the following statements:
1. Monazite soil of Kerala is a rich source for mining Uranium.
2. Thummalapalle mine of Andhra Pradesh has been claimed to be the largest reserve of Uranium found in the world.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

Solution:

1st Statement is incorrect.
Monazite is a rare phosphate mineral with a chemical composition of (Ce,La,Nd,Th)(PO4,SiO4). When in high enough concentrations, they are mined for their rare earth and thorium content.
The Tummalapalle Mine is a uranium mine in Tumalapalli village located in Kadapa of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. Results from a research conducted by the Atomic Energy Commission of India in 2011 made the analysts conclude that this mine might have one of the largest reserves of uranium in the world.
Note: This information is not directly given in the book. But in this set as well as the previous set, you had minerals in your syllabus. We expect you to do some research on your own to know about the current important topics. A lot of emphasis is being given on the rare earth metals these days. You can always expect a question on them.

QUESTION: 60

Which of the following statements correctly defines the practice of ‘Intercropping’?

Solution:
  • Intercropping: Different crops are grown in the same field in different rows and at different times to avoid exposing the bare land to water or wind.
  • Crop Rotation: It is a practice of growing different crops in systematic succession. This helps in maintaining the level of nutrients in the soil and pest control.
QUESTION: 61

Which of the following states has the longest coastline in India?

Solution:

Coastal Length of Indian States (in decreasing order of coastline)

  • Gujarat – 1600 Km.
  • Tamil Nadu – 1076 Km.
  • Andhra Pradesh – 974 Km.
  • Maharashtra – 720 Km.
  • Kerala – 580 Km.
  • Odisha – 480 Km.
  • Karnataka – 320 Km

Gujarat has a highly inundated coastline with many creeks. That’s why its length is highest.

QUESTION: 62

The sources of mercury pollution include
1. Gold mining
2. Automobiles.
3. Waste incinerators
4. Supersonic jets.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution:

1, 2 and 3 only. Supersonic jets release nitrogen oxides and not mercury.
Others are sources of mercury pollution –
Mining and refinement of metals is the third largest man-made source of mercury emissions. The United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) estimates that large-scale gold production contributes 6-7% of manmade mercury emissions, and other metal mining and processing contributes an additional 10%.
Trash incinerators. Hazardous waste, medical waste, and regular garbage incinerators release mercury. Apart from that, the mercury comes from common household items, such as compact fluorescent light bulbs and thermostats, and from automobile scrap. Medical waste now accounts for the smallest amount of mercury emissions from incinerators.
Additionally, Coal-fired power plants- Mercury exists naturally in coal, making coal-fired power plants the largest source of mercury pollution in this country. Coal accounts for nearly 50 percent of the electricity generated in this country—and almost 50 tons of mercury emissions annually.

QUESTION: 63

What constitute photochemical smog?
1. Ozone
2. Carbon Monoxide
3. Peroxyacetyl nitrate(PAN)
4. Nitrogen oxide
Select the correct code:

Solution:

Photochemical smog is the chemical reaction of sunlight, nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds in the atmosphere, which leaves airborne particles and ground-level ozone. This noxious mixture of air pollutants may include the following:

  • Aldehydes
  • Nitrogen oxides, particularly nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide
  • Peroxyacetyl nitrates
  • Tropospheric ozone
  • Volatile organic compounds
QUESTION: 64

Which of the following is/are the Industrial uses of Hydraulic Fracturing?
1. carbon sequestration
2. groundwater remediation
3. tunnel and dam construction
4. to produce oil and gas resources from tight reservoirs
Select the correct code:

Solution:

Hydraulic fracturing has received abundant media attention in recent years due to a rapid increase in the use of the technique in combination with horizontal drilling technology to produce oil and gas resources from tight reservoirs. Hydraulic fracturing techniques are also used in a variety of other applications that are unrelated to oil and gas production, including tunnel and dam construction, enhanced geothermal energy, carbon sequestration, groundwater remediation, block cave mining, rock burst mitigation, and water well development

QUESTION: 65

Which of the following organisms use echolocation to locate predator and prey?
1. Bat
2. Whale
3. Dolphins
4. Cave swiftlets
Select the correct combination:

Solution:

Echolocation is the use of sound waves and echoes to determine where objects are in space.
Echolocating animals include some mammals and a few birds; most notably microchiropteran bats and odontocetes (toothed whales and dolphins), but also in simpler form in other groups such as shrews, one genus of megachiropteran bats ( Rousettus ) and two cave dwelling bird groups, the so-called cave swiftlets in the genus Aerodramus (formerly Collocalia ) and the unrelated Oilbird Steatornis caripensis

QUESTION: 66

Consider the following statements about The International Bureau of Education (IBE)
1. It joined UNESCO in 1969 as an international centre of excellence in comparative education
2. It is a UNESCO ‘Category -2’ institute,
which is not legally part of the organisation Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Solution:

IBE-UNESCO became the first ever intergovernmental organization in the field of education established to advance peace through education in 1929. Originally founded by a group of renowned educationalists in Geneva as a private institute in 1925, IBE-UNESCO was led by the famous Swiss psychologist, Jean Piaget for almost 40 years. It joined UNESCO in 1969 as an international centre of excellence in comparative education. IBE-UNESCO has and will continue its quest for excellence as the global centre for curriculum and related matters. It is a UNESCO category 1 institute. Scientific Category 1 institutes are an integral part of UNESCO. Category 2 institutes and centres are under the auspices of UNESCO but are not legally part of the Organization; they are associated with it through formal arrangements approved by the General Conference. They contribute to the execution of UNESCO’s programme through capacity building; the exchange of information in a particular discipline; theoretical and experimental research; and advanced training

QUESTION: 67

Consider the following statements about ‘Rice Straw’
1. It makes a superb fodder for animals is it is palatable
2. It has high silica content
Select the correct statements

Solution:

Rice straw is not used as fodder as it is found to be non-palatable to animals due to its high silica content. Because of its little economic value as animal feed and other general uses, farmers are prompted to burn it on the field instead of incurring a high cost on collecting it. In fact, field studies show that even though farmers are aware that the burning of straw is harmful to health, they do not have alternatives for utilising them effectively.

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Parliament can increase a tax.
2. Parliament cannot reduce a tax.
3. Parliament can abolish a tax.
4. Parliament cannot increase a tax.
5. Parliament can reduce a tax.
Choose the appropriate code:

Solution:

Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but cannot increase it.

QUESTION: 69

Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Service tax is a/an

Solution:

Service tax is an indirect tax levied by the centre but collected and appropriated by both the centre and the states.

QUESTION: 70

Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Valley civilization:
1. Bricks were used for the first time in the word.
2. Horse carts were used for transportation.
3. Ornaments were worn only by females.
4. Not many weapons are found. Generally iron axe, spears and daggers were used.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:
  • Bricks were used in other civilizations as well before the Indus Valley civilization. But for the first time, the burnt bricks were used.
  • Bullock carts were used as a means of transport. The domestication or knowledge of horse is conspicuous.
  • Ornaments were used both by males and females.
  • Iron was not known to the people of Indus Valley. Generally tools and weapons were made of copper and bronze.
QUESTION: 71

Which of the following Rig Vedic God is said to be the upholder of the ‘Rta’ or cosmic order?

Solution:

Varuna is the god of the sky, of water and of the celestial ocean, as well as a god of law called Rita, and of the Patal Loka .

QUESTION: 72

Consider following statements about ‘Kigali amendment to Montreal Protocol’
1. This is not a legally binding agreement to reduce use of HFCs.
2. In all 197 countries, including India have agreed to a timeline to reduce the use of HFCs by roughly 80% of their baselines by 2045.
3. The Kigali Agreement or amended Montreal Protocol for HFCs reduction will be binding-on countries from 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

As many as 197 countries reached a legally binding agreement in Rwanda on October 15 to phase down the production and consumption of hydrofluorocarbons – gases that can have global warming potential up to 12,000 times more than carbon dioxide. The agreement will come into force on January 1, 2019, and avoid emission of 70 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent globally – the same as stopping more than half of tropical deforestation. By 2045, these countries will reduce HFCs by 80% of the average consumption between 2020 and 2022.

QUESTION: 73

In an ecotone, the abundantly present species is called

Solution:

A keystone species is a species that has a disproportionately large effect on its environment relative to its abundance. When a keystone species is removed from a habitat, the habitat is dramatically changed. All other species are affected and some may disappear from that ecosystem or even become extinct.
In ecology, edge effects refer to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary of two habitats (ecotone). Sometimes the number of species and the population density of some of the species in the ecotone is much greater than either community. This is called edge effect. The organisms which occur primarily or most abundantly in this zone are known as edge species .
Foster species are those species which get smaller or bigger depending on the resources available in the environment and follows the foster’s rule.
Endemism is the ecological state of a species being unique to a defined geographic location, such as an island, nation, country or other defined zone, or habitat type; organisms that are indigenous to a place are not endemic to it if they are also found elsewhere.

QUESTION: 74

Two important rivers – one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha – merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?

Solution:
  • Bhitarkanika - the rivers are Brahmani and Baitarani rivers.
  • Simlipal National Park is far away from coast. It is a national park and a tiger reserve in the Mayurbhanj district in the Indian state of Odisha.
  • Chandipur-on-sea and Gopalpur -on-sea are tourist destinations with resorts. There is no significant wildlife or bio-diversity.
QUESTION: 75

Which of the following pair[s] is/are correctly matched?

Choose the appropriate code

Solution:

The Kurds are an ethnic group in the Middle East, mostly inhabiting a contiguous area spanning adjacent parts of eastern and southeastern Turkey (Northern Kurdistan), western Iran (Eastern or Iranian Kurdistan), northern Iraq (Southern or Iraqi Kurdistan), and northern Syria (Western Kurdistan or Rojava ). The Kurds are culturally and linguistically closely related to the Iranian peoples and, as a result, are often themselves classified as an Iranian people.
Uighurs: The Xinjiang autonomous region in China's far west has had a long history of discord between the authorities and the indigenous ethnic Uighur population.

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following is the deepest trench of the World?

Solution:

The Challenger Deep in the Mariana Trench is the deepest known point in Earth's oceans. In 2010 the United States Center for Coastal & Ocean Mapping measured the depth of the Challenger Deep at 10,994 meters (36,070 feet) below sea level with an estimated vertical accuracy of ± 40 meters.

QUESTION: 77

Indian constitution is a combination of federal and non-federal features. Point out the nonfederal features from these:
1. All India Services
2. Flexibility of the constitution
3. Supremacy of constitution
4. Bicameralism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

All India Services increases the power of Centre by allowing them some control over state administration, thus its non-federal. A flexible constitution which can be easily changed by the Centre without state’s consultation, skews power in respect of states and thus in non-federal. The rest two – Supremacy of constitution and Bicameralism are federal features.

QUESTION: 78

In which of the following situations Rajya Sabha shares unequal status with the Lok Sabha.
1. approval of ordinances
2. approval of national emergency
3. voting on demand for grants
4. Impeachment of the Vice-President
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Rajya Sabha has equal power in both – approval of ordinances and approval of national emergency. Its in revocation of emergency that only Lok Sabha’s approval is needed. And of course , only lok sabha had the power to vote on demand for grants, while rajya sabha can only discuss it. Rajya sabha enjoys greater powers in impeachment of VP as impeachment can be initiated only by RS.

QUESTION: 79

The major benefits of federalism is/are
1. it helps in quick decision making
2. it gives voice to regional interests
3. it creates a network of checks and balances
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Federalism divides the government power between centre and state. At times there may be disagreements between central and state government (e.g. the case of GST). This actually hinders quick decision making. Federalism brings government closer to people helping regional issues gain prominence thus giving voice to regional interests. By dividing government power, it creates a network of checks and balances.

QUESTION: 80

Consider the following statements:
1. Alexander’s army met Porus on the bank of River Jhelum.
2. Porus was defeated but was reinstated as a ruler.
3. Alexander’s army wanted to go further and conquer Ganga plains but they had to retreat as Alexander fell ill.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

Solution:

Alexander sent a message to Porus to submit. But Porus refused and decided to fight against Alexander. Then Alexander marched from Taxila to the banks of the river Hydaspes (Jhelum). On the other side of the river he saw the vast army of Porus . As there were heavy floods in the river, Alexander was not able to cross it. After a few days, he crossed the river and the famous battle of Hydaspes was fought on the plains of Karri. It was a well-contested battle. Although Porus had a strong army, he lost the battle. Alexander was impressed by the courage and heroism of this Indian prince, treated him generously and reinstated him on his throne.
Alexander continued his march as far as the river Beas encountering opposition from the local tribes. He wanted to proceed still further eastwards towards the Gangetic valley. But he could not do so because his soldiers refused to fight. Hardships of prolonged warfare made them tired and they wanted to return home. Alexander could not persuade them and therefore decided to return.

QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements regarding virtual autopsy.
1. In a virtual autopsy, doctors use radiation to examine the innards to reach a conclusion about the cause of death.
2. A computerized tomography (CT) or a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machine cannot be used in virtual autopsy.
3. Virtual autopsy is time consuming compared to traditional postmortem.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Solution:

In a virtual autopsy, doctors use radiation to examine the innards to reach a conclusion about the cause of death. A CT or an MRI machine could be used, in the same way that they are used to scan a living human’s body. “The All India Institute of Medical Science (AIIMS), New Delhi and Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) are working together on a technique for postmortem without incising/dissecting the body. This technique is likely to become functional in the next six months.” A virtual autopsy is also faster than a traditional one — 30 minutes against 2½ hours, — and more costeffective.

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements regarding Formation of a New Country.
1. There is no law barring regions from declaring independence.
2. A region’s quest for nationhood mainly depends on how many countries and international organisations it manages to convince to recognise it as a country.
3. The right of “self-determination” is not included in the UN charter.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

How does a territory become a new country?
There is no straightforward rule. Beyond a few set requirements, a region’s quest for nationhood mainly depends on how many countries and international organisations it manages to convince to recognise it as a country. The biggest sanction of nationhood is the United Nations recognising a territory as a country.
Who can declare itself a country?
Anyone. There is no law barring regions from declaring independence.
Somaliland in Somalia has been calling itself a country since 1991, but no one else recognises it. Kosovo in Serbia declared independence in 2008, and only a few other countries recognise it.
In June 1945, the right of “self-determination” was included in the UN charter. This means that a population has the right to decide how and by whom it wants to be governed.

QUESTION: 83

Consider the following statements regarding hydrogen fuel cell.
1. Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEV) uses hydrogen, and an oxidant to create electricity by an electrochemical process.
2. Like a battery-electricity vehicle, fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEV) can also store energy.
3. Hydrogen fuel cells produce much smaller quantities of greenhouse gases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Supreme Court has asked government to look into the feasibility of hydrogen-based tech to deal with vehicular air pollution in capital.
At the heart of the fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEV) is a device that uses a source of fuel, such as hydrogen, and an oxidant to create electricity by an electrochemical process. Put simply, the fuel cell combines hydrogen and oxygen to generate an electric current, water being the only byproduct. Like conventional batteries under the bonnets of automobiles, hydrogen fuel cells too convert chemical energy into electrical energy.
While the fuel cells generate electricity through an electrochemical process, unlike a battery-electricity vehicle, it does not store energy and, instead, relies on a constant supply of fuel and oxygen — in the same way that an internal combustion engine relies on a constant supply of petrol or diesel, and oxygen. In that sense, it may be seen as being similar to a conventional internal combustion engine.
Fuel cells have strong advantages over conventional combustion-based technologies currently used in many power plants and cars, given that they produce much smaller quantities of greenhouse gases and none of the air pollutants that cause health problems. Also, if pure hydrogen is used, fuel cells emit only heat and water as a byproduct. Such cells are also far more energy efficient than traditional combustion technologies.

QUESTION: 84

Which of the following constitutes highest human source of Methane?

Solution:

There are both natural and human sources of methane emissions. The main natural sources include wetlands, termites and the oceans. Natural sources create 36% of methane emissions. Human sources include landfills and livestock farming. But the most important source being the production, transportation and use of fossil fuels. Human-related sources create the majority of methane emissions, accounting for 64% of the total. Methane levels have more than doubled over the last 150 years. This is because of human activities like fossil fuel use and intensive farming.
Since the Industrial Revolution, human sources of methane emissions have been growing. Fossil fuel production and intensive livestock farming have caused the current increase methane levels. Together these two sources are responsible for 60% of all human methane emissions. Other sources include landfills and waste (16%), biomass burning (11%), rice agriculture (9%) as well as biofuels (4%)

QUESTION: 85

Consider the following statements regarding National Strategy for Financial Inclusion.
1. Ministry of Finance under the aegis of Financial Inclusion Advisory Committee (FIAC) initiated the process of formulation of National Strategy for Financial Inclusion.
2. National Strategy for Financial Inclusion is for the period 2019-2024.
3. United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDG)view financial inclusion as a key enabler for achieving sustainable development worldwide.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion 2019-2024 on January 10, 2020. It sets forth the vision and objectives of financial inclusion policies in India. The strategy was prepared by the RBI with inputs from the central government and financial sector regulators (Securities and Exchange Board of India, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India and Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India).
  • The report refers to financial inclusion as the process of ensuring access to financial services, and timely and adequate credit for vulnerable groups and low-income groups at an affordable cost. Financial inclusion has a multiplier effect in boosting overall economic output, reducing poverty and income inequality, and in promoting gender equality and women empowerment.
QUESTION: 86

Consider the following statements regarding Arms Trade Treaty (ATT).
1. It is a multilateral treaty that regulates the international trade in conventional weapons.
2. The treaty was negotiated under the auspices of the United Nations (UN).
3. It regulates the domestic sale or use of weapons in any country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The Arms Trade Treaty (ATT) is a multilateral treaty that regulates the international trade in conventional weapons.
It entered into force on 24 December 2014. 109 states have ratified the treaty, and a further 32 states have signed but not ratified it.
The ATT is an attempt to regulate the international trade of conventional weapons for the purpose of contributing to international and regional peace; reducing human suffering; and promoting cooperation, transparency, and responsible action by and among states.
The treaty was negotiated in New York City at a global conference under the auspices of the United Nations (UN) from 2–27 July 2012. As it was not possible to reach an agreement on a final text at that time, a new meeting for the conference was scheduled for 18–28 March 2013. On 2 April 2013, the UN General Assembly adopted the ATT.
International weapons commerce has been estimated to reach US$70 billion a year.

QUESTION: 87

Consider the following statements regarding National Economic Census.
1. The national economic census is conducted once in every ten years and is crucial for framing of policies and planning for the government and other organisations.
2. Recently seventh Economic Census (7th EC) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) was launched.
3. For the first time, the entire census is being conducted on a digital platform by the use of an application.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Specialty of 7th Economic census

  • The Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation (MoSPI) has tied up with Common Service Centre (CSC) to carry out the 7th National Economic Census.
  • For the first time the entire Census is being conducted on a digital platform by the use of an application which will ensure high accuracy and data security.
QUESTION: 88

Consider the following statements regarding Chabahar Port.
1. Chabahar Port in located in South-Eastern Iran, on the Gulf of Bab-el-Mandeb.
2. The Chabahar Port commenced its operations in 2018.
3. It serves as Iran’s only oceanic port.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Chabahar located in southeastern Iran, on the Gulf of Oman.
  • It serves as Iran's only oceanic port
QUESTION: 89

StrandHogg, recently seen in news is

Solution:

Promon, a Norwegian firm specialising in In-App protection, found proof of this dangerous Android vulnerability, which they call 'StrandHogg', Old Norse for the Viking tactic of raiding coastal areas to plunder and hold people for ransom.

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statements regarding Air-independent propulsion (AIP).
1. Air-independent propulsion (AIP) is a marine propulsion technology that allows a non-nuclear submarine to operate without access to atmospheric oxygen.
2. Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) has a force multiplier effect on the lethality of a diesel-electric submarine as it enhances the submerged endurance of the boat, several folds.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Submarines are essentially of two types: conventional and nuclear. Conventional submarines use a dieselelectric engine, and must surface daily for oxygen for fuel combustion. If fitted with an Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) system, the sub needs to take in oxygen only once a week.
While many naval powers, including India, have acquired nuclear-powered submarines for deep-sea operations, conventional diesel-electric variants are considered useful for coastal defence. The latter are optimised for stealth, and their weapons and sensors provide for effective operations close to the shore.
Because diesel-electric submarines require to come to the surface frequently to charge their batteries, their underwater endurance time is less. ‘Air-independent’ propulsion technology helps to make the diesel generator less dependent on surface air.
In a fuel cell AIP, an electrolytic fuel cell releases energy by combining hydrogen and oxygen, with only water as the waste product. The cells are highly efficient, and do not have moving parts, thus ensuring that the submarine has a low acoustic signature. Older submarines can be adapted to the AIP system by retrofitting.

QUESTION: 91

Consider the following pairs:

Select the correct code:

Solution:

Shahi Litchi – Bihar
Kadaknath chicken meat – Madhya Pradesh
Etikoppaka toys – Andhra Pradesh
Adilabad dokra – Telangana

QUESTION: 92

Consider the following statements regarding Food Safety Mitra (FSM).
1. In a bid to improve the ease of doing business, Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) launched the scheme Food Safety Mitra (FSM).
2. The scheme will support large scale food businesses in compliance to the food safety laws.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

In a bid to improve the ease of doing business, apex food regulator Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) launched a scheme --Food Safety Mitra (FSM). The scheme will support small and medium scale food businesses in compliance to the food safety laws. FSSAI has said that the scheme will lead to improved ease of doing business by creating a transparent and organized ecosystem supporting food businesses wherein food businesses will be able to get trained service providers at fair prices - lowering the costs of compliance. “Apart from strengthening food safety, this scheme would also create new employment opportunities for youth, particularly with food and nutrition background. A Food Safety Mitra is an individual professional certified by FSSAI who assists in compliances related to FSS Act, Rules and regulations with three avatars viz. Digital Mitra, Trainer Mitra and Hygiene Mitra depending upon their respective roles and responsibilities.

QUESTION: 93

Consider the following statements regarding India Innovation Index (III) 2019.
1. NITI Aayog with Institute for Competitiveness the knowledge partner released the India Innovation Index (III) 2019.
2. Tamil Nadu is the most innovative major state in India.
3. The top ten major states are majorly concentrated in southern and western India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

India Innovation Index (III) 2019 has been released by NITI Aayog on October 17, 2019. The index highlights that Karnataka is the most innovative state in India however, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat are among top ten in the list.

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following statements about rare disease.
1. Rare disease is the one which occurs rarely during extreme weather conditions.
2. Most rare diseases are genetic in nature.
3. The most common rare diseases recorded in India are Haemophilia, Thalassemia and sickle-cell anaemia.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

A rare disease, also referred to as an orphan disease, is any disease that affects a small percentage of the population.
Most rare diseases are genetic, and are present throughout a person’s entire life, even if symptoms do not immediately appear.
The most common rare diseases recorded in India are Haemophilia, Thalassemia, sickle-cell anaemia and primary immuno deficiency in children, auto-immune diseases, Lysosomal storage disorders such as Pompe disease, Hirschsprung disease, Gaucher’s disease, Cystic Fibrosis, Hemangiomas and certain forms of muscular dystrophies.

QUESTION: 95

Consider the following statements.
1. Eat Right Movement was launched by World Health Organisation (WHO) which aims to cut down salt/sugar and oil consumption by 30% in three years.
2. Eat Right Movement is aligned with the India’s flagship public health programmes such as POSHAN Abhiyaan and Swachh Bharat Mission.
3. FSSAI has prescribed a limit for Total Polar Compounds (TPC)at 25% in cooking oil to avoid the harmful effects of reused cooking oil.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Eat Right Movement was launched by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
The movement aims to cut down salt/sugar and oil consumption by 30% in three years.
It also aims to engage and enable citizens to improve their health and well-being by making the right food choices.
This movement is aligned with the government’s flagship public health programmes such as POSHAN Abhiyaan, Anemia Mukt Bharat, Ayushman Bharat Yojana and Swachh Bharat Mission.
FSSAI has put in place robust regulatory measures under three major pillars: Eat Safe, Eat Health and Eat Sustainably for the programme.
FSSAI has prescribed a limit for Total Polar Compounds (TPC) at 25% in cooking oil to avoid the harmful effects of reused cooking oil.

QUESTION: 96

Consider the following statements regarding Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN) Initiative.
1. It aims to provide dignified and quality health care at low cost to every woman and newborn visiting public and private health facility in order to end all preventable maternal and newborn deaths.
2. All pregnant women, newborns and mothers up to 6 months of delivery will be able to avail several free health care services.
3. The government will also provide free transport to pregnant women from home to the health facility and drop back after discharge.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The Union Government has launched Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN) to provide quality healthcare at zero cost to pregnant women, new mothers and newborns.
It aims to provide dignified and quality health care at no cost to every woman and newborn visiting a public health facility.
Under the scheme, the beneficiaries visiting public health facilities are entitled to several free services.
These include at least four ante natal check-ups that also includes one checkup during the 1st trimester, at least one checkup under Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, Iron Folic Acid supplementation, Tetanus diptheria injection.
All pregnant women, newborns and mothers up to 6 months of delivery will be able to avail several free health care services
1. The scheme will enable zero expense access to the identification and management of complications during and after the pregnancy.
2. The government will also provide free transport to pregnant women from home to the health facility and drop back after discharge (minimum 48 hrs).
3. The pregnant women will be able to avail a zero expense delivery and C-section facility in case of complications at public health facilities.
4. The scheme will ensure that there is zero-tolerance for denial of services to such patients.

QUESTION: 97

‘Global Assessment of Forest Biodiversity’ report has been released by

Solution:

World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) has released the first-ever global assessment of forest biodiversity.
Until now, forest biodiversity had never been assessed, but forest area was often used as a proxy indicator.
The new findings were based on the Forest Specialist Index, developed following the Living Planet Index methodology — an index that tracks wildlife that lives only in forests.
There has been a 53% decline in the number of forest wildlife populations since 1970.
Of the 455 monitored populations of forest specialists, more than half declined at an annual rate of 1.7 per cent, on average between 1970 and 2014.
While the decline was consistent in these years among mammals, reptiles and amphibians (particularly from the tropical forests), it was less among birds (especially from temperate forests). 
Reasons responsible for the decline in wildlife populations:
1. Deforestation
2. Habitat loss and habitat.
3. Degradation/change.
4. Exploitation
5. Climate change.

QUESTION: 98

Consider the following statements regarding C-Sat-Fi technology.
1. C-Sat-Fi technology is based on satellite communication to extend connectivity to the unserved areas including the remote islands and difficult terrains.
2. C-Sat-Fi can work on any WiFi enabled phone.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

C-Sat-Fi (C-DOT Satellite WiFi) is based on the optimal utilization of wireless and satellite communication to extend connectivity to the unserved areas including the remote islands and difficult terrains. Besides offering the ease of deployment, the solution is ideally suited to addressing disasters and emergencies when no other means of communication are available. This cost-effective solution does not require the expensive Satellite Phones and can work on any WiFi enabled phone.

QUESTION: 99

The report titled ‘Skin and Bones Unresolved: An Analysis of Tiger Seizures from 2000-2018’ was recently released by

Solution:

The report titled ‘Skin and Bones Unresolved: An Analysis of Tiger Seizures from 2000-2018’ was the fourth in a series on tiger trade by TRAFFIC, a wildlife trade monitoring network headquartered in the United Kingdom.
The analysis said that there has been no respite for the “heavily-hunted” tiger with an estimated average of more than 120 individuals seized each year from 2000 to 2018.

QUESTION: 100

“Web- Wonder Women” Campaign recently seen in news is related to

Solution:

The Ministry of Women and Child Development hosted a felicitation event for Web Wonder Women.
About the Campaign:
1. The Campaign has been launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India in association with the NGO Breakthrough and Twitter India.
2. Through the campaign, the Ministry aims to recognize the fortitude of Indian women stalwarts from across the globe who have used the power of social media to run positive & niche campaigns to steer a change in society.
3. The Campaign is aimed at encouraging, recognizing and acknowledging the efforts of these meritorious Women.