UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 20 (Oct 4, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 20 (Oct 4, 2021)


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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 20 (Oct 4, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 20 (Oct 4, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 20 (Oct 4, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 20 (Oct 4, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 20 (Oct 4, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Consider the following statements

  1. The Iqta system as a means of tax farming was later developed into the Mansabdari system under the Mughals with no major change.

  2. Unlike feudalism in the west, Iqta holders didn't have absolute control over the land.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Mansabdari system was introduced by Akbar. The term Mansab indicated the rank of mansabdar. The Mansabdars were appointed to civil and military posts. The Mansabdars were required to maintain cavalrymen and horses. The Mansabdars who were paid in cash were called Naqdi and those paid through land (Jagirs') were called Jagirdars.

In the Iqta system one part of land belonged to the Sultan and the other part to Muqti. In the Jagirdari system the entire land belonged to the Emperor.

Thus, Mansabdari did not evolve from Iqta system

Statement 2 is correct: Feudalism was a socio-political system in Europe and based on land tenure given by lord to vassals. It is derived from the word Feud which means “conditional ownership of land”. Land became the source of power. There was no central authority resulting in little political unity.

The Feudal Lord in the west had complete control over the land. Whereas the under iqta system muqtis did not have absolute control over Iqtas.

QUESTION: 2

With reference to Privy purse in Independent India which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

Privy purse was the payment made to the royal families in accordance with agreement that they are willing to give up their ruling powers and get integrated with the Nation State of India. The amount of privy purse was based on several factors and it ranged from few thousands to millions of rupees. Privy purse was a constitutional privilege under Article 291 of the constitution which guaranteed a tax free amount payable to the erstwhile rulers of princely state and their successors. The 26th Constitutional Amendment Act 1971 abolished the privy purse in India.

QUESTION: 3

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Gulf of Guinea?

Solution:

The Gulf of Guinea includes several West African countries that border the Atlantic Ocean and these are Benin, Ghana, Togo, Nigeria, Cameroon, Gabon and Equatorial Guinea.

Option (a) The intersection of the Equator and Prime Meridian (zero degrees latitude and longitude) is in the gulf.

Among the many rivers that drain into the Gulf of Guinea are the Niger and the Volta.

Option (b) The International Chamber of Commerce has released the International Maritime Bureau’s (IMB) annual piracy report which described the Gulf of Guinea as the most dangerous area in the world for shipping.

According to its estimations, 73 percent of all sea kidnappings and 92 percent of hostage-takings occur there,

QUESTION: 4

Consider the following statements about the Charter Acts during British India

  1. The Charter Act of 1793 provided that the administrative expenses of the Board of Control were now charged to the Company.

  2. The Charter Act of 1813 introduced a portfolio based administration in the governor general’s executive council.

  3. The Charter Act of 1833 resulted in legislative centralisation in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The Charter Act mandated that the salary of staff and administrative expenditure of the Board of Control were charged upon the company. After all the expenses, the company now had to pay an annual amount of 5 lakhs rupees to the British government from Indian revenue.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The portfolio based administration in the governor general’s executive council was introduced by the Indian Council Act 1861. It transformed the viceroy's executive council into a mini cabinet based on the portfolio system. The Charter Act of 1813 ended the monopoly of the company except for trade in tea and with China and fixed the company dividend at 10.5%. The act made endeavour for revival of Indian literature and promotion of science.

Source) Modern India, Rajiv Ahir (ch 26, pg 523, 524)

Statement 3 is correct: The Charter Act of 1833 redesignated governor general of bengal as governor general of India. The Governor general of Bombay and Madras lost their legislative powers. For the first time the government of the governor general was called the government of India and his council was called the indian council. The council had the exclusive legislative powers for the British India.

QUESTION: 5

With reference to Labour movement in British India consider the following statement

  1. Sasipada Banerjee founded the workers' organisation Sramajivi Samiti and established the newspaper Bharat Sramajivi.

  2. The signallers strike in May 1899 in Great Indian Peninsular (GIP) Railway was related to wages and duration of working hours

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Sasipada banerjee was a social reformer and among the leaders of Brahmo Samaj. He is known for his work for women education and rights. He was also the founder of the newspaper Bharat Shramjivi. It was the first newspaper of the working class. He is considered as among the earliest to work for the labour rights in India. He established Working Men’s Club, the first labour organisation of Kolkata. He founded a workers organisation called Sramjivi Samiti in 1870.

Statement 2 is correct: The signallers strike in the Great Indian Peninsular (GIP) railway was related to the wages, working hours and working conditions of the labourers. The nationalist newspapers supported the strike. Tilak’s newspaper Kesari and Maharatta campaigned in favour of the strike for months and Nationalist like Pheroze Shah Mehta, D E Wacha organised public meetings and fund collections to financially support the strikers.

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following pairs

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Bahishkrit Bharat was a Marathi Fortnightly launched by B R Ambedkar with an objective of mainstreaming issues of dalit and untouchables and working for establishing equality in India.

Maharatta was an English Newspaper started by Bal GangaDhar Tilak. He used this medium for the criticism of the government and its policies.

Som Prakash was a bengali newspaper started by Dwarkanath Vidyabhushhan. It was among the first bengali newspapers having extensive socio-political discussions. It was critical of the government policies. It criticised the passing of the Vernacular Press Act and supported the ilbert bill.

QUESTION: 7

4 Vrajapati’ during the early Vedic age, was

Solution:

The Vedic people had a mixed economy of agriculture and pastoralism but primarily they were pastoral people. Vrajapati was the officer who controlled authority over pasture land. He also fought battles. He was considered as equivalent to heads at grama level.

QUESTION: 8

Nagardhana sealings in Brahmi script discovered in Maharashtra provide historical

information related to the

Solution:

Recent excavations at Nagardhan near Nagpur has provided evidence of the Vakataka dynasty and the Queen Prabhavatigupta. An oval shaped sealing has been found having the name of the queen in Brahmi script. There is also depiction of conch on the seal which indicates the affiliation to the Vaishnava sect. A copper plate has also been found which was issued by Queen Prabhavati. The copper plate mentions Samudragupta as her grandfather and Chandragupta 2 as her father. According to some scholars the sealings might have been used as an official royal permission issued by the capital.

QUESTION: 9

Consider the following

1. Sanchi Stupa symbolises Mahaparinirvana in Buddhism.

2. Chaukhandi Stupa marks the place where Buddha met his five disciples.

3. Jataka tales have been engraved on the Torana dwars and the anda (dome) of Sanchi Stupas.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Stupa is a form of architecture having a hemispherical dome. After Parinirvana the remains of Buddha were cremated and ashes were buried under eight mounds. According to the Buddhist tradition, Ashoka recollected the relics of Buddha from previously existing stupas and distributed the relics across thousands of Stupas. The Great Stupa (also called stupa no. 1) at Sanchi was originally built in the 3rd century BCE by the Mauryan emperor Ashoka and is believed to house the ashes of the Buddha.

Statement 2 is correct: The Chaukhandi Stupa is called so because of its four armed plan. It is a Gupta age structure and it symbolizes the site where Lord Buddha, while returning from Bodh Gaya was reunited with his five disciples whom he previously left at Rajgir. The Archaeological Survey of India has recently declared it as a protected area of national importance.

Statement 3 is correct: Torana is an ornamental gateway found in the premise of religious buildings. Jataka tales have been found engraved on Torana and the Anda. The Torana of Sanchi is a structure dating back to the Mauryans. It is an imitation of the Timber construction of those days. The Dome shaped Anda symbolizes the mound of dirt used to cover Buddha’s remains. Over a period of time Dome has become the home of gods at the centre of the universe.

QUESTION: 10

With reference to Harsha’s Kingdom in India, which of the following is correct about

Skandharva?

Solution:

Military camps were called Skandharva during Harsha ’s reign. These camps were built at the strategic location which gave them mobility to move freely. After there was decline in trade and scarcity of money was prevailing the military officers and soldiers were getting paid through land grants and hence the city lost its importance. The military camps became power centres and dominated large areas of land.

QUESTION: 11

Who of the following was bestowed with the title “Mammalan” which means a great

Wrestler?

Solution:

Mamallapuram or Mahabalipuram is the ancient port city of Pallava dynasty. It was initially called Mamallai. Mamallai means prosperity. The town was rich because of the trade center and wealth it brought from sea trade. Mamallan title was given to Narsimhavarman 2 of Pallava dynasty. Narsimhavarman was mentioned in Tamil Literature Sivagamiyin Sapatham written by Kalki. Mamalla means a great wrestler. Mamallapuram has been derived from the word Mamalla. Mahabalipuram is the distorted pronunciation of Mamallapuram used by the British.

QUESTION: 12

Consider the following statements regarding Swami Haridas

1. His compositions are called Vishnupadas

2. He was mentor of Tansen

3. He was a follower of Madhura Bhakti Tradition

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Swami Haridas was a spiritual poet and classical musician of the 16th century credited with a large body of devotional compositions, especially in the Dhrupad style. Haridas's compositions maybe classed as Vishnupadas.

Statement 2 is correct: Tansen learnt music from Swami Haridas for eleven years.

He is also the founder of the Haridasi school of mysticism, still found today in North India.

Statement 3 is correct: Swami Haridas belonged to the tradition of madhura bhakti - Adoration expressed in conjugal imagery. Haridas's theology embraces not merely the Love of Krishna and Radha but also the witnessing of the Love, a state of mind called rasa. In an ecstatic condition of trance he sings of the play of Krishna among the bowers of Vrindavan. More than Krishna, Radha was the central personality of all his poems.

QUESTION: 13

Consider the following statements

Bali which was voluntary in the Maurya era became compulsory in the Gupta Era.

During the Gupta age 1/6th part of all produce of the cultivators was given to the King as Bhag.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Bali was a tax used differently by different kingdoms to have additional revenue collection. In the early vedic age the bali was collected by the king from subjects and consisted of one-sixth of the agricultural produce or even cattles paid as tribute. The tribute from the enemies was also called bali. The bali in Maurya age was not compulsory and even Rummindei inscription records that people of lumbini were exempted from bali.

In Gupta age Bali became compulsory. The Gupta age made certain changes in the administration. The Maury as had centralised administration whereas Gupta’s decentralised the administration.

Statement 2 is correct: Bhaga in Gupta age was tax paid by the cultivators. It was one-sixth of the produce. Bhaga was paid in cash. The Gupta’s had the policy of devolution and it helped local communities to progress in their administration.

Bhoga: It was a general tribute to the king

Hiranya: Tax on special produce. It was paid in cash

Halivakara: Ploughing tax

Kara: non-uniform tax charged from villagers

Shulka: Custom or toll tax

Udinanga: Tax on social security

Klipta: Tax related to sale and purchase of land

QUESTION: 14

With reference to British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements

  1. William Bentinck played instrumental role in abolition of sati in India

  2. Lord Lyton is credited for giving India first local self-government

  3. Lord Hardinge role was crucial in suppressing female infanticide

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Tenure of William Bentinck is known for social reforms like Abolition of Sati, Suppression of Thagi and Infanticide. The Charter Act of 1833 was passed during his tenure by which company no longer remains a trading company. In 1829 Sati was officially banned in the areas under Bengal Presidency. Even those who performed it were now declared guilty of Culpable Homicide.

Statement 2 is correct: Lord Rippon is best known for establishing local self-governments. They were aimed to train Indians to administer their local affairs. The local committees already existing were under control of the government. Ripon removed these obstacles by resolution of 1882. Apart from that he repealed the Vernacular Press Act, first factory act was legislated and financial decentralization was carried out.

Statement 3 is correct: Lord Hardinge is remembered for suppression of female infanticide and human sacrifice carried out in the Gond tribe of Central India

QUESTION: 15

With reference to Indian History, consider the following pairs

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Moplah Revolt (1836-54) was organised in the Malabar region of Kerala. It was against the increase in revenue demand and reduction in the size of the agricultural field.

The Punjab Peasant Revolt was organised by the peasants of Punjab. The peasants were afraid of losing their land. The Punjab Alienation Act 1900 imposed regulations on sales and mortgage of the lands owned by the peasants. The National Unionist Party was established as a reaction to the legislation of the act to protect the interest of the peasants.

Ramosi Revolt (1877-87) was in the area around Satara in Maharashtra. Vasudev Balwant Phadke formed the Ramoshi peasant force. He led people from backward communities and raided government offices and treasuries and donated money to the villagers and peasants stricken by famine.

QUESTION: 16

With reference to Bahamani Kingdom, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

The Bahmani kingdom was founded by Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah, also called Hasan Gangu. Mahmud Gawan is considered to be the greatest Bahmani ruler. He made reforms in the military by improving their service conditions and ensured that the army is well disciplined. He also reformed primary education for children and established Madarsa. He trained his revenue officers not to be harsh on peasants and be honest while submitting revenue to the treasury.

Nicolo Conti was an Italian Traveller who visited Vijayanagara during Deva Raya 2. He mentioned the rivalry of the Bahmani kingdom and Vijayanagara and gave a description of the Bahamani defence strategy against Vijayanagara.

Krishna Tungbhadra Doab and the Marathwada region were the areas that both the kingdoms were fighting for. The Conflict, on a large scale, started during the reign of Bukka 1.

The boundaries of Bahmani do not touch Kerala and Tamil Nadu but cover areas of Karnataka, Maharashtra and Telangana.

QUESTION: 17

Which of the following statements is not correct in reference to Bhaona?

Solution:

Statement (c) is correct: Bhaona (Assamese) is a traditional form of entertainment, with religious messages, prevalent is Assam, India.

Statement (a) is incorrect: Bhaona is a creation of saint-reformer Srimanta Sankardeva, written in the early sixteenth century. He created the form to convey religious messages to villagers through entertainment.

Statement (b) is correct: The plays of bhaona are popularly known as Ankiya Nats and their staging is known as bhaona. There are some special characteristics of Bhaona like the plays, dialogues, costumes, ornaments, drums & cymbals, entry and foot-steps of the characters.

Statement (d) is correct: The bhaonas are written in the Assamese and Brajavali languages.

Bhaona is generally staged at satras and namghars in Assam.

Initially, he wrote his prose in Sanskrit but later used Assamese and Brajavali (a literary language limited to theatrical usage, in which Sankardeva wrote his songs and plays) to develop the following artforms:

  1. Borgeet- a new form of spiritual music,

  2. Bhaona- a mythology-based theatrical performance, and

  3. Monastic dances that evolved into the classical Sattriya (a classical dance form which acts as a medium for propagation of the Vaishnava faith).

QUESTION: 18

In which of the following National Parks are you most probable to find sub-tropical thorn forests?

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the National Mission on Transformative ability and Battery Storage?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect: The steering committee of National mission on transformative mobility and battery storage shall be chaired by CEO of NITI Aayog. The steering committee shall consist of secretaries from different ministries: Ministry of Power, Ministry of New and Renewable energy, Ministry of Science and Technology etc. The mission aims to promote Clean, Connected, Shared and Holistic Mobility Initiatives. The Mission will recommend and drive the strategies for transformative mobility and Phased Manufacturing Programmes for EVs, EV Components and Batteries.

Option b is correct: The mission will launch a Phased Manufacturing programme with the aim to localize production across the entire value chain by 2024.

Option c is correct: The steering committee consisted of inter- disciplinary members. The mission focuses on inter-ministerial coordination and involves every stakeholder. Also the steering committee is chaired by CEO of NITI Aayog which will ensure cooperative federalism. The mission is the result of Global Mobility summit where PM outlined the vision for the future of mobility in India based on 7 C’s which are Common, Connected, Convenient, Congestion-free, Charged, Clean and Cutting-edge mobility.

QUESTION: 20

On 3rd January, the sun

Solution:

The solar insolation received by the earth varies slightly in a year due to the variations in the distance between the earth and the sun. During its revolution around the sun, the earth is farthest from the sun (152 million km) on 4th July. This position of the earth is called aphelion. On 3rd January, the earth is the nearest to the sun (147 million km). This position is called perihelion. Therefore, the annual insolation received by the earth on 3rd January is slightly more than the amount received on 4th July.

QUESTION: 21

Which of the following ancient towns/cities were nodes of the ancient silk route?

Solution:

Dunhuang which lies in the frontier region west of China’s Gansu province is one of the cities on Ancient Silk route which was an ancient trade route.

There has been constant trade connections between India, China, Tibet, and Central Asia from ancient times via various land routes.

Option (b) is incorrect: Vaishali was not on the silk road. Kashghar and Bactria are important nodes on the silk road.

Option (c) is incorrect: Ujjain was not on the silk road.

Oman and Samarkand were cities on the silk road.

Muscat, the modern day capital of Oman, has been a strategic centre of trade and exchange along the historic maritime Silk Roads since the 2nd century AD.

Option (d) is incorrect: Madurai was not on the silk road.

Kabul and Anxi were on the corridor routes along the ancient Silk road.

Additional Information:

There are four main corridor routes that connected India with the ancient Silk Roads. Most of these corridor roads met the main road Uttarapatha (the Grand Trunk Road) that connected the northern and eastern parts of ancient India, running roughly 2400 km and connecting Kabul (now in Afghanistan) to Chittagong (now in Bangladesh), via Lahore (now in Pakistan), Amritsar, Delhi, Varanasi, Prayagraj, Delhi, and Kolkata.

The four main corridor routes comprised of:

  1. The roads that pass through the Hindu Kush and Karakoram via Srinagar, Leh, and Sangju Pass (Western Himalaya).

  2. The roads via the high-altitude plateaus of Tibet that enter India and come down to the ancient site of Sravasti (Ganga belt)

  3. The trade routes through Nepal, entering India via Uttarakhand, and coming down to the Ganga valley belt, to areas like Ahichchhatra, Kaushambi, Vaishali, etc.

  4. The trade road that moves further down the Ganga and goes via Delhi (Indraprastha) to the ancient site of Chandraketugarh in West Bengal.

QUESTION: 22

Consider the following statements:

  1. Hoolock Gibbon is the only ape found in India.

  2. Olive ridley turtle is the only turtle known for synchronized nesting, arribada.

  3. Ganges shark is only found in rivers and estuaries, and not in seas and ocean.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Hoolock Gibbon is the only ape found in India. There are two species of Hoolock Gibbon that are found in India- Western Hoolock Gibbon, found in all the states of the north-east and Eastern Hoolock Gibbon, found in specific pockets of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. In the IUCN Red List, western hoolock gibbon is listed as Endangered and eastern hoolock gibbon is listed as Vulnerable.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world. They inhabit warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. The species is recognized as Vulnerable by IUCN. These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemp's ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada. Arribada is the phenomena where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs. Thus it is not the only turtle known for arribada.

Statement 3 is correct: Ganges shark (Glyphis gangeticus) is one of the six species of river sharks found in the world and is endemic to India. It is listed as Critically Endangered in the IUCN Red List. It inhabits the River Hooghly as well as the rivers Ganges, Brahmaputra and Mahanadi.While some of the other river sharks are also known to inhabit saltwater, the Ganges shark is only found in rivers and estuaries, with no confirmed records from oceans or seas.

QUESTION: 23

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Solution:

Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Malabar coast of Kerala has got certain distinguishing features in the form of Kayals (backwaters), which are used for fishing, inland navigation and also due to its special attraction for tourists.

Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Thar desert of Rajasthan is called Marusthali. The eastern part of the Marusthali is rocky while its western part is covered by shifting sand dunes locally known as Dhrians.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Rarh Plains is a geographic region that comprises part of the Lower Ganges (Ganga) Plains in northern West Bengal state. The alluvial plains are essentially flat, except in the mountainous northern area. Moist deciduous forests of sal, champac, and acacia are frequently found, together with bamboo, laurels, orchids, and giant creepers.

QUESTION: 24

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding various poverty estimation committees in India?

Solution:

Various committees on poverty line estimation have been constituted from time to time. Before the Tendulkar (2009) and Rangarajan committee (2014), Alagh (1979) and Lakadwala committee (1993) was constituted. The Lakadwala committee recommended calorie intake as the basis for poverty line estimation. However, both Tendulkar and Rangarajan committee recommended poverty line estimation with a basket consisting of both food and non-food material (health, education, clothing etc.) . The Tendulkar committee shifted from calorie intake to diversification in food baskets. Food baskets to comprise rice, wheat, cereals, pulses, milk, edible oil etc. Further Rangarajan recommended food baskets on the line ICMR guidelines. Option b is correct. Poverty line is estimated not with the purpose to identify the beneficiaries. The concept of poverty line started with the purpose to identify whether the development model is providing benefit to the lower strata of society. To identify whether the welfare schemes are being implemented properly, to identify whether the welfare schemes are able to take the population out of poverty.

Option c is correct. Unlike the Alagh committee, the Tendulkar committee provided the same poverty line basket for both rural and urban areas.

Option d is correct. The poverty line estimated by Tendulkar and Rangarajan in urban areas are 33 and 47 respectively and in rural areas are 22 and 37 respectively. The total population below poverty line as per Tendulkar is 21.5 percent and as per Rangarajan is 29 percent in the country.

QUESTION: 25

Recently, the Government of India launched a device called "GEMINI". Which of the following is the application of GEMINI?

Solution:

GEMINI (Gagan Enabled Mariner’s Instrument for Navigation and Information) device has been launched to provide emergency information and communication on disaster warnings, Potential Fishing Zones (PFZ) and Ocean States Forecasts (OSF) to fishermen.

It is a portable receiver linked to GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) satellite. GAGAN is a Satellite Based Augmentation System consisting of three geosynchronous satellites. The GEMINI device receives and transfers the data received from GAGAN satellites to a mobile through Bluetooth communication. A mobile application then decodes and displays the information in nine regional languages.

Mobile phone frequencies cannot be accessed 10-12 km beyond the coast and with GEMINI this range can increase to 300 nautical miles. However, the device only allows one-way communication — it can’t be used by fishermen to make calls.

QUESTION: 26

consider the following statements about Electrostatic Disinfection Technology, sometimes mentioned in the news:

  1. It is an innovative technology for effective disinfection and sanitization to fight with corona pandemic.

  2. The machine based uses very less disinfection material as compared to conventional methods.

  3. It ensures disinfectant reaches to any hidden areas of the target thereby ensuring efficiency in tackling viruses.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: CSIR-Central Scientific Instruments Organisation (CSIR-CSIO), Chandigarh, has designed and developed an innovative technology for effective disinfection and sanitization to fight with corona pandemic. CSIR-CSIO has transferred this technology to a Nagpur-based company, Rite Water Solutions Pvt. Ltd., for commercialization and large-scale production. This technology has been found very efficient and effective to stop the spread of coronavirus and pathogens.

Statement 2 is correct: Electrostatic Disinfection Machine is developed based on the electrostatic principle. It produces uniform and fine spray droplets of disinfectants in the size range of 10-20 micrometre to kill microorganisms and viruses. Due to the small size of droplets, the surface area of spray droplets increases thereby enhancing the interaction with harmful microorganisms and coronavirus. The machine uses very less disinfection material as compared to conventional methods, which helps to save natural resources with negligible increase of chemical waste in the environment.

Statement 3 is correct: Charged droplets emitted from the disinfection machine can cover the directly exposed and obscured surfaces uniformly with increased efficiency and efficacy and the disinfectant reaches to any hidden areas of the target, where there is a maximum possibility to find the viruses.

QUESTION: 27

With reference to Warsaw International Mechanism on Loss and Damage, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

Option a is correct: The Warsaw International Mechanism on Loss and Damage was established to promote implementation of approaches to address loss and damage associated with the adverse impacts of climate change.

Option b is correct: It seeks to enhance knowledge and understanding of comprehensive risk management approaches to address loss and damage associated with the adverse effects of climate. It also aims at strengthening dialogue, coordination, coherence and synergies among relevant stakeholders.

Option c is incorrect: The Mechanism does not fix any liability for compensation on developed countries. But it seeks to enhance action and support, including finance, technology and capacity building, to address loss and damage associated with adverse impacts of climate change in developing countries.

Option d is correct: It was established under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2013 at 19th Conference of Parties (COP19) in Warsaw, Poland.

QUESTION: 28

Which of the following is/are criteria for declaring a species as ‘critically endangered’ by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)?

  1. At Least 50% reduction in population size over the past 10 years

  2. Extent of occurrence is less than 100 km2.

  3. At Least 50% probability of extinction in the wild within 10 years.

  4. Population size is less than 50 mature individuals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

A critically endangered (CR) species is one that has been categorized by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) as facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.

To be defined as critically endangered in the Red List, a species must meet any of the following criteria:

  1. At Least 90% reduction in population size over the past 10 years or three generations, whichever is longer. It is when the causes of the reduction are clearly reversible AND understood AND ceased.

(It is 80% when the causes of reduction may not have ceased OR may not be understood OR may not be reversible)

  1. Extent of occurrence estimated to be less than 100 km2 OR Area of occupancy estimated to be less than 10 km2.

  2. Quantitative analysis showing the probability of extinction in the wild is at least 50% within 10 years or three generations, whichever is the longer.

  3. Population size is less than 50 mature individuals.

  4. Population size is less than 250 mature individuals AND a decline of 25% within 3 years/ one generation.

QUESTION: 29

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Nandur Madhmeshwar Bird Sanctuary is a designated Ramsar Site located in Maharashtra. It is Maharashtra’s first Ramsar site.

Recently 10 more wetlands from India got recognised as Ramsar sites. These included one from Maharashtra (Nandur Madhameshwar); three from Punjab (Keshopur-Miani, Beas Conservation Reserve and Nangal); and six from Uttar Pradesh (Nawabganj, Parvati Agra, Saman, Samaspur, Sandi and Sarsai Nawar).

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Nagarjunsagar - Srisailam is a Tiger Reserve located in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. It is India’s largest tiger reserve which spreads over 3800 sq km.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Singhpan Wildlife Sanctuary is an Elephant Reserve located in Nagaland. It is the 30th and the newest elephant reserve of India. It is located in Mon district of Nagaland and is strategically located in contiguity with the Abhaypur Reserve Forest of Assam.

QUESTION: 30

Which of the following bodies is responsible for issuing guidelines regarding safe disposal of biomedical waste like PPE, face masks, gloves etc. in India?

Solution:

Biomedical waste is any waste generated during the diagnosis, treatment, immunisation of human beings, human tissues, items contaminated with blood, body fluids like dressings, beddings, syringes or any other contaminated sharp objects. According to Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016 and 2018, Operators of common bio-medical waste treatment and disposal facilities shall establish bar coding and global positioning system for handling of bio-medical waste in accordance with guidelines issued by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). The CPCB has issued detailed guidelines on handling, treatment and disposal of waste generated during treatment, diagnosis and quarantine of COVID-19 patients. The guidelines need to be followed by isolation wards, quarantine centres, sample collection centres, laboratories, urban local bodies and the Central Biomedical Waste Treatment Facilities (CBWTFs).

QUESTION: 31

Recently, there was a growing concern in India regarding the yellow rust incidence, what is yellow rust?

Solution:

Yellow rust disease of wheat, also known as stripe rust of wheat, is a disease caused by fungus Puccinia — frequently found in cold wheat growing regions such as North Western Plains Zone and Northern Hills Zone. This infection, which causes reduction of kernel numbers per spike and decreases the weight of wheat kernels, is capable of causing up to 70 per cent decline in wheat yields. Currently used wheat cultivars in India have a part of the rye chromosome which confers resistance to yellow rust and powdery mildew disease. Over the years, the strains of fungus which can infect these resistant cultivars have become prominent and are spreading. In January 2020, Yellow rust incidence occurred in wheat in Punjab and Haryana and caused anxiety.

QUESTION: 32

With reference to Biofortification of crop, consider the following statements:

  1. It aims to increase nutrient levels in crops during plant growth rather than through manual means during processing of the crops.

  2. It includes iron-biofortification of wheat, rice and maize

  3. It is recognized as a nutrition-sensitive- agriculture intervention that can reduce vitamin and mineral deficiency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Biofortification is the process by which the nutritional quality of food crops is improved through agronomic practices, conventional plant breeding, or modern biotechnology. Biofortification differs from conventional fortification in that biofortification aims to increase nutrient levels in crops during plant growth rather than through manual means during processing of the crops. Biofortification may therefore present a way to reach populations where supplementation and conventional fortification activities may be difficult to implement and/or limited.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Examples of biofortification projects include: iron-biofortification of rice, beans, sweet potato, cassava and legumes; zinc-biofortification of wheat, rice, beans, sweet potato and maize; provitamin A carotenoid-biofortification of sweet potato, maize and cassava; and amino acid and protein-biofortification of sorghum and cassava.

Statement 3 is correct: Biofortification is the process by which the nutrient density of food crops is increased through conventional plant breeding, and or improved agronomic practices and or modern biotechnology without sacrificing any characteristic that is preferred by consumers or most importantly to farmers. It is recognized as a nutrition-sensitive-agriculture intervention that can reduce vitamin and mineral deficiency

QUESTION: 33

Arrange the following states on the basis of their forests being extremely fire prone to less fire prone?

  1. Mizoram

  2. Chhattisgarh

  3. Manipur

  4. Bihar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

About 21.40% of forest cover in India is prone to fires, with forests in the North-Eastern region and Central India being the most vulnerable, the 2019 report by the Forest Survey of India (FSI). The report further indicates that nearly 4% of the country’s forest cover is extremely prone to fire, whereas 6% of forest cover is found to be very highly prone. More than 36% of the country’s forest cover has been estimated prone to frequent forest fires. Below map shows fire prone forest areas in the country under different categories. According to which, from above states, Mizoram is most fire prone followed by Manipur, Chhattisgarh and Bihar.

QUESTION: 34

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Ozone hole?

  1. It is formed each year during the Southern Hemisphere autumn.

  2. Its uncontrolled expansion would lead to reduced plant growth and crop yields.

  3. The quantity of Ozone Depleting Substances (ODSs) in the atmosphere is gradually rising.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ozone hole is formed each year in the Southern Hemisphere spring (September-November) when there is a sharp decline (currently up to 60%) in the total ozone over most of Antarctica. During the cold dark Antarctic winter, stratospheric ice clouds (PSCs, polar stratospheric clouds) form when temperatures drop below -78C. These clouds are responsible for chemical changes that promote production of chemically active chlorine and bromine. When sunlight returns to the Antarctic in the Southern Hemisphere spring, this chlorine and bromine activation leads to rapid ozone loss, which then results in the Antarctic ozone hole.

Statement 2 is correct. Ozone depletion affects the basic processes of plant growth and development and can reduce plant growth. Uncontrolled ozone depletion would reduce the amount of crop production globally. The health of the wild plants that are the foundation of all ecosystems on land would also have been threatened.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Owing to regulations on the production and use of certain ozone-destroying chlorinated compounds the abundance of Ozone Depleting Substances (ODSs) in the atmosphere is declining and a recent study has indicated that the ozone hole is recovering.

QUESTION: 35

With reference to Gogabeel, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the first community reserve in the state of Bihar.

  2. It is an ox - bow lake.

  3. It lies at the confluence of rivers Gandak and Son.

  4. It is also the first from the state of Bihar to be designated as Ramsar site.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Gogabeel in Bihar’s Katihar district, has been declared as the state’s first ‘Community Reserve’.

Statement 2 is correct: It is an ox-bow lake. Also More than 90 bird species have been recorded from this site, of which, about 30 are migratory. Among the threatened species, the Lesser Adjutant Stork is listed as ‘Vulnerable’ by the IUCN while the Black Necked Stork, White Ibis and White-eyed Pochard are ‘Near Threatened’.

Statement 3 is incorrect: It is formed from the flow of the rivers Mahananda and Kankhar in the north and the Ganga in the south and east. Also, it is the fifteenth Protected Area (PA) in Bihar.

Statement 4 is incorrect: In 2017, Indian Bird Conservation Network (IBCN), a network of the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), BirdLife International, UK and Royal Society for the Protection of Birds (RSPB), UK, again declared Gogabeel as an Important Bird Area of India (IBA). It is not the first from the state of Bihar to be designated as Ramsar site.

QUESTION: 36

Consider the following pairs sometime mentioned in news

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 Erbil, the capital city of Kurdistan region in Iraq is seen in the news in context of Kurdish forces clashes against ISIS.

Statement 2 Thousands of Rohingya living in Bangladesh refugee camps have agreed to move to Bhasan Char island in the Bay of Bengal

Statement 3 The United States has called for an immediate halt to a military offensive by rebel Libyan general Khalifa Haftar to seize the capital, Tripoli. Forces aligned to the UN-backed government in Tripoli used counteroffensive against rebel militias to defend the city.

Statement 4 The Port of Aqaba is at the head of the Gulf of Aqaba off the Red Sea in southeast Jordan. Just nine miles from the border with southern Israel, the Port of Aqaba is the country's only seaport.

The Port of Eilat is the only Israeli port on the Red Sea, located at the northern tip of the Gulf of Aqaba.

Statement 5 In September 2019, India has secured access to key strategic Port of Duqm in Oman in Arabian sea for military use and logistical support.

The Port of Duqm is situated on the southeastern seaboard of Oman, overlooking the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean. It is strategically located, in close proximity to the Chabahar port in Iran. With Assumption Island being developed in Seychelles and Agalega in Mauritius, Duqm fits into India’s proactive maritime security roadmap.

In 2018, India signed a pact with Oman that allows the Indian Navy to use the strategic port of Duqm.

QUESTION: 37

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the agricultural production and trade in India?

Solution:

Relevance) Agricultural production and trade is an important topic in UPSC examination Explanation) Option (b) is the correct answer.

India is the world’s largest producer of pulses, accounting for 34% of the area and 24% of production followed by Myanmar, Canada, China, Nigeria, Brazil and Australia. Pulses are 20 to 25 per cent protein by weight which is double the protein content of wheat and three times that of rice.

Types of Pulses grown in india:

Major pulses are grown chickpeas (gram), pigeon pea (tur or arhar), moong beans, urd (black matpe), masur (lentil), peas and various kinds of beans.

Areas of Cultivation:

The main regions with high productivity are Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal delta region, coastal Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, coastal and eastern Karnataka and some parts of Maharashtra.

China is the world's largest tea exporter, accounting for as much as 21% of global tea exports

Bangladesh is the world's largest exporter of jute fiber, accounting for as much as 70% of global jute exports.

China is the world's largest rice producer, accounting for as much as 35% of total world rice production.

QUESTION: 38

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

Solution:

Relevance) Climate, seasons and rainfall are important in Indian physical geography Explanation) Option (c) - 1, 2, 4 and 5 only is the correct answer.

Pair 1 is correctly matched. With the Blossom Showers, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and nearby areas.

Pair 2 is correctly matched. Loo refers to hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar with higher intensity between Delhi and Patna.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Bardoli Chheerha are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Assam, also known as Nor Westers.

Pair 4 is correctly matched. Mango Showers are pre-monsoon showers in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. They are known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes.

Pair 5 is correctly matched. Kalbaisakhi are dreaded evening thunderstorms in West Bengal, also known as Nor Westers. These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation.

QUESTION: 39

Avian Botulism, the reason for mass mortality of birds at Sambhar Lake, is caused by which among the following pathogens?

Solution:

Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI) is located at Izatnagar, Bareilly in Uttar Pradesh state. It is India's premier advanced research facility in the field of veterinary medicine and allied branches.

The Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI), Bareilly, confirmed avian botulism — a neuro-muscular illness caused by a toxin which is produced by a bacterial strain — as the reason for mass mortality of birds, including migratory species from Northern Asia, at Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan.

The IVRI laboratory tests conducted on the samples of carcasses collected from the lake confirmed the disease infecting the birds, the probability of which was earlier stated by veterinarians in the State. The illness, caused by a bacterium called Clostridium botulinum, affected the nervous system of birds, leading to flaccid paralysis in their legs and wings and neck touching the ground.

QUESTION: 40

Consider the following statements regarding the joint meetings of three conventions on chemicals and waste:

  1. Under the Rotterdam Convention, Phorate and HBCD were added in the list for mandatory Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure in international trade.

  2. Dicofol and Perfluorooctanoic acid (PFOA) were listed under Appendix A of Stockholm Convention.

  3. Under Basel Convention, it listed unsorted, mixed and contaminated plastic waste under PIC (Prior Informed Consent) procedure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

A Joint meeting of Basel, Rotterdam and Stockholm Convention was held in Geneva in May 2019 Statement 1 is correct. The Rotterdam Convention is a multilateral treaty to promote shared responsibilities in relation to international trade of hazardous chemicals. In the ninth meeting of the COP to Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade in May 2019, two new chemicals (Phorate and HBCD) were added in the list for mandatory Prior Informed Consent procedure in international trade.

Statement 2 is correct. In the ninth meeting of the COP to Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants the COP decided to list “Dicofol” in Annex A without any exemption. The Perfluorooctanoic acid (PFOA) was also listed with some exemptions in the Annex A of the Stockholm Convention.

Under the Convention, parties must take measures to eliminate the production and use of the chemicals listed under Annex A. Specific exemptions for use or production are listed in the Annex and apply only to Parties that register for them.

Statement 3 is correct. In the the fourteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movement of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal (COP 14), the convention was amended to include unsorted, mixed and contaminated plastic waste under PIC (Prior Informed Consent) procedure and improve the regulation of its transboundary movement. This will help in addressing plastic pollution which has become a major environmental concern across the globe.

QUESTION: 41

Consider the following statements:

  1. Increased concentration of Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causes acid rain.

  2. Hydro Fluoro Carbons are potent ozone depleting substances.

  3. Increasing concentration of Sulphate aerosols can help reduce global temperatures.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Carbon dioxide on dissolving in water forms Carbonic Acid (H2CO3). However, it is a very weak acid and does not lead to acid rain. Acid rain is caused by emissions of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide, which react with the water molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids with very low ph values, below 4.5.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Hydro Fluoro Carbons do not cause harm to the ozone layer, but they are potent Greenhouse gas, causing global warming, with thousands of times the warming potential of carbon dioxide. They are frequently used in air conditioning and as refrigerants, in place of the chlorofluorocarbons which cause ozone depletion.

Considering the factor that HFCs are used as substitute of HCFC and have high global warming potential, in 2016, at the summit of the United Nations Environment Programme in Kigali, Rwanda member nations signed a legally-binding accord to phase out hydro fluorocarbons (HFCs) in an amendment to the Montreal Protocol.

Statement 3 is correct. Injection of sulphate aerosols, very fine solid particles, into the stratosphere is one of the most widely discussed Geo-engineering techniques to tackle Global Warming. Sulphate aerosol particles are very good reflectors of sunlight, and it has been shown, through various climate models, that even if 1% of current incident solar radiation is reflected back in space, a very significant amount of temperature rise on earth can be offset.

QUESTION: 42

In the context of agriculture, what is common between Aus, Aman and Boro?

Solution:

Relevance) Crops and their growing seasons are often asked by UPSC Explanation) Option (a) is the correct answer.

Rice is a staple food for the overwhelming majority of the population in India. Though it is considered to be a crop of tropical humid areas, it has about 3,000 varieties which are grown in different agro-climatic regions. In southern states and West Bengal the climatic conditions allow the cultivation of two or three crops of rice in an agricultural year. In West Bengal, farmers grow three crops of rice called ‘aus’, ‘aman’ and ‘boro’. But in the Himalayas and northwestern parts of the country, it is grown as a kharif crop during southwest Monsoon season.

QUESTION: 43

In the context of recently released India Cooling Action Plan, consider the following statements:

  1. It has been released by the Ministry of Science and technology.

  2. It will help in Doubling Farmers Income.

  3. It will help in reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

  4. It will also explore techniques to preserve glaciers in Himalaya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, released the India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP) in March 2019. The thrust of the India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP) is to look for synergies in actions for securing both environmental and socio-economic benefits.

Statement 2 is correct. The following benefits would accrue to the society over and above the environmental benefits:

  1. Thermal comfort for all - provision for cooling for EWS and LIG housing,

  2. Sustainable cooling - low GHG emissions related to cooling,

  3. Doubling Farmers Income - better cold chain infrastructure - better value of produce to farmers, less wastage of produce,

  4. Skilled workforce for better livelihoods and environmental protection,

  5. Make in India - domestic manufacturing of air-conditioning and related cooling equipments,

  6. Robust R&D on alternative cooling technologies - to provide push to innovation in the cooling sector.

Statement 3 is correct. The overarching goal of ICAP is to provide sustainable cooling and thermal comfort for all while securing environmental and socio-economic benefits for the society. This will also help in reducing both direct and indirect emissions.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The ICAP is concerned with providing sustainable cooling. It is not concerned with the glacier preservation in the Himalayas.

QUESTION: 44

Which of the following is the correct explanation for the blue colour of the sky?

Solution:

Relevance) Concepts related to scattering, reflection, refraction etc., are often asked by UPSC Explanation) Option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 45

Consider the following statements regarding the voting rights of a person under Representation of People’s Act 1951:

  1. Postal ballot facility is available for a person under preventive detention.

  2. The act provides that any person confined in the prison is not entitled to vote.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. The act allows a person under preventive detention the right to vote, and the person can vote through postal ballot.

Statement 2 is correct. Section 62(5) of Representation of People’s Act 1951 deprives prisoners of their right to vote. As right to vote is a statutory right provided under this act, the right is also subject to restrictions imposed by the act itself. The act curtails the right of prisoners to vote, whether the prisoner is undertrial or convicted.

Recently, a plea has been filed on the ground that any politician can be disqualified only when he/ she is proved convicted. He cannot be disqualified just on the ground of undertrials. Similar plea appeals that those prisoners who are undertrial should be allowed to vote. But the court rejected the plea. Hence, the prisoners have no right to vote in the country.

QUESTION: 46

Consider the following statements regarding Enemy Properties in India:

  1. The properties and companies of the citizens of enemy nations were taken over by the Government under the Enemy Properties Act, 1968.

  2. Legal heirs of enemies who are Indian Citizens, are allowed to retain property by inheritance.

  3. The Custodian of Enemy Property for India works under the aegis of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The properties and companies of the person who once were citizens of India but migrated to Pakistan after 1971 war or China after 1965 war and took the nationality of that country, their property in India shall be categorised as enemy property. The enemy property shall be under the custodian of Enemy property of India.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The properties and companies of the citizens of enemy nations were taken over by the Government under the Defence of India Act 1962 (initially). Later, Enemy Property Act 1968 was enacted and the enemy property got defined under this act.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Judgement of Supreme court in 2005, granted the property of Raja of Mahmudabad to his son after the death of Raja (Raja migrated to Pakistan and took nationality) on the ground that his son and wife stayed in India with Indian citizenship. The Government in 2010 attempted to not to allow the heir to take over the enemy property under the custodian of enemy property of India.

Further, the government amended Enemy Property Act 1968 and debarred the heir to take over the property which was earlier an enemy property. No matter if the heir is an Indian citizen or Citizen of a friendly country, the heir will have no right over the enemy property.

Statement 3 is correct. The Custodian of Enemy Property for India under Enemy Property Act 1968 works under the aegis of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

QUESTION: 47

Kerala High Court recently directed the Central Government to remove a blockade erected by Karnataka to allow access to medical aid to people in the adjoining state of Kerala. In this context, which of the following best defines Article 256 of the Indian Constitution?

Solution:

Article 256 of the Indian Constitution. The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose Subject) Polity (Indian Constitution)

QUESTION: 48

Consider the following statements regarding the Elections to the Rajya Sabha:

  1. The number of seats allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha has been provided as per the provisions of the Representation of People’s Act 1950.

  2. As per the Constitution of India, the term of Members of the Rajya Sabha is six years.

  3. The election of the members of the Rajya Sabha is held by an open ballot system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. As per article 80, the allocation of seats in the Council of States to be filled by representatives of the States and of the Union territories shall be in accordance with the provisions in that behalf contained in the fourth Schedule

Statement 2 is incorrect. As per article 83, the council of States shall not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one third of the members thereof shall retire as soon as may be on the expiration of every second year in accordance with the provisions made in that behalf by Parliament by law. The Constitution of India does not provide for a term for members of Rajya Sabha. It is provided by the Representation of People’s Act.

Statement 3 is correct. In elections to the Council of States, a system of Open ballot is adopted in voting. Every political party which has its member(s) as MLAs can appoint an authorized agent to verify as to whom its members have voted. The authorized agent will be seated inside the polling station in seats provided by the R.O. In case of MLAs who are members of political parties, after they mark the vote and before inserting the ballot box, are required to show the marked ballot paper to the authorized agent of their party.

QUESTION: 49

Consider the following statements:

  1. Geological Survey of India is responsible to carry out geological exploration and discover Uranium mineral deposits.

  2. Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited is the sole body responsible for constructing and operating India's commercial nuclear power plants.

  3. The mining of atomic minerals in India are completely under operating rights of state run enterprises.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Geological survey is responsible for exploration of every mineral resource except atomic minerals. Uranium, thorium all are atomic minerals. Atomic minerals exploration is the responsibility of the Atomic Minerals Directorate in India.

Statement 2 is incorrect. India has two public sector enterprises who are responsible for constructing and operating India’s commercial nuclear power plants. Two public sector enterprises are: Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI) and Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL). BHAVINI is in charge of a second stage nuclear reactor i.e. Fast Breeder reactors. Also the Government does not propose to allow the private sector to enter into the nuclear power sector.

Statement 3 is correct. The government has prohibited mining of atomic minerals by private entities and will grant operating rights to only state-run companies to safeguard strategic interest of the country. Relevance) Atomic minerals are strategic reserves of the country. The institutions responsible for exploration, mining and production of nuclear energy are always important.

QUESTION: 50

Which of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

NPR shall be conducted by the Office of Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following statements regarding the National Investigation Agency is correct?

Solution:

The 2019 NIA Amendment Act expanded the type of offences that the investigative body could investigate and prosecute. The agency can now investigate offences related to human trafficking, counterfeit currency, manufacture or sale of prohibited arms, cyber-terrorism, and offences under the Explosive Substances Act, 1908. Option c is correct.

NIA is headed by the Director General who belongs from Indian Police Service. Hence, Option a is incorrect.

NIA is not under the administrative control of the Prime Minister’s Office. It is independent of this office. Hence, Option b is incorrect.

Over the past several years, India has been the victim of large scale terrorism sponsored from across the borders. There have been innumerable incidents of terrorist attacks, not only in the militancy and insurgency affected areas and areas affected by Left Wing Extremism, but also in the form of terrorist attacks and bomb blasts, etc., in various parts of the hinterland and major cities, etc.

A large number of such incidents are found to have complex inter-State and international linkages, and possible connection with other activities like the smuggling of arms and drugs, pushing in and circulation of fake Indian currency, infiltration from across the borders, etc. keeping all these in view, it was felt that there was a need for setting up of an National Investigation Agency at the Central level for investigation of offences related to terrorism and certain other Acts, which have national ramifications.

QUESTION: 52

The Constitution has granted the right to move freely throughout the territory of India. However, this fundamental right is not absolute in nature. The restrictions of citizens can be curtailed to protect the culture, language and customs of tribals. Under this restriction which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

Option a is correct. The Protected Area Permit regime is defined under Foreign (Protected Areas) Order 1958. It provides the guidelines to issue a protected area permit which is required by only non- citizens willing to enter the protected areas. Under the Foreigners (Protected Areas) Order, 1958, all areas falling between the ‘Inner line’, as defined in the said order, and the International Border of the State have been declared as a Protected Area. States like Whole of Arunachal Pradesh, Parts of Himachal Pradesh, Parts of Jammu & Kashmir, Whole of Manipur, Whole of Mizoram etc.

Option b is correct. Inner Line Permit is for non- resident Indians whereas Protected Area permit is for non- citizens of India. Inner Line permit is required for any non- resident Indian citizen willing to enter into these protected areas. Inner Line Permit is required in states: like Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Mizoram. It is used in India to protect the indigenous communities in the Northeast and for the government to regulate and monitor the movement to certain areas near the international border of India.

Option c is incorrect. A person belonging to these protected areas when marrying a non- Indian citizen is not allowed to settle permanently in these areas. A person can marry any non- resident Indian and can settle in these regions.

QUESTION: 53

With reference to the Police Commissionerate system in India, consider the following statements:

  1. It provides for a unified command structure with the Police Commissioner as sole head of police force within the specified area.

  2. It provides for separation of power between District Magistrate and Police Commissioner over police matters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Under the 7th Schedule of the Constitution, ‘Police’ is under the State list, meaning individual states typically legislate and exercise control over this subject. At the metropolitan level, many states have replaced the dual system with the commissionerate system, as it is supposed to allow for faster decision-making to solve complex urban-centric issues.

Statement 1 is correct. In the commissionerate system, the Commissioner of Police (CP) is the head of a unified police command structure, is responsible for the force in the city or the specified area, and is accountable to the state government. The office also has magisterial powers, including those related to regulation, control, and licensing.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the traditional system, the overall in-charge of a district or region was the district collector; the SP reported to him. The powers of the executive magistrate, such as issuing orders for preventive arrests or imposition of Section 144 CrPC, were vested in the district collector. This was called the dual system of police administration.

Under the commissionerate system, the commissioner does not report to the DM. The Commissioner of Police (CP) is entrusted with the powers of the executive magistrate and there is a clear separation of powers between District Magistrate and Police Commissioner.

QUESTION: 54

Consider the following statements:

  1. International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the Official court of the United Nations that also hears cases of criminal prosecution of individuals.

  2. The International Court of Justice decision in a contentious case is binding upon the parties. Judgments are final and without appeal.

  3. The Permanent Court of Arbitration provides administrative support in international arbitrations involving various combinations of states, state entities, international organizations and private parties.

  4. Crimes against humanity’ is defined by the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (ICC) and India has not signed the Rome Statute.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1: The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.

Only States are eligible to appear before the Court in contentious cases.

The Court has no jurisdiction to deal with applications from individuals, non-governmental organizations, corporations or any other private entity. It cannot provide them with legal advice or help them in their dealings with national authorities.

However, a State may take up the case of one of its nationals and invoke against another State the wrongs which its national claims to have suffered at the hands of the latter; the dispute then becomes one between States.

Statement 2: Judgments delivered by the Court (or by one of its Chambers) in disputes between States are binding upon the parties concerned. Article 94 of the United Nations Charter provides that “[e]ach Member of the United Nations undertakes to comply with the decision of [the Court] in any case to which it is a party”.

Judgments are final and without appeal. If there is a dispute about the meaning or scope of a judgment, the only possibility is for one of the parties to make a request to the Court for an interpretation. In the event of

the discovery of a fact hitherto unknown to the Court which might be a decisive factor, either party may apply for revision of the judgment.

Statement 3: The Permanent Court of Arbitration, established by treaty in 1899, is an intergovernmental organization providing a variety of dispute resolution services to the international community. The PCA ’s functions are not limited to arbitration and also include providing support in other forms of peaceful resolution of international disputes, including mediation, conciliation, and other forms of alternative dispute resolution (ADR).

Statement 4: The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court is the treaty that established the International Criminal Court (ICC). It was adopted at a diplomatic conference in Rome, Italy on 17 July 1998 and it entered into force on 1 July 2002. As of November 2019,123 states are party to the statute.

India is not a signatory to the Rome Statute.

The Rome Statute established four core international crimes: (I) Genocide, (II) Crimes against humanity, (III) War crimes, and (IV) Crime of aggression.

The statute establishes the court's functions, jurisdiction and structure.

QUESTION: 55

Consider the following statements regarding India State of Forest Report, 2019:

  1. The maximum loss of dense forests has happened in the tropical wet evergreen forests.

  2. Maximum tree diversity has been found in forests of Western Ghats.

  3. Area under Very Dense Forests has increased in India since 2017.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. In the India State of Forest Report, 2019, dense forests in India have witnessed a marginal increase of 0.04 per cent between 2017 and 2019. Hence, area under dense forests have increased rather than decrease.

Statement 2 is correct. Maximum tree diversity has been found in tropical wet evergreen and semi evergreen forests of Western Ghats (Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka) followed by northeastern states. Statement 3 is correct. Very Dense Forests (VDF), which represents the lushest vegetation and has canopy density above 70%, increased by 1,120 sq km over the assessment of 2017.

QUESTION: 56

The Aadhaar scheme, backed by the Aadhaar Act, passed the Triple Test laid down in the Puttaswamy Judgment to determine the reasonableness of the invasion of privacy. In this context, which of the following is/are the part of the Triple Test?

  1. Doctrine of severability

  2. Test of proportionality

  3. Doctrine of Pith and Substance

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

In the Puttaswamy Judgement, the Supreme Court laid down 3 criteria or the ‘triple test’ to determine reasonableness of any law that affects Right to Privacy as a fundamental Right of the People. The triple test includes:

  1. existence of a law,

  2. a legitimate state interest

  3. test of proportionality.

QUESTION: 57

Consider the following statements:

  1. According to the doctrine of severability only the provisions of the law or act that are not consistent with the Fundamental Rights shall be void.

  2. According to doctrine of eclipse when any law violates the fundamental rights then the fundamental rights overshadow that law or act and make it unenforceable but not void.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine of severability is related to Article 13 of the constitution and means that a law in contravention to the Fundamental Rights, is void only “to the extent of the inconsistency or contravention” with the relevant Fundamental Right. This means that an Act may not be void as a whole, only a part of it may be void and if that part is severable from the rest which is valid, and then the rest may continue to stand and remain operative.

Statement 2 is correct:

The doctrine of eclipse means that an existing law inconsistent with a Fundamental Right, though becomes inoperative from the date of the commencement of the Constitution, is not dead altogether. It is overshadowed by the Fundamental Right and remains dormant, but is not dead.

QUESTION: 58

Consider the following statements:

The Public Liability Insurance Act (PLIA), 1991 empowers the Government of India to

  1. regulate the location of industries, manage hazardous wastes and protect public health and welfare

  2. establish the Environment Relief Fund for making relief payments in case of accidents involving hazardous substances

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Relevance) Acts related to environment are often asked in UPSC examination Explanation) Option (b) - 2 only is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Environment (Protection) Act,1986 is an umbrella legislation designed to provide a framework for the co-ordination of central and state authorities established under the water (Prevention and Control) Act,1974 and Air (Prevention and Control) Act,1981. Under this Act, the Central government is empowered to take measures necessary to protect and improve the quality of the environment by setting standards for emissions and discharges; regulating the location of industries; management of hazardous wastes, and protection of public health and welfare. Notifications under the EPA for the protection of ecologically sensitive areas or guidelines are issued from time to time.

Statement 2 is correct. The Public Liability Insurance Act (PLIA), 1991 covers accidents involving hazardous substances and insurances where death or injury results from an accident. The Act makes the owner liable to provide relief as specified in the Schedule of the Act. The PLIA was amended in 1992, and the Central Government was authorized to establish the Environment Relief Fund, for making relief payments.

QUESTION: 59

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the National Clean Air Programme (N CAP)?

Solution:

Goal of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) is to meet the prescribed annual average ambient air quality standards at all locations in the country in a stipulated time frame. The tentative national level target of 20%-30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by 2024 is proposed under the NCAP taking 2017 as the base year for the comparison of concentration.

The NCAP will be a mid-term, five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year. However, the international experiences and national studies indicate that significant outcomes in terms of air pollution initiatives are visible only in the long-term, and hence the programme may be further extended to a longer time horizon after a mid-term review of the outcomes.

Indoor Air Pollution Monitoring & Management is an important initiative under the NCAP. It refers to the physical, chemical, and biological characteristics of air in the indoor environment within a home, building, or an institution or commercial facility.

City specific action plans are being formulated for 102 non-attainment cities identified for implementing mitigation actions under NCAP. Cities have already prepared action plans in consultation with CPCB.

QUESTION: 60

Consider the following statements regarding Mineral Laws (Amendment) Act, 2020:

  1. Companies will now be able to use the extracted minerals for self-consumption or sale.

  2. No prior experience of coal mining in India will be required by companies to participate in auction of coal/lignite blocks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. The Mineral Laws (Amendment) Act, 2020 amended Mines & Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act 1957 and The Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015. The amendments provide that the companies which are not ‘engaged in specified end-use’ can also participate in auctions of Schedule II and III coal mines. The removal of the end use restriction would allow wider participation in auction of coal mines for a variety of purposes such as own consumption, sale or for any other purpose, as may be specified by the Central Government.

Statement 2 is correct. The amended provisions provide that companies which do not possess any prior coal mining experience in India and/or have mining experience in other minerals or in other countries can participate in auction of coal/lignite blocks. This will not only increase participation in coal/lignite block auctions, but also facilitate the implementation of FDI policy in the coal sector.

QUESTION: 61

India International Exchange, India’s first international exchange, is a subsidiary of:

Solution:

India International Exchange (IFSC) Limited (India INX) is the country's first international exchange, located at International Financial Services Centre, GIFT City in Gujarat. It is a subsidiary of Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) Limited. It is the fastest in the world with a turn-around time of 4 microseconds, operating on an advanced technology platform of EUREX T7.

QUESTION: 62

With reference to Irrigation system in India, Consider the following statements:

  1. Majority of the net irrigated area is irrigated through canal systems in India.

  2. Department of Agriculture Research and Education (DARE) is implementing the Per Drop More Crop component of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana.

  3. Water use efficiency of Micro Irrigation is as high as 80-95% in comparison to only 30-50% in conventional flood irrigation.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Out of the net irrigated area, about 40% is irrigated through canal systems and 60% is irrigated through groundwater. The net area under canal irrigation is about 15.8 million hectares. The main canal irrigated areas are in the northern plains of India where Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Bihar.

Statement 2 is Incorrect. Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare (DAC&FW) is implementing Per Drop More Crop component of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY- PDMC) which focuses on enhancing water use efficiency at farm level through Micro Irrigation technologies viz. Drip and Sprinkler Irrigation systems.

Statement 3 is correct. Water use efficiency of Micro Irrigation including drip irrigation is as high as 80 to 95% in comparison to only 30-50% in conventional flood irrigation resulting in considerable amount of saving irrigation water under drip irrigation as also evident from the research studies conducted on different crops by centres of All India Coordinated Research Project on Irrigation Water Management in different agro-ecological regions of India.

QUESTION: 63

Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced a Special Liquidity Facility for Mutual Funds (SLF-MF) of Rs 50, 000 crore to bail out mutual funds. Consider the following statements regarding SLF-MF:

  1. RBI will conduct Repo Operations, directly extending loans to mutual funds at repo rate.

  2. It is a part of Long Term Repo Operations of RBI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently announced a special liquidity window of Rs 50, 000 crore to bail out mutual funds hit by the turmoil in the debt fund segment that led to the closure of six credit risk funds by Franklin Templeton Mutual Fund.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the special liquidity facility for mutual funds (SLF-MF), the RBI will conduct repo operations of 90 days tenor at the fixed repo rate. The SLF-MF is on-tap and open-ended, and banks can submit their bids to avail the funding till May 11 or up to utilization of the allocated amount, whichever is earlier. Funds availed under the SLF-MF will be used by banks exclusively for meeting the liquidity requirements of MFs. Hence, RBI will not extend loans directly to mutual funds. Banks can extend loans to mutual funds and undertake the outright purchase of and/or repos against the collateral of investment grade corporate bonds, commercial papers (CPs), debentures and certificates of Deposit (CDs) held by MFs.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The special liquidity facility for mutual funds (SLF-MF), the RBI will conduct repo operations of 90 days tenor and not Long Term Repo Operations.

QUESTION: 64

In the context of economic reforms in India, which of the following was not a part of the ‘Second Generation of Reforms’?

Solution:

Since 1991, three generations of economic reforms have been initiated in India. The ‘Second Generation of Economic Reforms’ were launched in 2000-01. It comprises the following:

  • Factor Market Reforms which included dismantling of Administered Price Mechanism- Prices of goods, which were regulated by the government were now allowed to be determined by market forces.

  • Institutionalisation of fiscal consolidation through passage of FRBM Acts by Center and States.

  • Greater functional autonomy to public sector undertakings. In addition to this, the public sector was provided freer leverage to the capital market, international tie-ups and greenfield ventures, disinvestments etc.

  • Reforms in government institutions- transition from ‘controller’ to ‘facilitator’ of economic activities.

  • Abolition of outdated and contradictory laws. Reforms in labour laws, company laws etc and initiating legal provisions in newer areas like cyber security.

  • Greater tax devolution to states

  • Increased budgetary allocation to the social sector.

The necessity of a Fourth generation of reforms is often discussed in economic parlance. Although this is not yet officially initiated, it is mostly linked to the ongoing process of transformation towards an information technology-enabled governance.

QUESTION: 65

Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Economic Capital Framework?

  1. It is used to inform the risk provisioning and surplus distribution decisions for the central bank.

  2. The Bimal Jalan committee was constituted to review the current framework.

  3. The Committee recommended to align the central bank’s accounting year with the financial year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The economic capital framework of the Reserve Bank of India provides a methodology for determining the appropriate level of risk provisions and surplus/profit distribution to be made under Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934. As per this provision, the central bank is required to pay balance of its profits to the central government after making provision for bad and doubtful debts, depreciation in assets, and contributions to staff.

Statement 2 is correct: RBI had constituted a Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. Bimal Jalan to review the current economic capital framework, in November 2018. The existing economic capital framework was developed in 2014-15, and was operationalised in 2015-16.

Statement 3 is correct: The committee submitted its report in August 2019 with the following key recommendations:

  • Align the central bank’s accounting year with the financial year which could reduce the need for paying interim dividend.

  • A clearer distinction between the two components of economic capital — realised equity and revaluation balances.

  • Review of RBI’s economic capital framework every five years.

  • Maintain Contingency Risk Buffer (CRB)between 5.5% to 6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet.

  • Minimum level of realised equity to be maintained should be the sum of the monetary and financial stability risks, credit risk and operational risk.

QUESTION: 66

The term and the concept of Redactive Pricing, recently seen in news, is

Solution:

Redaction is the selection or adaption by ‘obscuring or removing sensitive information’ from a document prior to publication. In its report on rafale deal, CAG used redactive pricing withholding sensitive information. Under the redactive pricing method, CAG withheld full commercial details and blackened the figures on the procurement deal on security concerns cited by the Ministry of Defence..

QUESTION: 67

Which among the following best describes the term ‘Crony Capitalism’ ?

Solution:

Option a is correct: Crony Capitalism refers to an economic system in which the success in business depends on the relationship between businessmen and government officials. In such a system, economic success is not determined by a free market and the rule of law but by favouritism shown to businessmen due to friendship and family ties between businessmen and the government officials.

An economic system in which private individuals or businesses own all the means of production is called Capitalism. The production of goods and services is based on supply and demand in the general market..

QUESTION: 68

Consider the following statements regarding Eco-sensitive zone (ESZ):

  1. Eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) is declared under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

  2. Its aim is to regulate certain activities which can have negative impacts on the fragile ecosystem of the area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) or Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFAs) are areas in India notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries. Notifications declaring areas as ESZ are issued under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986.

Statement 2 is correct. The main aim behind ESZs is to regulate certain activities so as to minimise the negative impacts of such activities on the fragile ecosystem surrounding the protected areas. They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.

QUESTION: 69

In India. which of the following bodies is/are included in the definition of State under doctrine of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Supreme Court in judicial capacity

  2. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

  3. National Council of Educational Research and Training

  4. United Nations

  5. Life Insurance Corporation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Recently Delhi High Court has given judgement in Sanjaya Bahel v. Union of India & Others case, that the United Nations is not a "State" within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution of India.

Article 12 defines the “state” which includes:

  • Government and Parliament of India

  • Government and the Legislature of each of the States

  • All local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.

The words “other authorities” and “under the control” are ambiguous and led to numerous litigations in the Supreme Court. Thus, this article has been subject to judicial interpretation from time to time.

Statutory and non-statutory bodies that get financial resources from government, have deep pervasive control of government and with functional characters such as ICAR, CSIR, ONGC, IDBI, Electricity Boards, NAFED, Delhi Transport corporation etc. come under the definition of state.

Hence, Council of Scientific and Industrial Research and Life Insurance Corporation come under the definition of the State.

The SC judgement in Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra, it was highlighted that when acting “Judicially”, the Supreme Court would not fall under the definition of State but when it performs any administrative or similar functions, it will fall under the definition of “state”.

In the Chander mohan khanna v/s National Council of Educational Research and Training and ors, the SC held that NCERT does not come under the definition of State under Article 12 of the Constitution.

QUESTION: 70

With reference to Europay Mastercard and Visa (EMV) cards, consider the following statements:

  1. It stores data on a microprocessor chip embedded in the card.

  2. It generates a unique and specific encrypted code called a token or cryptogram for every terminal transaction.

  3. It prevents fraudulent practices such as card skimming and cloning.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Europay Mastercard and Visa (EMV) chip technology is the latest global standard for card payments. EMV cards are chip-based payment cards that store data on a microprocessor chip embedded in the card. The old magnetic stripe credit and debit cards store data on the magnetic stripe found on the reverse side.

Statement 2 is correct: It uses both your card and a secret PIN to complete a transaction. When you use your EMV card at a terminal, it generates an encrypted code called a token or cryptogram, which is unique and specific only to that transaction. EMV cards thus generate fresh user data every time you transact, making it impossible for fraudsters to copy your original data from your card.

Statement 3 is correct: With its enhanced security features, the card prevents fraudulent practices such as card skimming and cloning.

QUESTION: 71

With reference to Budapest Convention consider the following statements

1. India is a signatory to the convention.

2. It is the first global treaty seeking to address Internet and cyber-crime by harmonising national laws, improving investigative techniques and increasing cooperation among nations.

3 It is a Russia led treaty for countering the use of information and communications technologies for criminal purposes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Why in News? India votes in favour of Russia-led resolution for a cybercrime convention in the UN that has been framed in direct opposition to a separate treaty: the Council of Europe’s (CoE) Cybercrime Convention — also known as the Budapest Convention Statement 1 India is not a signatory to the Budapest Convention.

Statement 2: The Convention on Cybercrime, also known as the Budapest Convention, is the first global treaty seeking to address Internet and cyber-crime by harmonising national laws, improving investigative techniques and increasing cooperation among nations.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Russian proposal entitled “Countering the use of information and communications technologies for criminal purposes” passed in the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA). The proposal, which India voted in favour of, creates a committee to convene in August 2020 in New York to establish a new treaty through which nation-states can coordinate and share data to prevent cybercrime.

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the ‘Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions’?

Solution:

Option a is correct: The Reserve Bank of India has launched an ‘Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions’ in 2019 under Section 18 of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.

Option b is incorrect: It is a mechanism for resolution of complaints regarding digital transactions conducted through only non-banking entities regulated by the RBI. Complaints related to digital transactions, conducted through banks, will continue to be handled under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme.

Option c is correct: The RBI may appoint one or more of its senior officers in the rank of Chief General Manager or General Manager to be known as Ombudsman for Digital Transactions, for a period not exceeding three years at a time. There is no charge or any fee for filing / resolving customers’ complaints. Option d is correct: The scheme also provides for an appellate mechanism. The appellate authority to hear complaints against the decision of the ombudsman is vested with a deputy governor of RBI, who is inCharge of the department of the RBI implementing the Scheme.

QUESTION: 73

‘Voluntary Retention Route’ is often seen in news in relation to:

Solution:

Option a is correct: Voluntary Retention Route (VRR) is a new channel of investment available to Foreign Portfolio Investors(FPI) for investing in debt markets in India, over and above their investments through the regular route. Introduced in March 2019, its objective is to attract long-term and stable FPI investments into debt markets.

Investments through VRR are free of the macro-prudential and other regulatory prescriptions applicable to FPI investments in debt markets. The condition is that FPIs voluntarily commit to retain a required minimum percentage of their investments in India for a particular period.

The investment limit under VRR is ^1,50,000 crore with a minimum retention period of three years.

QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements:

  1. Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) is a programme under the World Trade Organization’s SAFE framework.

  2. It aims to ensure that goods traded in international markets adhere to necessary quality standards.

  3. It is a voluntary programme that enables Indian Customs to enhance cargo security through close cooperation with the principal stakeholders of the international supply chain.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Authorised Economic Operator (AEO) is a programme under the World Customs Organization’s (WCO) SAFE Framework of Standards to secure and facilitate Global Trade.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The programme aims to enhance international supply chain security and facilitate movement of goods. Under this programme, an entity engaged in international trade is approved by Customs as compliant with supply chain security standards and granted AEO status. An entity with an AEO status is considered a ‘secure’ trader and a reliable trading partner.

Statement 3 is correct: AEO is a voluntary programme which enables Indian Customs to enhance and streamline cargo security through close cooperation with the principal stakeholders of the international supply chain. Benefits include expedited clearance times, fewer examinations, improved security and better communication between supply chain partners.

QUESTION: 75

With reference to DNA technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between recombinant DNA and DNA computing?

  1. Recombinant DNA requires a cloning vector and DNA computing is done using biological molecules.

  2. Recombinant DNA is important for production of vaccines and DNA computing prevents the DNA from denaturation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Recombinant DNA:-DNA that has been formed artificially by combining constituents from different organisms. Formation of recombinant DNA requires a cloning vector, a DNA molecule that replicates within a living cell.

DNA computing: DNA computing, information is represented using the four-character genetic alphabet (A [adenine], G [guanine], C [cytosine], and T [thymine]), rather than the binary alphabet (1 and 0) used by traditional computers. DNA computing, the performing of computations using biological molecules, rather than traditional silicon chips.

Statement 2 is correct: Recombinant DNA used in vaccines: A recombinant vaccine is a vaccine produced through recombinant DNA technology. This involves inserting the DNA encoding an antigen (such as a bacterial surface protein) that stimulates an immune response into bacterial or mammalian cells, expressing the antigen in these cells and then purifying it from them.

DNA Computing: DNA computing prevents the DNA from denaturation.

Denaturation process: Denaturation, in biology, processes the molecular structure of a protein. Denaturation involves the breaking of many of the weak linkages, or bonds (hydrogen bonds), within a protein molecule that is responsible for the highly ordered structure of the protein in its natural (native) state.

Denaturation Temperature Gradient (DTG) - Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) :-

Denaturation temperature gradient PCR (DTG-PCR) is a modified PCR method that the denaturation temperature changes with the cycle. In DTG-PCR, conventional PCR is performed where the temperature of the denat-uration step is gradually increased in cycles.

Denaturation: heat the solution to 94 -98°C for 20 -30 seconds for separation of DNA duplexes.

QUESTION: 76

Consider the following statements:

  1. Tobin tax is a tax imposed on high net worth individuals to finance social sector schemes of the government

  2. Pigouvian tax is a tax imposed on businesses that are engaged in activities which creates negative externalities.

  3. Ad Valorem tax is a tax based on the volume of transaction of goods and services.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Tobin tax is a proposed tax on short term international currency transactions. Its objective is to discourage destabilising speculation and volatility in the foreign exchange markets. The tax has never been implemented anywhere in the world so far.

Statement 2 is correct: Pigouvian tax is a tax imposed on businesses that are engaged in activities which creates negative externalities. Negative externalities occur when the consumption or production of a good causes a harmful effect to a third party. Such activities create adverse side effects for certain sections of the society, for ex: environmental pollution.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Ad Valorem tax is a tax whose amount is based on the value of transaction of goods and services. Indirect taxes are mostly imposed ad valorem. Property tax is also imposed ad valorem. KB)

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following is not a dimension of the Multidimensional Poverty Index?

Solution:

Multidimensional Poverty Index is published by- Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

It is an international measure of acute multidimensional poverty which captures both the incidence and intensity of poverty. MPI assesses poverty at the individual level.

The Index is based on 10 indicators across 3 dimensions of poverty- Health, Education and Standard of Living.

QUESTION: 78

With reference to Hangul, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

Kashmir Stag, also called hangul, was the state animal of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir. They are the subspecies of Red Deer. The animal was classified as ‘critically endangered’ by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It is placed under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the J&K Wildlife Protection Act, 1978. In Kashmir, it is found in the Dachigam National Park where it receives protection but elsewhere it is more at risk. Habitat destruction, overgrazing by domestic livestock and poaching have reduced its population dramatically.

QUESTION: 79

Which of the following is incorrectly stated regarding the Chit Funds?

Solution:

Statement a is incorrect. Chit funds are both a savings and credit product. They are a mechanism that combines credit and savings in a scheme.

Statement b is correct. The Chit funds (amendment) bill 2019 to Chit Fund Act, 1982 allows for the terms ‘fraternity fund’ and ‘rotating savings and credit institution’ to the list of terms that can be used to refer to chit funds.

Statement c is correct. In Chit funds a group of individuals come together for a predetermined duration. Statement d is correct. Subscribers subscribe to a certain sum of money by way of periodical instalments, and each subscriber gets the collected sum by lot, auction or tender. In this way, those in need of funds, and those who want to save, are able to meet their requirements simultaneously.

QUESTION: 80

Which of the following correctly defines the concept of Engel’s law?

Solution:

Engel's Law is an economic theory introduced in 1857 by Ernst Engel, a German statistician, stating that the percentage of income allocated for food purchases decreases as income rises. As a household's income increases, the percentage of income spent on food decreases while the proportion spent on other goods (such as luxury goods) increases. For example, a family that spends 20% of their income on food at an income level of Rs. 10,000 will pay Rs. 2000 on food. If their income increases to Rs. 30,000, it is not likely that they will spend Rs. 6,000 (20%) on food, but will spend a lesser percentage while increasing spending in other areas.

QUESTION: 81

With reference to the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, which of the following statements are correct?

  1. It specifically forbids any State within territory of India to have its own separate flag.

  2. It prevents insults to national honours such as the Constitution of India and National Song.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 there is no prohibition against any State hoisting its own flag. What is prohibited under this Act is insulting the national flag by burning it, mutilating it, defacing it, etc.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 is an Act of the Parliament of India which prohibits the desecration of or insult to the country's national symbols, including the National Flag, the constitution, the National Anthem and map of India including contempt of Indian constitution. It does not deal with the National Song of India.

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements regarding Dutch Disease:

It is an economic term used for the negative consequences that can arise from an appreciation of a nation’s currency.

It leads to reducing the competitiveness of domestic enterprises, thereby boosting imports and hurting exports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. The “Dutch disease" is a term that describes the Netherlands in the 1960s where a discovery of gas deposits in the North Sea, and the income boom that followed led to a real appreciation of the exchange rate that crowded out manufacturing exports. So, it is an economic term used for the negative consequences that can arise from an appreciation of a nation’s currency.

Statement 2 is correct. Dutch disease is a shorthand way of describing the paradox which occurs when good news, such as the discovery of large oil reserves, harms a country's broader economy. Increase in net exports drives up a country’s exchange rate which makes others export non-competitive in the world market and impairs the ability of domestic products to compete with imports i.e it leads to reducing the competitiveness of domestic enterprises, thereby boosting imports and hurting exports.

QUESTION: 83

With reference to desertification/land degradation in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Gujarat has a higher area under desertification/land degradation than Maharashtra.

  2. Haryana has more than 40% area under desertification/land degradation due to faulty agricultural practices.

  3. The most significant process of desertification/land degradation in the country is vegetation degradation.

  4. Rajasthan has the highest area under desertification/land degradation in the country.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Maharashtra is the state with second highest area under desertification/land degradation with respect to the country's total geographical area (TGA), i.e., 44.93%. Gujarat is the state with third highest area under desertification/land degradation with respect to country TGA. The state is observed with 52.29% of the total geographical area under desertification/land degradation.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Haryana is observed with 7.67% of the total geographical area under desertification/land degradation. The most significant process of desertification/ land degradation in the state is Wind Erosion (3.43%) followed by Settlement (1.94%) and Vegetation Degradation (0.94%).

Statement 3 is incorrect. The most significant process of desertification/ land degradation in the country is Water Erosion (10.98%). The second most significant process is Vegetation Degradation (8.91%), which is followed by Wind erosion (5.55%).

Statement 4 is correct. Rajasthan is the state with highest area under desertification/land degradation with respect to country's total geographical area (TGA). About 67% of its area is affected by desertification/land degradation where the wind erosion (44.2%) is the maximum contributor followed by water (11.2%), vegetal degradation (6.25%) and salinization (1.07%).

QUESTION: 84

Which of the following statements about elephant bonds mechanism suggested by Surjit Bhalla Committee on Trade and Policy is not correct?

Solution:

Statement a is correct. A High Level Advisory Group (HLAG) headed by Dr. Surjit S. Bhalla has been constituted by the Department of Commerce. The Committee has recommended “Elephant Bonds”. These ‘elephant bonds’ would be an avenue for people to bring their offshore undisclosed wealth into India without fear of prosecution.

Statement b is correct. This panel estimates that India could recover up to $500 billion of black money stashed overseas if it implements its proposal to issue a type of long-term government bond to those with undisclosed wealth. The Committee has recommended “Elephant Bonds” as a specialised security product providing funds towards Long Term Infrastructure.

Statement c is correct. As per committee Subscribers will invest 40 percent of their undisclosed wealth in the bonds and will be issued a fixed coupon security. While 45 per cent of the wealth brought in by subscribing to these elephant bonds will be credited with the depositor, the remaining 15 per cent will be collected as tax deducted at source by the government. Of the amount invested in the bonds, the committee has recommended that 75 percent of the interests earned be collected as tax.

Statement d is incorrect. One of the key features of the proposed mechanism is that those disclosing their black money will receive “immunity from all laws including under foreign exchange, black money laws and taxation laws,”.

QUESTION: 85

Which of the following statements regarding Judicial Activism is/are correct?

Solution:

In India, the doctrine of judicial activism was introduced in mid1970s. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, Justice P.N. Bhagwati, Justice O. Chinnappa Reddy and Justice D.A. Desai laid the foundations of judicial activism in

the country. Judicial activism denotes the proactive role played by the judiciary in the protection of the rights of citizens and in the promotion of justice in the society. Public Interest Litigation (PIL). It is the judicial activism of the Supreme Court which is the major factor for the rise of PIL. In other words, PIL is an outcome of judicial activism. In fact, PIL is the most popular form (or manifestation) of judicial activism. Judicial Activism does not allow judges to use their own personal biases to guide judicial verdict. Judgements have to be based in Constitutional morality and in public interest.

QUESTION: 86

Which of the following is not the fiscal policy measure to control inflation ?

Solution:

Inflation is a quantitative measure of the rate at which the average price level in an economy increases over some period of time. It is the rise in the general level of prices in an economy that is sustained over time, rising prices across the board. Monetary policy and fiscal policy refer to the two most widely recognized tools used to influence a nation's economic activity. Fiscal policy addresses taxation and government spending, and it is generally determined by legislation. Like Reducing the rate of tax, cutting down public expenditure, Increasing subsidies etc. Whereas Monetary policy addresses interest rates and the supply of money in circulation, and it is generally managed by a central bank like Increasing rate of interest on borrowing for commercial Banks.

QUESTION: 87

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWRs) issued by registered warehouses help farmers to seek loans from banks against NWRs and can avoid distress sale of agricultural produce by the farmers in the peak marketing season.

  2. It allows transfer of ownership of that commodity without being stored in a warehouse without having to deliver the physical commodity.

  3. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the regulator for NWRs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Warehouse Receipts are documents issued by warehouses to depositors against the commodities deposited in the warehouses, for which the warehouse is the bailee. In India, the term ‘negotiable warehouse receipt’ is defined in Section 2(m) of the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007 (WDR Act), which came into force from 25 October 2010. WDR Act provides for issuance of NWRs by the warehouses registered under this Act. NWRs issued by registered warehouses help farmers to seek loans from banks against NWRs and this way NWRs become a prime tool of trade.

NWRs provide farmers with an instrument that allows them to extend the sales period of modestly perishable products well beyond the harvesting season. When delivering the product to an accredited warehouse, the farmer obtains a Warehouse Receipt that can be used as collateral for short-term borrowing to obtain working capital. That way, the farmer does not need to sell the product immediately to ease cash constraints. This option would be attractive only if the farmer expects that seasonal price increases will make it worthwhile to store the product and sell it later. This way NWRs can avoid distress sale of agricultural produce by the farmers in the peak marketing season when there is glut in the market.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Negotiable warehouse receipts allow transfer of ownership of that commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver the physical commodity. These receipts are issued in negotiable form, making them eligible as collateral for loans.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) was constituted under the WDR act. The Act provides for the establishment of the WDRA to exercise the powers conferred on it and to perform the functions assigned to it under the Act, Rules and Regulations for the development and regulation of warehouses, negotiability of warehouse receipts and promote orderly growth of the warehousing business in the country.

QUESTION: 88

Which of the following countries is not a part of the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)?

Solution:

Why in News? Russia pushes India’s entry into Eurasian Economic Union

In September 2019, India has skipped a meeting of the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU), which was organised by the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) at Xi’an in China.

EAEU a five-nation grouping comprising Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Armenia and Belarus.

The Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) is an economic union of states located in central and northern Asia and Eastern Europe.

The Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union was signed on 29 May 2014 by the leaders of Belarus, Kazakhstan and Russia, and came into force on 1 January 2015.

The EAEU encourages the free movement of goods, services and provides for common policies in the macroeconomic sphere, transport, industry and agriculture, energy, foreign trade and investment, customs, technical regulation, competition and antitrust regulation.

Various bodies under it:

  1. Supreme Council is the Union

  2. Intergovernmental Council

  3. Eurasian Economic Commission

  4. Court of the Eurasian Economic Union

QUESTION: 89

A ‘two plus two dialogue’ is a term — adopted in foreign parleys — used for installation of a dialogue mechanism between two countries’ defence and external affairs ministries. In this context with which of the following countries India has never held a two plus two dialogue?

Solution:

A ‘two plus two dialogue’ is a term — adopted in foreign parleys — used for installation of a dialogue mechanism between two countries’ defence and external affairs ministries.

India has put in place 2+2 dialogues, either at the level of officials or ministers, with several key partners, Australia, Japan and the US.

Option (a) On December 18, 2019 India and the United States held a security dialogue in Washington. This was their second 2+2 dialogue.

Option (c) India and Japan recently held the meeting of India- Japan Foreign and Defence Ministerial Dialogue (2+2), in New Delhi in November 2019

Option (d) The third India-Australia Secretary-level 2+2 dialogue was held on 9 December 2019 in New Delhi.

This year’s edition of 2+2 dialogue assumes additional significance as they come months after India, Australia, Japan and the United States (US) decided to upgrade their interactions in ‘Quadrilateral Security Dialogue’ (Quad) format to ministerial level in September 2019. All aspects of bilateral relations will be reviewed, with the focus on security and strategic relations.

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following is the reason for using Gross Domestic Product (GDP) Deflator as measure of price behaviour?

Solution:

The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator is a measure of general price inflation. It is calculated by dividing nominal GDP by real GDP and then multiplying by 100. Nominal GDP is the market value of goods and services produced in an economy, unadjusted for inflation (It is the GDP measured at current prices). Real GDP is nominal GDP, adjusted for inflation to reflect changes in real output (It is the GDP measured at constant prices).

Statement a is incorrect. The GDP price deflator measures the changes in prices for all of the goods and services produced in an economy.

Statement b is correct. There are other measures of inflation too like Consumer Price Index (CPI) and Wholesale Price Index (or WPI); however, GDP deflator is a much broader and comprehensive measure. Since Gross Domestic Product is an aggregate measure of production, being the sum of all final uses of goods and services (less imports), GDP deflator reflects the prices of all domestically produced goods and services in the economy.

Statement c is incorrect. The GDP deflator shows how much a change in GDP relies on changes in the price level. The CPI is one of the most commonly used inflation measures in that it reflects changes to a consumer's cost of living. However, all calculations based on the CPI are direct, meaning the index is calculated using prices of goods and services already included in the index. The fixed basket used in CPI calculations is static and sometimes misses changes in prices of goods outside of the basket of goods. Since GDP isn't based on a fixed basket of goods and services, the GDP deflator has an advantage over the CPI. The statement that it is easy to calculate is not the reason for using GDP Deflator.

Statement d is incorrect. The GDP deflator reflects the prices of all domestically produced goods and services in the economy whereas, other measures like CPI and WPI are based on a limited basket of goods and services, thereby not representing the entire economy.

QUESTION: 91

Consider the following statements:

  1. Edge computing ensures low latency, high bandwidth and trusted computing and storage.

  2. Quantum computing relies on individual bits to store and process information as binary 0 and 1 states.

  3. Edge computing is computing that's done at or near the source of the data, instead of relying on the cloud

  4. While quantum computing works with classical algorithms, quantum algorithms are obviously more appropriate as they solve some problems faster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Edge computing is used to process time-sensitive data, while cloud computing is used to process data that is not time-driven. Besides latency, edge computing is preferred over cloud computing in remote locations, where there is limited or no connectivity to a centralized location.

A quantum computer is any device for computation that makes direct use of distinctively quantum mechanical phenomena, such as superposition and entanglement, to perform operations on data.

Statement 1 is correct: The Edge computing paradigm has gained considerable popularity in academic and industrial circles. It serves as a key enabler for many future technologies like 5G, Internet of Things (IoT), augmented reality and vehicle-to-vehicle communications by connecting cloud computing facilities and services to the end users. The Edge computing paradigm provides low latency, mobility, high bandwidth, trusted and location awareness support to delay-sensitive applications.

Statement 2 is correct: Quantum computers can process massive and complex datasets more efficiently than classical computers. All computing systems rely on a fundamental ability to store and manipulate information. Current computers manipulate individual bits, which store information as binary 0 and 1 states. Quantum computers leverage quantum mechanical phenomena to manipulate information. To do this, they rely on quantum bits, or qubits.

Statement 3 is correct: The word edge in this context means literal geographic distribution. Edge computing is computing that’s done at or near the source of the data, instead of relying on the cloud at one of a dozen data centers to do all the work. It doesn’t mean the cloud will disappear. It means the cloud is coming to you.

Statement 4 is correct: While quantum computers can work with classical algorithms, quantum algorithms are obviously more appropriate as they can solve some problems faster. One example of a quantum algorithm is Grover’s algorithm, which can search through an unstructured database or unordered list significantly faster than any classical algorithm.

QUESTION: 92

The word 'Huntington' is sometimes mentioned in news in reference to

Solution:

Huntington disease (HD) is a progressive genetic disorder affecting the brain that causes uncontrolled movements, impaired coordination of balance and movement, a decline in cognitive abilities, difficulty in concentrating and memory lapses, mood swings and personality changes.

It is caused by a mutation in a gene called HTT. The HTT genes are involved in the production of a protein called huntingtin. They provide the instruction for making the protein. When the genes mutate, they provide faulty instructions leading to production of abnormal huntingtin proteins and these form into clumps. The clumps disrupt the normal functioning of the brain cells, which eventually leads to death of neurons in the brain, resulting in Huntington disease.

QUESTION: 93

With reference to the totipotency, which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

Difference between totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent

Totipotent cells can form all the cell types in a body, plus the extraembryonic, or placental, cells. Embryonic cells within the first couple of cell divisions after fertilization are the only cells that are totipotent. Pluripotent cells can give rise to all of the cell types that make up the body, embryonic stem cells are considered pluripotent. Multipotent cells can develop into more than one cell type, but are more limited than pluripotent cells, adult stem cells and cord blood stem cells are considered multipotent.

Totipotency

Totipotency is the genetic potential of a plant cell to produce the entire plant. In other words, totipotency is the cell characteristic in which the potential for forming all the cell types in the adult organism is retained. A plant cell has a potential to develop into the full plant. This property of the plant cell is called totipotency. The basis of tissue culture is to grow a large number of cells in a sterile controlled environ-ment. The cells are obtained from the stem, root or other plant parts and are allowed to grow in a culture medium containing mineral nutrients, vi-tamins and hormones to encourage cell division and growth.

A totipotent cell has the capacity to form as an unlimited capability. The ability of a cell to divide and differentiate into the different types of cells is called totipotency, a callus is an undifferentiated mass or tissue which can grow into a complete plant when exposed to the growth hormones.

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following statements: A Geo-fencing is

  1. a location-based service

  2. used to engage crowds of people at organized events.

  3. used with telematics, allowing companies to draw virtual zones around sites, work areas and secure areas.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Geofencing is a location-based service in which an app or other software uses GPS, RFID, Wi-Fi or cellular data to trigger a pre-programmed action when a mobile device or RFID tag enters or exits a virtual boundary set up around a geographical location.

Statement 2 is correct: To make use of geofencing, an administrator or developer must first establish a virtual boundary around a specified location in GPS- or RFID-enabled software. Geofencing is used to engage crowds of people at organized events, like concerts and festivals. For exp, a concert venue might use a geofence to crowdsource social media posts or deliver information about the venue or event.

Statement 3 is correct: A geofence is most commonly defined within the code of a mobile application, especially since users need to opt-in to location services for the geofence to work. Geofencing can be helpful with telematics, allowing companies to draw virtual zones around sites, work areas and secure areas. They can be triggered by a vehicle or a person and send alerts or warnings to the operator.

QUESTION: 95

In the context of Mauna Loa Observatory (MLO), Consider the following statements:

  1. It is located on the side of the Mauna Loa volcano in Hawaii

  2. It studies the ozone layer and baseline air quality.

  3. It's best known for its continuous record of atmospheric carbon dioxide, which shows a steady increase in the amount of this gas during more than a half century.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Mauna Loa Observatory (MLO) is located on the north flank of Mauna Loa Volcano, on the Big Island of Hawaii, at an elevation of 3397 meters, or 11,135 feet above sea level. The observatory is a premier atmospheric research facility that has been continuously monitoring and collecting data related to atmospheric change since the 1950's.

Statement 2 is correct: The MLO observatory protrudes through the strong marine temperature inversion layer present in the region, which separates the more polluted lower portions of the atmosphere from the much cleaner free troposphere. The undisturbed air, remote location, and minimal influences of vegetation and human activity at MLO are ideal for monitoring constituents in the atmosphere that can cause climate change.

Statement 3 is correct: MLO is a leading atmospheric research facility, the observatory has been collecting and monitoring data relating to atmospheric change since the 1950s, making long-term measurements of key atmospheric chemicals that drive climate change. It's best known for its continuous record of atmospheric carbon dioxide, which shows a steady increase in the amount of this gas during more than a half century.

QUESTION: 96

Consider the following statements:

  1. Embryonic stem are said to be pluripotent which means they can change into any cell in the body.

  2. Adult stem cells are said to be multipotent which means they can only change only into some cells in the body.

  3. Hematopoietic stem cells are found in the cord blood.

  4. Cord blood banking is the process of collecting the cord blood and extracting and cryogenically freezing its stem cells.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Embryonic stem cells supply new cells for an embryo as it grows and develops into a baby. These stem cells are said to be pluripotent which means they can change into any cell in the body.

Statement 2 is correct: Adult stem cells supply new cells as an organism grows and to replace cells that get damaged. They are said to be multipotent which means they can only change into some cells in the body not any cell.

Statement 3 is correct: Cord blood is the blood from the baby that is left in the umbilical cord and placenta after birth. It contains special cells called hematopoietic stem cells that can be used to treat some types of diseases.

Statement 4 is correct: Stem cells are special human cells that have the ability to develop into many different cell types from muscle cells to brain cells. In some cases, they also have the ability to repair damaged tissue. Cord blood banking is the process of collecting the cord blood and extracting and cryogenically freezing its stem cells and other cells of the immune system for potential future medical use.

QUESTION: 97

With reference to PUNCH Mission, which one of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

The Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere(PUNCH), PUNCH mission will focus directly on the Sun’s outer atmosphere, the corona, and how it generates the solar wind. Composed of four suitcasesized satellites, PUNCH will image and track the solar wind as it leaves the Sun. The spacecraft also will track coronal mass ejections - large eruptions of solar material that can drive large space weather events near Earth - to better understand their evolution and develop new techniques for predicting such eruptions. PUNCH will be able to image, in real time, the structures in the solar atmosphere that these missions encounter by blocking out the bright light of the Sun and examining the much fainter atmosphere.

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following is/ are the major advantage/ advantages in obtaining energy from nuclear fusion technology?

  1. It does not emit greenhouse gases and is also completely free of long-lived radioactive wastes.

  2. It contains limited risk of proliferation unlike nuclear fission technology

  3. It does not contain any risk of meltdown of reactors unlike nuclear fission reactions.

  4. The complexity involved in obtaining nuclear fusion reactors are simpler than that of nuclear fission reactors.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Nuclear fusion is a process in which two or more than two nuclei fuse with each other unlike fission where one nucleus breaks into one or more than one nucleus with emission of alpha, beta or gamma rays. Nuclear fusion reactions take place inside the sun. When two hydrogen nuclei come together to form helium and emit a lot of energy. The greatest challenge is to attain optimum temperature and pressure which helps nuclei fuse with each other.

Statement 1 is correct. The advantage of nuclear fusion is that it does not emit any greenhouse gases unlike conventional sources of energy. This also has the advantage that it does not emit long lived radioactive gases unlike nuclear fission processes where emission of radioactive particles is the greatest obstacle and threat.

Statement 2 is correct. There is no risk of proliferation unlike nuclear fission where proliferation is the greatest threat. Nuclear fission processes which are a source of energy, can also be a threat if nuclear resources are enriched to make nuclear bombs.

Statement 3 is correct. Meltdown of a reactor happens when a chain reaction gets uncontrollable. In nuclear fission chain reaction takes place, In nuclear fusion there is no chain reaction. Hence, there is no risk of reactor meltdown in nuclear fusion unlike in nuclear fission. The Chernobyl disaster is an example of a reactor meltdown.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The complexity involved in obtaining a nuclear fusion reactor is more than that of nuclear fission reactors. Attaining the required temperature and pressure in a nuclear fusion reactor is the biggest hurdle and complexity.

Relevance) Tokamak (ITER), India is an important member. Also, energy through fusion technology has potential to produce enough energy and reduce reliance on conventional sources of energy.

QUESTION: 99

What is immune checkpoint therapy, sometimes mentioned in the news?

Solution:

Option c correctly defines the concept of immune checkpoint therapy.

Option b defines auto- immune diseases where the immunity system of the person mistakenly starts attacking our body.

Option d defines Cognitive behavioral therapy. A type of psychotherapeutic treatment that helps people learn how to identify and change destructive or disturbing thought patterns that have a negative influence on behavior and emotions.

QUESTION: 100

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect. The Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) test for HIV is based on antigen- antibody interactions. ELISA test is an antibody test. When any virus enters our body. Based on the type of antigen of virus, our body forms antibodies. ELISA test based on the presence of antibodies in our body. Hence, ELISA is not a genetic test which identifies infections based on DNA patterns.

Option b is correct. National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) is a division under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The organization provides leadership in HIV Control Programme. NACO has implemented the eradication of HIV in four phases. Presently we are in NACO Phase 4 which aims to end new incidences of infections and continue with antiretroviral therapy on the diagnosed patients.

Option c is correct. The 90-90-90 strategy (adopted by UNAIDS) aims at 90% of people living with HIV will know their HIV status, 90% of people with infection will receive treatment and 90% of people receiving treatment will have viral suppression by 2020.

Option d is correct. The Sustainable Development Goal 3 aims to achieve the end of AIDS by 2030.