UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 3 (July 8, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 3 (July 8, 2021)


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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 3 (July 8, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 3 (July 8, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 3 (July 8, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 3 (July 8, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 3 (July 8, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

With reference to National Mission for Green India, consider the following statements:

  1. It is one of the missions outlined under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture.

  2. It seeks to increase forest/tree cover in India to the extent of 5 million hectares.

  3. It seeks to improve and enhance ecosystem services.

  4. It seeks to increase forest-based livelihood income.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. National Mission for a Green India is one of the eight Missions outlined under India’s action plan for addressing the challenge of climate change -the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). It is aimed at protecting, restoring and enhancing India’s diminishing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.

  • Statement 2 is correct. The mission has the broad objective of both increasing the forest and tree cover by 5 million hectares, as well as increasing the quality of the existing forest and tree cover in another 5 million hectares of forest/ non-forest lands in 10 years.

  • Statement 3 is correct. The Mission proposes a holistic view of greening and focuses not on carbon sequestration targets alone, but also, on multiple ecosystem services, especially, biodiversity, water, biomass etc., along with provisioning services like fuel, fodder, timber and non-timber forest produce. It seeks improvement in the quality of forest cover and ecosystem services of forests /non-forests, including moderately dense, open forests, degraded grassland and wetlands.

  • Statement 4 is correct. It will also increase options of forest based livelihood income for about 3 million households living in and around those landscapes where the mission is implemented.

QUESTION: 2

If a region near the seacoast experiences red tide, what does it imply?

Solution: Red tide is a phenomenon caused by algal blooms during which algae become so numerous that they discolor coastal waters. The algal bloom may also deplete oxygen in the waters and release toxins that may cause illness in humans and other animals. Major factors influencing red tide events include warm ocean surface temperatures, low salinity, high nutrient content, calm seas, and rain followed by sunny days during the summer months. In addition, algae related to red tide can spread or be carried long distances by winds, currents, storms, or ships.

QUESTION: 3

Which of the following islands are separated from each other by Duncan passage?

Solution: Duncan Passage is a strait in the Indian Ocean. It is about 48 km wide; it separates Rutland Island to the north, and Little Andaman to the south. West of Duncan Passage is the Bay of Bengal; east is the Andaman Sea. Rutland Island belongs to the South Andaman administrative district, part of the Indian union territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The island is lying 20 km south from Port Blair.

QUESTION: 4

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Pair 1 is correctly matched.

Paramarsh Scheme: To mentor National Accreditation and Assessment Council (NAAC) accreditation aspirant institutions for promoting quality assurance in higher education the Union Minister for Human Resource Development launched the University Grants Commission (UGC) scheme ‘Paramarsh’.

The scheme will target 1000 Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) for mentoring with a specific focus on quality as enumerated in the UGC ―Quality Mandate”.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Nirvik: Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (ECGC) launches the Export Credit Insurance Scheme (ECIS) called NIRVIK to enhance loan availability and ease the lending process. The Scheme is being prepared by the Commerce and Industry Ministry. It is an insurance cover guarantee that will cover up to 90% of the principal and interest. The cover will include both pre and post-shipment credit.

Pair 3 is correctly matched. Nishtha: The Union Human Resource Development Minister launched ‘National Initiative for School Heads and Teachers Holistic Advancement (NISHTHA)’, a national mission to improve learning outcomes at the elementary level. NISHTHA is the largest teachers’ training programme of its kind in the world. Training will be conducted directly by 33120 Key Resource Persons (KRPs) and State Resource Persons (SRP) identified by the State and UTs, who will in turn be trained by 120 National Resource Persons identified from National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA), etc.

QUESTION: 5

With reference to Global Geoparks Network (GGN), consider the following statements:

  1. These sites are designated by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).

  2. It seeks to promote and conserve Earth’s geological heritage and encourage sustainable research and development.

  3. India does not have any site in the Global Geoparks Network at present.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. The Global Geoparks Network (GGN) is a United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) assisted network established in 1998. The international network seeks the membership of geoparks—geographical areas where geological heritage is the focus of local protection, education and development.

Statement 2 is correct. Managed under UNESCO's Ecological and Earth Sciences Division, the GGN seeks the promotion and conservation of the planet’s geological heritage, as well as encourages sustainable research and development by the concerned communities.

Statement 3 is correct. At present, there are 147 UNESCO Global Geoparks in 41 countries. India does not have any site in the Global Geoparks Network. Lonar Lake in Maharashtra and St. Mary’s Island and Malpe beach in coastal Karnataka are the Geological Survey of India (GSI) candidates for UNESCO Global Geopark Network status.

QUESTION: 6

With reference to ‘Critical Ecosystem Partnership Fund (CEPF)’, which of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

Option (a) is incorrect. Critical Ecosystem Partnership Fund (CEPF) is a joint initiative of l’Agence Française de Développement, Conservation International, the European Union, the Global Environment Facility, the Government of Japan and the World Bank.

Option (b) is correct. It aims to empower civil society in developing countries and transitional economies to protect the world’s biodiversity hotspots, which are some of Earth's most biologically rich yet threatened terrestrial ecosystems.

Option (c) is incorrect. CEPF provides funding and technical assistance to civil groups, such as nongovernmental organizations, community groups and private sector partners. It acts as a catalyst to create strategic working alliances among diverse groups, combining unique capacities and eliminating duplication of efforts for a comprehensive, coordinated approach to conservation challenges.

QUESTION: 7

With reference to the Hydrogen Fuel Cell technology, consider the following statements:

  1. It produces water and heat as the only byproduct.

  2. It produces Direct Current (DC) electricity.

  3. It stores energy for powering electric vehicles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Hydrogen Fuel Cell Technology: Hydrogen + Oxygen = Electricity + Water Vapor

A fuel cell is a device that converts chemical potential energy (energy stored in molecular bonds) into electrical energy. A PEM (Proton Exchange Membrane) cell uses hydrogen gas (H2) and oxygen gas (O2) as fuel. The products of the reaction in the cell are water, electricity, and heat. This is a big improvement over internal combustion engines, coal burning power plants, and nuclear power plants, all of which produce harmful by-products.

Statement 2 is correct. Current produced using Fuel Cell Technology is Direct Current(DC).

Statement 3 is incorrect. While the fuel cells generate electricity through an electrochemical process, unlike a battery-electricity vehicle, it does not store energy and, instead, relies on a constant supply of fuel and oxygen — in the same way that an internal combustion engine relies on a constant supply of petrol or diesel, and oxygen. In that sense, it may be seen as being similar to a conventional internal combustion engine.

 

 

QUESTION: 8

Which of the following has/have been declared as the classical language/languages by the Government of India?

  1. Marathi

  2. Kannada

  3. Urdu

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution: Currently there are six languages in India which have the status of ―Classical Language”. Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), Malayalam (2013) and Odia (2014) are the Classical Languages of India. According to the Ministry of Culture, the Criteria for declaring a language Classic are high antiquity for a period of 1500-2000 years, body of ancient literature considered as valuable heritage, origin literary tradition. Once a language is declared as Classical it will have two major International awards for scholars of eminence, a centre of excellence for studies in that language. Recently, there are demands for declaring Marathi as a Classical Language as it fulfills the criteria. The matter is pending before the Government of India.

QUESTION: 9

Consider the following pairs

Which of the above is/are correctly matched.

Solution: Pair 1 is correctly matched. Pong Dam Lake, in India, also known as Pong Reservoir or Maharana Pratap Sagar was created in 1975, by building the highest earthfill dam in India on the Beas River in the wetland zone of the Siwalik Hills of the Kangra district of the state of Himachal Pradesh.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Dihang Dibang Biosphere Reserve constitutes an area of 5112 Sq. Km in the district of West Siang, Upper Siang and Dibang valley of Arunachal Pradesh. An area of 4095 Sq.Km constitutes the core zone of the Biosphere Reserve and 1017 Sq.Km makes the buffer zone. Due to the steep terrain combined with difficult weather as well as the lack of communication, the area has a very sparse human population.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Blue Mountain is the highest peak in Mizoram. It is situated near the state’s south-eastern border overlooking the bend of the mighty Chhimtuipui river and the hill ranges of Myanmar. With a height of 2157 metres at the peak, the ridge stretches nearly 10 kms in north-south direction near the southern end.

QUESTION: 10

With reference to Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements:

  1. Indian Sundarbans was accorded the status of ‘Wetland of International Importance’ under the Ramsar Convention.

  2. It is the only global treaty to focus on a single ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Sundarban was accorded the status of ‘Wetland of International Importance’ in 2019 under the Ramsar Convention. The Sundarbans comprises hundreds of islands and a network of rivers, tributaries and creeks in the delta of the Ganga and the Brahmaputra at the mouth of the Bay of Bengal in India and Bangladesh. Located on the southwestern part of the delta, the Indian Sundarban constitutes over 60% of the country’s total mangrove forest area. It is the 27th Ramsar Site in India, and with an area of 4,23,000 hectares is now the largest protected wetland in the country.

Statement 2 is correct. Ramsar Convention is an international agreement promoting the conservation and wise use of wetlands. It is the only global treaty to focus on a single ecosystem. The convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975.

 

 

QUESTION: 11

Consider the following statements with reference to the BASIC countries.

  1. The grouping of four nations is based on the common geo-political interests of the developing countries.

  2. The BASIC countries as a bloc was formed by an agreement signed in November 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. BASIC countries are Brazil, South Africa, India and China. The groupings are formed to ensure that the principles of common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities remain intact in climate change agreement negotiations. BASIC countries constitute one third of world geography and 40 percent of total population.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The groupings were formed in a UNFCCC meeting in Copenhagen, Denmark in 2009. In 2019, the meeting took place in Brazil.

KB:

In the 2019 meeting, the grouping countries agreed with IPCC 2018 report regarding devastating consequences that can happen if world countries fail to contain the temperature rise by 1.5 degree by 2100. The groupings remind developed countries of its responsibility regarding Green Climate Fund and Global Environment Facility.

QUESTION: 12

With reference to new standards of measuring, consider the following statements:

  1. The mole will now be defined by Avogadro Constant (NA).

  2. Current will now be defined by elementary electric charge (e).

  3. The Kelvin will now be defined by the Boltzmann constant (k).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

New standards of measurement:

1) A global resolution to redefine four of the seven base units was accepted in a conference in Paris.

2) Seven main units of measurement are in use at present, including the metre for length, the kilogram for mass, the second for time, the ampere for electric current, the kelvin for temperature, the mole for the amount of a substance, and the candela for luminous intensity.

3) The definition of the kilogram, ampere, kelvin and mole will formally change from the 20th May 2019.

4) The definition of the Kelvin will be defined in terms of the Boltzmann constant rather than the water triple point. Whilst there is a fundamental change in the definition of the kelvin and there will be no noticeable change in the magnitude of the kelvin or °C.

5) The kilogram will no longer be defined as the cylinder of platinum alloy kept in a vault at BIPM, but will be defined in terms of the Plank constant.

6) The ampere, symbol A, is the SI unit of electric current. It is defined by taking the fixed numerical value of the elementary charge e to be 1.602176634 x 10−19.

7) The mole, symbol mol, is the SI unit of amount of substance. One mole contains exactly 6.02214076 x 1023 elementary entities. This number is the fixed numerical value of the Avogadro constant, NA, when expressed in the unit mol−1 and is called the Avogadro number. The amount of substance, symbol n, of a system is a measure of the number of specified elementary entities. An elementary entity may be an atom, a molecule, an ion, an electron, any other particle or specified group of particles.

QUESTION: 13

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Mass movements are caused due to agents of erosion.

  2. Formation of the Himalayas is an example of Diastrophism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Mass Movements: Mass movements (also called mass-wasting) is the down-slope movement of Regolith (loose uncemented mixture of soil and rock particles that covers the Earth's surface) by the force of gravity without the aid of a transporting medium such as water, ice, or wind.

Statement 2 is correct:

Diastrophism: Diastrophism, also called tectonism, large-scale deformation of Earth’s crust by natural processes, which leads to the formation of continents and ocean basins, mountain systems, plateaus, rift valleys, and other features by mechanisms such as lithospheric plate movement (that is, plate tectonics), volcanic loading, or folding.

QUESTION: 14

Other than hunting, what were the possible reasons for the extinction of Asiatic cheetahs in India?

  1. Hum an-wildlife conflict

  2. Widespread disease in cheetah population

  3. Desertification

  4. Decline in prey base

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Option 1 is correct. The reasons cheetahs became extinct in India can be traced to man’s interference. Problems like human-wildlife conflict and illegal trafficking have decimated their numbers.

Option 2 is incorrect. Widespread diseases are not related to the extinction of cheetahs in India.

Option 3 is correct. Researchers at the 14th meeting of the Conference of Parties to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD COP 14) have blamed desertification to be one of the reasons for the extinction of cheetahs in India.

Option 4 is correct. The advent of climate change, loss of habitat and loss of prey were also responsible for the extinction of cheetahs in India.

QUESTION: 15

The Nehru Liyaqat pact was presented to

Solution: The Nehru-Liyaqat agreement signed in 1950, also called ―Delhi Pact” was a bilateral agreement between India and Pakistan to protect and secure rights of minorities in both the countries. Both agree to ensure minorities equality in citizenship, security of life, culture, property and freedom of speech, occupation and worship.

QUESTION: 16

With reference to Sepsis, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by the body’s immune system overreacting in response to an infection.

  2. It can be triggered by a variety of pathogens such as Viruses, bacteria, fungi or parasites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Sepsis is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by the body's response to an infection. The body normally releases chemicals into the bloodstream to fight an infection. Sepsis occurs when the body's response to these chemicals is out of balance, triggering changes that can damage multiple organ systems.

Statement 2 is correct: The causes of sepsis are usually pneumonia, wound infections, urinary tract infections or infections in the abdominal cavity. Viruses, bacteria, fungi or parasites — sepsis can be triggered by a variety of pathogens.

QUESTION: 17

Which of the following is/are potential bio-indicator/bio-indicators ?

  1. Butterflies

  2. Lichens

  3. Algae

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Option 1 is correct: Butterflies are increasingly being recognised as valuable environmental indicators, both for their rapid and sensitive responses to subtle habitat or climatic changes and as representatives for the diversity and responses of other wildlife.

Option 2 is correct: Lichens are sensitive to atmospheric pollution such as nitrogen (N) because they receive all their nutrients and water from wet and dry atmospheric deposition (fall out). Nitrogen deposition can increase the load of nutrients. Too much N can harm and kill the algae’s chlorophyll which is used to produce sugars feeding it and the fungi.

Option 3 is correct: Algal communities possess many attributes as biological indicators of spatial and temporal environmental changes. Algal parameters, especially the community structural and functional variables that have been used in biological monitoring programs, are highlighted in this document. Biological indicators like algae have been included in water quality assessments in some areas of Malaysia. The use of algal parameters in identifying various types of water degradation is essential and complementary to other environmental indicators.

QUESTION: 18

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the power and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court as per the Constitution?

Solution: Option a is incorrect. Article 137 provided validation to review and curative petition. The supreme court is empowered to review the decision of the President on mercy petition under Article 136. Under Article 136, the Supreme Court is empowered to provide aggrieved citizens the opportunity to appeal (Special leave petition). The supreme court can review mercy petition decisions on certain grounds like excessive delay in taking decisions by the President. Excessive delay also becomes grounds to violate the human rights of any person.

Option b is correct. Article 32 of the Constitution provides the supreme court the power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the citizens. The writ jurisdiction of supreme court is Original in nature. It means one can approach the supreme court directly in case of violation of any of the rights provided in Part III of the constitution.

Option c is correct. The Supreme court is considered as custodian of the Constitution. The institution is empowered to review any of the provisions of the Constitution and that too by suo motu.

Option d is correct. The Supreme court is empowered to make judgements on any matters, be it executive matters or legislative matters under Article 142. The supreme court can pass orders to ensure complete justice.

QUESTION: 19

Which of the following are free living nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

  1. Azotobacter

  2. Cyanobacteria

  3. Rhizobium

  4. Clostridium

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

QUESTION: 20

If you walk through the seacoast, you are likely to see mangrove forests along with some animals that live in a mutualistic relationship with the mangroves. Which of the following is/are such animals?

  1. Gharial

  2. Lichens

  3. Crabs

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Option 1 is incorrect. Gharials do not live in a mutualistic relationship with the mangroves. The reason is the conditions in which they grow and develop. Mangroves grow in coastal saline or brackish water. Gharials on the other hand prefer clear, flowing, freshwater rivers with deep pools and plenty of fish.

Option 2 is correct. Lichen growing on a mangrove tree is an example of mutualistic relationship. Lichen is made up of fungus and algae. The fungus gets food from the photosynthesising algae and the algae gets a place to live.

Option 3 is correct. Crabs play a significant role in the mangrove forests. At some sites, crabs can consume more than a quarter of the leaf litter fall, producing faecal material that has high nutritional content. They also help in promoting recycling of the detrital matter.

QUESTION: 21

During the Delhi Sultanate, ‘Ushr’ and ‘Kharaj’ were

Solution: Ushr and Kharaj, both are types of land taxes. During the Sultanate period the revenue administration was not well organized. The fiscal resources of the state were very limited because the state authority extended only to parts of India. Agriculture was the main occupation and land revenue was the source of income for the state. Ushr was the sand tax charged on lands held by muslims. It was around one-tenth of the total produce of land held by muslims or watered by natural means. The kharaj tax was charged on lands held by both Hindus and Muslims.

QUESTION: 22

Mycorrhiza, which has a crucial role in soil biology, is a symbiotic association of

Solution: A mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of a fungus with a root system. The fungal filaments form a network around the young root or they penetrate the root cells. The fungus provides minerals and water to the roots, in turn the roots provide sugars and Nitrogen (N)-containing compounds to the mycorrhizae. Some plants have an obligate association with the mycorrhizae. For example, Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish without the presence of mycorrhizae.

QUESTION: 23

If you travel through Dry Deciduous forests in India, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?

  1. Ebony

  2. Palas

  3. Chinar

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The Northern dry deciduous forests is a tropical dry broadleaf forest ecoregion of east-central India. It covers an area of 58,300 square kilometers (22,500 sq mi), extending across portions of Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, and Jharkhand states. The region extends north and south in the dry western rain shadow of the Eastern Ghats range, which block the moisture-laden monsoon winds from the Bay of Bengal to the east.

Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the major trees of dry deciduous forests.

Ebony trees grow on fertile, moist soil, in tropical rainforests, usually on the lower altitudes.

Chinar trees are found in foothills of Himalayas where it is part of Montane forest under moist deciduous forests.

 

 

QUESTION: 24

Which of the following are the important causes of the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect?

  1. Using asphalt concrete in roads

  2. Developing pervious pavements

  3. Encroachment of water bodies

  4. Increasing levels of air pollution

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Option 1 is correct. Asphalt Concrete (AC) is one of the most common pavement surfacing materials. It absorbs and stores more heat than natural vegetation, leading to the Urban. Heat Island (UHI) effect.

Densely graded asphalt concrete has low albedo, which results in surface temperatures reaching upwards of 60 °C on hot summer days.

Option 2 is incorrect. Pervious pavements play an important role in mitigating the Urban. Heat Island (UHI) effect. It is a specific type of pavement with a high porosity that allows rainwater to pass through it into the ground below. Other UHI mitigation strategies include use of high albedo materials, green vegetation and green roofs, urban planning, shade trees and existence of water bodies in city areas.

Option 3 is correct. Encroachment of water bodies alters the landscape pattern and disrupts the heat flow in the urban areas. It has resulted in significant reduction in cool surfaces due to which the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect has become more frequent.

Option 4 is correct. Increasing air pollution has changed the chemical composition of the urban air, which in turn has led to erratic nature of urban climate. This also includes extreme heat waves during summer. Apart from climatic issues, it has also given rise to respiratory diseases in humans.

QUESTION: 25

Which of the following is/are associated with Vedic Literature?

  1. Kalpa Sutra

  2. Nirukta

  3. Narad Smriti

  4. Parashara Smriti

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Kalpa Sutra (Rituals) and Nirukta (Etymology), both are associated with vedic literature. Kalpa means proper. It focuses on the procedure and ceremonies associated with vedic rituals practise. Nirukta explains the reason why a particular word has been used. The only work surviving of Nirukta is Nirukta of Yaska. It is the collection of difficult vedic words and is the oldest dictionary in the world. Other Vedangas include Shiksha (Phonetics),Vyakarana (Grammar), Chhanda (Metrics) and Jyotisha( Astronomy). Narada Smriti and Parashara Smriti are two of the Smritis. Other Smritis include Manu Smriti, Yajnvalkya Smriti, Brihaspati Smriti, Katyayana Smriti. Smriti is a Sanskrit word which means remembrance or memory.

QUESTION: 26

A major inter-tribe festival celebrated annually by the Naga tribes of the North-East. It is a seed sowing festival which also marks the beginning of the year for these tribes. Identify the festival.

Solution:

Lui Ngai Ni is the seed sowing festival celebrated by the Naga tribes (Mao, Zeme, Maram, Tarao etc.) of Manipur. Other Naga tribes from Nagaland, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh are invited in this festival. The festival appeases and honors the gods of crop and to pray for the well-being of the people.

Hornbill festival is celebrated in Nagaland to encourage interactions among tribals. It is organised by the state government of Nagaland to promote tourism in the state. It is celebrated in the first week of December to revive Naga heritage.

Nagoba Jatra is a tribal festival in the Adilabad district of Telangana. It is celebrated by Mesram clan of the indigenous Gond Tribes. Bhogali Bihu is one of the three Bihu festivals celebrated in Assam. It marks the end of harvest season.

QUESTION: 27

Which of the following efforts of the Government is not targeted towards formalizing the nature of the Indian economy?

Solution:

Formalization of the informal economy can take different forms: registration, taxation, organization and representation, legal frameworks, social protection, business incentives/support, and more. And formalization means different things to different categories of the informal workforce. Government of India making efforts to formalize the economy by introducing GST, digitization of payments, direct benefit transfer of subsidies/ scholarships/wages & salaries to bank accounts, opening of Jan Dhan accounts, extending social security coverage to more workers.

For portability of Provident Fund accounts, EPFO launched a ―Universal Account Number” service for contributing members, this was done to formalize the labour market in India.

QUESTION: 28

What does the economic term ‘Cobweb cycle’ mean?

Solution:

The idea was proposed by Hungarian economist Nicholas Kaldor. This refers to a phenomenon where the prices of certain goods witness fluctuations that are cyclical in nature. It happens due to faulty producer expectations. The producers of agricultural goods, for instance, might decide to increase their output one year because their product commanded a very high price the previous year. This, however, might lead to overproduction and cause prices to slump that year, thus leading to losses. Such cyclical price fluctuations are more severe in markets where speculators are banned from hoarding goods to sell them later at a higher price.

QUESTION: 29

What do you understand by the term ‘network products’, recently seen in the news?

Solution:

India must focus on a group of industries, referred to as ―network products”, where production processes are globally fragmented and controlled by leading Multinational Enterprises (MNEs) within their “producer driven” global production networks. Examples of network products include computers, electronic and electrical, road vehicles etc. China’s remarkable export performance vis-a-vis India is driven primarily by deliberate specialization at large scale in labour-intensive activities, especially “network products, where production occurs across GVCs operated by multinational companies.

QUESTION: 30

Which of the following is/are a likely negative outcome/outcome of Essential Commodities Act 1955?

  1. Weakens development of agriculture value chain

  2. Reduced produces profit

  3. Increases price volatility and leads to reduced consumer welf are.

  4. Reduced Incentive to invest in storage

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

The Essential Commodity Act (ECA), 1955 control the productions, supply and distribution of, and trade and commerce in, certain goods such as vegetables, pulses, edible oils, sugars etc., The ECA, however, affects the efficient development of agricultural markets by creating market distortions.

Statement 1 is correct: As agriculture is a seasonal activity, it is essential to store produce for the off-season to ensure smoothened availability of a product at stable price throughout the year. Under the ECA, stock holding limits apply to entries in the agriculture supply chain, including wholesalers, food processing industries and retail food chains.

Statement 2 is correct: under the act price of essassintal goods are regulated by the government (for specific time period) that way reduce producer profit

Statement 3 is correct: When the price of any of these essential commodities rises, the regulator can impose stock holding limits on the commodity, restrict movement of goods, and mandate compulsory purchases under the system of levy. Consequently, all wholesalers, distributors, and retailers dealing in the product must reduce their inventories to comply with the holding limit. The purported aim of this act is to ensure affordability of essential commodities for the poor by restricting hoarding. It is an overarching legislation regulating agricultural marketing and production. It is a reason to Inhabit development of vibrant commodity derivative markets and Increases price volatility and leads to reduced consumer welfare.

Statement 4 is correct: The ECA clearly shows that stock limits and price controls under the Act lead to suboptimal outcomes which are actually opposite to what the Act is mandated to achieve. The Act interferes with the functioning of the markets and provides incentives which are detrimental to wealth creation thereby adversely affecting both social welfare and economic development.

QUESTION: 31

The term ‘Escape clause’, recently seen in the news is

Solution:

‘Escape clause’ generally refers to a contract provision that specifies the conditions under which a party can be freed from an obligation. The escape clause under the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management) Act details a set of events in which the Central government can deviate from fiscal deficit targets. The fiscal deficit is the total amount by which the government’s expenses for a year exceed its revenues.

Escape clauses provide flexibility to governments to overshoot fiscal deficit targets in times of need, enabling them to respond to economic shocks. To ensure escape clauses are not misused, they are generally allowed only in exceptional circumstances, and with a check on the quantum of deviation.

QUESTION: 32

With regard to Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIB), which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. D-SIB assessment methodology will be reviewed at least once in three years.

  2. Domestic banks having assets exceeding 4% of GDP are considered as D-SIB.

Select the correct answer using code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIB) framework requires that The assessment methodology for assessing the systemic importance of banks and identifying D-SIBs will be reviewed on a regular basis. However, this review will be at least once in three years.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Domestic banks having assets exceeding 2% of GDP are considered as D-SIB.

QUESTION: 33

Which of the following is/are likely outcome/outcomes of introduction of long-term repo operations (LTRO)?

  1. Enhance liquidity in the banking systems.

  2. Increase short term interest rates

  3. Reduce investment in corporate bonds

  4. Decrease lending rate without tapering deposit interest rates.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

About LTRO: Long Term Repo Operation(LTRO) is a mechanism to facilitate the transmission of monetary policy actions and to inject liquidity into the banking system to boost credit growth. Under this, the central bank provides one-year to three-year money to banks at the prevailing repo rate accepting government securities with matching or higher tenure as the collateral.

Statement 1 is correct: Long Term Repo Operation (LTRO) is a mechanism to facilitate the transmission of monetary policy actions and to inject liquidity into the banking system to boost credit growth. The upper limit for liquidity Enhancement by LTRO in the banking system is Rs 1 lakh crore.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Usually, loans with higher maturity periods (here like 1 year and 3 year) will have lower interest rates compared to short term (repo) loans. It is targeted to bring down short-term rates.

Statement 3 is incorrect: It will increase investment in corporate bonds.

Statement 4 is correct: It will decrease the cost of funds for banks without effectively cutting deposit rates. Reduced cost of funds for banks will result in reduced interest rates.

QUESTION: 34

The Umbrella Movement which emerged as a spontaneous social movement started in

Solution:

The Umbrella revolution is associated with protest in Hongkong against China. The protest started in 2014. As per the agreement between Britain and China in 1997, China signed an agreement which ensured that free and fair elections, capitalistic economy and freedom of speech and expression shall exist in Hongkong. However, in 2014, China allowed candidacy for election only to those who were pro- Beijing. Also, the freedom of speech and expression of the citizens in Hongkong were being curtailed. The recent extradition law by China for Hongkong is an extension of Chinese trying to get complete control over Hongkong political and economic systems.

QUESTION: 35

Which of the following are the members of the Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries plus (OPEC+)?

  1. Qatar

  2. Azerbaijan

  3. Russia

  4. Bahrain

  5. Oman

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Non- OPEC countries which export crude oil are called OPEC plus countries. OPEC plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan and Sudan. The Opec and non-Opec producers first formed the alliance at a historic meeting in Algiers in 2016. The aim was to undertake production restrictions to help resuscitate a flailing oil market.

KB:

The pact between Russia(OPEC+) and Saudi Arabia (OPEC) to cut production so that the prices do not fall beyond a limit has ended. Russia to contain the economic downfall because of the coronavirus outbreak, is willing to increase the production of oil which will lower down the global oil prices because of increase in supply.

QUESTION: 36

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?

Solution:

A strait is a naturally formed, narrow, typically navigable waterway that connects two larger bodies of water.

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Turkey is near two strategic straits. Dardanelles strait and Bosporus straits. Dardanelles straits separates Asian Turkey and Europe Turkey.

Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Strait of Hormuz connects Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. The Strait of Hormuz is between two counties: UAE and Iran.

Pair 3 is correctly matched. Bab- al- mandab strait connects Red Sea and Indian Ocean. Horn of African countries are nearby this strait. Horn of Arfican countries comprises of Eritiera, Somalia, Djibouti and Ethiopia.

Pair 4 is correctly matched. Strait of Gibraltar connects Meditternean Sea to Atlantic Ocean. It separates Spain in Europe and Morocco in Africa.

 

 

QUESTION: 37

With reference to the LCA Tejas, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is India’s first completely indigenous aircraft.

  2. It is a twin-engine aircraft.

  3. It has mid-air refuelling capability.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

About LCA Tejas: The Tejas is the second supersonic fighter developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) after the HAL HF-24 Marut.

India’s Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) together with its variants, is the smallest and lightest Multi-Role Supersonic Fighter Aircraft of its class. This single engine, Compound-Delta-Wing, Tailless Aircraft is designed and developed by Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA)with HAL as the principal partner along with DRDO, CSIR, BEL, DGAQA, IAF & IN to meet diverse needs of the Indian Air Force (IAF) and Indian Navy (IN).

In September 2018, Tejas successfully completed the trials for mid-air refuelling, which is one of the key items required for the aircraft to obtain Final Operational Clearance (FOC). The Tejas FOC variant comes with an aerial refueling probe that will allow flights of over 8 hours.

QUESTION: 38

With reference to Green Wall of India, consider the following statements:

  1. It will be a 1,400 km long and 5 km wide green belt from Maharashtra to the Delhi-Haryana border.

  2. It seeks to bridge Western Ghats and Aravalli ranges by developing contiguous forest between them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: It will be a 1,400km long and 5km wide green belt from Gujarat to the DelhiHaryana border.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The idea of forming a green belt from Porbandar to Panipat will not only help in restoring degraded land through afforestation along the Aravali hill range that spans across Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana and Delhi, but also act as a barrier for dust coming from the deserts in western India and pakistan.

QUESTION: 39

With reference to “Kalbelia community of India” consider the following statements.

  1. It is a community of snake charmers found in Himachal Pradesh

  2. Their traditional dance has been included in the UNESCO intangible cultural heritage list

  3. They are kept in the Schedule Tribes of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: They are a community of snake charmers in Rajasthan. Trading in snake venom has been their traditional occupation. Their traditional dance movements and costumes resemble that of serpents. They revered Cobra and sought to protect it by communicating to people about its cultural and ecological importance.

Statement 2 is correct: Their traditional dance is also called Kalbelia. It is performed as a celebration and pride of the community. Their dance is an adaptation of the community with respect to societal conditions in rural Rajasthan. The dance performance is done by women who replicate the movement of snakes. The upper body costume is called Angrakhi and the lower body costume is Lehenga. The male participants play musical instruments. In 2010 Kalbelia folk dance and songs were included in the UNESCO intangible heritage.

Statement 3 is correct: They are included in the Scheduled Tribe

QUESTION: 40

Recently, Golden Rice has assumed significance. Which of the following is correct regarding Golden Rice?

Solution:

Golden Rice is a new type of rice that contains beta-carotene (provitamin A), which is converted into vitamin A as needed by the body and gives the grain its golden color. It is developed through genetic engineering and produces two new enzymes that complete the beta-carotene expression in the rice grain. Golden Rice is intended to complement current strategies in the fight against vitamin A deficiency (VAD) and is intended to supply up to 30–50 percent of the estimated average requirement for vitamin A for preschool age children and pregnant or lactating mothers

QUESTION: 41

Which of the following rock systems in India has coal deposits?

  1. Dharwar Rocks

  2. Gondwana Rocks

  3. Cuddapah Rocks

  4. Tertiary Rocks

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Coal Deposits in India: Coal deposits are primarily found in eastern and south-central India. Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana and Maharashtra accounted for 98.26% of the total known coal reserves in India.

Indian Coal is found in Gondwana and Tertiary Rocks System. Gondwana coal makes up to 98 per cent of the total reserves and 99 per cent of the production of coal in India.

Coking as well as non-coking and bituminous as well as sub-bituminous coal are obtained from Gondwana coal fields. Gondwana coal is free from moisture, but it contains Sulphur and Phosphorus. Tertiary coal 15 to 60 million years old. Carbon content is very low.

KB:

Dharwar Rock System: these rocks have been formed as a result of the erosion and sedimentation of the rocks of the Archaean system. All prominent metallic minerals (iron, gold, manganese etc) are found in these rocks. No fossil is found in these rocks.

Rocks of Cuddapah System: These rocks have been formed as a result of erosion and sedimentation of the rocks of Dharwar system. These are also sedimentary rocks. These are famous for sandstone, limestone, and marble.

QUESTION: 42

Laterite soils is/are associated with which of the following bio-geographical features?

  1. Tropical Climate

  2. Low humus content

  3. High phosphate content

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Explanation:

Laterite Soil: Laterite is a soil and rock type rich in iron and aluminium and is commonly considered to have formed in hot and wet tropical areas. Nearly all laterites are of rusty-red coloration, because of high iron oxide content. They develop by intensive and prolonged weathering of the underlying parent rock. These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess.

Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature.

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following is a characteristic of retreating monsoon season in India?

Solution:

Characteristics of retreating monsoon season in India: During the months of October-November, the south-west monsoon winds become weaker and start to retreat from the skies of North India. This phase of the monsoon is known as the retreating monsoon.

Option A is incorrect: Retreat of monsoon is gradual stopping of rainfall arising from precipitation of moisture carried from water bodies.

Option C is correct: With the onset of retreating monsoon, skies become clearer and clouds disappear. The disappearance of clouds makes the climate of various places hotter gradually. Severe tropical cyclones emerge from the Bay of Bengal. The month of October-November is prone to severe cyclones.

Option B is incorrect: The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as the ‘October heat’

QUESTION: 44

With reference to cultural history of India, ‘Latina’, ‘Phamsana’ and ‘Valabhi’ are types of

Solution: Latina, Phamsana and Valabhi are subdivisions of Nagara style temples depending upon shapes of Shikhara (tower). Latina or Rekha Prasada is a simple and most common type of Shikhara. It is square at the base and the walls curve towards inwards to point on top. Phamsana are broader and shorter than Latina types. The roof is composed of several slabs that rise to a single point over the centre of the building. The roof of Phamsana does not curve inwards but slopes upwards on a straight line. Valabhi type Shikhara are rectangular buildings that rise into a vaulted chamber. the edge of the vaulted chamber is round like wooden wagons drawn by bullocks in ancient times.

QUESTION: 45

Consider the following rivers:

  1. Noyyal

  2. Hemavati

  3. Pamba

Which of the above rivers is/are tributaries of Kaveri river?

Solution:

Option 1 is correct: The Noyyal river rises from the Vellingiri hills in the Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu and enters Coimbatore through the Chithirai Chavadi dam before finally draining into the Kaveri River at Noyyal, in Karur district.

Option 2 is correct: The Hemavati is a river in Karnataka, southern India. It is an important tributary of the Kaveri. It starts in the Western Ghats at an elevation of about 1,219 metres. It is approximately 245 km long and has a drainage area of about 5,410 km².

Option 3 is incorrect: Pamba River is the third longest river in the South Indian state of Kerala and the longest river in the erstwhile princely state of Travancore. Sabarimala temple dedicated to Lord Ayyappa is located on the banks of the river Pamba. It is not a tributary of Kaveri river. It flows to the west and finally empties into the Vembanad Lake.

QUESTION: 46

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Rudraprayag district is situated at the confluence of Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers, at a distance of 34 km from Srinagar (Garhwal). The entire region is blessed with immense natural beauty, places of religious importance, lakes and glaciers.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The district of Vaishali comprises an extensive plain formed by the alluvium brought by the Ganges, the Gandak and other rivers which flow through it. It lies on the south of the Burhi Gandak and is bounded by the Ganges on the South and the Gandak on the south-west.

Pair 3 is correctly matched. Koodli in Shivamogga district is a confluence of two tributaries, Tunga and Bhadra, which form the river Tungabhadra. Tungabhadra passes through different places such as Harihara, Hospet and Hampi along its 531-km route to join River Krishna at Gondimall near Alampur, Telangana.

QUESTION: 47

Who among the following is not one of the founders of schools of Indian Philosophy known as Shad Darshan?

Solution:

There are six schools of Indian Philosophies. These are Sankhya (Kapila), Yoga (Patanjali), Nyaya (Akshapada Gautama), Vaisheshika (Uluka Kanada), Purva Mimansa (Jaimini), Uttara Mimansa (Badarayana). Vasumitra was a Buddhist monk and he presided over 4th Buddhist Council at Kashmir

QUESTION: 48

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Pair 1 is incorrect: Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the Nilgiri Hills, at 2637 metres (8650 feet). There is a reserved forest area around the peak. It is 9 km from Ooty, on the Ooty-Kotagiri Road in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu.

Pair 2 is correct: Kalsubai is a mountain in the Western Ghats, located in the Indian state of Maharashtra. Its summit situated at an elevation of 1646 metres is the highest point in Maharashtra. The mountain range lies within the Kalsubai Harishchandragad Wildlife Sanctuary.

Pair 3 is correct: Arma Konda or Sitamma Konda or Jindhagada, is a mountain peak in the northern part of the Eastern Ghats and located in Godavari river basin. It is located in the Madugula Konda sub range north of Paderu village in Andhra Pradesh.

Pair 4 is incorrect: Phawngpui is the highest mountain peak in the state of Mizoram with an elevation of 2157 m. It is located in Lawngtlai district, in the southeastern region of Mizoram near the Myanmar border.

QUESTION: 49

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Office of Whip?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect. The Constitution of India has not provided any office like the Office of Whip. The Office of Whip is also not mentioned in rules of Lok Sabha or in Parliamentary Statues. The Office of Whip derives its existence from parliamentary conventions.

Option b is correct. Every Political party having membership in the Parliament appoints Whip. The Whip is appointed by a political party to serve as an assistant floor leader. He regulates and monitors the behavior of party members in the Parliament.

Option c is correct. Any member of Parliament or even any citizen or party member can register complaints against any member on ground of defection. Speaker must entertain the petition and look into the substance of it and disqualify the member if there is valid grounds.

Option d is correct. The Whip is appointed by a political party or leader of the party and the Speaker is not involved in this process. Office of Whip is not a part of Rules of Lok Sabha. This is just a result of parliamentary conventions.

QUESTION: 50

The habitat together with its recurring associated community of species, operating together at a particular scale is known as

Solution:

A biotope is defined as the habitat together with its recurring associated community of species, operating together at a particular scale. The term biotope is being used interchangeably with habitat. The term habitat is generally considered to represent the physical conditions that surround a species, a species population, and an assemblage of species or community. However, biotope has to be assigned to the community concept and habitat to the species concept. In addition, the term biotope is not limited to encompassing only physical conditions that surround a community of organisms but it also includes the relative biota.

QUESTION: 51

The Three Seas Initiative Summit, is a forum that brings together Twelve European Union member states between

Solution:

Option (a) - Adriatic Sea, Baltic Sea and Black Sea, is the correct answer. The Three Seas Initiative(3SI) is a forum that brings together Twelve European Union member states between the Adriatic Sea, the Baltic Sea and the Black Sea. The aim is to promote economic growth, security and a stronger and more cohesive Europe.

QUESTION: 52

What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following disputed Islands in the South China Sea as one proceeds from south to north?

1. Paracel Island

2. Spartly Island

3. Scarborough shoal

4. Natuna Island

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The Islands Paracel, Spartly and Scarborough shoal and Natuna constitute South China Sea dispute. The dispute is between six countries: Brunei, China, Philippines, Vietnam, Indonesia and Malaysia.

China claims the entire South China Sea as part of her territorial waters and part of Exclusive Economic Zones. This violates the freedom of navigation in the sea under the United Nations Convention on Law of Seas. This also snatches the rights of neighbouring countries over the region’s mineral, oil and fishery resources.

QUESTION: 53

With reference to State of India’s Birds 2020, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the first ever report on conservation status of birds in India.

  2. The number of birds in the Western Ghats has declined by almost 75 per cent since 2000.

  3. The populations of raptors, migratory seabirds and birds that live in specialised habitats were the most affected in the past decades.

  4. Indian Peafowl, the national bird, has shown a dramatic increase in both abundance and distribution across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. The State of India’s Birds 2020 report is the first comprehensive assessment of the distribution range, trends in abundance, and conservation status for most of the bird species that regularly occur in India. With their ubiquity and ecological importance, birds are excellent indicators of the state of our natural world and are potent cultural symbols of nature.

Statement 2 is correct. According to the report, the Western Ghats birds have suffered an almost 75 percent drop since 2000—including common species such as Crimson-backed Sunbird and Yellow-browed Bulbul.

Statement 3 is correct. The study also reveals that the populations of raptors (eagles, hawks, kites, etc.), migratory seabirds and birds that live in specialised habitats were the most affected in the past decades.

Statement 4 is correct. According to the study, the Indian Peafowl, India’s national bird, has shown a dramatic increase in both abundance and distribution across the country. The number of house sparrows has also stabilised nationwide, although there is still a marked decline in their population in cities.

QUESTION: 54

The phrase ‘Aham Brahmasmi’ (I am Brahma) which was popularised by Saint Shankaracharya was derived from

Solution: Aham Brahmasmi is a term which is used in Indian Philosophy to denote the unity of Atma (soul) with the Brahman (Absolute). Shankaracharya explains that Brahman and the universe is infinite and infinite proceeds from infinite. He explains that between Brahman and Aham Brahma lies the entire worldly universe which can be experienced as a separate entity by the ignorant.

QUESTION: 55

In the Constitution of India, the concept of unemployment allowance is implicit in?

Solution: Article 41 of Indian Constitution states that the State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want. Hence, Directive Principles of State Policy provides directions to the state to provide Unemployment Allowances. Source) Laximkanth

QUESTION: 56

Which of the following programs/projects related to the MSME sector has a special focus on women’s role in the MSME sector?

  1. Udyam Sakhi

  2. Udyam Mitra

  3. MSME Samadhan

  4. MSME Sambandh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Option 1 is correct: On the occasion of International Women’s Day today, March 8, 2018, the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises(MSME) launched a portal for women entrepreneurs of India:www.udyamsakhi.org. India has around 8 million women who have started and are running their own businesses and the Ministry of MSME believes that the women in India can play a vital role in the growth of the Indian economy.

Option 2 is incorrect: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has launched the ‘Udyami Mitra’ Portal (www.udyamimitra.in) to improve accessibility of credit and handholding services to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).

Option 3 is incorrect: MSME Delayed Payment Portal – MSME Samadhaan (http://msefc.msme.gov.in), empowering micro and small entrepreneurs across the country to directly register their cases relating to delayed payments by Central Ministries/Departments/CPSEs/State Governments.

Option 4 is incorrect: A Public Procurement Portal ‘MSME Sambandh’ The objective of the portal is to monitor the implementation of the Public Procurement from MSEs by Central Public Sector Enterprises.

QUESTION: 57

Which of the following is/are associated with financial planning in India?

  1. President of India 

  2. The Parliament

  3. The Union Budget of India

  4. The Finance Commission

  5. NITI Aayog

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect: Directly President of India is not involved in Financial planning.

Option 2 is correct: The Union Budget of India, referred to as the annual Financial Statement in Article 112 of the Constitution of India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India, presented each year on the last working day of February by the Finance Minister of India in Parliament.

Option 3 is correct: According to Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, the Union Budget of a year, also referred to as the annual financial statement, is a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the government for that particular year.

Option 4 is incorrect The Finance Commission is a Constitutionally mandated body that is at the centre of fiscal federalism. Set up under Article 280 of the Constitution, its core responsibility is to evaluate the state of finances of the Union and State Governments, recommend the sharing of taxes between them, lay down the principles determining the distribution of these taxes among States. Its working is characterised by extensive and intensive consultations with all levels of governments, thus strengthening the principle of cooperative federalism.

Option 5 is incorrect: : Niti Aayog is directly or indirectly not involved in financial planning, it works only advisory in nature.

After planning and expenditure of public income, auditing is the last process of public accounts. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is making an audit of the public account of India.

QUESTION: 58

Consider the following statements regarding functions of the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)?

  1. The functions of PMO are prescribed in the Transactions of Business Rules of Government of India.

  2. As per the Transactions of Business Rules of Government of India PMO is supposed to coordinate the function of various Ministries in government as a whole.

  3. As per the Transactions of Business Rules of Government of India PMO is required to supervise the working of the Departmental Secretaries to ensure maximum efficiency.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Article 77 (3) provides for Transaction of Business Rules of Government of India. Article 77(3) mentions that the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. The functions of PMO and Cabinet Secretaries are prescribed under this rule. Both PMO and Cabinet Secretary is a statutory body getting recognition from Transaction of Business Rules.

Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect. The Transaction of Business Rules of Government of India provides the Cabinet secretary the function to coordinate the functions of various ministries in the government as a whole. Also, it is the responsibility of the Cabinet Secretary to supervise the working of the Departmental Secretaries to ensure maximum efficiency.

The PMO is only meant to meet the Prime Minister's day to day secretarial needs. However, like the emerging Prime Ministerial dominance in the Cabinet system, the PMO is a powerful reality today. The functions of Cabinet Secretary are now being performed by PMO at a time and this a lot depends on the personality of Prime Ministers.

QUESTION: 59

Which of the following is/ are correct regarding the Tribes Advisory Council?

  1. It is a constitutional body formed under the fifth schedule of the Constitution.

  2. It advises the Governor on matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes in the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Article 244 states that the provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the States of Assam Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Fifth Schedule provides Tribes Advisory council the constitutional status.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Tribes Advisory council consists of a maximum of 20 members out of which three fourth of the members shall be scheduled tribes MLA in the State. It advises the Governor on matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of only Scheduled Tribes (not Scheduled Caste) in the State.

QUESTION: 60

Which of the following are the discretionary powers available to the Governor of a State?

  1. To make regulations for the peace and good government of any scheduled area in a State.

  2. In seeking information from the chief minister regarding administrative and legislative matters of the state.

  3. In promulgating Ordinances when legislative assembly is not in session.

  4. In returning the bill for reconsideration of the legislative assembly.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Governor heads Tribes Advisory Council. The Governor has the discretion regarding administration of Scheduled Areas (an area with a population of scheduled tribes and are declared by the President). Governor has discretion of (mentioned in Fifth Schedule):

  • Governors can make rules for the better management of peace and good governance in such areas.

  • Governor also can make a notification that that any particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or any part thereof in the State or shall apply to a Scheduled Area or any part thereof in the State.

Statement 2 is correct. The Governor has discretion in seeking information from Chief Ministers regarding administrative and legislative matters of the state.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Governor while passing an Ordinance works on the advice of the council of ministers. The House in session does not mean that the government does not exist. The Government is there and will advise the Governor. Hence, this does not constitute the discretionary power of the governor.

Statement 4 is correct. Governor can reserve any bill for consideration of the President. The Constitutional Office of Governor exists with two responsibilities: he is the constitutional Head of State as well as the representative of the Centre.

QUESTION: 61

If the corporate tax rate is decreased in an economy, it will

Solution: The most Appropriate answer is a, Private investment is key to economic growth and the recent cut in corporate tax rate was done to boost investments and create a more favourable environment for investment. It will decrease the tax collection of the Government and increase private investment economic growth and also increase foreign investment in the country.

QUESTION: 62

Consider the following statements regarding Veto Power of the President as provided under Constitution of India:

  1. The State Legislature cannot override the veto power of the President by passing the bill again with simple majority.

  2. The Union Cabinet is empowered to prescribe a time limit within which the President has to give assent to Ordinary Bills.

Which of the statements given above is/ are incorrect?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. When a State Bill is reserved by Governor for consideration of the President, if the President sends back the bill for reconsideration, then Legislature must send back the bill within six months with simple majority. The President is not obliged to give assent to the bill even after reconsideration.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Office of President is a constitutional head of state. There cannot be any time limit in which he/ she should give his assent or dissent. Hence, the Constitution has not empowered the Union Cabinet to set any time limit within which the President should give his assent to the bill. This implicitly provides power of Pocket veto to Indian President.

QUESTION: 63

Which of the following is/ are correct regarding different types of motions in Parliament?

  1. Censure Motion can be moved against an individual minister unlike No- Confidence Motion.

  2. Adjournment Motion can be introduced only in Lok Sabha as it involves an element of censure against the government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Censure Motion can be moved against any individual ministers. No confidence motion can be moved against the entire government. It is just moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. The passage of Censure Motion cannot result in the fall of government. The passage of the No Confidence motion leads to the fall of government.

Statement 2 is correct. Adjournment Motion is moved in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. As it involves an element of censure against the government hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this motion.

QUESTION: 64

With reference to Bioremediation, consider the following statements:

  1. In-situ bioremediation technology includes bioaugmentation, bioventing and biosparging.

  2. Ex-situ bioremediation technology includes biopiles, bioreactors and composting.

  3. It is effective only where environmental conditions permit microbial growth and activity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. In-situ bioremediation involves treating the contaminated material at the site. It includes bioaugmentation, biostimulation, bioventing and biosparging.

Statement 2 is correct. Ex-situ bioremediation involves the removal of the contaminated material to be treated elsewhere. It includes biopiles, bioreactors, land farming and composting.

Statement 3 is correct. Bioremediation is the use of living microorganisms to degrade the environmental contaminants into less toxic forms. It uses naturally occurring bacteria and fungi or plants to degrade or detoxify substances hazardous to human health and/or the environment. Bioremediation can be effective only where environmental conditions permit microbial growth and activity.

QUESTION: 65

Which of the following statements correct regarding Nitrogen fixation?

Solution:

Option a is correct: Nitrogen fixation is the capture of the atmospheric nitrogen gas (N2) to form ammonia (NH3), which is readily available for assimilation by plant and microbes. Nitrogen fixation has been termed as a prominent component of the nitrogen-cycle on coral reefs which may relieve Nitrogen limitation and make a globally significant contribution to overall marine Nitrogen inputs.

Option b is correct: Diazotrophs are bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen gas into a more usable form such as ammonia. A diazotroph is able to grow without external sources of fixed nitrogen. Examples of organisms that do this are rhizobia and Frankia (in symbiosis) and Azospirillum.

Option c is incorrect: Denitrification is a biochemical process in which nitrates are reduced to ammonia or nitrogen gas by bacterial activity. Lightning converts atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia and nitrates that enter soil with rainfall. Thus lightning is not a source of denitrification.

 

 

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following is/are an example of Exothermic reaction?

  1. Respiration

  2. Rusting of Iron

  3. Mixing water and Lime

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Reactions in which heat is given out along with the products are called exothermic reactions.

Option 1 is correct: We all know that we need energy to stay alive. We get this energy from the food we eat. During digestion, food is broken down into simpler substances. For example, rice, potatoes and bread contain carbohydrates. These carbohydrates are broken down to form glucose. This glucose combines with oxygen in the cells of our body and provides energy. The special name of this reaction is respiration.

Option 2 is correct: You must have observed that iron articles are shiny when new, but get coated with a reddish brown powder when left for some time. This process is commonly known as rusting of iron. Some other metals also get tarnished in this manner. Have you noticed the colour of the coating formed on copper and silver? When a metal is attacked by substances around it such as moisture, acids, etc., it is said to corrode and this process is called corrosion. The black coating on silver and the green coating on copper are other examples of corrosion.

Option 3 is correct: An exothermic reaction is a chemical reaction that releases energy in the form of light or heat. It gives net energy to its surroundings. That is, the energy needed to initiate the reaction is less than the energy that is subsequently released. (reactants → products + energy) Examples of exothermic reactions: Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime (Calcium hydroxide) used in white washing, releasing large amounts of heat.

QUESTION: 67

With reference to Plant hormones consider the following statements.

  1. Cytokinins influence cell division and shoot formation.

  2. Auxins promote root initiation and flowering in plants.

  3. Gibberellins inhibit root growth and promote leaf abscission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Cytokinins influence cell division and shoot formation. Cytokinins have specific effects on cytokinesis, and were discovered as kinetin (a modified form of adenine, a purine) from the autoclaved herring sperm DNA. Kinetin does not occur naturally in plants. Since the discovery of zeatin, several naturally occurring cytokinins, and some synthetic compounds with cell division promoting activity, have been identified. Natural cytokinins are synthesised in regions where rapid cell division occurs, for example, root apices, developing shoot buds, young fruits etc. It helps to produce new leaves, chloroplasts in leaves, lateral shoot growth and adventitious shoot formation. Cytokinins help overcome the apical dominance.

Statement 2 is correct: Auxins help to initiate rooting in stem cuttings, an application widely used for plant propagation. Auxins promote flowering e.g. in pineapples. They help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages but promote the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Gibberellins are another kind of promotery plant growth regulators (PGRs). There are more than 100 gibberellins reported from widely different organisms such as fungi and higher plants Sugarcane stores carbohydrate as sugar in their stems. Spraying sugarcane crops with gibberellins increases the length of the stem, thus increasing the yield by as much as 20 tonnes per acre. Gibberellins also promotes bolting (internode elongation just prior to flowering) in beet, cabbages and many plants with rosette habit.

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following pairs is/ are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

All the above three telescopes are made with different purposes. To cover the observation of longer wavelengths, infrared wavelengths and near infrared to ultraviolet waves in the universe different telescopes have been constructed.

Pair 1 is correctly matched. James Webb Telescope is to cover observation of longer wavelengths.

Pair 2 and Pair 3 are incorrectly matched. Hubble Space Telescope is to cover observation of near infrared, visible and ultraviolet regions. The Spitzer Space telescope is to cover observations of the infrared region.

QUESTION: 69

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Pair 1 is incorrect: Ahar pynes are traditional floodwater harvesting systems indigenous to South Bihar and have been the most important source of irrigation in this region. Ahars are reservoirs with embankments on three sides and are built at the end of drainage lines such as rivulets or artificial works like pynes. Pynes are diversion channels led off from the river for irrigation purposes and for impounding water in the ahars.

Pair 2 is correct: Naula is a surface-water harvesting method typical to the hill areas of Uttarakhand. These are small wells or ponds in which water is collected by making a stone wall across a stream.

Pair 3 is correct: Zabo is a traditional water harvesting system practiced in Nagaland in north-eastern India. Also known as the ruza system, it combines water conservation with forestry, agriculture and animal care.

QUESTION: 70

With reference to Torrefaction Technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a Swedish technology that can convert rice stubble into bio-coal.

  2. It is a completely thermal process which leads to a chemical change.

  3. The end product can be used for combustion along with coal for industrial applications like steel and cement production.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Pollution from stubble burning in winter is the key contributor to the sharp decline in air quality in Delhi. But stubble burning continues unabated. To find a solution to this issue, India is testing a Swedish technology — torrefaction that can convert rice stubble into ‘bio-coal’.

Statement 2 is correct: Torrefaction is a thermal process. Torrefaction involves the heating of biomass in the absence of oxygen to a temperature of typically 200 to 400°C. The structure of the biomass changes in such a way, that the material becomes brittle, and more hydrophobic. Although the weight loss is about 30%, the energy loss is only 10%. Main product is the solid, torrefied biomass. During the torrefaction process a combustible gas is released, which is utilised to provide heat to the process. In the figure below the energy and mass yields are shown for autothermal operation as a function of the moisture content in the feedstock. With increasing moisture content more gas is required to achieve autothermal operation and as a consequence the degree of torrefaction will increase.

Statement 3 is correct: The technology involves heating up straw, grass, saw mill residue and wood biomass to 250 degrees Celsius - 350 degrees Celsius. This changes the elements of the biomass into ‘coal-like’ pellets. These pellets can be used for combustion along with coal for industrial applications like steel and cement production.

QUESTION: 71

With reference to Ordinance, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

Option a is correct. Article 13 provides that if any law, rule or an ordinance violates the provisions of the fundamental rights then the Supreme Court can declare it unconstitutional and void. Hence, it provides that Ordinance can be challenged in a court of law.

Option b is correct. Article 163 states that the Governor shall work in aid and advice of the council of ministers. Hence. any decisions be it related to law, rules or ordinance, the governor shall take only on the advice of council of ministers. Ordinance is introduced when the house is not in session but there is urgency to bring the particular ordinance. A House is not session does not mean that the Government is not functional.

Option c is incorrect. The salaries and allowances of permanent executives cannot be changed through Ordinance. However, the salaries and allowances of political executive and legislatures can be changed just by passing an ordinance. The salaries and allowances of political legislatures and executives are decided by Salaries, allowances and pensions of Member of Parliament act 1963. Hence, it can be amended through Ordinance only. However, the salaries of Permanent executives are not decided by any act. Hence, it can be changed only when there is a financial emergency.

Option d is correct. Ordinance making power provides executives the power of law making. It subverts the separation of power under Parliamentary form of government. Hence, Ordinance was introduced under Article 123 to ensure that the needs of extreme urgency can be fulfilled. Relying on Ordinance by repromulgation defeats the purpose of separation of power. The Supreme court in Krishna Kumar Singh judgement held that successive re-promulgation of Ordinance is an act of fraud on the Constitution.

QUESTION: 72

Consider the following statements regarding Convalescent Plasma Therapy, seen in news with reference to the recent COVID-19 pandemic:

  1.  

    It uses the antigens developed in the recovered patient against the coronavirus.

  2.  

    It transfers immunity from one person to another.

  3.  

    It involves the use of the CRISPR-Cas9 enzyme.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Convalescent plasma therapy uses the antibodies developed in the recovered patient against the coronavirus. The whole blood or plasma from such people is taken, and the plasma is then injected in critically ill patients so that the antibodies are transferred and boost their fight against the virus.

Statement 2 is correct. Convalescent plasma therapy transfers immunity from one person to another. The plasma can be infused into two kinds of COVID-19 patients— those with a severe illness, or individuals at a higher risk of getting the virus.

Statement 3 is incorrect. CRISPR-Cas9 is a specific, efficient and versatile gene-editing technology used to modify, delete or correct precise regions of our DNA. It is not used in convalescent plasma therapy.

 

 

QUESTION: 73

Consider the following statements regarding Hydrogen- enriched CNG fuels:

  1. It is a blend of CNG with Hydrogen gas concentration of at least 60 percent of the mixture.

  2. It does not require any modification of the engines which makes it comparatively better than other non- conventional fuels.

  3. It improves the engine efficiency by reducing the engine’s unburnt hydrocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Hydrogen enriched CNG fuels are fuels where the concentration of hydrogen is around upto 20 percent and not 60 percent of the mixture.

Statement 2 is correct. The main advantage of HCNG is that the fuel does not require modification in engines hence, the existing engines can function well. This is an advantage of HCNG over all other nonconventional fuels.

Statement 3 is correct. The mixture of hydrogen enhances the combustion efficiency of CNG. Hence, it improves the efficiency of the engine by reducing the engine’s unburnt hydrocarbons.

QUESTION: 74

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Herd Immunity?

Solution: Immunity of population can develop either through herd immunity or through vaccination.

Option a is correct. Herd immunity is the immunity which the population of a region develops after getting infected with a particular microbes (virus, bacteria etc). How much percentage of the population that should get infected to develop herd immunity depends on the transmission rate of the infection. For ex: In case of Measles outbreak, the transmission rate was 10 i.e. one infected person can infect 10 more people on an average. Then 90 percent of the population should get infected to develop herd immunity in the population. Similarly, in case of Covid disease, the transmission rate is 2 i.e. one infected person can on an average transmit to two more people. Hence, infection among 40 percent of the population will develop herd immunity.

Option b is correct. From as explained above, it is concluded that the more infectious a disease is, the greater the population should first get infected with the virus to develop herd immunity.

Option c is correct. Herd Immunity is typically viewed as a preventive strategy in vaccination programmes.

Option d is incorrect. When a population develops herd immunity, it implies the population is immune to that infection. However, it is wrong to conclude that no one will get infected further. The infection will still take place but only a few cases and controlled infection will be there.

QUESTION: 75

Which of the following does not constitute the power of Parliament as per the Constitution?

Solution:

Option a is correct. Article 102(1) provides Parliament the power to make law defining the Office of Profit and in the process Parliament can exempt any office from the Offices of Profit. However, Parliament has not legislated any law on the same matter.

Option b is incorrect. Article 124 provides for the process of appointment of judges of supreme court. The Constitution has not provided Parliament any power to make law regulating the appointment process of judges of high court and supreme court.

Option c is correct. Article 338 B provides Parliament the power to amend the Central list of communities of Other backward classes. Before the 102nd amendment, this power lay with the National Commission for Backward Classes. However, with the 102nd amendment the power to amend the list lies with the Parliament.

Option d is correct. Article 105 provides collective and individual privileges to members of Parliament. The Constitution through this article provides Parliament the power to legislate on parliamentary privileges. Parliament has so far not legislated on this matter

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following have been identified for new port locations under the Sagarmala Project?

  1. Vadhavan

  2. Enayam

  3. Porbandar

  4. Tajpur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Option 1 is correct: The new Vadhavan port in Maharashtra under the sagarmala project is estimated to cost around Rs 10,000 crore. It will help ease the congestion in the present shipping capacity. Vadhavan currently handles about 40 percent of the total container traffic in India. The new port will be able to handle 40 to 60 million tonne of cargo every year.

Option 2 is correct: The new port of Enayam in Tamil Nadu was also announced in the sagarmala project.It is already a natural harbour with water that is about 20 metres deep. The proposed port is less than four nautical miles away from the international shipping channel. The Enayam port would have the ability to handle around two million metric tonnes of cargo initially, which would gradually be enhanced to eight million metric tonnes.

Option 3 is incorrect: New Ports under the Sagarmala Project at 6 new locations are – Vadhavan (Maharashtra), Enayam (Tamil Nadu), Tajpur (West Bengal), Paradip Outer Harbour (Odisha), Sirkazhi (Tamil Nadu) and Belekeri (Karnataka). Porbandar is not identified among the new ports under the sagarmala project.

Option 4 is correct: Tajpur port in West Bengal has also been proposed as a new port under the sagarmala project. It is proposed to be a large deep sea port. Land for the port will be created by plowing along the sea coast. The depth of the harbor will be 15 meters, which will accommodate large ships. An 18-kilometer channel will be constructed from the sea.

QUESTION: 77

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Pair 1 is correct: National Waterway-1: Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly River System (Haldia - Allahabad) Important cities on National Water way - 1: State- Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal City- Haldia, Howrah, Kolkata, Saran, Bhagalpur, Munger, Patna, Ghazipur, Varanasi and Prayagraj

Pair 2 is correct: National Waterway 2: Brahmaputra River (Dhubri - Sadiya) Important cities on National Water way - 2: State- Assam, City- Citys- Dhubri Port, Jogighopa, Tezpur, Silghat, Dibrugarh, Jamuguri and Bogibil.

Pair 3 is incorrect: Kakinada lies on National water way - 4 National Waterway 3: West Coast Canal (Kottapuram - Kollam), Champakara and Udyogmandal Canals. Important cities on National Water way - 3: State- Kerala, Cities- Kottapuram, aluva, Eenakulam, Maradu, Vaikam, Kayamkulam and Kollam

QUESTION: 78

Which of the following international agreements has/have a bearing on wildlife conservation?

  1. Budapest Convention

  2. Vienna Convention

  3. Bonn Convention

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect. The Convention on Cybercrime of the Council of Europe, known as the Budapest Convention, is the only binding international instrument on this issue. It serves as a guideline for any country developing comprehensive national legislation against Cybercrime and as a framework for international cooperation between State Parties to this treaty.

Option 2 is incorrect. The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer is a multilateral environmental agreement signed in 1985 that provided frameworks for international reductions in the production of chlorofluorocarbons due to their contribution to the destruction of the ozone layer, resulting in an increased threat of skin cancer.

Option 3 is correct. The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS), also known as the Bonn Convention, aims to conserve terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory species throughout their range. The Agreement was signed under the auspices of the United Nations Environment Programme and is concerned with conservation of wildlife and habitats on a global scale.

QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements regarding ‘New Delhi Declaration’:

  1. It was announced at the United Nations Climate Change Conference COP 25.

  2. It aims to support the long-term goals of the Paris Agreement.

  3. It contributes towards achieving land degradation neutrality.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The New Delhi Declaration: Investing in Land and Unlocking Opportunities was announced at the fourteenth session of the Conference of the Parties (COP 14) to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD),

Statement 2 is correct. It aims to promote opportunities that support the long-term goals of the Paris Agreement and the development of an ambitious post-2020 global biodiversity framework, taking into consideration land-based solutions for climate action and biodiversity conservation and the mutually supportive implementation of the three Rio conventions.

Statement 3 is correct. It also encourages projects aimed at combating desertification/land degradation and drought and achieving land degradation neutrality, resilience-building and increased access to energy in rural and urban communities, within the scope of the UNCCD.

QUESTION: 80

Which of the following is the correct order of depth of zones in a lake ecosystem starting from the surface of the lake?

Solution:

The limnetic zone is the well-lit, upper layer of water away from the shore. This area is occupied by phytoplankton consisting of algae and cyanobacteria, and zooplankton, small crustaceans, and fish. 
The profundal zone is the deeper water located below the limnetic zone. It is characterized by limited light penetration (diffuse light), lower oxygen content, and lower temperature. The organisms of this zone depend on import of organic matter drifting down from the littoral and limnetic zones. 
The benthic zone consists of the sediments at the bottom of a lake; it includes the sediment surface as well as some subsurface layers. This layer also contains benthos, which generally live in close relationship with the substrate bottom. These life forms can tolerate cool temperatures and low oxygen levels. 

QUESTION: 81

The famous “Surat Split” of 1907 within the Congress occurred due to

Solution:

The 1907 session of Congress was held on the bank of tapti river and presided by Rash Behari Ghosh. Moderates believed that some issues with the government should be solved with discussions and dialogue. On the contrary, extremists believed in agitation, strikes and boycotts. Moderates supported Rash Behari Ghosh as President whereas extremists supported Lala Lajpat Rai or Bal GangaDhar Tilak for the post of President. 

The extremist wanted the 1907 session to be held in Nagpur while Moderates wanted it in Surat. The agreement could not be reached and resulted in the split of the Congress. 

QUESTION: 82

The 1931 Karachi session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of freedom movement because

Solution:

The Gandhi-Irwin pact was endorsed by the 1931 Congress session at Karachi and Gandhi was nominated to represent Congress at the second Round Table Conference. The session was presided over by Sardar Patel whereby Congress adopted a resolution Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy which was a reflection of Social, Political and Economic vision of the Congress. Some important aspects of the resolution were free and compulsory primary education, reduction in rent and taxes. protection of women and peasants etc.

Sarojni Naidu became Congress President in 1925, however she was not the first woman president. Annie Besant in 1917 became the first woman President of Congress. Hasrat Mohani demanded for complete Independence in 1921 session. Demand for constituent assembly was raised in the 1937 session at Faizpur.

QUESTION: 83

Consider the following statements about Indian Classical Dance Kathakali

  1. Kathakali includes music, acting and stories which are adapted from Indian Epics

  2. The dancer takes many roles in a single performance

  3. The performers use hand gestures to convey their dialogues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Kathakali is a blend of dance, music and acting and dramatises stories which are adapted from Indian Epics. It has evolved from many social and religious theatrical forms. Ramanattam and Krishnattam are ritual performing arts of Kerala which have influenced Kathakali. The dancers enact the roles of Gods and Demons and hence use heavy makeup and expensive costumes.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bharatnatyam dance is known as Ekaharya, where one dancer takes many roles. Bharatnatyam involves movements of hips, arm and legs, eye movements and gestures of hands to convey emotions.

Statement 3 is correct: The actors don’t narrate the story by themselves, instead they create their own characters to convey emotions and narration. They also use mudras or hand gestures that convey dialogue of their characters. These mudras are used as a sign language during the performance.

QUESTION: 84

Consider the following statements:

  1. Vikram Samvat was started by Chandragupta 1 in 58 BC

  2. It is the official Calendar of Nepal

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 incorrect: Vikram Samvat was started by King Vikramaditya of Ujjain in 58 BC to mark his victory over the Sakas. The Vikram Samvat has been used by Sikhs and Hindus both. It is based on 12 Lunar months and 365 days.

Statement 2 is correct: Vikram Calendar has been used as an official calendar in Nepal and some of the Indian states also use it for official purposes. In Gujarat and Maharashtra the next day of Diwali is celebrated as the first day of Vikram Samvat calendar.

QUESTION: 85

With reference to development of sculpture during Ancient India, consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Maheshmurti image with three heads is found in Elephanta caves, Maharashtra. Elephanta Caves are UNESCO World Heritage sites and dedicated to Lord Shiva. The Elephanta contain rock cut sculpture having features of Hindu and Buddhist art.

The Udaygiri are rock cut caves near Vidisha, in Madhya Pradesh. It has affiliation to Hinduism as well as Jainism. The sculpture of Vishnu as Varaha (man boar). It has 20 caves, only one is dedicated to Jainism and rest is dedicated to Hinduism. Rajgir in Bihar and Odisha too have Udaygiri caves. Dashavatara Temple in Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh is a Vishnu Temple. It also includes images of other Gods like Shiva, Parvati, Ganga etc. In Gajendra Moksha Lord Vishnu is shown flying on Garuda to liberate anElephant from strangulation.

 

 

QUESTION: 86

Indian Independence League was a

Solution:

Indian Independence league was established by Ras Bihari Bose in 1928. Its Primary objective was to gain support of Japan for support of Indian Independence Movement and to inculcate Nationalism. Ras Bihari Bose was an Indian revolutionary, a prominent name in the Delhi Lahore conspiracy case to assassinate Viceroy Lord Hardinge and Ghadr conspiracy.

QUESTION: 87

With reference to India’s culture and traditions, “Jallikattu” is a

Solution:

Jallikattu is a traditional event in which participants have to pick bundles of money or gold tied to the animal’s horn. It is also called eru thazhuvuthal or manju virattu. It is believed to be in practise from the last 2500 years. The references to Jallikattu can be found in Silappadikaram, a Tamil Classic. Jallikattu has been among the debates of environmentalists which have asked to stop practising Jallikattu owing to cruelty to the animals. But supporters of Jallikattu have argued in favour of the event as it is a reflection of their cultural practices.

QUESTION: 88

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Silappadikaram is an ancient text written by Ilango Adigal. It means the story of an anklet. It is the earliest Tamil epic. It is a Tragic story of Kannaki and her husband Kovalan. Manimekalai is composed by Sittalai Sattanar. It is a sequel to the story in Silappadikaram. Manimekalai is the daughter of Kovalan and Madhavi. The male counterpart is Udhaykumara, a Chola Prince. It is the love story of a Buddhist Nun and a Prince. The book, ' Bharatam' was written by Perudevanar.

Bharatam Padiya Perundevanar – Perundevanar, a Poet who Sang Bharatam i.e, Mahabharata has been credited with compiling Sangam literature – Ettutogai (Natrinai, Kuruntogai, Ingurunuru, Padituppattu, Paripadal, Kalittogai, Agam and Puram), as he has reportedly added a God Invoking song to every poetic collection.

 

 

QUESTION: 89

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Angkor Wat is a temple complex in Cambodia and one of the largest religious monuments in the world. It was originally constructed as a Hindu temple dedicated to the god Vishnu for the Khmer Empire, it was gradually transformed into a Buddhist temple towards the end of the 12th century. The city of Angkor is also home to UNESCO World Heritage Site, Angkor Vat.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The famous Buddhist temple, dating from the 8th and 9th centuries, is located in central Java (Indonesia). It was built in three tiers: a pyramidal base with five concentric square terraces, the trunk of a cone with three circular platforms and, at the top, a monumental stupa. The walls and balustrades are decorated with fine low reliefs. Around the circular platforms are 72 openwork stupas, each containing a statue of the Buddha. The monument was restored with UNESCO's help in the 1970s.

Pair 3 is correctly matched. Batu Caves are home to famous Hindu temples and shrines dedicated to Lord Murugan located in Malaysia. Recently, it has been in the news as a temple of Batu Caves was attacked by ISIS militants.

 

 

QUESTION: 90

With respect to Bhakti movement in India, consider the following statements.

  1. Chaitanya professed that singing and dancing is divine path to god

  2. Namdeva founded the Varkari sect in Maharashtra

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Chaitanya’s teaching focused on love and emotions. Love for humanity, love for God. According to him divine love can be propounded through chanting and Kirtans. He was a follower of Lord Krishna and hence dedicated his kirtans to him. He believed that singing can make one realise God because singing can translocate the mind from human world to divine world.

Statement 2 is correct: Namdeva was a Poet and Saint. He was influenced by Vaishnavism and was known for his devotional songs. Along With Jnaneswar and Tukaram, Namdeva formed the basis of the belief of Varkari sect of Hinduism

QUESTION: 91

The Apatani tribe in the Lower Subansiri District of Arunachal Pradesh is famous for

Solution:

The Apatani tribe in Arunachal Pradesh is known for its paddy cum fish agriculture. They practice this as well as other sustainable water management techniques that allow them to coexist and thrive.

KB:

Ziro Valley presents an example of how co-existence of man and nature has been perfected over the centuries by the Apatani civilization. The Apatanis, one of the major ethnic groups of eastern Himalayas, have a distinct civilization with systematic land use practices and rich traditional ecological knowledge of natural resources management and conservation, acquired over the centuries through informal experimentation. The tribe is known for their colorful culture with various festivals, intricate handloom designs, skills in cane and bamboo crafts, and vibrant traditional village councils called bulyañ. This has made Ziro Valley a good example of a living cultural landscape where man and environment have harmoniously existed together in a state of interdependence even through changing times, such coexistence being nurtured by the traditional customs and spiritual belief systems. The Apatani cultural landscape is listed under UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

QUESTION: 92

Which among the following were the outcomes of the Battle of Plassey ?

  1. Siraj ud daula was replaced by Mir Jaffar, a puppet of the East India Company

  2. There onwards the Company’s trade in Bengal was without any restriction.

  3. Treaty of Allahabad was signed between Shuja ud daula and Robert Clive

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The Battle of Plassey was a decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal (Siraj-ud-Daulah) and his French allies on 23 June 1757, under the leadership of Robert Clive which was possible due to the defection of Mir Jafar Ali Khan, who was Siraj-ud-Daulah's commander in chief. Major outcomes of Battle of Plassey:

  1. After the Battle of Plassey Clive proclaimed Mir Jafar as the Nawab of Bengal and placed him on the throne of Murshidabad.

  2. Mir Jafar in order to satisfy the English as per the agreement gave 24 Parganas of Bengal to the company as its Zamindari.

  3. A great transformation came about in the position of the East India Company in Bengal as it monopolized the trade and commerce of Bengal.

The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on 12 August 1765, between the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, son of the late Emperor Alamgir II, and Robert Clive, of the East India Company, in the aftermath of the Battle of Buxar of 22 October 1764.

QUESTION: 93

During Mughal era, who was the head of administrative unit 'Sarkaar’ ?

Solution:

Mughal Administration: For the convenience of administration each province was divided into a number of administrative units called Sarkars. Faujdar was the chief executive and military officer of the Sarkar. The provinces in Delhi Sultanate were divided into 6 parts headed by shiqda. The Shiqs were further divided into parganas and had different officials some of which were-

Amil- officers who collected land revenue and other taxes.

Shiqdar - Criminal official and lawmakers.

Kotwal - Police head under shiqdar.

Amin- Officers in charge of measuring land and allocating their usage’.

QUESTION: 94

Which of the following is/are considered under the aegis of Rainbow Revolution?

  1. Fish production

  2. Animal husbandry

  3. Precision farming

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Option d is correct: The concept of rainbow revolution is an integrated development of crop cultivation, horticulture, forestry, poultry, animal husbandry and food processing industry.

1) Green Revolution- food grain production

2) White revolution- milk production

3) Yellow revolution- oilseed revolution

4) Blue revolution- fisheries

5) Golden revolution- fruits

6) Black/brown revolution- non conventional energy

7) Silver revolution- eggs

8) Round revolution- potato

9) Pink revolution- meat

10) Grey revolution- fertilizers

11) Red revolution- tomatoes

QUESTION: 95

With reference to ‘National Mission on Sustainable Habitat’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is being implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

  2. It seeks to reduce energy demand by promoting alternative technologies and energy conservation practices.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Mission on Sustainable Habitat is being implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India. It is one of the eight missions under the national climate change action plan and aims to make cities sustainable through improvements in energy efficiency in buildings, management of solid waste & shift to public transport.

Statement 2 is correct. The main objectives of the National Mission on Sustainable Habitat are to :-

  • Reduce energy demand by promoting alternative technologies and energy conservation practices in both residential and commercial areas.

  • Do better Urban Planning with a view to enable better disaster management etc.

QUESTION: 96

Consider the following statements:

  1. Protected Forests and Reserved Forests were created under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

  2. Green India Mission would examine provisions of Indian Forest Act, 1927.

  3. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Protected Forests and Reserved Forests can be created under the provisions of the Indian Forest Act, 1927 or the State Forests Act. In reserved forests, all activities are prohibited unless it is permitted. In protected forests, all activities are permitted unless it is prohibited.

Statement 2 is correct. The Green India Mission is aimed at ―protecting, restoring and enhancing India's diminishing forest cover and responding to climate change”. The Mission would examine provisions of Indian Forest Act, 1927 and other legislations including Forest Rights Act, 2006.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

QUESTION: 97

Consider of the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Type of malnutrition in Children

Option 1 is correct: Overweight is a type of malnutrition in children and it leads to Diabetes and Cardiovascular diseases in early age.

Option 2 is incorrect: Wasting – (too thin for height) often an indicator of the current or recent situation. Wasting results from an acute shortage of food, is reversible with re-feeding, and has a relatively high mortality rate, in associated morbidity is Diarrhoea

Option 3 is incorrect: Stunting – (too short for age) an indicator of the long-term cumulative effects of nutrition deficiency, in associated morbidity is reduced intellectual capacity

 

 

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following can be classified as a capital asset?

  1.  

    Stock

  2.  

    Personal usable goods

  3.  

    Rural Agriculture land

  4.  

    Gold Sovereign Bonds

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below?

Solution:

All are considered as capital assets.

QUESTION: 99

There is some concern regarding the application of blockchain technology in any sort of transactions. Which of the following is/ are the concerns associated with this technology?

  1.  Not a Distributed Computing System

  2. Data is Immutable

  3. Blockchains are Sometimes Inefficient

  4. Poor speed constraining large scale applications

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

 

 

QUESTION: 100

Which of the following organizations brings out the Inclusive Development Index?

Solution:

The Inclusive Development Index (IDI) is an annual economic index introduced by the World Economic Forum System Initiative on Shaping the Future of Economic Progress