XAT Mock Test - 1


72 Questions MCQ Test MBA Exams Mock Test Series and Past Year Question Papers | XAT Mock Test - 1


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Attempt XAT Mock Test - 1 | 72 questions in 170 minutes | Mock test for CAT preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study MBA Exams Mock Test Series and Past Year Question Papers for CAT Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
QUESTION: 1

Having a perceptive faculty is definitive of being an animal; every animal has at least touch, whereas most have the other sensory modalities as well. In broad terms at least, animals must have perception if they are to live. So, Aristotle supposes, there are defensible teleological grounds for treating animals as essentially capable of perceiving. If an animal is to grow to maturity and propagate, it must be able to take in nourishment and to navigate its way through the world. Perception serves these ends.

Q. Which of the following would be closest to the main idea expressed in the passage?

Solution:

Solution: The main idea of the passage is expressed in the following line: "... there are defensible teleological grounds for treating animals as essentially capable of perceiving.”. A “teleological” explanation is an explanation for something in function of its purpose or goal. Therefore, the main idea here is that according to teleology, it can be argued that perception must exist in animals because in them, it serves the purpose of allowing them to nourish themselves and navigate- in short, it enables them to live. Option 1 captures this perfectly.
None of the other options touches upon the main idea of the passage. Option 3, in fact, distorts the intended meaning of a sentence in the passage. Option 2 brings up a minor point made in the passage. Option 4 does not mention perception at all. Option 5 makes a twisted inference on the basis of the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 2

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

The hurt that I am feeling right now, I know that you can feel it inside. But I want you to remember that once it’s through, You’ll always be my big brother, Someone whom I will forever look up to.


Which of the following is NOT implied in the above? 

Solution:

Solution: There is no data in the poem to suggest that the speaker caused the hurt. It seems to be merely a moment of pain for both the speaker and the person spoken to (his big brother). The lines are a reassurance that the hurt will be over, and the speaker has high regard for his big brother.
Hence, the correct answer is option is 3.

QUESTION: 3

Read the following passage and answer the questions.  

That people undergoing medical procedures should give their informed consent might seem simple and uncontentious. But what if a patient has a mental impairment and his doctor cannot make the patient understand the treatment? A team of researchers reckon virtual environments could provide the solution. Once inside the virtual hospital, the virtual patients will be directed to a waiting room. Then a virtual nurse will take them to a bed, where they will lie down to have virtual blood taken. A Second Life doctor will explain that they are about to have an anaesthetic. Meanwhile, a real person alongside the participant will answer any questions and, after the virtual visit is over, doctors will carry out “non-directive” interviews. These interviews will suggest whether the participants have understood what was going on well enough to give informed consent.

Q. The success of the virtual environment will help reinforce which of the following assumptions (of the researchers)? 

Solution:

Solution: The correct option should address the issue of mental impairment.
The paragraph states, “But what if a patient has a mental impairment and his doctor cannot make the patient understand the treatment?” and “These interviews will suggest whether the participants have understood what was going on well enough to give informed consent.”.
The success will reinforce that the virtual doctor has been successful vis-a-vis a real doctor. This is in consonance with option 4 which is the assumption the researchers have made. Option 1 is incorrect because of the word “incapable”. Doctors are not “incapable”, the patients with mental impairments are. Option 2 is incorrect because it does not mention mentally impaired patients when it says that “the standard method of obtaining consent from a patient is not effective”.
Similarly, option 5 is incorrect since it mentions “patients” rather than ‘patients with mental impairments’.
Option 3 is incorrect and cannot be assumed from the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 4

Complete the paragraph most appropriately using the best  option.


In their selfish desire to leave offspring, our genes have evolved to form a society where they work together efficiently, dividing the labour to ensure that each makes it into the next generation. Like Adam Smith’s invisible hand, the genes in this society cooperate with one another not from a sense of fairness or design, _______________________.

 

Q. Which of the following options is most likely to follow the paragraph given above?

Solution:

Solution: The paragraph refers to genes as selfish entities that work together to ensure that they produce offspring who will carry them into the next generation. The part that will complete the paragraph must address why they create a society in which they cooperate with one another. From all of the options provided, only option 3 is aligned with the paragraph. It attributes to the aim of genes wanting to “make it to the next generation”.
The paragraph discusses genes working harmoniously. The aspect of weeding out a bad entity has not even been slightly hinted upon within the paragraph. Therefore, it is difficult to substantiate option 1.
The aim towards being functional has not been spoken about in the paragraph. Eliminate option 2.
The repercussions of random gene mutation have not been hinted upon within the paragraph. Eliminate option 4.
The construction of this paragraph makes it clear that genes cooperate with each other for their own selfish reasons. Since the association between gene and human survival has not been put forth, option 5 cannot be validated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 5

The question below consists of a paragraph in which the first and  last sentences are identified. Choose the option that has the most logical order of the intermediate sentences.

1. When entrepreneur Ryan Farley, co-founder of US business Lawnstarter, heard about biphasic sleeping he was intrigued.

P. He found that adjusting his sleeping pattern in this way allowed him to start each working period - daytime and night - with a fresh mind.

Q. Farley says: “We slept two times per night, about three hours each, doing the programming in between those periods of sleep when it was quiet and there was nobody there to distract us.”

R. He and business partner Steven Corcoran were struggling to get enough sleep while trying to launch the company, so wondered whether sandwiching a couple of hours’ work between two sleep cycles would make them more productive and efficient.

S. They needed distraction-free time to work on coding the website and business-development time for meetings and phone calls.

6. Farley admits he didn’t like waking up each time but says once he was awake he felt great. Which of the following combinations given below is the most logically ordered?  

Solution:

Solution: Sentence 1 says that entrepreneur Ryan Farley was “intrigued” by the concept of biphasic sleep. The sentence following this should explain why. R does this by telling us that Ryan and his partner were struggling to get enough sleep and wondered whether biphasic sleep would make them more productive. Next comes sentence S which tells us why they were looking to increase productivity. Then sentence Q actually tells us how they scheduled their sleep cycles to minimize distraction. This is followed by P which gives us the positive effect of this kind of sleep cycle- a fresh mind. Sentence 6 can then end the sequence effectively by giving the minor drawback of biphasic sleep (difficulty in waking) along with a reiteration of the positive effect (feeling great).
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 6

Answer the question based on the information given in the  passage.

 

Beauty or deformity in an object results from its nature or structure. To perceive the beauty therefore, we must perceive the nature or structure from which it results. In this the internal sense differs from the external. Our external senses may discover qualities which do not depend upon any antecedent perception. But it is impossible to perceive the beauty of an object, without perceiving the object, or at least conceiving it.

Assuming the above statements are true, which of the statements logically follow from them?

I. Perceiving the nature or structure of an object is perceiving its beauty.
II. The beauty, particularly those of the fine arts, does not depend on antecedent perception.
III. Beauty results from highly complex natures or structures.

Solution:

Solution: Statement I is incorrect. Though perceiving beauty implies that one must perceive the nature and structure first, the reverse is not necessarily true; it is not a sufficient condition for perceiving beauty.
Statement II is contrary to the passage.
Statement III is data inadequate - some objects of beauty may have ‘highly complex’ structures, but not necessarily all.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 7

Answer the following question based on the information given  below.


Even though most of the members of the audience stared at Mr. Milner in awe and respect, I still looked at him through my skeptical eyeglass as I was well aware of his propensity for exaggeration.


Q. Which of the following words best replaces the word ‘propensity’ in the sentence?

Solution:

Solution: Propensity means Proclivity, a natural tendency or predisposition to do something.
Options 2, 3, 4 and 5 do not have this meaning and can be eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 8

Answer the question based on the passage given below.

Concrete poetry or shape poetry is poetry in which the typographical arrangement of words is as important in conveying the intended effect as the conventional elements of the poem, such as meaning of words, rhythm, rhyme and so on. It is sometimes referred to as visual poetry; a term that has evolved to have distinct meaning of its own, because the words themselves form a picture. This can be called imagery because you use your senses to figure out what the words mean.

Q. Which of the following is communicated by the passage?

Solution:

Solution: The passage in no way communicates any similarity between Conventional and Visual poetry. It presents data to the contrary. Eliminate option 1.
The description in option 2 is attributed to Visual and not Conventional poetry in the passage. Eliminate option 2.
It can be inferred from the passage that Concrete, Visual, and Shape poetry are all terms used to refer to the same type of unconventional poetry which involves imagery. This requires you to use your senses and decipher the meaning.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 9

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


Consumers are increasingly aware of pollution caused due to production of plastic and hence, have been increasingly supporting the use of recycled plastic for packaging purposes. However, the percentage of recycled plastic used in packaging is 6.5% while it is 48.2% for recycled paper.
Q. Which of the following most clearly explains the difference in these percentages in light of the facts stated?

Solution:

Solution: This is a trick question - the fact given compares the use of recycled plastic and plain plastic in packaging. The percentages stated, however, are those of recycled plastic and recycled paper. The fact never says that there is a decrease in the use of recycled paper; it merely says that the use of recycled plastic is on the rise.
All the options hint at why recycled paper would be preferred over recycled plastic in packaging. Option 2 is the only option which points out the discrepancy in the question statement. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 10

Read the following passage and answer the question that follow.

People who regularly eat chocolate are more depressive, experts have found. Research in Archives of Internal Medicine shows those who eat at least a bar every week are more glum than those who eat chocolate only now and again. Many believe chocolate has the power to lift mood. But experts say they cannot rule out that chocolate may be a cause rather than the cure for being depressed. In the study, the more chocolate the men and women consumed, the lower was their mood.


Q. Which of the following assumptions needs to be necessarily true?

Solution:

Solution: Options 1 and 2 do not establish the link between chocolates and depression in a categorical way - it could be that they ate chocolates because they were depressed - effect rather than cause.
Option 4 is irrelevant to chocolates and depression.
If option 3 is true it strengthens the hypothesis that chocolates only may have caused the depression, since those in the study were not already depressed.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 11

Group Question

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for questions that follow.


The 'Mozart effect' phenomenon was first suggested by a scientific study published in 1993 in the respected journal Science. It showed that teenagers who listened to Mozart's 1781 Sonata for Two Pianos in D major performed better in reasoning tests than adolescents who listened to something else or who had been in a silent room. The study (which did not look at the effect of Mozart on babies) found that college students who listened to a Mozart sonata for a few minutes before taking a test that measured spatial relationship skills did better than students who took the test after listening to another musician or no music at all. The finding, by a group at the University of California whose study involved only 36 students, led creches in America to start playing classical music to children and the southern US state of Georgia even gave newborns a free classical CD.

But there has been debate since about whether the effect exists. A report, published in the journal Pediatrics, said it was unclear whether the original study in 1993 has detected a "Mozart effect" or a potential benefit of music in general. But they said a previous study of adults with seizures found that compositions by Mozart, rather than other classical composers, appeared to lower seizure frequency. Lubetzky's team said it was possible that the proposed Mozart effect on the brain is related to the structure of his compositions as Mozart's music tends to repeat the melodic line more frequently. In more condemning evidence, a team from Vienna University's Faculty of Psychology analysed all studies since 1993 that have sought to reproduce the Mozart effect and found no proof of the phenomenon's existence. In all they looked at 3,000 individuals in 40 studies conducted around the world. Jakob Pietschnig, who led the study, said "I recommend everyone listen to Mozart, but it's not going to improve cognitive abilities as some people hope,". A study in Nature in 1999 by Christopher Chabris, a psychologist, adding up the results of 16 studies on the Mozart effect, found only a one and a half point increase in IQ and any improvements in spatial ability limited solely to a paper-folding task.

 

Q. Match the words correctly with their meanings.

Solution:

The correct match for the words and their meanings in given in option 1.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 12

The 'Mozart effect' phenomenon was first suggested by a scientific study published in 1993 in the respected journal Science. It showed that teenagers who listened to Mozart's 1781 Sonata for Two Pianos in D major performed better in reasoning tests than adolescents who listened to something else or who had been in a silent room. The study (which did not look at the effect of Mozart on babies) found that college students who listened to a Mozart sonata for a few minutes before taking a test that measured spatial relationship skills did better than students who took the test after listening to another musician or no music at all. The finding, by a group at the University of California whose study involved only 36 students, led creches in America to start playing classical music to children and the southern US state of Georgia even gave newborns a free classical CD.

But there has been debate since about whether the effect exists. A report, published in the journal Pediatrics, said it was unclear whether the original study in 1993 has detected a "Mozart effect" or a potential benefit of music in general. But they said a previous study of adults with seizures found that compositions by Mozart, rather than other classical composers, appeared to lower seizure frequency. Lubetzky's team said it was possible that the proposed Mozart effect on the brain is related to the structure of his compositions as Mozart's music tends to repeat the melodic line more frequently. In more condemning evidence, a team from Vienna University's Faculty of Psychology analysed all studies since 1993 that have sought to reproduce the Mozart effect and found no proof of the phenomenon's existence. In all they looked at 3,000 individuals in 40 studies conducted around the world. Jakob Pietschnig, who led the study, said "I recommend everyone listen to Mozart, but it's not going to improve cognitive abilities as some people hope,". A study in Nature in 1999 by Christopher Chabris, a psychologist, adding up the results of 16 studies on the Mozart effect, found only a one and a half point increase in IQ and any improvements in spatial ability limited solely to a paper-folding task.

Q. Which of these cannot be inferred from the passage?  

Solution:

Solution: The passage states in the first paragraph "... teenagers who listened to Mozart's ... performed better in reasoning tests ... college students who listened to a Mozart sonata for a few minutes before taking a test that measured spatial relationship skills did better... The finding,... led creches in America to start playing classical music to children ...”. This can be used to infer that creches did this in the hope of making young children smarter. Option 1 can be inferred. The passages says in the beginning of the second paragraph “But there has been debate since about whether the effect exists. A report, published in the journal Pediatrics, said it was unclear...”, leading to the inference in option 2. The first paragraph states that “The study ... found that college students who listened to a Mozart sonata ...” while talking about the second study. No specific sonata of Mozart has been mentioned here. Option 3 cannot be inferred.
Option 4 can be inferred from “A study in Nature ... on the Mozart effect, found only a one and a half point increase in IQ and any improvements in spatial ability limited solely to a paper-folding task.”. The use of modifiers like “only” and the phrase “limited solely” make it clear that these improvements were not considered significant.
The second paragraph states that “Lubetzky's team said it was possible that the proposed Mozart effect on the brain is related to the structure of his compositions ...”. From this, we can infer that the effect may never have existed if the structure of his compositions had been different. Option 5 can be inferred.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 13

The 'Mozart effect' phenomenon was first suggested by a scientific study published in 1993 in the respected journal Science. It showed that teenagers who listened to Mozart's 1781 Sonata for Two Pianos in D major performed better in reasoning tests than adolescents who listened to something else or who had been in a silent room. The study (which did not look at the effect of Mozart on babies) found that college students who listened to a Mozart sonata for a few minutes before taking a test that measured spatial relationship skills did better than students who took the test after listening to another musician or no music at all. The finding, by a group at the University of California whose study involved only 36 students, led creches in America to start playing classical music to children and the southern US state of Georgia even gave newborns a free classical CD.

But there has been debate since about whether the effect exists. A report, published in the journal Pediatrics, said it was unclear whether the original study in 1993 has detected a "Mozart effect" or a potential benefit of music in general. But they said a previous study of adults with seizures found that compositions by Mozart, rather than other classical composers, appeared to lower seizure frequency. Lubetzky's team said it was possible that the proposed Mozart effect on the brain is related to the structure of his compositions as Mozart's music tends to repeat the melodic line more frequently. In more condemning evidence, a team from Vienna University's Faculty of Psychology analysed all studies since 1993 that have sought to reproduce the Mozart effect and found no proof of the phenomenon's existence. In all they looked at 3,000 individuals in 40 studies conducted around the world. Jakob Pietschnig, who led the study, said "I recommend everyone listen to Mozart, but it's not going to improve cognitive abilities as some people hope,". A study in Nature in 1999 by Christopher Chabris, a psychologist, adding up the results of 16 studies on the Mozart effect, found only a one and a half point increase in IQ and any improvements in spatial ability limited solely to a paper-folding task.

Q.

A child has been exposed to Mozart's sonatas since birth. Several years pass, wherein he encounters Mozart's music frequently, especially 1781 Sonata for Two Pianos in D major. He has a big test tomorrow, but he omits to listen to Mozart before taking it.

What can be said about his performance in the test?

Solution:

Solution: The first paragraph states that several studies reported that students who listened to Mozart before a test performed better than those who did not, while the second paragraph debunks the Mozart effect completely. The passage eventually concludes with: “I recommend everyone listen to Mozart, but it's not going to improve cognitive abilities as some people hope,". A study in Nature ... found only a one and a half point increase in IQ and any improvements in spatial ability limited solely to a paper-folding task.”. This shows that listening to Mozart would not lead to a significant improvement of performance in a test. Option 5 is validated. Options 1,2, and 3 are shown to be incorrect by these very lines, while there is no support for option 4 in the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 14

The 'Mozart effect' phenomenon was first suggested by a scientific study published in 1993 in the respected journal Science. It showed that teenagers who listened to Mozart's 1781 Sonata for Two Pianos in D major performed better in reasoning tests than adolescents who listened to something else or who had been in a silent room. The study (which did not look at the effect of Mozart on babies) found that college students who listened to a Mozart sonata for a few minutes before taking a test that measured spatial relationship skills did better than students who took the test after listening to another musician or no music at all. The finding, by a group at the University of California whose study involved only 36 students, led creches in America to start playing classical music to children and the southern US state of Georgia even gave newborns a free classical CD.

But there has been debate since about whether the effect exists. A report, published in the journal Pediatrics, said it was unclear whether the original study in 1993 has detected a "Mozart effect" or a potential benefit of music in general. But they said a previous study of adults with seizures found that compositions by Mozart, rather than other classical composers, appeared to lower seizure frequency. Lubetzky's team said it was possible that the proposed Mozart effect on the brain is related to the structure of his compositions as Mozart's music tends to repeat the melodic line more frequently. In more condemning evidence, a team from Vienna University's Faculty of Psychology analysed all studies since 1993 that have sought to reproduce the Mozart effect and found no proof of the phenomenon's existence. In all they looked at 3,000 individuals in 40 studies conducted around the world. Jakob Pietschnig, who led the study, said "I recommend everyone listen to Mozart, but it's not going to improve cognitive abilities as some people hope,". A study in Nature in 1999 by Christopher Chabris, a psychologist, adding up the results of 16 studies on the Mozart effect, found only a one and a half point increase in IQ and any improvements in spatial ability limited solely to a paper-folding task.

Q. Which of the following statements are consistent with the facts presented in the passage?

A. Compositions by classical composers like Mozart appeared to lower seizure frequency in adults.
B. The results of studies on the Mozart effect did show slight improvements in spatial ability such as paper-folding tasks.
C. The journal 'Science' was the first one to publish a paper on the Mozart effect.
D. Vienna University's Faculty of Psychology analysed studies worldwide to arrive at results debunking the Mozart effect.
E. Although the initial studies published on the Mozart effect were conducted on adolescents, their results were applicable to babies as well.

Solution:

Solution: The passage states that “...a previous study of adults with seizures found that compositions by Mozart, rather than other classical composers, appeared to lower seizure frequency.”. This implies that it was only Mozart's compositions that helped with seizures, not classical composers in general. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. Eliminate options 1,2, and 4.
The line saying “... any improvements in spatial ability limited solely to a paper-folding task.” helps eliminate statement B which implies that other tasks involving spatial ability (such as paper-folding tasks) were also improved. Eliminate option 3. Statement C is consistent with the passage: “The 'Mozart effect' phenomenon was first suggested by a scientific study published in 1993 in the respected journal Science.” Statement D is true according to the passage: “In all they looked at 3,000 individuals in 40 studies conducted around the world.” Statement E is untrue according to the passage. The first paragraph says that the studies were conducted on teenagers and college students and that they did not “look at the effect of Mozart on babies”. The results of these studies may have “led creches in America to start playing classical music to children and ... newborns a free classical CD.”, but this does not mean that the results were actually applicable to babies.
Statements C and D are the only ones that are consistent with the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5. 

QUESTION: 15

Group Question

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.


The nature and definition of matter have been subject to much debate, as have other key concepts in science and philosophy. Is there a single kind of matter which everything is made of (hyle), or multiple kinds? Is matter a continuous substance capable of expressing multiple forms (hylomorphism), or a number of discrete, unchanging constituents (atomism)? Does it have intrinsic properties (substance theory), or is it lacking them (prima materia)? Without question science has made unexpected discoveries about matter. Some paraphrase departures from traditional or common- sense concepts of matter as “disproving the existence of matter”. However, most physical scientists take the view that the concept of matter has merely changed, rather than being eliminated. One challenge to the traditional concept of matter as tangible “stuff’ is the rise of field physics in the 19th century. However the conclusion that materialism is false may be premature. Relativity shows that matter and energy (including the spatially distributed energy of fields) are interchangeable. This enables the ontological view that energy is prima materia and matter is one of its forms. On the other hand, quantum field theory models fields as exchanges of particles- photons for electromagnetic fields and so on. On this view it could be said that fields are “really matter.”

All known solid, liquid, and gaseous substances are composed of protons, neutrons and electrons. All three are fermions or spin-half particles, whereas the particles that mediate fields in quantum field theory are bosons. Thus matter can be said to divide into a more tangible fermionic kind and a less tangible bosonic kind. However it is now generally believed that less than 5% of the physical composition of the universe is made up of such “matter”, and the majority of the universe is composed of Dark Matter and Dark Energy- with no agreement amongst scientists about what these are made of. This obviously refutes the traditional materialism that held that the only things that exist are things composed of the kind of matter with which we are broadly familiar (“traditional matter”) - which was anyway under great strain as noted above from Relativity and quantum field theory. But if the definition of “matter” is extended to “anything whose existence can be inferred from the observed behaviour of traditional matter” then there is no reason in principle why entities whose existence materialists normally deny should not be considered as “matter.” Some philosophers feel that these dichotomies necessitate a switch from materialism to physicalism. Others use materialism and physicalism interchangeably. 

Q. From the passage, we can conclude that:   

Solution:

Solution: From two extracts in the passage, we can observe that traditional materialism is refuted by relativity and the quantum theory: 1. “..traditional materialism that held that the only things that exist are things composed of the kind of matter with which we are broadly familiar (“traditional matter”) - which was anyway under great strain as noted above from Relativity and quantum field theory.” 2. “One challenge to the traditional concept of matter as tangible “stuff’ is the rise of field physics in the 19th century.” Field physics includes relativity and the quantum theory as explained in the third paragraph. Therefore, option 1 can be concluded from the paragraph.
Since the passage states that there is “no agreement amongst scientists about what these are made of,” Dark Matter and Dark Energy can be described as an “ambiguous” field. Therefore, option 2 can be concluded from the paragraph. The passage states that matter and energy are “interchangeable.” Therefore, option 3 can be concluded from the paragraph.
Since options 1,2 and 3 can all be concluded from the passage, the correct answer is option 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 16

The nature and definition of matter have been subject to much debate, as have other key concepts in science and philosophy. Is there a single kind of matter which everything is made of (hyle), or multiple kinds? Is matter a continuous substance capable of expressing multiple forms (hylomorphism), or a number of discrete, unchanging constituents (atomism)? Does it have intrinsic properties (substance theory), or is it lacking them (prima materia)? Without question science has made unexpected discoveries about matter. Some paraphrase departures from traditional or common- sense concepts of matter as “disproving the existence of matter”. However, most physical scientists take the view that the concept of matter has merely changed, rather than being eliminated. One challenge to the traditional concept of matter as tangible “stuff’ is the rise of field physics in the 19th century. However the conclusion that materialism is false may be premature. Relativity shows that matter and energy (including the spatially distributed energy of fields) are interchangeable. This enables the ontological view that energy is prima materia and matter is one of its forms. On the other hand, quantum field theory models fields as exchanges of particles- photons for electromagnetic fields and so on. On this view it could be said that fields are “really matter.”

All known solid, liquid, and gaseous substances are composed of protons, neutrons and electrons. All three are fermions or spin-half particles, whereas the particles that mediate fields in quantum field theory are bosons. Thus matter can be said to divide into a more tangible fermionic kind and a less tangible bosonic kind. However it is now generally believed that less than 5% of the physical composition of the universe is made up of such “matter”, and the majority of the universe is composed of Dark Matter and Dark Energy- with no agreement amongst scientists about what these are made of. This obviously refutes the traditional materialism that held that the only things that exist are things composed of the kind of matter with which we are broadly familiar (“traditional matter”) - which was anyway under great strain as noted above from Relativity and quantum field theory. But if the definition of “matter” is extended to “anything whose existence can be inferred from the observed behaviour of traditional matter” then there is no reason in principle why entities whose existence materialists normally deny should not be considered as “matter.” Some philosophers feel that these dichotomies necessitate a switch from materialism to physicalism. Others use materialism and physicalism interchangeably. 

Q. The tone of the passage is: 

Solution:

Solution: “Expository” means ‘serving to expound, set forth, or explain’. The tone of the passage is “expository” as it attempts to explain the nature and definition of matter.The tone is not “critical” which means ‘involving skillful judgment as to truth, merit, etc.’ because the author does not pass judgment on any theories, he simply states them. It is not “salubrious” as it means ‘favorable to or promoting health; healthful.’ It is not “exonerating” which means ‘to relieve, as from an obligation, duty, or task.’ The passage is not “condemnatory” as once again it does not pass any strong judgment or pass any disapproval of, but merely states the facts and explains them in a succinct manner.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 17

The nature and definition of matter have been subject to much debate, as have other key concepts in science and philosophy. Is there a single kind of matter which everything is made of (hyle), or multiple kinds? Is matter a continuous substance capable of expressing multiple forms (hylomorphism), or a number of discrete, unchanging constituents (atomism)? Does it have intrinsic properties (substance theory), or is it lacking them (prima materia)? Without question science has made unexpected discoveries about matter. Some paraphrase departures from traditional or common- sense concepts of matter as “disproving the existence of matter”. However, most physical scientists take the view that the concept of matter has merely changed, rather than being eliminated. One challenge to the traditional concept of matter as tangible “stuff’ is the rise of field physics in the 19th century. However the conclusion that materialism is false may be premature. Relativity shows that matter and energy (including the spatially distributed energy of fields) are interchangeable. This enables the ontological view that energy is prima materia and matter is one of its forms. On the other hand, quantum field theory models fields as exchanges of particles- photons for electromagnetic fields and so on. On this view it could be said that fields are “really matter.”

All known solid, liquid, and gaseous substances are composed of protons, neutrons and electrons. All three are fermions or spin-half particles, whereas the particles that mediate fields in quantum field theory are bosons. Thus matter can be said to divide into a more tangible fermionic kind and a less tangible bosonic kind. However it is now generally believed that less than 5% of the physical composition of the universe is made up of such “matter”, and the majority of the universe is composed of Dark Matter and Dark Energy- with no agreement amongst scientists about what these are made of. This obviously refutes the traditional materialism that held that the only things that exist are things composed of the kind of matter with which we are broadly familiar (“traditional matter”) - which was anyway under great strain as noted above from Relativity and quantum field theory. But if the definition of “matter” is extended to “anything whose existence can be inferred from the observed behaviour of traditional matter” then there is no reason in principle why entities whose existence materialists normally deny should not be considered as “matter.” Some philosophers feel that these dichotomies necessitate a switch from materialism to physicalism. Others use materialism and physicalism interchangeably. 

Q. Some scientists who follow the definition of traditional matter:

Solution:

Solution: The passage states that “Some paraphrase departures from traditional or common-sense concepts of matter as ‘disproving the existence of matter’” These scientists therefore are inflexible in their definition of matter- they think that any definition that doesn’t conform is threatening to disprove the traditional theory. This is in consonance with option 1.
Option 2 is incorrect. The paragraph states that “the majority of the universe is composed of Dark Matter and Dark Energy - with no agreement amongst scientists about what these are made of.” This means that scientists are unsure about Dark Matter, not that they are condemning it. Option 3 is incorrect as it is mostly irrelevant, and in any case, is a challenge to the tradition definition of matter- the ontological definition says that energy is prima material, and challenges the traditional definition that is based on the tangibility of matter.
Option 4 is incorrect as the passage does not state that the scientists “expect” field physics to disprove the traditional definition of matter.
Option 5 is incorrect as the only definition accepted by traditional materialists is that matter is “tangible.” Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 18

Group Question

Analyse the following passage and provide an appropriate answer for the questions that follow.


Formation of focal brand expectations is a well-accepted part of the pre-purchase choice process. However, whether these same expectations are the standard for post-choice performance evaluation has been questioned. There is very little theoretical justification for consumers using focal brand expectations to judge performance after purchase. Customer satisfaction/dissatisfaction is more likely to be determined by how well a consumer perceives that focal brand performance fulfils needs, wants, or desires.

Importantly, there is no necessary relationship between prepurchase focal brand expectations and the performance required to meet those wants. Thus, consumers are very likely to use other kinds of performance standards in the post-purchase evaluation. Consumers are likely to rely on standards that reflect the performance a consumer believes a focal brand should provide to meet needs/wants. To distinguish these standards from the usual expectations concept, we call them "experience-based norms." These norms have two important characteristics: (1) they reflect desired performance in meeting needs/wants and (2) they are constrained by the performance consumers believe is possible as indicated by the performance of known brands. The second characteristic requires elaboration. Though consumers may imagine some abstract ideal performance that a brand should provide, they also have concrete experiences with various real brands and their performance. Because consumers are more likely to think in concrete rather than abstract terms, experience with real brands should set limits on the performance a consumer believes the focal brand should provide. Consumers may derive a norm from experience with known brands in at least two different ways. First, the norm might be the typical performance of a particular brand - e.g., a consumer's most preferred brand, a popular brand, or last-purchased brand.

Importantly, this brand may not be the focal brand. For example, when evaluating the dining experience in a new restaurant, a consumer may apply a norm that is the typical performance of another, favourite restaurant. Interestingly, focal brand expectations may correspond to this norm, but only if the focal brand is also the brand from which the standard is derived, such as when a consumer dines in his or her favourite restaurant. In all other cases, the norm is necessarily different from expectations because the norm is derived from experience with a different brand. A second possibility is that the norm might be an average performance a consumer believes is typical of a group of similar brands — a product-based norm. This kind of norm may be reasonable when no one brand stands out in the consumer's mind and the consumer has experience with many brands. In general, the experience-based norms concept is significant because it suggests that past research may have attached unwarranted importance to focal brand expectations as the standard of performance influencing feelings of satisfaction.

Q. The statement, “there is no necessary relationship between pre-purchase focal brand expectations and the performance required to meet those wants” implies that:

Solution:

Solution: According to the first paragraph of the passage, though formation of focal brand expectations is part of the pre-purchase choice process, they do-not form the standard for post-purchase performance evaluation. On the basis of this information alone we cannot say with certainty that focal brand expectations are definitely unrealistic or that they cannot be unrealistic. The statement suggests that there is a discrepancy between focal brand expectations and the performance required to satisfy consumers. Therefore, it is likely (but not certain) that focal brand expectations may be unrealistic. This eliminates options 1, 3 and 5 and points towards option 2 as being the correct answer.
The passage does not discuss the factors that lead to the formation of focal brand expectations. Therefore, we have no means of ascertaining option 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 19

Formation of focal brand expectations is a well-accepted part of the pre-purchase choice process. However, whether these same expectations are the standard for post-choice performance evaluation has been questioned. There is very little theoretical justification for consumers using focal brand expectations to judge performance after purchase. Customer satisfaction/dissatisfaction is more likely to be determined by how well a consumer perceives that focal brand performance fulfils needs, wants, or desires.

Importantly, there is no necessary relationship between prepurchase focal brand expectations and the performance required to meet those wants. Thus, consumers are very likely to use other kinds of performance standards in the post-purchase evaluation. Consumers are likely to rely on standards that reflect the performance a consumer believes a focal brand should provide to meet needs/wants. To distinguish these standards from the usual expectations concept, we call them "experience-based norms." These norms have two important characteristics: (1) they reflect desired performance in meeting needs/wants and (2) they are constrained by the performance consumers believe is possible as indicated by the performance of known brands. The second characteristic requires elaboration. Though consumers may imagine some abstract ideal performance that a brand should provide, they also have concrete experiences with various real brands and their performance. Because consumers are more likely to think in concrete rather than abstract terms, experience with real brands should set limits on the performance a consumer believes the focal brand should provide. Consumers may derive a norm from experience with known brands in at least two different ways. First, the norm might be the typical performance of a particular brand - e.g., a consumer's most preferred brand, a popular brand, or last-purchased brand.

Importantly, this brand may not be the focal brand. For example, when evaluating the dining experience in a new restaurant, a consumer may apply a norm that is the typical performance of another, favourite restaurant. Interestingly, focal brand expectations may correspond to this norm, but only if the focal brand is also the brand from which the standard is derived, such as when a consumer dines in his or her favourite restaurant. In all other cases, the norm is necessarily different from expectations because the norm is derived from experience with a different brand. A second possibility is that the norm might be an average performance a consumer believes is typical of a group of similar brands — a product-based norm. This kind of norm may be reasonable when no one brand stands out in the consumer's mind and the consumer has experience with many brands. In general, the experience-based norms concept is significant because it suggests that past research may have attached unwarranted importance to focal brand expectations as the standard of performance influencing feelings of satisfaction.

Q. Which of the following statements, if true, would contradict the second characteristic of “experience-based norms”?

Solution:

Solution: The second characteristic states that “experience-based norms” are limited by the performance that consumers believe is possible as indicated by performance of brands known to them. However, if well-known brands outdo each other through their performance, then consumers are not likely to have limited standards for evaluating performance. Therefore, their “experience-based norms” will not be constrained. This points towards option 3 as being the correct answer.
The second characteristic pertains to a standard of performance evaluation for any given brand. Therefore, whether a focal brand is real or not is immaterial to it. Eliminate option 1.
Option 2 does not address the point about consumer belief being constrained. Therefore it cannot contradict the second characteristic.
Lowered standards of performance evaluation among consumers do not necessarily contradict the second characteristic. Eliminate option 4.
Option 5 is aligned with the second characteristic and does not contradict it.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 20

Formation of focal brand expectations is a well-accepted part of the pre-purchase choice process. However, whether these same expectations are the standard for post-choice performance evaluation has been questioned. There is very little theoretical justification for consumers using focal brand expectations to judge performance after purchase. Customer satisfaction/dissatisfaction is more likely to be determined by how well a consumer perceives that focal brand performance fulfils needs, wants, or desires.

Importantly, there is no necessary relationship between prepurchase focal brand expectations and the performance required to meet those wants. Thus, consumers are very likely to use other kinds of performance standards in the post-purchase evaluation. Consumers are likely to rely on standards that reflect the performance a consumer believes a focal brand should provide to meet needs/wants. To distinguish these standards from the usual expectations concept, we call them "experience-based norms." These norms have two important characteristics: (1) they reflect desired performance in meeting needs/wants and (2) they are constrained by the performance consumers believe is possible as indicated by the performance of known brands. The second characteristic requires elaboration. Though consumers may imagine some abstract ideal performance that a brand should provide, they also have concrete experiences with various real brands and their performance. Because consumers are more likely to think in concrete rather than abstract terms, experience with real brands should set limits on the performance a consumer believes the focal brand should provide. Consumers may derive a norm from experience with known brands in at least two different ways. First, the norm might be the typical performance of a particular brand - e.g., a consumer's most preferred brand, a popular brand, or last-purchased brand.

Importantly, this brand may not be the focal brand. For example, when evaluating the dining experience in a new restaurant, a consumer may apply a norm that is the typical performance of another, favourite restaurant. Interestingly, focal brand expectations may correspond to this norm, but only if the focal brand is also the brand from which the standard is derived, such as when a consumer dines in his or her favourite restaurant. In all other cases, the norm is necessarily different from expectations because the norm is derived from experience with a different brand. A second possibility is that the norm might be an average performance a consumer believes is typical of a group of similar brands — a product-based norm. This kind of norm may be reasonable when no one brand stands out in the consumer's mind and the consumer has experience with many brands. In general, the experience-based norms concept is significant because it suggests that past research may have attached unwarranted importance to focal brand expectations as the standard of performance influencing feelings of satisfaction.

Q. A consumer tries shampoos from three different brands to check which one suits her hair the best. She finds them all to be more or less the same in terms of their output.Which of the following can be concluded from this?

Solution:

Solution: On the basis of the statement given we do not know if the consumer was disappointed with the performance of the three shampoos. Hence, option 1 cannot be concluded with any degree of certainty.
We cannot ascertain that the performance of the shampoos did not meet with the consumer’s need and desire. The statement merely says that the consumer found all the shampoos to be more or less the same in terms of their output, which means that they could have been good or bad. This vindicates option 4 as the correct answer and eliminates option 2.
The consumer was merely checking which shampoo suited her hair the best. She did not expect any of them to yield the desired result. Therefore, the main statement is need based and not expectation based. Eliminate option 3.
The average performance of the three shampoos being similar is not the same as shampoos being average in their performance. Eliminate option 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 21

Formation of focal brand expectations is a well-accepted part of the pre-purchase choice process. However, whether these same expectations are the standard for post-choice performance evaluation has been questioned. There is very little theoretical justification for consumers using focal brand expectations to judge performance after purchase. Customer satisfaction/dissatisfaction is more likely to be determined by how well a consumer perceives that focal brand performance fulfils needs, wants, or desires.

Importantly, there is no necessary relationship between prepurchase focal brand expectations and the performance required to meet those wants. Thus, consumers are very likely to use other kinds of performance standards in the post-purchase evaluation. Consumers are likely to rely on standards that reflect the performance a consumer believes a focal brand should provide to meet needs/wants. To distinguish these standards from the usual expectations concept, we call them "experience-based norms." These norms have two important characteristics: (1) they reflect desired performance in meeting needs/wants and (2) they are constrained by the performance consumers believe is possible as indicated by the performance of known brands. The second characteristic requires elaboration. Though consumers may imagine some abstract ideal performance that a brand should provide, they also have concrete experiences with various real brands and their performance. Because consumers are more likely to think in concrete rather than abstract terms, experience with real brands should set limits on the performance a consumer believes the focal brand should provide. Consumers may derive a norm from experience with known brands in at least two different ways. First, the norm might be the typical performance of a particular brand - e.g., a consumer's most preferred brand, a popular brand, or last-purchased brand.

Importantly, this brand may not be the focal brand. For example, when evaluating the dining experience in a new restaurant, a consumer may apply a norm that is the typical performance of another, favourite restaurant. Interestingly, focal brand expectations may correspond to this norm, but only if the focal brand is also the brand from which the standard is derived, such as when a consumer dines in his or her favourite restaurant. In all other cases, the norm is necessarily different from expectations because the norm is derived from experience with a different brand. A second possibility is that the norm might be an average performance a consumer believes is typical of a group of similar brands — a product-based norm. This kind of norm may be reasonable when no one brand stands out in the consumer's mind and the consumer has experience with many brands. In general, the experience-based norms concept is significant because it suggests that past research may have attached unwarranted importance to focal brand expectations as the standard of performance influencing feelings of satisfaction.

Q. Given below are statements that attempt to capture the central idea of this passage:

1. Satisfaction pertains to performance and not to expectations.

2. In-order to perform well, a focal brand should fulfil consumer needs rather than match their expectations.

3. Brand performance standards are determined by consumer experiences of products.

Which of the following statement(s) best captures the central idea.

Solution:

Solution: The passage establishes how consumer satisfaction is achieved when a brand’s performance meets their needs, wants and desires. The passage disregards focal brand expectations as a standard for evaluating post-purchase performance.
In order to arrive at the correct answer for this question, one needs to distinguish between expectations and focal brand expectations. Focal brand expectations refer to model expectations. The term expectations when used alone or in context with consumer expectations could be subjective in nature. That is why statements 1 and 2 are not aligned with the thought process of the passage and do not capture the central idea. Eliminate options 1, 3, 4 and 5.
The passage makes a strong case for how consumer experiences create norms that act as standards of performance evaluation. Statement 3 best captures the central idea of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 22

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.


Though it is hard to pinpoint the birth of an idea, for all intents and purposes the modern idea of technological “progress” (in the sense of a steady, cumulative, historical advance in applied scientific knowledge) began with Bacon’s The Advancement of Learning and became fully articulated in his later works. 

Knowledge is power, and when embodied in the form of new technical inventions and mechanical discoveries it is the force that drives history - this was Bacon’s key insight. In many respects this idea was his single greatest invention, and it is all the more remarkable for its having been conceived and promoted at a time when most English and European intellectuals were either reverencing the literary and philosophical achievements of the past or deploring the numerous signs of modern degradation and decline. Indeed, while Bacon was preaching progress and declaring a brave new dawn of scientific advance, many of his colleagues were persuaded that the world was at best creaking along towards a state of senile immobility and eventual darkness. “Our age is iron, and rusty too,” wrote John Donne, contemplating the signs of universal decay in a poem published six years after Bacon’s Advancement.

That history might in fact be progressive, i.e., an onward and upward ascent - and not, as Aristotle had taught, merely cyclical or, as cultural pessimists from Hesiod to Spengler have supposed, a descending or retrograde movement, became for Bacon an article of secular faith which he propounded with evangelical force and a sense of mission. In the Advancement, the idea is offered tentatively, as a kind of hopeful hypothesis. But in later works such as the New Organon, it becomes almost a promised destiny:

Enlightenment and a better world, Bacon insists, lie within our power; they require only the cooperation of learned citizens and the active development of the arts and sciences.
In Book II of De Dignitate, Bacon outlines his scheme for a new division of human knowledge into three primary categories: History, Poesy, and Philosophy (which he associates respectively with the three fundamental “faculties” of mind - memory, imagination, and reason). Although the exact motive behind this reclassification remains unclear, one of its main consequences seems unmistakable: it effectively promotes philosophy - and especially Baconian science - above the other two branches of knowledge, in essence defining history as the mere accumulation of brute facts, while reducing art and imaginative literature to the even more marginal status of “feigned history.” 

Evidently Bacon believed that in order for a genuine advancement of learning to occur, the prestige of philosophy (and particularly natural philosophy) had to be elevated, while that of history and literature (in a word, humanism) needed to be reduced. Bacon’s scheme effectively accomplishes this by making history (the domain of fact, i.e., of everything that has happened) a virtual sub-species of philosophy (the domain of realistic possibility, i.e., of everything that can theoretically or actually occur). Meanwhile, poesy (the domain of everything that is imaginable or conceivable) is set off to the side as a mere illustrative vehicle.

Q. What could poesy being perceived as a mere illustrative vehicle mean?

Solution:

Solution: Bacon wishes to confine all imaginative literature to being a reflection of ideas from the past and present with a higher emphasis on those branches of study that are associated with reason. Thus, only option 3 holds true.
Option 1 implies that works created from human imagination were to be used creating others of the same kind.
Options 2 and 4 imply that poesy was used to undermine other such works.
Option 5 states that the arts ought to be limited to being an imitation of reality.
Options 1,2, 4 and 5 do not reflect views that have been supported by Bacon as per the given passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 23

Though it is hard to pinpoint the birth of an idea, for all intents and purposes the modern idea of technological “progress” (in the sense of a steady, cumulative, historical advance in applied scientific knowledge) began with Bacon’s The Advancement of Learning and became fully articulated in his later works. 

Knowledge is power, and when embodied in the form of new technical inventions and mechanical discoveries it is the force that drives history - this was Bacon’s key insight. In many respects this idea was his single greatest invention, and it is all the more remarkable for its having been conceived and promoted at a time when most English and European intellectuals were either reverencing the literary and philosophical achievements of the past or deploring the numerous signs of modern degradation and decline. Indeed, while Bacon was preaching progress and declaring a brave new dawn of scientific advance, many of his colleagues were persuaded that the world was at best creaking along towards a state of senile immobility and eventual darkness. “Our age is iron, and rusty too,” wrote John Donne, contemplating the signs of universal decay in a poem published six years after Bacon’s Advancement.

That history might in fact be progressive, i.e., an onward and upward ascent - and not, as Aristotle had taught, merely cyclical or, as cultural pessimists from Hesiod to Spengler have supposed, a descending or retrograde movement, became for Bacon an article of secular faith which he propounded with evangelical force and a sense of mission. In the Advancement, the idea is offered tentatively, as a kind of hopeful hypothesis. But in later works such as the New Organon, it becomes almost a promised destiny:

Enlightenment and a better world, Bacon insists, lie within our power; they require only the cooperation of learned citizens and the active development of the arts and sciences.
In Book II of De Dignitate, Bacon outlines his scheme for a new division of human knowledge into three primary categories: History, Poesy, and Philosophy (which he associates respectively with the three fundamental “faculties” of mind - memory, imagination, and reason). Although the exact motive behind this reclassification remains unclear, one of its main consequences seems unmistakable: it effectively promotes philosophy - and especially Baconian science - above the other two branches of knowledge, in essence defining history as the mere accumulation of brute facts, while reducing art and imaginative literature to the even more marginal status of “feigned history.” 

Evidently Bacon believed that in order for a genuine advancement of learning to occur, the prestige of philosophy (and particularly natural philosophy) had to be elevated, while that of history and literature (in a word, humanism) needed to be reduced. Bacon’s scheme effectively accomplishes this by making history (the domain of fact, i.e., of everything that has happened) a virtual sub-species of philosophy (the domain of realistic possibility, i.e., of everything that can theoretically or actually occur). Meanwhile, poesy (the domain of everything that is imaginable or conceivable) is set off to the side as a mere illustrative vehicle.

Q. Which of the following statements disagrees with Baconian ideology?

Solution:

Solution: According to the passage Bacon believed history to be progressive and not cyclical.
Option 1 disagrees with Bacon’s views since it talks about the recurrence of the past indicating the cyclical nature of history.
Option 2 agrees with Bacon’s views that the humanities and arts are captured moments from the past as stated in the passage “in essence defining history as the mere accumulation of brute facts, while reducing art and imaginative literature to the even more marginal status of feigned history.” Option 3 states that non-physical phenomena need to be studied for progress to be made which is not disagreeable by Bacon’s works where he talks about how the arts and sciences need to go hand-in-hand for a better world. This is supported by the following lines - “Enlightenment and a better world, Bacon insists, lie within our power; they require only the cooperation of learned citizens and the active development of the arts and sciences.” Option 4 talks about the importance of technological advancement which is a crucial element in Bacon’s works. Option 5 opposes the retrograde movement and hence, agrees with Bacon’s philosophy.
Both options 4 and 5 are supported by the lines “That history might in fact be progressive, i.e., an onward and upward ascent - and not, as Aristotle had taught, merely cyclical or, as cultural pessimists from Hesiod to Spengler have supposed, a descending or retrograde movement, became for Bacon an article of secular faith which he propounded with evangelical force and a sense of mission.” Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 24

Though it is hard to pinpoint the birth of an idea, for all intents and purposes the modern idea of technological “progress” (in the sense of a steady, cumulative, historical advance in applied scientific knowledge) began with Bacon’s The Advancement of Learning and became fully articulated in his later works. 

Knowledge is power, and when embodied in the form of new technical inventions and mechanical discoveries it is the force that drives history - this was Bacon’s key insight. In many respects this idea was his single greatest invention, and it is all the more remarkable for its having been conceived and promoted at a time when most English and European intellectuals were either reverencing the literary and philosophical achievements of the past or deploring the numerous signs of modern degradation and decline. Indeed, while Bacon was preaching progress and declaring a brave new dawn of scientific advance, many of his colleagues were persuaded that the world was at best creaking along towards a state of senile immobility and eventual darkness. “Our age is iron, and rusty too,” wrote John Donne, contemplating the signs of universal decay in a poem published six years after Bacon’s Advancement.

That history might in fact be progressive, i.e., an onward and upward ascent - and not, as Aristotle had taught, merely cyclical or, as cultural pessimists from Hesiod to Spengler have supposed, a descending or retrograde movement, became for Bacon an article of secular faith which he propounded with evangelical force and a sense of mission. In the Advancement, the idea is offered tentatively, as a kind of hopeful hypothesis. But in later works such as the New Organon, it becomes almost a promised destiny:

Enlightenment and a better world, Bacon insists, lie within our power; they require only the cooperation of learned citizens and the active development of the arts and sciences.
In Book II of De Dignitate, Bacon outlines his scheme for a new division of human knowledge into three primary categories: History, Poesy, and Philosophy (which he associates respectively with the three fundamental “faculties” of mind - memory, imagination, and reason). Although the exact motive behind this reclassification remains unclear, one of its main consequences seems unmistakable: it effectively promotes philosophy - and especially Baconian science - above the other two branches of knowledge, in essence defining history as the mere accumulation of brute facts, while reducing art and imaginative literature to the even more marginal status of “feigned history.” 

Evidently Bacon believed that in order for a genuine advancement of learning to occur, the prestige of philosophy (and particularly natural philosophy) had to be elevated, while that of history and literature (in a word, humanism) needed to be reduced. Bacon’s scheme effectively accomplishes this by making history (the domain of fact, i.e., of everything that has happened) a virtual sub-species of philosophy (the domain of realistic possibility, i.e., of everything that can theoretically or actually occur). Meanwhile, poesy (the domain of everything that is imaginable or conceivable) is set off to the side as a mere illustrative vehicle.

Q. Which of the following can be deduced about Francis Bacon from the passage?

Solution:

Solution: Only option 1 can be deduced from the passage since the passage highlights Bacon’s disdain towards the humanities but at the same time lays much emphasis on progress and encourages new ideas besides the ones presented by him. Options 2 and 5 can be eliminated since they make allusions to Bacon's literary achievements which are not mentioned in the passage.
Option 3 can be eliminated because there's no reference to Bacon using pompous language in the passage.
Option 4 can be eliminated from the following lines in the passage “Knowledge is power, and when embodied in the form of new technical inventions and mechanical discoveries it is the force that drives history - this was Bacon’s key insight. In many respects this idea was his single greatest invention, and it is all the more remarkable for its having been conceived and promoted at a time when most English and European intellectuals were either reverencing the literary and philosophical achievements of the past.” Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 25

Group Question For each of the following questions, read the caselet and answer the question(s) that follow(s).

James is a recent graduate who has just started his first job in the finance department of a major publicly traded Silicon Valley company. One of his main responsibilities is to create and distribute extensive reports that analyze costs and revenues for different divisions. James sends completed reports to his direct supervisor and the CFO. The CFO then uses the information while planning economic strategies and forecasting for the company, often referencing the data during critical meetings.

While James considers himself to be detailed-oriented, the complicated nature of the reports and the sheer volume of data can sometimes be overwhelming, particularly since they have strict deadlines. Though James works hard to prepare the reports as accurately as possible, he often finds errors after he has already sent them off as finals. When the errors are critical, he revises the reports and resends them. However, some of the errors are minor in his estimation, and he doubts that the CFO will use or look at these figures. James is ambitious and wants to be promoted, but worries that if he sends out frequently updated reports, he will appear unreliable and unqualified. He feels caught between ensuring maximum accuracy and meeting strict deadlines.

Q. In this case, what would be the best approach for James? 

Solution:

Solution: The best decision for James would be to make a note of the errors in a separate file instead of resending reports after correcting the minor errors. This way, James and the CFO both can keep a track of any revisions without several copies of the same report being sent out with minor revisions. This justifies option 4 as a suitable choice.
Option 1 does not help the situation as the number of reports being sent out is the same. Eliminate option 1. Options 2 and 5 would reflect badly on James' efficiency and bear an adverse effect on his career. Eliminate options 2 and 5.
Option 3 is too risky. If an error is found in the reports, it would make James look incompetent. Eliminate option 3. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 26

James is a recent graduate who has just started his first job in the finance department of a major publicly traded Silicon Valley company. One of his main responsibilities is to create and distribute extensive reports that analyze costs and revenues for different divisions. James sends completed reports to his direct supervisor and the CFO. The CFO then uses the information while planning economic strategies and forecasting for the company, often referencing the data during critical meetings.

While James considers himself to be detailed-oriented, the complicated nature of the reports and the sheer volume of data can sometimes be overwhelming, particularly since they have strict deadlines. Though James works hard to prepare the reports as accurately as possible, he often finds errors after he has already sent them off as finals. When the errors are critical, he revises the reports and resends them. However, some of the errors are minor in his estimation, and he doubts that the CFO will use or look at these figures. James is ambitious and wants to be promoted, but worries that if he sends out frequently updated reports, he will appear unreliable and unqualified. He feels caught between ensuring maximum accuracy and meeting strict deadlines.

Q. James is promoted for his diligence and now he has to review any reports being generated by the analysts and send them to the division manager (who was working in his position before being promoted) and the CFO. After taking charge, James notices that in a recent report reviewed by his predecessor, there’s a critical error he seems to have overlooked.

Which of the following would be a suitable decision on James’ part?

Solution:

Solution: Sending the report to the CFO might prove detrimental to James’ predecessor’s career, but as a part of his responsibility towards his employer, James must point out the error to the division manager and ask him to look into it. Thus, the correct decision would be to bring the error to the division manager’s notice and ask him to act accordingly. This vindicates option 2 as the right decision.
Option 1 could prove to be a hasty course of action on his part. It would be better to check with the division manager first. Eliminate option 1.
Option 3 is unethical since James has to report to both, the division manager and the CFO. Eliminate option 3.
Option 4 would be irresponsible since it is necessary that James discloses any errors he finds in the reports he reviews. Eliminate option 4.
Option 5 does not make for a good decision since it makes James appear cowardly and passive in his duties towards his job.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 27

Read the following case and choose the best alternative.

Mr. Arora, the marketing head of a new FMCG based company with limited reach, has to take a call between direct and indirect marketing of the company’s latest product ‘Serenade Hand Wash’. Whereas direct marketing involves the much tried and tested path of advertising and consumer awareness, indirect marketing deals with striking deals with low level distributors to increase inventory stocks of the company’s product so it is sold more as compared to other companies’ products. Obvious to say, indirect marketing is risky but cheaper than direct marketing.


Q. What approach should Mr. Arora implement and why?

Solution:

Solution: The first sentence of the case study is the one that clinches the entire argument. The FMCG industry works on branding and for any new company to make its mark, it has to spend a lot of money on increasing brand consciousness among its consumers.
Option 2 is the correct option as it takes care of this aspect of marketing.
Option 1 is incorrect because of its simplistic nature. The advantage of direct marketing has been mentioned but it has not been effectively offset by the advantage of indirect marketing. Option 3 assumes that Mr. Arora’s company does not have an advertising budget. A new FMCG company has no choice but to advertise since its products are consumer products.
Options 4 and 5 fall for the same errors of misconception. There is nothing that proves that indirect marketing is unique and innovative. Similarly, theories that look good on paper but are not proven in the real world are always a risky prospect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 28

Answer the question based on the information given in the  passage.


Mr. Faizan Sheikh has just been promoted to head of purchasing and suddenly finds himself as the supervisor of the people he used to work alongside earlier. Obvious to say, he shares a very friendly equation with each of them. However, recent project reports showed a drop in work efficiency and Mr. Sheikh realized that this is because of certain people in his team who are taking advantage of their relationship with him and shrugging responsibilities.


Q. How should Mr. Sheikh handle this situation?

Solution:

Solution: In this situation, it is very important for Mr. Sheikh to make his ex-colleagues understand that he is now in a position of responsibility towards all of their work while also ensuring that he does not jeopardize his relationship with them.
Option 1 is incorrect as it would underline his arrogance and make his team members question his motives.
Option 3 is too weak and undermines Mr. Sheikh’s position as the supervisor. He will lose respect in the eyes of the team members and more issues will follow.
Option 4 sounds good but such a grave matter should be handled with a face to face conversation. A group mail would fail to make the team realize the gravity of the situation.
Between options 2 and 5, option 2 has a definite edge as it addresses the issue directly by showing how the person’s attitude is affecting the project whereas option 5 addresses it indirectly by showing how the person’s attitude is making things difficult for his friend.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 29

Group Question Read the following passage and answer the questions.


The Chairman and CEO of Union Carbide, Warren Anderson, had been arrested and released on bail by the Madhya Pradesh Police in Bhopal on December 7, 1984. The arrest, which took place at the airport, assured Anderson would meet no harm by the Bhopal community. Anderson was taken to Union Carbide's house after which he was released six hours later on $2,100 bail and flown out on a government plane. In 1987, the Indian government summoned Anderson, eight other executives and two company affiliates with homicide charges to appear in Indian court. Union Carbide balked, saying the company is not under Indian jurisdiction. Beginning in 1991, the local authorities from Bhopal charged Anderson, who had retired in 1986, with manslaughter, a crime that carries a maximum penalty of 10 years in prison. Anderson has so far avoided an international arrest warrant and a US court summons. He was declared a fugitive from justice by the Chief Judicial Magistrate of Bhopal on February 1, 1992, for failing to appear at the court hearings in a culpable homicide case in which he was named the chief defendant. Orders were passed to the Government of India to press for an extradition from the United States, with whom India had an extradition treaty in place. The Bhopal Medical Appeal believes that "neither the American nor the Indian government seem interested in disturbing him with an extradition". A seemingly apathetic attitude from the US government, which has failed to pursue the case, has also led to strong protests in the past, most notably by Greenpeace. A plea by India's Central Bureau of Investigation to dilute the charges from culpable homicide to criminal negligence has since been dismissed by the Indian courts. The U.S. Supreme Court refused to hear an appeal of the decision of the lower federal courts in October 1993, meaning that victims of the Bhopal disaster could not seek damages in a US court. On the anniversary of the tragedy, effigies of Anderson and politicians are burnt.
 

Q. How can Union Carbide salvage its image?

Solution:

Solution: Salvaging the image is a public relations exercise where they need to be perceived as making efforts to help the victims or making efforts to help take the case against Anderson. If neither of the two, then they need to present a case to come clean on the whole matter. Option 4 does just that. If it had no role to play and the allegations are unfounded (even if later) then it stands to reason (in the public's eyes) that the company or its employees (including the CEO) should not be tried in a court and punished.
Option 1 only has an economic angle to it. This will not suffice where charges of mass murder are made.
Option 2 is tangential.
Option 3 is an attempt to wash one's hands and duck out of the situation- will not help its image.
Option 5 will help salvage the company's image somewhat, but it is not related to the matter at hand- the Bhopal Gas Tragedy- and can therefore be eliminated in favour of option 4. Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
NOTE: The passage does not mention Union Carbide being the cause for the tragedy. Please do not use prior knowledge but stick strictly to the facts mentioned in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 30

The Chairman and CEO of Union Carbide, Warren Anderson, had been arrested and released on bail by the Madhya Pradesh Police in Bhopal on December 7, 1984. The arrest, which took place at the airport, assured Anderson would meet no harm by the Bhopal community. Anderson was taken to Union Carbide's house after which he was released six hours later on $2,100 bail and flown out on a government plane. In 1987, the Indian government summoned Anderson, eight other executives and two company affiliates with homicide charges to appear in Indian court. Union Carbide balked, saying the company is not under Indian jurisdiction. Beginning in 1991, the local authorities from Bhopal charged Anderson, who had retired in 1986, with manslaughter, a crime that carries a maximum penalty of 10 years in prison. Anderson has so far avoided an international arrest warrant and a US court summons. He was declared a fugitive from justice by the Chief Judicial Magistrate of Bhopal on February 1, 1992, for failing to appear at the court hearings in a culpable homicide case in which he was named the chief defendant. Orders were passed to the Government of India to press for an extradition from the United States, with whom India had an extradition treaty in place. The Bhopal Medical Appeal believes that "neither the American nor the Indian government seem interested in disturbing him with an extradition". A seemingly apathetic attitude from the US government, which has failed to pursue the case, has also led to strong protests in the past, most notably by Greenpeace. A plea by India's Central Bureau of Investigation to dilute the charges from culpable homicide to criminal negligence has since been dismissed by the Indian courts. The U.S. Supreme Court refused to hear an appeal of the decision of the lower federal courts in October 1993, meaning that victims of the Bhopal disaster could not seek damages in a US court. On the anniversary of the tragedy, effigies of Anderson and politicians are burnt.
 

Q. How should the Indian government correct its mistakes?  

Solution:

Solution: The passage states, “The Bhopal Medical Appeal believe that ‘neither the American nor the Indian government seem interested in disturbing him with an extradition’.” If the Indian government extradites Anderson to India, where he can be tried and punished for his role in the Bhopal Gas Tragedy, it can correct one of its mistakes. This is in consonance with option 2.
Allowing him to be tried in America, which is too far removed from the tragedy to give him a fair trial, would defeat the purpose. Also, the American courts have shown no inclination in taking the case further. Eliminate option 1. Allowing the mob to destroy Union Carbide's industrial quarters will not solve the problem and would be a travesty of justice. Eliminate option 3.
A committee being set up to determine the cause behind the tragedy/ reason for allowing him to flee is not pertinent to the matter mentioned in the passage- which is the extradition of Anderson. This will only make the entire episode go into another loop. Eliminate options 4 and 5. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 31

The Chairman and CEO of Union Carbide, Warren Anderson, had been arrested and released on bail by the Madhya Pradesh Police in Bhopal on December 7, 1984. The arrest, which took place at the airport, assured Anderson would meet no harm by the Bhopal community. Anderson was taken to Union Carbide's house after which he was released six hours later on $2,100 bail and flown out on a government plane. In 1987, the Indian government summoned Anderson, eight other executives and two company affiliates with homicide charges to appear in Indian court. Union Carbide balked, saying the company is not under Indian jurisdiction. Beginning in 1991, the local authorities from Bhopal charged Anderson, who had retired in 1986, with manslaughter, a crime that carries a maximum penalty of 10 years in prison. Anderson has so far avoided an international arrest warrant and a US court summons. He was declared a fugitive from justice by the Chief Judicial Magistrate of Bhopal on February 1, 1992, for failing to appear at the court hearings in a culpable homicide case in which he was named the chief defendant. Orders were passed to the Government of India to press for an extradition from the United States, with whom India had an extradition treaty in place. The Bhopal Medical Appeal believes that "neither the American nor the Indian government seem interested in disturbing him with an extradition". A seemingly apathetic attitude from the US government, which has failed to pursue the case, has also led to strong protests in the past, most notably by Greenpeace. A plea by India's Central Bureau of Investigation to dilute the charges from culpable homicide to criminal negligence has since been dismissed by the Indian courts. The U.S. Supreme Court refused to hear an appeal of the decision of the lower federal courts in October 1993, meaning that victims of the Bhopal disaster could not seek damages in a US court. On the anniversary of the tragedy, effigies of Anderson and politicians are burnt.

Q. One of the following decisions could get Warren Anderson into deeper trouble. Which one is it?

Solution:

Solution: The passage mentions that the American courts are not very interested in pursuing the case. Eliminate option 4. Options 1 and 5 will help him get out of trouble.
Option 3 mentions the Indian sub-continent, which is not necessarily India. Also, a family tour is out of the scope of discussion in the passage.
If he runs away to another country that does have an extradition treaty with India, he will be in deeper trouble. This is true inspite of the American case.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 32

Group Question

Answer the question based on the passage given below.


There have been many instances of attacks on senior citizens in Mumbai. There have been 4 cases of such attacks in the JBR society in Mumbai, which is located on the Gaurya road. Rajshri More (65) and Rani Gala (61) became victims of chain- snatchers.The two incidents took place within a span of one hour. Around 12.30 pm, two unidentified bikers snatched More's chain on Gaurya Road. Similarly, two unidentified men on a motorcycle snatched Gala's chain near JBR society around 1.30 pm. Gala suffered severe injuries to her head as she tried to resist the attackers. "The boys were well-dressed and looked very sophisticated," said Gala, later on, from the hospital bed. Mr. Kale, the inspector in charge of that area of Mumbai is in a dilemma as to how to prevent or even stop such attacks, as he is short of people in his team.


Q. What can Mr. Kale do to prevent the recurrence of such an  attack?

Solution:

Solution: It is not always possible for the elders to be accompanied by someone. Therefore, option 1 can be eliminated. Encouraging senior citizens to enroll for a helpline is not an immediate solution to the problem. Also, not all senior citizens carry a mobile phone with them. Eliminate option 2.
Encouraging senior citizens to learn martial arts and other techniques is too far fetched. Not all of them would be willing or able to learn, considering their age. Therefore, option 4 can also be eliminated.
Ensuring the registration of all motorcycles in the area might not necessarily stop the attacks. The offenders might rent or use motorcycles without any number plates or even modify stolen motorcycles. Therefore, option 5 can also be eliminated.
Though Mr. Kale is short of staff, he can reshuffle his existing staff. Thus, he can appoint men for the security of the society.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 33

There have been many instances of attacks on senior citizens in Mumbai. There have been 4 cases of such attacks in the JBR society in Mumbai, which is located on the Gaurya road. Rajshri More (65) and Rani Gala (61) became victims of chain- snatchers.The two incidents took place within a span of one hour. Around 12.30 pm, two unidentified bikers snatched More's chain on Gaurya Road. Similarly, two unidentified men on a motorcycle snatched Gala's chain near JBR society around 1.30 pm. Gala suffered severe injuries to her head as she tried to resist the attackers. "The boys were well-dressed and looked very sophisticated," said Gala, later on, from the hospital bed. Mr. Kale, the inspector in charge of that area of Mumbai is in a dilemma as to how to prevent or even stop such attacks, as he is short of people in his team.

 

Q. In spite of reshuffling his staff, it is seen that the attacks have not lessened in mumber. If these cases do not reduce within a month, Mr. Kale will be transferred. What should Kale do to prevent his transfer?

Solution:

Solution: Option 2 is a very defeatist attitude for a policeman. The passage mentions that Mr. Kale wants to take some action in order to prevent these attacks. Therefore, running away will not be an option. So, option 2 can be ruled out.
Arguing will not solve the problem and will only result in the transfer of Mr. Kale. Therefore, option 3 can also be eliminated.
Simply mobilizing the youth without taking any legal action will not help stop these attacks. The civilians have to be guided and supported by trained officers. Eliminate option 4.
Waiting for more men in his team might take a long time.
And if the higher authorities do not know Mr. Kale's problem of having very few men in his team, they won't address it.
He will first have to make the authorities aware of this problem. Therefore, option 5 can be eliminated.
Option 1 is what Mr. Kale should follow. By prioritizing the issue, he is ensuring that his men concentrate on the situation at hand first.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 34

There have been many instances of attacks on senior citizens in Mumbai. There have been 4 cases of such attacks in the JBR society in Mumbai, which is located on the Gaurya road. Rajshri More (65) and Rani Gala (61) became victims of chain- snatchers.The two incidents took place within a span of one hour. Around 12.30 pm, two unidentified bikers snatched More's chain on Gaurya Road. Similarly, two unidentified men on a motorcycle snatched Gala's chain near JBR society around 1.30 pm. Gala suffered severe injuries to her head as she tried to resist the attackers. "The boys were well-dressed and looked very sophisticated," said Gala, later on, from the hospital bed. Mr. Kale, the inspector in charge of that area of Mumbai is in a dilemma as to how to prevent or even stop such attacks, as he is short of people in his team.

 

Q. Mr. Kale is planning on warning the young boys of the area about the strict measures that will be taken against them if they are found guilty. What means and measures can he use for the same?

Solution:

Solution: Such cases cannot be explained using posters. Therefore, option 2 can be ruled out.
Option 3 is incorrect as public thrashing is against the law. If the legal authorities themselves indulge in such acts, then the young boys will be encouraged to do the same. Therefore, option 3 can be ruled out.
Option 4 is not foolproof. Giving lectures on respect will not prevent the boys from engaging in such acts. Instilling fear in them about the after effects of their crimes will make them cautious. Therefore, option 4 can be eliminated. Building a network might lead to miscommunication and might encourage moral policing among them. Therefore, option 5 can also be ruled out.
Social workers are more familiar with the community and can therefore, be an efficient channel through which Mr. Kale can communicate with the locals.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 35

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative.


In February 2008, the additional director at an NGO received the most challenging assignment that its board of governors had ever given him — to prepare a comprehensive proposal recommending whether the organization should continue as a non-government organization driven primarily by donations and grants, or venture into social business. He had a month to give his recommendations. The NGO was a reputable 47-year-old organization from Kolkata, with a mission of “sustainable development in education, protection, health and nutrition of child, adolescent and woman in need.” Over the years, the NGO had fought child malnutrition through health clinics and educating mothers, and had provided shelters and a path to betterment for street children. Despite recognition at the NGO that donor funding was becoming scarce, any proposed social business was controversial because it ran the risk of alienating existing donors and replacing the NGO’s existing purpose with a profit motive.

 

Q. Which of the following would be a suitable alternative to becoming a social business.   

Solution:

Solution: Option 1 might not guarantee the funds that the NGO requires and might add on to their problems.
Seeking assistance from trusts might take a lot of time and the NGO may not be able to afford the delay. Eliminate option 2.
Option 3 requires using up the existing funds and should the enterprise fail, the NGO will run out of funding and might have to stop its operations.
Option 4 might reduce the positive impact that the NGO has on society and hence is not feasible.
The best alternative would be option 5 since it provides a steady source of assistance to the NGO without compromising on its work in any manner.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 36

In February 2008, the additional director at an NGO received the most challenging assignment that its board of governors had ever given him — to prepare a comprehensive proposal recommending whether the organization should continue as a non-government organization driven primarily by donations and grants, or venture into social business. He had a month to give his recommendations. The NGO was a reputable 47-year-old organization from Kolkata, with a mission of “sustainable development in education, protection, health and nutrition of child, adolescent and woman in need.” Over the years, the NGO had fought child malnutrition through health clinics and educating mothers, and had provided shelters and a path to betterment for street children. Despite recognition at the NGO that donor funding was becoming scarce, any proposed social business was controversial because it ran the risk of alienating existing donors and replacing the NGO’s existing purpose with a profit motive.

 

Q. Which of the following should be considered by the additional director while preparing the proposal?
A. Relevance and documentation of existing social enterprises.
B. Effect on beneficiaries.
C. Success of social enterprises in raising funds.
D. Operational strategies adopted by Social Businesses.
E. Issues faced in the transition.

Solution:

Solution: The report must consider the issues faced in transition and effect on beneficiaries since these are associated with the core functioning of the NGO.
Since the NGO is considering the transition into becoming a social business on account of facing a shortage of funds; this validates consideration of the success of social enterprises in raising funds.
It will not require information pertaining to the functioning of a social business before it has made the transition, therefore, the proposal need not contain documentation of existing social enterprises or study the operational strategies adopted by them before making the transition. Thus, the correct considerations are B, C and E.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 37

In February 2008, the additional director at an NGO received the most challenging assignment that its board of governors had ever given him — to prepare a comprehensive proposal recommending whether the organization should continue as a non-government organization driven primarily by donations and grants, or venture into social business. He had a month to give his recommendations. The NGO was a reputable 47-year-old organization from Kolkata, with a mission of “sustainable development in education, protection, health and nutrition of child, adolescent and woman in need.” Over the years, the NGO had fought child malnutrition through health clinics and educating mothers, and had provided shelters and a path to betterment for street children. Despite recognition at the NGO that donor funding was becoming scarce, any proposed social business was controversial because it ran the risk of alienating existing donors and replacing the NGO’s existing purpose with a profit motive.

 

Q. Which of the following actions should the NGO not take to rid itself of financial troubles?

Solution:

Solution: All of the options provided will be detrimental to the NGO if it wants to rid itself of financial troubles but option 5 is strongest among them.Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 38

Group Question

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Leena has been working for five years in her current job and normally enjoys it very much. It is a creative and competitive environment, and everyone is, for the most part, encouraging and supportive. After some recent restructuring, however, she is in a new team and is finding one of her colleagues, Ramya, very difficult. She is disruptive, controlling and creates a really bad atmosphere. For example, Ramya will react in a rude and bullying manner when she is under pressure, she hates it when someone else has a good idea and she undermines Leena in front of other colleagues. Unfortunately, she rarely does this in front of their boss. And Ramya fails to understand why her behaviour is such a trouble to the others. 

Also, their boss is rather erratic, moody and very unapproachable. He is inflexible, arrogant and believes that he is always right. He refuses to take the opinions of the employees into account, thus, treating them as mere puppets. He always takes the credits and avoids blame. He does not give any feedback on the performance of his employees and does not encourage them to develop into competent individuals. Leena herself has been a victim of her boss' behaviour.

 

Q. How should Leena deal with Ramya?

Solution:

Solution: Option 1 will not solve Leena's problem. Running away from the problem will only make things more unbearable for her. Therefore, option 1 can be ruled out.
Option 2 is not the right action to be taken as Leena will never learn to deal with such situations in future if she chooses to leave the job. Even if she gets a better job, there also she might come across such a colleague. So, option 2 can be eliminated.
As mentioned in the above passage, Leena's boss in very unapproachable. Therefore, bringing the problem to his notice will only make things worse or they might still remain the same. So, option 3 can also be ruled out.
If Leena asks for a transfer, she has to state the reasons for the same. Hence, it will be more favourable if she files a complaint with the HR department. Eliminate option 5. Complaining to the HR department is perhaps the only way in which the problem can be solved, as the boss is unapproachable. The HR department can then deal with the issue professionally.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 39

Leena has been working for five years in her current job and normally enjoys it very much. It is a creative and competitive environment, and everyone is, for the most part, encouraging and supportive. After some recent restructuring, however, she is in a new team and is finding one of her colleagues, Ramya, very difficult. She is disruptive, controlling and creates a really bad atmosphere. For example, Ramya will react in a rude and bullying manner when she is under pressure, she hates it when someone else has a good idea and she undermines Leena in front of other colleagues. Unfortunately, she rarely does this in front of their boss. And Ramya fails to understand why her behaviour is such a trouble to the others. 

Also, their boss is rather erratic, moody and very unapproachable. He is inflexible, arrogant and believes that he is always right. He refuses to take the opinions of the employees into account, thus, treating them as mere puppets. He always takes the credits and avoids blame. He does not give any feedback on the performance of his employees and does not encourage them to develop into competent individuals. Leena herself has been a victim of her boss' behaviour.

 

Q. How should Leena deal with her boss?

Solution:

Solution: Given that Leena likes her job, she can first employ other measures to solve the problem before quitting. And if those measures don't materialize, she can consider quitting. Eliminate option 1.
Giving the boss a piece of her mind might be impolite and unprofessional. It could lead to further antagonism between them. Therefore, option 2 can be eliminated.
Confronting the boss alone won't help as the passage states that the boss is unapproachable and does not listen to his employees. It will only create further problems for Leena. Therefore, option 3 can be eliminated. A "tit-for-tat" approach doesn't always work in corporate situations. By behaving like her boss, Leena will only face more problems at her workplace. Therefore, option 4 can be eliminated.
Given that the boss is unapproachable, it would be better if all the employees put their problems on the table together. Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 40

Leena has been working for five years in her current job and normally enjoys it very much. It is a creative and competitive environment, and everyone is, for the most part, encouraging and supportive. After some recent restructuring, however, she is in a new team and is finding one of her colleagues, Ramya, very difficult. She is disruptive, controlling and creates a really bad atmosphere. For example, Ramya will react in a rude and bullying manner when she is under pressure, she hates it when someone else has a good idea and she undermines Leena in front of other colleagues. Unfortunately, she rarely does this in front of their boss. And Ramya fails to understand why her behaviour is such a trouble to the others. 

Also, their boss is rather erratic, moody and very unapproachable. He is inflexible, arrogant and believes that he is always right. He refuses to take the opinions of the employees into account, thus, treating them as mere puppets. He always takes the credits and avoids blame. He does not give any feedback on the performance of his employees and does not encourage them to develop into competent individuals. Leena herself has been a victim of her boss' behaviour.

 

Q. Ramya has realized that her behaviour is not going down well with her colleagues. What should she do to change it?

Solution:

Solution: From the options given above, 2 and 5 seem plausible.
If Ramya engages in self-observation, her judgment might be biased. Eliminate option 1.
Reading books is also not a constructive solution to the problem. A face-to-face interaction with the counsellor will be more effective than reading books. Eliminate option 2. Taking the help and advice of friends will not be really effective. They might have a biased view about Ramya since she is close to them. Therefore, option 3 can be eliminated.
Ramya's behaviour is causing a problem to all her colleagues and not only to Leena. Sorting things out only with Leena will not help Ramya. Therefore, option 4 can be eliminated.
Counselling will give Ramya an objective perspective. The counsellor will be better equipped to deal with the problem as he/ she might have dealt with such cases. This vindicates option 5.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

QUESTION: 41

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


Following table gives the details about price indices of three ingredients - Lidocen, Cidocen and Didocen that determine the retail price of a popular soft drink - for different months of the financial year 2007. The indices are calculated using the April prices as base prices. It is further known that the contribution by weight of each ingredient in manufacturing the soft drink remains the same throughout the period.

Q. In how many months was the cost of production of one unit of the soft drink definitely less than that in June? 

Solution:

We need to compare each of the three indices in the months (other than June) with those in the month of June.
If at least one index in a month was less than that in June and the other indices were equal then we can say that the cost in that month was definitely less than that in June. We get the following months by observation: April, July, August, September, November and January i.e. 6 months.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 42

Following table gives the details about price indices of three ingredients - Lidocen, Cidocen and Didocen that determine the retail price of a popular soft drink - for different months of the financial year 2007. The indices are calculated using the April prices as base prices. It is further known that the contribution by weight of each ingredient in manufacturing the soft drink remains the same throughout the period.

Q. In which month was the cost of production of one unit of the  soft drink the highest?

Solution:

By observation, the index value for each of the three ingredients is highest in the month of December.The cost of production of one unit of the soft drink will be the highest in December.Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 43

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


In a certain Tea Festival organized by the Assam Tea Growers Association in Kolkata, different variants of tea powder were subject to scrutiny by acclaimed tea-tasters from across the globe.
The participating tea companies were: Kanan Devan Hills Plantation Co. (KDH), Harrisons Malayalam (HM), United Nilgiri Tea (UNT), Devon Plantations (DP), Puthuthotam Estates (PE), Kolukumalai Tea Estate (KTE), Pullikanam Estate (UE) and Arnakal Estate (AE). The panel of tea tasters comprised of Mridul, Madhav Sarda, Tanveer, J.M.Trinick, William Hall, J.Thomas, Sujoy Sengupta, John Harney, Anand Chatterjee and Edward Bramah. The tea manufactured by the participating companies was presented to the panel of tea tasters for evaluation on certain parameters.


The table below gives the details of the responses of the tea tasters. The responses from the tea tasters were in the form of either approval or non-approval.

1st table gives the details of the number of tea tasters who had approved of a certain tea company:  

The table below gives the details of the number of tea companies that were not approved by the individual tea tasters.

 

Q. Which of the following tea companies did Anand Chaterjee not approve? 

Solution:

Consider the number of approvals received by every tea company and the number of approvals given by every tea taster.
Also, referring to the solution to the previous question, it is known that Arnakal Estate had received two approvals.
Using this data, create a matrix matching each tea company with the respective taster who approved it.
Since every tea taster had approved Kanan Devan Hills Plantation Co. and J.Thomas had approved only one company, it implies that he had approved only Kanan Devan Hills Plantation Co.
Since nine tea tasters had approved Harrisons Malayalam and J.Thomas had approved only one company, every Tea taster except J. Thomas had approved Harrisons Malayalam Since Edward Bramah had approved only two companies, they must be necessarily Kanan Devan Hills Plantation Co and Harrisons Malayalam.
Using similar logic, the companies approved by each tea taster can be found as shown in the table below: 

From the table, Anand Chaterjee had not approved United Nilgiri Tea from the given options.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 44

In a certain Tea Festival organized by the Assam Tea Growers Association in Kolkata, different variants of tea powder were subject to scrutiny by acclaimed tea-tasters from across the globe.
The participating tea companies were: Kanan Devan Hills Plantation Co. (KDH), Harrisons Malayalam (HM), United Nilgiri Tea (UNT), Devon Plantations (DP), Puthuthotam Estates (PE), Kolukumalai Tea Estate (KTE), Pullikanam Estate (UE) and Arnakal Estate (AE). The panel of tea tasters comprised of Mridul, Madhav Sarda, Tanveer, J.M.Trinick, William Hall, J.Thomas, Sujoy Sengupta, John Harney, Anand Chatterjee and Edward Bramah. The tea manufactured by the participating companies was presented to the panel of tea tasters for evaluation on certain parameters.


The table below gives the details of the responses of the tea tasters. The responses from the tea tasters were in the form of either approval or non-approval.

1st table gives the details of the number of tea tasters who had approved of a certain tea company:  

The table below gives the details of the number of tea companies that were not approved by the individual tea tasters.

Q. Which of the following tea companies did J.M.Trinick approve?

Solution:

Consider the table obtained in the solution to the previous question.From this table, J.M. Trinick approved Kolukumalai Tea Estate.Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 45

In a certain Tea Festival organized by the Assam Tea Growers Association in Kolkata, different variants of tea powder were subject to scrutiny by acclaimed tea-tasters from across the globe.
The participating tea companies were: Kanan Devan Hills Plantation Co. (KDH), Harrisons Malayalam (HM), United Nilgiri Tea (UNT), Devon Plantations (DP), Puthuthotam Estates (PE), Kolukumalai Tea Estate (KTE), Pullikanam Estate (UE) and Arnakal Estate (AE). The panel of tea tasters comprised of Mridul, Madhav Sarda, Tanveer, J.M.Trinick, William Hall, J.Thomas, Sujoy Sengupta, John Harney, Anand Chatterjee and Edward Bramah. The tea manufactured by the participating companies was presented to the panel of tea tasters for evaluation on certain parameters.


The table below gives the details of the responses of the tea tasters. The responses from the tea tasters were in the form of either approval or non-approval.

1st table gives the details of the number of tea tasters who had approved of a certain tea company:  

The table below gives the details of the number of tea companies that were not approved by the individual tea tasters.

Q. Of all the eight participating companies what was the number of companies that John Harney had approved but  were not approved by Sujoy Sengupta?

Solution:

The only Tea Company which John Harney had approved but was not approved by Sujoy Sengupta was Puthuthotam Estates.
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 46

Consider a sequence of numbers {an}, where n is a natural number. The sequence is such that; 
an+2 = an+1 / an+1, for all n ≥ 1.
If a1 = a2 = 1, then what is the value of (a2011 / a2009)?  

Solution:

an + 2 = a+ 1 / an + 1
∴ (an + 2 x an + 1) = (an + 1 x an) + 1

Therefore, {an + 1 x an} is an AP with first term =T1 = a1a2 = 1 and common difference = 1
∴ Tn = n = an x an + 1
an+1 = n / an ..(I)
Similarly, we can prove that, 
an = n - 1 / an - 1 ..(II)
Substituting II in I, we get,
an + 1 = an - 1 x (n / n - 1)
a2011 / a2009  = 2010 / 2009
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 47

Each question is followed by two statements labelled as I and II. Decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below:

Mark (1) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Mark (2) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Mark (3) Statement I and Statement II together are sufficient, but neither of the two alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Mark (4) Either Statement I or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Mark (5) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is necessary to answer the question.

 

I. When converted to base 5, X is a six-digit number.
II. When converted to base 6, X is the least five-digit number.

Q. What is the hundred’s digit of the four-digit number X, when X is represented in base 10?

Solution:

Solution: Using statement I alone: The number lies between 55 and 56 i.e., 3125 and 15625.
For more than one values of X in base 10, we get a six-digit number when converted to base 5.
Using statement II alone: The least five-digit number in base 6 = 10000.

(10000)6 = 1 x 64 = (1296)10 Thus, hundred’s digit of x = 2.
Thus, statement II answers the question independently.
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 48

A shopkeeper buys a certain product at a certain price, marks its price up by 20% and offers Rs. 250 discount over that product. Had he marked up the cost price by 35% and offered a discount of Rs. 300 over it then his profit/Loss percentage would have been doubled. Find the actual profit/ Loss(in Rs.) by selling the product.

Solution:

Solution: Let CP of the product be x.
Actual profit, P - 1.2x - 250 - x = 0.2x - 250 Also, 1.35x - 300 - x = 0.35x - 300 = 2P Solving the weo equations we get, x = 4000 So, P = Rs. 550 Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 49

A man bought a brand new bike for his two sons Raju and Hari. But after few days, he sold the bike to another man. The following information is known about the bike:

On a given day, only one son got to ride the bike. Raju didn’t ride the bike for 32 days. Hari didn’t ride the bike for 29 days. Either Raju or Hari rode the bike for 43 days.

How old was the bike when the second man bought it?

Solution:

Let R denote the set of the days on which Raju rode the bike. Let H denote the set of the days on which Hari rode the bike. Let B denote the set of the days for which the first man owned the bike. 
Given, n(R ∩ H) = 0  ..(i)
n(B) - n(R) = 32 ..(ii)
n(B) - n(H) = 29 ..(ii)
n(R ∪ H) = 43 ..(iv)
Using n(R ∪ H) = n(R) + n(H) - n(R ∪ H)

and from (i) and (iv), we get 
n(R) + (H) = 43 ..(v)
Solving (ii), (iii) and (v), we get n(B) = 52
Thus, the bike was 52 days old.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 50

ABCD is a square piece of paper of side 10 cm. It is folded such that B meets D. It is then folded again such that D meets the midpoint of AC. What is the area (in cm2) of the resulting figure?

Solution:

Solution: 

After the first fold, the area of resulting right angled triangle (ACD) is clearly half of the inirial square.  This area = 10 * 10/2 = 50 cm2.
After the second fold, a right angled triangle with perpendicular sides half those of the larger triangle is removed.
Let us denote the base and height of the larger triangle i.e.
ACD by B and H, and the base and height of the smaller triangle by b and h.
The area of the smaller triangle = bh/2 = BH/8 = Area of the larger triangle/4 = 50/4 = 12.5 cm2 The area of the resulting figure = 50 - 12.5 = 37.5 cm2 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 51

In a ΔPQR, PR = 3PQ. From R, RS is drawn perpendicular to the bisector of ∠P. Here S is the point where RS intersects with the bisector of ∠P.  If PS intersects QR at M, then QM / QR  is   

Solution:


By angle bisector theorem,
QM / RM = PQ / PR = 1 / 3
∴ QM / QM + RM = 1 / 1 + 3 = 1 / 4
∴ QM / QR = 1 / 4
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 52

A hexagonal shaped container of height 4√3 cm with uniform cross-section is filled up to the brim with water. Each hexagonal side of the container measures 3 cm. A solid metallic cylinder with uniform cross-sectional area that just fits to the hexagonal cross-section is inserted into the container. If the height of the metallic cylinder 10 cm, the volume of the unoccupied portion of the container is

Solution:

Volume of the hexagonal container = Area of the hexagon x 4√3.
= 6 x √3 / 4 x 32 x 4√3 = 162 cu.cm

As the cylinder just fits the container, radius of the container = DO (i.e., height of an equilateral triangle as shown in the figure above.) Height of an equilateral triangle 
= √3 / 2 x side 
∴ OD = 3√3 / 2 cm

Volume of the part of the cylinder inside the container  
= 4√3 x n(3√3 / 2)2 = 27√3π cu.cm
Required volume - (162 - 27√3π) cu.cm
Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 53

Prof. Veeru Sahasrabuddhe, director of ICE, is a very punctual man. Everyday he leaves his house on his bicycle at 8:00 am sharp for ICE, which is at a distance of 60 km. His speed is always the same. One day he leaves his house at 8:06 am. So he decides to increase the speed of his bicycle by 1 km/hr so that he reaches college at the same time as everyday. At what speed (in kmph) does Prof. Sahasrabuddhe ride his bicycle daily?

Solution:

Let the speed of his bicycle daily be x km/hr.
On that particular day his speed will be (x + 1) km/hr.
As he is 6 minutes late on that particular day, we can say that 
60 / x - 60 / x +1 = 6 / 60
Solving the above equation we get
x2 + x - 600 = 0
∴ x = 24 or x = -25
Negative value is discarded thus speed of his bicycle daily is 24 km/hr.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 54

A triangular garden has corners named A, B and C such that ​B is a right angle. Side AB is of length 6 m and side AC is of length 12 m. Now a person P moves inside the plot such that APB is always a right angle. What is the length of the path covered by P inside the garden?

Solution:

∠Since APB is always a right angle, it must an angle inscribed in a semi-circle with diameter AB. Also, since the length of the hypotenuse of the garden is 12 m and one of the sides is 6 m, the triangle must be a 30-60-90 triangle. Thus, we have 

Arc DB is the path traces by P.
In ΔAED, m∠A = 60° and AE = DE = 3
⇒ m∠D = 60°
⇒ m∠DEB = (60 + 60)° = 120°
As shown in the figure, the length of the path = 120 / 360 x 2 x π x 3 = 6.28m
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 55

In the figure shown below, ABC is a triangle with ∠A = 45°. P and Q are the points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that PQ is parallel to BC. Also, the diagonals of the trapezium PQCB i.e. BQ and PC intersect at right angles. If PQ = 6 cm and BC = 14 cm, find the area (in cm2) of the trapezoid PQCB.  

  

Solution:

We have ∠M = 90°.
Area of the trapezium PQBC = Area of ΔPBQ + Area of ΔCBQ 
= 1 / 2(BQ x PM) + 1 / 2(BQ x CM)
= 1 / 2 BQ (PM + CM)
= 1 / 2(BQ x CP)
we have ∠PQM ≌ ∠CBM  ...(∵PQ ║ BC)
∠QPM ≌ ∠BCM ...(∵PQ ║ BC)
Also, ∠QMP ≌ ∠BMC ..(vertically opposite)
Hence ΔPMQ ~ ΔCMB ..(A-A-A Test of similarity)

∴ PM / CM = MQ / MB = PQ / BC = 6 / 14 = 3 / 7
Let PM = 3x ⇒ CM = 7y
Also let MQ = 3y ⇒ MB = 7y
Thus we have CP = 10x & BQ = 10y.
Hence, area of the trapezium
PQCB = 1 /2 x 10x x 10y = 50xy
Let ∠PBM = α & ∠QCM = β
In ΔABC, ∠B + ∠C = 135°
(Since ∠A = 45° is given)
i.e. ∠PBM + ∠MBC + ∠QCM + ∠MCB = 135°
∴ α + ∠MBC + β + ∠MCB = 135°
∴ α + β = 45°
+ ∠MCB = 90°
We have,
Now, tanα = 3x / 7y and tanβ = 3y / 7x
tan(α + β) = ​tanα + tanβ / 1 -  ​tanα + tanβ
∴ tan 45 = 3x / 7y + 3y / 7x / 1 -  (3x / 7y) + (3y / 7x)
∴ 1 = 21(x2 + y2) / 49xy / 1 - 9 / 49
i.e. xy = 21(x2 + y2
From ΔPMQ, we have 
9x2 + 9y2 = 36
⇒ x2 + y2 = 4
∴ xy = 21 / 10
∴ Area of trapezoid PQCB = 50 x xy = 105 cm2
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 56

If g is a real-valued function such that g(x) + 2g(1002/x) = 5x, where x is not equal to 0, then what is the value of g(3)?

Solution:

Solution: Substituting x = 3 we get, g(3) + 2g( 1002/3) = 5 x3.

g(3)+ 2g(334) = 15 ... (i)

Substituting x = 334 we get, g(334) + 2g(1002/334) = 5 x 334. so  g(334) + 2g(3)= 1670 ... (ii) We have two unknowns i.e. g(3) and g(334) and we have two equations. Thus, solving (i) and (ii) simultaneously, we get, g(3) = 3325/3 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 57

A total of 972B chocolates are distributed amongst a certain number of people such that each of them gets 327B chocolates. Find the value of B.

Solution:

972B = 9B2 + 7B + 2 and 327B = 3B2 + 2B + 7 Now, 4(3B2 + 2B + 7) = 12B2 + 8B + 28 which is much greater than 9B2 + 7B + 2.
Hence, 972B must be either the 2nd or 3rd multiple of 327B.
Now, 2(3B2 + 2B + 7) = 6B2 + 4B + 14 If 972B is the 2nd multiple of 327B, then 9B2 + 7B + 2 = 6B2 + 4B + 14
3B2 + 3B - 12 = 0
Here, we do not get any integral value of B. Hence, 972B must be the 3rd multiple of 327B.

9B2 + 7B + 2 = 3(3B2 + 2B + 7) 
B = 19
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 58

A and B are only inlets and C is an outlet of a circular water tank. A and B take 30 and 40 minutes respectively to fill the whole tank independently. Outlet C takes 50 minutes to empty the completely filled tank. Initially the tank is empty and inlet A is put on for a minute then it is closed and outlet C is put on for one minute; then it is closed. Now, inlet B is opened for one minute and then closed followed by putting on outlet C for 1 minute. Once the tank is full, the cycle is stopped at the end of the minute. After how many minutes the cycle should be stopped?

Solution:

Solution: Let volume of the tank be 600x litres.
Inlets A and B will fill 20x and 15x litres of water in the tank in one minute. Outlet C will let go 12x litres of water in a minute.
After a cycle of 4 minutes the tank will have (20 - 12 + 15 - 12)x = 11x litres of water.
At the end of 54 ‘4 minute cycles’, tank will have 54 x 11x = 594x litres.
Now, at the 53rd cycle the tank will have 583x litres of water. 20x litres of water will be added in the next minute.

In the (53 x 4) + 1 = 213rd minute the tank will overflow.
Thus, after 213 minutes the cycle should be stopped. Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 59

A sum of Rs. 66,000,000.00 is divided among Tad, Barney and Marshall in such way that if Barney’s amount is increased by Rs. 200.000. 00 and Tad and Marshall’s amounts are reduced by Rs. 500.000. 00 and Rs. 1,700,000.00 respectively, the resulting amounts will be in the ratio 4 : 5 : 7 respectively. The ratio of their actual amounts is:

Solution:

If their amounts were decreased or increased as specified, the given sum will reduce to Rs. (66,000,000 + 200,000 - 500,000 - 1,700,000) = Rs. 64,000,000
Now, their increased or decreased amounts will be in the ratio 4 : 5 : 7 
∴ Tad's actual amount - 500000 = 4 / 4 + 5 + 7 x 64,000,000 = 16,000,000
i.e., Tad's actual amount = Rs. (16,000,000 + 500,000) = Rs.16,500,000
∴ Barney's actual amount + 2,000,00 = 5 / 4 + 5 + 7 x 64,000,000 = 20,000,000
Barney’s actual amount = Rs. (20,000,000 - 200,000)= Rs. 19,800,000.  
∴ Marshall's actual amount - 17,00,000 = 7 / 4 + 5 + 7 x 64,000,000 = 28,000,000
Marshall’s actual amount = Rs. (28,000,000 + 1,700,000)= Rs. 29,700,000 Ratio of their actual amount = 16,500,000 : 19,800,000 : 29,700,000
= 165:198:297
= 5 : 6 : 9
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 60

If p and q are integers and (p x q)1/2 = 20 then which of the following can not be the value of p + q?

Solution:

Solution: V (p x q)1/2 = 20

p x q = 400 Now we check options, one by one, as follows: Option 1.

80 x 5 = 400 and 80 + 5 = 85

Option 2. 25 x 16 = 400 and 25+ 16 = 41 Option 3. 50 x 8 = 400 and 50 + 8 = 58 Option 4. 40 x 10 = 400 and 40 + 10 = 50 Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 61

A man distributed some chocolates among his three children A, B and C (everyone gets at least 4 chocolates). If the man took back one chocolate from C, the total number of chocolates of A and B would be equal to that of C. The number of chocolates of B is the average of number of chocolates of A and C. If B gave 2/3rd of the number of chocolates he had to A, A gave one 2 chocolate to C and then if C gave 2/5th of the number of chocolates he then had to B, then all of them would have equal number of chocolates. How many chocolates did the man distribute?

Solution:

Let x, y and z be the number of chocolates given to A, B and C respectively. 
From the first condition,
z - 1 = x + y ⇒ x + y - z = -1 ...(i)
From the second condition,
x + z / 2 = y ⇒ x - 2y + z = 0 ..(ii)
From the third condition,
x + 2 / 3 y - 1 = 3 / 5(z + 1) = 1 / 3y + 2 / 5(z + 1)
∴ 15x + 10y - 15 = 9z + 9 and 9z + 9 = 5y + 6z + 6
i.e., 15x + 10y - 9z = 24 ..(iii)
and 5y - 3z = 3...(iv)
∴ Subtracting (ii) from (i); we get 
⇒ 3y - 2z = 3 ...(v)
Solving (iv) and (v); we get y = 9, z = 14
From (i), we get x = 4 We can check that values of x, y and z satisfy equation (iii) x + y + z = 27 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 62

If |x - 3| + |x + 9| = 14 then what is the difference between maximum and minimum possible absolute values of x?

Solution:

Case I: x ≥ 3
∴ (x - 3) + (x + 9) = 14
∴ x = 4
Case II: 3 ≥ x ≥ -9
∴ (3 - x) + (x + 9) = 14
This case is not possible.
Case III: x ≤ -9
∴ (3 - x) - (x + 9) = 14
∴ x = -10
The difference between the maximum and the minimum absolute values of x = 10 - 4 = 6 Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 63

Neha has drawn a diagram on a graph paper. It has a rectangle PQRS of area 40 square units which is inscribed in square ABCD of area 98 square units. Every side of the square has one vertex of the rectangle on it. The sides of the rectangle are in the ratio 5 : 2. An ant starts from point A(-2, 2) to P(0, 0). Then it goes to Q, which is on x-axis then to C. After that it returns to A via R and S. It traverse along the sides of square/rectangle. How much distance does the insect covers?

Solution:

The area of the rectangle is 40 sq. units and the sides are in the ratio 5 : 2 so the sides of the rectangle are 10 units and 4 units.
From the data, we can have diagram as given below.  

AP = √(2 - 0)2 + (-2 - 0)2 = 2√2
QC = √(0 - 2)2 + (10 - 12)2 = 2√2
CR = √(2 - 4)2 + (12 - 10)2 = 2√2
SA = √(4 - 2)2 + (0 -  (-0))2 = 2√2
∴ Total distance = 10 + 10 + 8√2 = 20 + 8√2 ≈ 31.28
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 64

Consider the expression
(a + 2b) (b + 3c) (c + 4d) .........(y + 26z) (z + a) / abc...z 
Where a, b, c, d , ...... z are positive integers. The minimum value of the expression is  

Solution:

By AM-GM inequality
a + 2b / 2 ≥ √2ab
∴ a + 2b / √ab ≥ 2√2
Similarly,
b + 3c / √bc ≥ 2√3
c + 4d / √cd ≥ 2√4
y + 26z / √yz ≥ 2√26
z + a / √za ≥ 2
Multiplying, we get
(a + 2b) (b + 3c) (c + 4d)......(y + 26z) (z +a) / abc...z ≥ 226 x √26!
Hence, option 2.

QUESTION: 65

in the figure shown below, AB is the diameter of the circle with centre O. CE and AB when extended meet at D. If AB = 10 units, ED = 5 units and m∠EDB = 30°, what is the measure of ∠CEA?   

 

Solution:

Diameter = AB = 10 units => Radius = OA = OE = OB = 5 units 
In ΔOED; OE = ED = 5 units and m∠D = 30° .so m∠EOB = 30°
∴ m(arc EB) =  30°
m∠CDA = 1 / 2 (m(arc CA) - m(arc EB)
30 = 1 / 2 (m(arc CA) - 30)
Solving this, we get
m(arc CA) = 90°
∴ m∠CEA = 1 / 2 x 90 = 45°
Hence, option 3.
Alternatively,
In ΔOED;
OE = ED = 5 units and m∠D = 30°
∴ m∠EOB = 30°
∠CEO  is an exterior angle of ΔOED
∴  m∠CEO = (30 + 30)° = 60°
In  ΔAOE;
OE = OA = 5 units
∴ ∠OAE ≌ ∠OEA
∠EOD is an exterior angle of ΔAOE.
∴ m∠EOD = m∠OAE + m∠OEA = m∠OEA + m∠OEA = 2
∴ 30 = 2 x m∠OEA
15 = m∠OEA
m∠CEA = m∠CEO - m∠OEA = 60 - 15 = 45° Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 66

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.


The following graph gives the number of students in all classes at Naval School in the year 2006 and 2007. The state regulations ensure that not more than 25% students fail in a class and the school management policy is to at least fail 10% students in each class. Students join the school only in class 6 and do not leave until they pass out of class 10.  


 

Q. The number of students who passed out of the school in the year 2006 is   

Solution:

It is given that new students join the school only in class 6 and students leave the school only after they pass out of class 10.
Also the pass percentage in any class was from 75% to 90%.
For each class let x represent the number of students who passed and y represent the number of students who failed.
The number of students who passed in class 6 in 2006 is given by 
75 / 100 x 90 ≤ x ≤ 90 / 100 x 90
∴ 68 ≤ x ≤ 81 as x is an integer.
There were 91 students in class 7 in 2007. Out of these came from class 6 and the rest had failed in 7th.
∴ The number of students who failed class 7 in 2006 is given by 
91 - 81 ≤ 91 - 68
∴ 10 ≤ y ≤ 23

But we know that 10% to 25% students failed in each class. Out of the 80 students in class 7 in 2006, at least 10 and at most 20 failed. 
(greater of 10 and 8) ≤ y ≤ (smaller of 23 and 20)
10 ≤ y ≤ 20

Similarly, out of 90 students in class 6 in 2006 atleast 68 and atmost 72 students must have passed. 68 ≤ x ≤ 81 But out of 91 students in class 7 atleast 8 and atmost 20 could have been the students who failed in class 7, so atleast 71 and atmost 83 students could have come from class 6. 71 ≤ x ≤ 83 From the above inequalities the range of x for class 6 can be written as: 71 ≤ x ≤ 81 Calculating the range of x and y for the remaining classes in a similar manner we get The number of students who passed in class 7 in 2006 is given by 60 ≤ x ≤ 69. The number of students who failed class 8 in 2006 is given by 7 ≤ y ≤ 16. 

The number of students who passed in class 8 in 2006 is given by 53 ≤ x ≤ 63. The number of students who failed class 9 in 2006 is given by
8 8 - 63 ≤ y ≤ 88-53. so  25 ≤ y ≤35
But, out of the 100 students in class 9 in 2006, at least 10 and at most 25 failed. 25 ≤ y ≤ 25. so y = 25.
25 students from 9th failed in 2006.
Using this we have the following:

106 students passed out of the school in the year 2006. Hence, option 1.

QUESTION: 67

The following graph gives the number of students in all classes at Naval School in the year 2006 and 2007. The state regulations ensure that not more than 25% students fail in a class and the school management policy is to at least fail 10% students in each class. Students join the school only in class 6 and do not leave until they pass out of class 10.  


 

Q. Which class had the highest pass percentage in the year 2006?

Solution:

Solution: Class 8 had the highest (90%) percentage of students passing in the year 2006.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 68

The following graph gives the number of students in all classes at Naval School in the year 2006 and 2007. The state regulations ensure that not more than 25% students fail in a class and the school management policy is to at least fail 10% students in each class. Students join the school only in class 6 and do not leave until they pass out of class 10.  


 

Q. The number of students who joined the school in 2007 was

Solution:

Solution: Out of the 85 students in class 6 in 2007, 10 had failed in class 6 in 2006. .*.85-10 = 75 students were new 75 students joined the school in 2007.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 69

The following graph gives the number of students in all classes at Naval School in the year 2006 and 2007. The state regulations ensure that not more than 25% students fail in a class and the school management policy is to at least fail 10% students in each class. Students join the school only in class 6 and do not leave until they pass out of class 10.  


 

Q. The total number of students of the school who failed in the  year 2006 was

Solution:

Solution: Total number of students who failed = 10 + 11 + 7 + 25+14 = 67
Hence, option 4.

QUESTION: 70

Group Question

Answer the following question based on the information given below.

 

4 FMCG companies have been rated by Customers, Stakeholders and Vendors. The table below gives the performance ratings for these companies given by all three categories of respondents on a scale of 1 -10.
The companies that were involved were Asterisk Products, She and He, Zenith Ltd and Peacock Products. However in the table below, the companies were labeled as C1, C2, C3 and C4 not necessarily in that order.

The company which had the maximum total of points was to represent the FMCG sector in the Equity League. It was further known that Stakeholders had given the maximum points to Zenith Ltd. Also, the difference between the total points scored by Asterisk Products and Peacock Products was 0. In case of two or more companies scoring the same total points, the discretionary power of the Equity League Board members was to be used to select any of these 4 companies as a representative.

 

Q. Which company finally represented the FMCG sector in the Equity League? 

Solution:

The total points scored by each of the companies is as under: 

Since stakeholders had given the maximum points to Zenith Ltd, it implies that Zenith Ltd is either C1 or C3.
Also, since the difference between the total points scored by Asterisk Products and Peacock Products was 0, it implies that Asterisk Products and Peacock Products must be C2 and C4 (in no particular order).
It is clear that the company represented by C3 represented the FMCG sector in the Equity League.
Now C3 can be either Zenith Ltd. or She and He.
Therefore, the actual representative of the FMCG sector cannot be determined.
Hence, option 5.

QUESTION: 71

4 FMCG companies have been rated by Customers, Stakeholders and Vendors. The table below gives the performance ratings for these companies given by all three categories of respondents on a scale of 1 -10.
The companies that were involved were Asterisk Products, She and He, Zenith Ltd and Peacock Products. However in the table below, the companies were labeled as C1, C2, C3 and C4 not necessarily in that order.

The company which had the maximum total of points was to represent the FMCG sector in the Equity League. It was further known that Stakeholders had given the maximum points to Zenith Ltd. Also, the difference between the total points scored by Asterisk Products and Peacock Products was 0. In case of two or more companies scoring the same total points, the discretionary power of the Equity League Board members was to be used to select any of these 4 companies as a representative.

 

Q. If C3 was not Zenith then which of the following statements may be true?

 1. Vendors had rated Peacock as the most favoured.

2. C1 was She and He.

3. C2 was Asterisk Products.

Solution:

If C3 was not Zenith, then C3 has to be She and He and Zenith must be C1.
Consider statement 1: The statement “Vendors had rated Peacock as the most favoured” is not true as the Vendors have rated C3 as the most favoured and C3 corresponds to She and He.
Consider statement 2: Statement 2 is incorrect because C1 is She and He.
Consider statement 3: C2 could have been Asterisks Products as one of out Asterisks Products and Peacock Products has to be C2.
Hence, option 3.

QUESTION: 72

4 FMCG companies have been rated by Customers, Stakeholders and Vendors. The table below gives the performance ratings for these companies given by all three categories of respondents on a scale of 1 -10.
The companies that were involved were Asterisk Products, She and He, Zenith Ltd and Peacock Products. However in the table below, the companies were labeled as C1, C2, C3 and C4 not necessarily in that order.

The company which had the maximum total of points was to represent the FMCG sector in the Equity League. It was further known that Stakeholders had given the maximum points to Zenith Ltd. Also, the difference between the total points scored by Asterisk Products and Peacock Products was 0. In case of two or more companies scoring the same total points, the discretionary power of the Equity League Board members was to be used to select any of these 4 companies as a representative.

 

Q. What can be said about following two statements? 

1. If C1 was Zenith, then C4 was Asterisk.

2. If C2 was She and He, then C3 was Asterisk.

3. If C4 was Peacock, then C2 was Asterisk. 

Solution:

Statement 1: If C1 is Zenith, then C4 may or may not be Asterisk.
Statement 2: C2 being She and He actually violates the given conditions in the question, hence is ruled out.
Statement 3: If C4 was Peacock, then C2 must definitely be Asterisk Products.
Hence, option 3.

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