XL Life Science- 2014 GATE Paper (Practice Test)

In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the
Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes
is ____ years.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would
it take to double at this growth rate?

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.

In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the
group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group?
Statements
1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.
2. Shiv is elder to Som.

Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of
exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of
the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with
exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data
point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis.
From “BIG DATA” Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier
The main point of the paragraph is:

The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below.
The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of
exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through
export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total
revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1
per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram?

X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is
1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km?

10% of the population in a town is HIV⁺. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this
kit correctly identifies HIV⁺ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV⁻ individuals 89% of the time. A
particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the
individual is actually positive is _______

Q. 11 – Q. 15 carry one mark each.

Q.

Hybridizations of nitrogen in  respectively are

Potassium metal crystallizes in the body-centered cubic structure. The number of atoms per unit
cell is equal to

Assuming ideal condition, the solution that has the highest freezing point is

The major product formed in the following reaction is

The acid that undergoes decarboxylation most readily upon heating is

Q. 16 – Q. 25 carry two marks each.

Q.

A ball of mass 330 g is moving with a constant speed, and its associated de Broglie wavelength is
1 × 10⁻³³ m. The speed of the ball is _________ m s^–1. (h = 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ J s)

Diphosphonic acid (H₄P₂O₅) has no P ? P bond. This acid is

The magnetic moment of an octahedral Co(II) complex is approximately 4.0 μB (atomic number of
Co is 27). The CFSE for this complex, in Δ_o units, is _______

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

The complex ion [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺ (atomic number of Cr is 24) exhibits

Assuming ideal behavior, the density of fluorine gas at 20 °C and 0.3 atm is ____ g L^–1.
(Molecular weight of F₂ = 38 g mol^–1, R = 0.082 L atm mol^–1 K^–1)

For a first order reaction, the time required for 50% completion is 20 minutes. The time required for
99.9% completion of the reaction is ______ minutes

At 298 K, the bond dissociation energies of C–H, C–C and C=C are 415, 344 and 615 kJ mol^–1,
respectively. The enthalpy of atomization of carbon is 717 kJ mol^–1 and that of hydrogen is
218 kJ mol^–1. The heat of formation of naphthalene at 298 K is ______ kJ mol^–1.

The Fisher projection that represents (2R,3S)-2,3-dihydroxybutanoic acid is

A hydrocarbon that undergoes ozonolysis (reaction with ozone followed by reduction with Me₂S)
to form formaldehyde and glyoxal is

The order of acidity of the following acids is

Q. 26 – Q. 35 carry one mark each.

Q.

During an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the equilibrium constant

A mixture of Arginine, Phenylalanine and Histidine was fractionated using cation exchange
chromatography at neutral pH. The amino acids were eluted with an increasing salt gradient. Identify
the correct order of elution.

Which one of the following proteases does NOT cleave on the carboxyl side of any Arginine
residue in a protein?

The receptor for epinephrine is a

Choose the option with two reducing sugars

The affinity of an antibody can be determined quantitatively by

Which one of the following molecules is an allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase-1?

For a single substrate enzyme, a reaction is carried out at a substrate concentration four times the
value of K_m. The observed initial velocity will be _________ % of V_max.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Consider the following biochemical reaction:
Fructose 6-phosphate + ATP → Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate + ADP

The equilibrium constant under biochemical standard conditions (K'_eq) for the above reaction is 254.
The standard free energy change (ΔG'°) for the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate is _______
kJ/mol.

Given below is the hydropathy plot of a monomeric transmembrane protein

How many transmembrane α-helices are present in the protein?

Q. 36 – Q. 45 carry two marks each.

Q.

An aqueous solution contains two compounds X and Y. This solution gave absorbance values of 1.0
and 0.4 at 220 and 280 nm, respectively, in a 1 cm path length cell. Molar absorption coefficients (ε)
of the compounds X and Y are as shown in the table below.

The concentration of Y in the solution is___________ mM.

A purified oligomeric protein was analyzed by SDS-PAGE under reducing and non-reducing
conditions. A one litre solution of 1 mg/ml concentration has 4.01 × 1018 molecules of the oligomeric
protein. Based on the data shown below, deduce the total number of polypeptide chains that constitute
this protein.

The concentration of Mg²⁺ ions outside a cell is twice the concentration inside. If the transmembrane
potential of the cell is –60 mV (inside negative), the free energy change of transporting Mg²⁺ ions
across the membrane against the concentration gradient at 37 °C is __________ kJ/mol.
Faraday constant: 96.5 kJ/V mol

Match the entries in Group I with those in Group II

The kinetic data for a single substrate enzyme is shown below. The concentration of inhibitor [I] used
in the reaction was equal to the Ki of the inhibitor. The K_m value of an uninhibited reaction is
2 x 10^-5 M. In the presence of the inhibitor, the observed K_m value is _____x 10^-5 M.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

One litre of phosphate buffer was prepared by adding 208 grams of Na₂HPO₄ (Mol. wt. 142) and 71
grams of NaH₂PO₄ (Mol. wt. 120) in water. If the pKa for the dissociation of 
 and H⁺ is 6.86, the pH of the buffer will be _____________.

Shown below is an electrospray ionization mass spectrum of a protein:

The numbers written on top of the peaks are the m/z values. The mass of the protein deduced from
the given data is ___________ kDa.

A human gene has only three exons (I, II and III in the given order). Total RNA was isolated from
cultured human kidney cells and reverse transcribed. The resultant cDNA was used as a template in
a PCR reaction containing a forward primer specific to Exon I and a reverse primer specific to Exon
III. When the PCR product was analyzed by gel electrophoresis, two bands were observed of sizes
2.5 kb and 1 kb. However, when Northern blotting was performed with the same total RNA using a
radiolabeled probe specific to Exon II, only one band was observed. Based on these observations,
which one of the following statements is FALSE ?

Using the Sanger’s dideoxy chain termination method, a particular exonic region of a protein coding
gene was sequenced for two individuals referred to as Subject 1 and Subject 2. The figure below
shows a segment of the autoradiogram corresponding to a small window of the DNA sequence.

Which one of the following interpretations is correct for the sequenced DNA fragments ?

A 7 kb DNA molecule of a specific sequence has two EcoRI and one PvuII restriction endonuclease
sites. The restriction sites are shown below. The DNA was completely digested with both EcoRI and
PvuII. The digestion product was purified and added to an appropriately buffered reaction mixture at
37 °C, which contained the Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I and α-³²P dNTPs. After one hour,
the DNA in the reaction product was purified and analyzed by electrophoresis. The bands were
visualized by both ethidium bromide (EtBr) staining and autoradiography. The result is shown below.

Which one of the following restriction maps is in agreement with the above result?

Q. 46 – Q. 55 carry one mark each.

Q.

Plant which grows attached to another plant species but is not a parasitic is known as

An ideal cybrid should have

Transmission Electron Micrograph of fungal cell can usually be distinguished from plant cell due to
lack of P and having less abundant Q. Find the correct combination of P and Q.

Identify the CORRECT answer
RNA interference (RNAi)
P. is an event of post transcriptional gene silencing
Q. works through RNA induced silencing complex

Find the odd one out

Plantibody is the

In a typical oil-seed crop, the matured seeds are enriched with

Match the following products (Column I) with the corresponding plant species (Column II )

The semi-dwarf trait of corn, wheat and rice plants used in breeding program during 1960s resulted
in green revolution. Later this ‘green-revolution gene’ has been identified to be involved in either
signal transduction pathway or biosynthesis of

In classical model to explain the plant-pathogen interaction, the host will not develop the disease
upon the pathogen attack when

Q. 56 – Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.

Select the CORRECT combination from the promoter (Column I), transcription machinery used
(Column II) and target tissue type (Column III) to express a foreign gene in a plant system.

In a plant species, flower colour purple is dominant over white. One such purple-flowered plant
upon selfing produced 35 viable plants, of which 9 were white-flowered and the rest were purpleflowered.
What fraction of these purple-flowered progeny is expected to be pure purple-flowered
line?

Following diagram represents the sequence of genes in a normal chromosome of a plant species:

Match the CORRECT combination for chromosomal mutation using Column - I and Column - II.

Match the nuclei status of mutant plant (Column-I) with the typical chromosome number (Column-
II), when the wild type plant species is having 2N = 46 chromosomes

Match the following reporter genes used in plant transformation experiments with the source of
gene and detection/assay system

Find the CORRECT statements in the context of Global warming effect on plant photosynthesis.
P. Decreasing aqueous solubility of dissolved CO₂ compared to dissolved O₂
Q. Decreasing oxygenase activity of Rubisco relative to carboxylation
R. Enhancing the ratio of CO₂ to O₂ in air equilibrated solution
S. Increasing photorespiration relative to photosynthesis

Statements given below are either TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Find the correct combination.
P. Regulation of cell cycle progression depends on cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) and protease
activity.
Q. In photosynthesis, oxidation of water produces O2 and releases electrons required by
photosystem I (PSI).
R. Photorespiratory reaction occurring in oxidative photosynthetic carbon (C2) pathway involves a
cooperative interaction among three organelles: chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.
S. Ethylene acts as a promoter of senescence and cytokinins act as a senescence antagonist.

Match the following diagrams P, Q, R, and S with the inflorescence type (Column I) and the
corresponding plant species (Column II).

Find the right combination for P, Q, R and S with respect to gametophyte development in flowering
plants.

Match the definition (Column I) with the type of plant community (Column II)

Q. 66 – Q. 75 carry one mark each.

Q.

Most viral capsids have

Intergenic suppression involves mutation in

Which one of the following proteins does NOT bind to a gaseous ligand?

A bacterial culture (5 ×10⁸ cells/ml) is maintained in a chemostat of working volume 10 L. If the
doubling time of the bacteria is 50 min, the required rate of flow of nutrients (in ml/min) is
_______________.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

Rheumatic fever is an example of

Oxygenases that catalyse the initial step in the degradation of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons by
using molecular oxygen belong to which enzyme class?

Which one of the following is NOT involved in horizontal gene transfer?

The principle of immunization was first explained by

Lysozyme catalyzes the breakdown of

Which one of the following microscopic techniques can be used to study the contour of proteins?

Q. 76 – Q. 85 carry two marks each.

Q.

Match compounds in Group I with inhibitory activities in Group II.

Match the organisms with the appropriate growth curves.
(P) Bacteria
(Q) Extracellular virus
(R) Intracellular virus

The length of a coding region in an mRNA is 897 bases. How many amino acids will be there in the
polypeptide synthesized using this mRNA?

Match the media in Group I for screening microbial isolates in Group II.

During a bacterial growth experiment, the total viable cell count at 2 h and 6 h was 1x 10⁴ cells/ml
and 1×10⁹ cells/ml, respectively. The specific growth rate (in h^-1) of the culture is _____________.

The concentration of sodium chloride in the cytoplasm of a Halobacterium sp. was found to be
250 ng/nl. The molarity (in M) of sodium chloride is __________.

Match organisms in Group I with shapes in Group II and flagellar arrangements in Group III.

Lethal dose curves of different microorganisms (1, 2, 3 and 4) are shown below. Which of these
microorganisms are the most lethal?

Match items in Group I with sterilization methods in Group II.

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding recA mutants of E. coli?
(P) Exhibit much reduced recombination
(Q) Do not survive UV irradiation
(R) Show no effect on doubling time
(S) Exhibit pleiotropy

Q. 86 – Q. 95 carry one mark each.

Q.

Small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species and a large number of
endangered and threatened species are known as

Which ONE of the following animals has “Osculum” as an excretory structure?

During development of which ONE of the following organisms, bilateral meroblastic cleavage is
found?

The mitochondrion is NOT considered a part of the endomembrane system on account of which
ONE of the following reasons?

The end products of glycolysis include ATP

The TATA box is found in the vicinity of the transcription start site. The role of this box is to

Which ONE of the following processes does NOT occur in prokaryotic gene expression, but occurs
in eukaryotic gene expression?

In Graves’ disease, the presence of auto antibodies against which ONE of the following molecules
is the direct cause of hyperthyroidism?

In mammals, the two important organs associated with the production and elimination of urea are

Some endocrine glands produce hormones that stimulate functions of other endocrine glands.
Which ONE of the following hormones specifically acts to increase secretion of other hormones?

Q. 96 – Q. 105 carry two marks each

Q.

If the recombination frequency between X - Y loci is 12, X - Z loci is 4, and Y - Z loci is 8, then the
order of the loci on the chromosome is

A cross is made between a white eyed-miniature winged female with a red eyed-normal winged
male of Drosophila melanogaster. Further crossing of F1 female offspring from this cross with a
white eyed-miniature winged male fly gave 95 white eyed-normal winged, 102 red eyed-miniature
winged, 226 red eyed-normal winged and 202 white eyed-miniature winged offspring in F2
generation. What is the percent frequency of recombination between the two genes?

A green fluorescent protein (GFP) encoding gene is fused to a gene encoding specific protein for
expression in cells. What is the advantage of using GFP over staining cells with fluorescently
labeled antibodies that bind to the target protein?

A newborn was accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus. Which ONE of the following
would be the most likely outcome?

One individual has a parasitic worm infection and another is responding to an allergen such as
pollen. Which ONE of the following features is common to both of them?

Five dialysis bags (DB1-DB5), impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of
sucrose. The bags were placed in separate beakers containing 0.6 M sucrose solution. Every 10
minutes, the bags were weighed and the percent change in mass of each bag was plotted as a
function of time.

Which plot in the graph (X-axis representing time in minutes and Y-axis representing mass change
in percentage) represent(s) bags that contain a solution that is hypertonic at 50 minutes?

Which ONE of the following combinations of products will result, when 3 molecules of acetyl CoA
is fed into TCA cycle?

A DNA fragment shown below has restriction sites I and II, which create fragments X, Y, and Z.
Which ONE of the following agarose gel electrophoresis patterns represents the separation of these
fragments?

Theoretically, it is possible to resurrect the extinct woolly mammoth by which ONE of the
following methods?

Regions of higher abundance of cholesterol molecules on the plasma membrane will

Q. 106 – Q. 115 carry one mark each.

Q.

Which one of the following is NOT a source of caffeine?

Yoghurt is prepared using a pair of microorganisms. Choose the correct pair from the following:

Choose the target organism for milk pasteurization from the following:

Hypobaric storage is also known as _______

In a solution of vegetable oil (molecular mass = 292 kg kmol^-1) and ethanol (molecular mass = 46
kg kmol^-1), the concentration of vegetable oil in the solution is measured to be 60% (total mass
basis). Therefore, mole fraction of ethanol in the solution is _______.

An experiment started with 4 numbers of bacterial cells. After nth generation, number of cells
becomes 128. Therefore, value of ‘n’ is _______.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

One ton of refrigeration means one of the following options:

Fruit juice is flowing in a circular pipe (inner diameter 2 cm) at a mass flow rate of 2 kg s^-1 and at a
temperature of 25°C. The density and viscosity of the juice at 25°C are 1045 kg m^-3 and 0.5 Pa s,
respectively. Take π = 22/7. The Reynolds number for this flow will be _______.

Shear stress (τ, Pa) and shear rate (γ, s^-1) relationship of a pseudoplastic fluid follows the Power law
equation given by, τ = kγⁿ = 2.6 γ^0.45, where ‘n’ and ‘k’ are flow behavior index and consistency
index respectively. The apparent viscosity (μ_a) of the fluid at a shear rate of 5 s^-1 is _______ Pa s.

In a sterilization process, D_121.1 value of the target organism is 0.22 minute. Time required for
99.999% inactivation of the target organism at 121.1°C will be _____ minutes.

Q. 116 – Q. 125 carry two marks each.

Q.

A centrifuge having diameter of 10 cm is rotating at 10000 rpm. Take π = 22/7 and g = 9.81 m s^-2.
The ratio of centrifugal force to gravitational force will be _________.

Match the items under Group I with items under Group II

Match the items under Group I with items under Group II

In a counter-current double pipe heat-exchanger, milk is cooled from 110 to 40°C using chilled
water as coolant. Water enters at 5°C and leaves at 60°C. Heat flux for the system with overall heat
transfer coefficient of 950 W m^-2 K^-1 will be ______ W m^-2.

Saturated steam at 100°C is injected at 0.2 kg s^-1 into air stream flowing at 3 kg s^-1 and 25°C. Air
contains 0.012 kg moisture per kg dry air. If the atmospheric pressure is 101.1 kPa, absolute
humidity of air will be _____kg kg^-1.

In an evaporator, milk is concentrated from 9.8% TSS to 52% TSS. Assume the solutes in the milk
are non-volatile. The amount of vapour produced for 100 kg feed will be _______ kg.

Water enters a cylindrical tank at a steady uniform rate of 0.1 m3 s^-1; simultaneously water is
discharged from the tank through an orifice (area 0.05 m²) located at the bottom of the tank. Initial
level of water in the tank from the bottom is 5 m. If the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m s^-2 and
coefficient of discharge = 0.30, the final value of the steady-state height of water level from the
bottom of tank is _______ m.

Match the following between Group I and Group II in relation to pretreatments

A chocolate mix at 100°C is flowing through a 2 cm diameter and 4 m long stainless steel tube at
13.2 kg per minute. The density of the mix is 1750 kg m^-3 and its viscosity at 100°C is 2 Pa s. Take
π = 22/7. The pressure drop for this flow will be ________ Pa.

(Important : you should answer only the numeric value)

In a tray dryer, 100 kg of a vegetable material in a suitably reduced form is dried to yield a final
product of 75 kg. The dried sample of 5 g, when kept in an oven at 105°C for 24 hours results in
3.56 g of dry matter. The moisture content of the vegetable, before drying, in dry basis
is_______%.