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Practice Test: Polity- 1 - UPSC MCQ


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50 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 - Practice Test: Polity- 1

Practice Test: Polity- 1 for UPSC 2024 is part of Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2025 preparation. The Practice Test: Polity- 1 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Practice Test: Polity- 1 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Practice Test: Polity- 1 below.
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Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 1

Consider the following statement regarding changes made by the Indian Independence Act of 1947 in the position of Constituent Assembly.
a. The Constituent Assembly was made a fully sovereign body.
b. The Constituent Assembly became the first Parliament of free India.
c. When the Constituent Assembly met as the Legislative body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendr Prasad.
d. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly came down to 299 as against 389.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 1

Key Points

  • The Constituent Assembly first met as the Legislative body on 9th December 1946.
  • The first meeting was held in the constitution hall (now the Central Hall of Parliament House).
  • When the Constituent Assembly met as the Legislative body Sachchidananda Sinha presided over it (Temporarily).
  • Hence statement c is not correct.
  • The Constituent Assembly was made a fully sovereign body.
  • The Constituent Assembly became the first Parliament of free India.
  • Since the representatives of the areas incorporated into Pakistan ceased to be members of the Constituent Assembly of India
  • The total strength of the Constituent Assembly came down to 299 as against 389.

Hence statement a, b and d are correct.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 2

The language and ideals of the Preamble of Constitution of India is influenced / borrowed from which of the following constitution(s)?
1. USA
2. France
3. Australia
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 2

Key Points

  • The American Constitution was the first to incorporate a Preamble.
    • So, the term and idea of the Preamble were borrowed from the Constitution of the United States of America.
    • The ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity are borrowed from the French Constitution.
    • But, the language of the Preamble is borrowed from the Constitution of Australia.
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Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 3

The writ of prohibition is not available against:
1. Quasi-judicial authority
2. Administrative authority
3. Legislative body
Choose from the following options.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 3

The Correct Answer is option (b) 2 and 3 Only.

  • The writ of prohibition is not available against administrative authorities and legislative bodies.
  • It is primarily used to control or restrain judicial or quasi-judicial authorities from exceeding their jurisdiction or acting in excess of their authority. Administrative authorities perform executive functions, and legislative bodies exercise legislative functions, which are outside the scope of the writ of prohibition.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option (b) 2 and 3 Only. The writ of prohibition is not available against administrative authorities and legislative bodies.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 4

The writ of mandamus cannot be issued:
1. Against a private individual or body
2. To enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force
3. When the duty is mandatory
Choose from the following options.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 4

The correct answer is option (a) 1 and 2 Only.
The writ of mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual or body, and it cannot be used to enforce departmental instructions that do not possess statutory force.

1. Against a private individual or body: The writ of mandamus is primarily used to compel public officials or bodies to perform their public or statutory duties. It is not applicable to private individuals or bodies as they do not have a statutory duty to perform.
2. To enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force: The writ of mandamus can only be used to enforce a legal duty that is backed by a statute or a legal provision. It cannot be employed to enforce mere departmental instructions that do not have the force of law.
However, statement 3 is incorrect. The writ of mandamus can be issued when the duty in question is mandatory and the petitioner has a legal right to enforce that duty.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (a) 1 and 2 Only. The writ of mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual or body, and it cannot be used to enforce departmental instructions that do not possess statutory force.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 5

Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): The constitution authorises the President to suspend the right to move any court to enforce certain Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
Reason (R): All fundamental rights are automatically suspended with a proclamation of National Emergency.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 5
  • Article 359 authorises the President to suspend the right to constitutional remedies to enforce Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
  • This means that under Article 359, the Fundamental Rights are not suspended, but only their enforcement. The rights are theoretically alive, but the right to seek remedy is suspended.

The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the Presidential Order. It does not apply to all fundamental rights. So, R is wrong.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 6

Consider the following statements about the office of the President of India.
1. No person has occupied the office for more than one complete term.
2. Every President has served the full term of office.
Q. Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 6
  • Dr Rajendra Prasad has served for two terms (1950-1962), and apart from him, none has served more than once.
  • Statement 2: So far, two Presidents, Dr Zakir Hussain and Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed, have died during their term of office.
  • For example, when President Dr Zakir Hussain died in May 1969, the then Vice- President, V.V. Giri was acting as the President.
  • Soon after V.V. Giri resigned to contest the President's election, then, the Chief Justice of India, M. Hidayatullah worked as the officiating President.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 7

Consider the following statements about Cabinet Committees:
1. They are not mentioned in the Constitution.
2. They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.
3. The Cabinet cannot review the decisions taken by Cabinet Committees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 7

CABINET COMMITTEES

​The following are the features of Cabinet Committees:

  • They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned in the Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment.
  • They are of two types–standing and ad hoc.
    • The former is of a permanent nature while the latter is of a temporary nature.
    • The ad hoc committees are constituted from time to time to deal with special problems. They are disbanded after their task is completed.

They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition vary from time to time.

  • Their membership varies from three to eight.
    • They usually include only Cabinet Ministers.
    • However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership.
    • They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other senior Ministers
  • They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Some times other Cabinet Ministers, particularly the Home Minister or the Finance Minister, also acts as their Chairman.
    • But, in case the Prime Minister is a member of a committee, he invariably presides over it.
  • They not only sort out issues and formulate proposals for the consideration of the Cabinet but also take decisions.
    • However, the Cabinet can review their decisions. Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct.
  • They are an organisational device to reduce the enormous workload of the Cabinet.
  • They also facilitate in-depth examination of policy issues and effective coordination.
  • They are based on the principles of division of labour and effective delegation.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 8

Consider the following concerning the relationship between the President, Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
1. In normal circumstances, the council of Ministers' advice is constitutionally binding on the President.
2. The nature of advice tendered by ministers to the President can be enquired by a higher court to ascertain malpractices in administration.
3. The council of ministers ceases to hold office immediately after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha by the President.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 8
  • Article 74 provides for a council of ministers with the prime minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. The 42nd and 44th Constitutional Amendment Acts have made the advice binding on the President.
  • Further, the nature of advice tendered by ministers to the President cannot be enquired by any court. This provision emphasises the intimate and confidential relationship between the President and the ministers.
  • In 1971, the Supreme Court held that 'even after the Lok Sabha's dissolution, the council of ministers does not cease to hold office'.
  • Article 74 is mandatory and, therefore, the president cannot exercise the executive power without the aid and advise of the council of ministers.
  • Any executive power exercise without the aid and advice will be unconstitutional as being violative of Article 74.
  • In 1974, the court held that 'wherever the Constitution requires the President's satisfaction, the satisfaction is not the President's personal satisfaction, but it is the satisfaction of the council of ministers with whose aid and on whose advice the President exercises his powers and functions'.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 137 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders
2. It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it. Any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review 
Which of these statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 9

Supreme Court will review Sabarimala judgment and a review plea is set to be moved over Ayodhya verdict too. About: Article 137 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders. The court has the power to review its rulings to correct a “patent error” and not “minor mistakes of inconsequential import”. Grounds for review petition: In a 2013 ruling, the Supreme Court itself laid down three grounds for seeking a review of a verdict it has delivered — the discovery of new and important matter or evidence which was not within the knowledge of the petitioner or could not be produced by him; mistake or error apparent on the face of the record; or any other sufficient reason which means a reason that is analogous to the other two grounds. Who can file a review petition? It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it. Any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review. Time frame: As per 1996 rules framed by the Supreme Court, a review petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of judgment or order. While a judgment is a final decision in a case, an order is an interim ruling that is subject to its final verdict.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 10

Consider the following statements.
1. Judiciary is the final interpreter of the Constitution
2. Judiciary has the final power to strike down laws passed by the Parliament if they violate the Constitution's basic structure of the constitution.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 10
  • This means that if a dispute arises regarding the meaning of specific provisions of the constitution, the court gives the final version of the meaning of those specific provisions, for example, the Right to Life under Article 21 of the constitution. 
  • It is the power of judicial review. Under judicial review powers, the judiciary can strike down laws, administrative acts, and even constitutional amendments if they violate the constitution or the constitution's basic premises.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 11

Consider the following statements with respect to Freedom of Religion enshrined in the Constitution:
1. It includes the freedom to not follow any religion.
2. It bars all religious conversions.
3. It is not applicable to foreign nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 11
  • Freedom of Religion is a Fundamental Right provided under Articles 25-28 of the Constitution. Freedom of religion also includes the freedom of conscience. This means that a person may choose any religion or may choose not to follow any religion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Freedom of Religion includes the right to not just practice one’s religion but also to propagate it. This includes persuading people to join one’s religion and willful conversion from one religion to another. The Constitution bars forceful conversions and conversions done by inducements. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Freedom of Religion is available to not just Indian citizens but also to foreign nationals residing within Indian territory. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 12

Consider the following statements. 
1. The Oath of office to the Governor is administered by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court 
2. In the absence of chief justice of the Supreme Court, The Oath is administered by the senior-most judge of the Court 
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 12

The oath of office to the governor is administered by the chief justice of the concerned state high court and in his absence, the senior-most judge of that court available.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 13

Consider the following statements.
1. The Chief Minister cannot be dismissed by the Governor as long as he enjoys the majority support in the legislative assembly.
2. The salary and allowances of the chief minister are determined by the state legislature.
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 13

The salary and allowances of the chief minister are determined by the state legislature.
As long as the CM enjoys the majority support in the legislative assembly, he cannot be dismissed by the Governor. However, if he loses the confidence of the legislative assembly, he must resign or the Governor can dismiss him.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 14

Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Conduct of business of the Government of a State - Article 166
2. Council of Ministers to aid and advise governor - Article 164
3. Duties of Chief Minister - Article 167
Choose from the following options.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 14

Article No. 163 - Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor Article 164 - Other provisions as to Ministers Article 166 - Conduct of business of the Government of a State Article 167 - Duties of Chief Minister
So, correct answer is Option C.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 15

Consider the following statements about the Legislative Council.
1. The vacant seats are filled up by fresh elections and nominations at the beginning of every third year
2. The retiring members are not eligible for re-election and re-nomination any number of times
Which of these statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 15
  • Members are now elected or nominated for six years and one-third of them retire on the expiration of every second year, so a member continues as such for six years. The vacant seats are filled up by fresh elections and nominations (by Governor) at the beginning of every third year.
  • The retiring members are also eligible for re-election and re-nomination any number of times. The Presiding Officers of Vidhan Parishad are Chairman and Deputy Chairman.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 16

Consider the following statements of the power of the Superintendence of the High Court.
1. The High Court has this power over all courts and tribunals including those dealing with the armed forces functioning in the state
2. In the exercise of this power it may May issue general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of such courts
Which of these statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 16

The High Court has this power over all courts and tribunals except those dealing with the armed forces functioning in the state. Hence in the exercise of this power it may –

  • Call for return from such courts
  • May issue general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of such courts
  • Prescribe the form in which books and accounts are being kept by the officers of any court
  • Settle fees payable to the sheriff clerks, officers and legal practitioners
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 17

Consider the following statements. 
1. At the lowest level, on the civil side, is the Court of Munsiff and on the criminal side, is the Court of Judicial Magistrate 
2. The munsiff possesses limited jurisdiction and decides civil cases of small pecuniary stake 
Which of these statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 17

At the lowest level, on the civil side, is the Court of Munsiff and on the criminal side, is the Court of Judicial Magistrate. The munsiff possess limited jurisdiction and decides civil cases of small pecuniary stake". The judicial magistrate tries criminal cases which are punishable with imprisonment for a term up to three years.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 18

Which of the following sentence/sentences is/are correct? 
1. The High Court of Jammu and Kashmir will be the common High Court for the Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir 
2. The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have an Advocate General to provide legal advice to the government of the Union Territory 
Choose from the following options.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 18

The High Court of Jammu and Kashmir will be the common High Court for the Union Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and Kashmir. Further, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have an Advocate General to provide legal advice to the government of the Union Territory.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 19

With reference to the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution, consider the following pairs:


How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 19
  • The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule.
  • The Union List consists of 98 subjects (originally 97), the State List 59 subjects (originally 66) and the Concurrent List 52 subjects (originally 47).
  • Both the Centre and the states can make laws on the subjects of the concurrent list, but in case of a conflict, the Central law prevails. The residuary subjects (ie, which are not mentioned in any of the three lists) are given to the Centre.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 20

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency?
1. Centre acquires full control over the states in financial matters.
2. President may reserve all money bills or other financial bills for consideration after they are passed by the legislature of
the state.
3. President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court and the
high court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 20
  • Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a FinancialEmergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
  • The consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency are as follows:
    • The executive authority of the Centre extends to the giving of  directions to any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions, and  such other directions to any state as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose. o Any such direction may include a provision requiring  the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in the state; and  the reservation of all money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the legislature of the state. Hence statement 2 is correct. o The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of  all or any class of persons serving the Union; and the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court. Hence statement 3 is correct. o Thus, during the operation of a financial emergency, the Centre acquires full control over the states in financial matters. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 21

Which of the following rights are assured under the Right to Life and Liberty of the Indian Constitution?
1. Right to die through Passive Euthanasia
2. Right to appropriate Life Insurance Policy
3. Right not to be subjected to Narco Analysis test
4. Right to travel abroad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 21

Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. The rights that are assured under this Article are,

  • The Right to die with dignity (Allowed Passive Euthanasia under certain conditions but not Active Euthanasia but it does not include the Right to die)
  • Right to freedom from noise pollution
  • Right to appropriate Life Insurance Policy - (LIC of India Vs Consumer Education and Research Centre and others Case)
  • Right to travel abroad
  • Fair and speedy trial in investigations
  • Right against Custodial Violence – (Rajjammal vs State of Tamil Nadu)
  • Right of the Victim not to undergo Narco analysis test – (Sher Singh Vs State of Punjab Case)
  • Ban on Khap panchayats – (Arumugam Servai Vs State of Tamil Nadu case)
  • Right to Information

So, Option (d) is correct
 

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure of the constitution of India:
1. A constitutional amendment bill cannot be introduced by the nominated members of the Lok sabha.
2. A constitutional amendment bill that seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution must be ratified by the
Legislatures of half of the States by a special majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 22
  • The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:
    • An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either the House of Parliament not in the state legislatures.
    • The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. A nominated member of the Lok sabha can be a minister or a private member. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    • The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
    • Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
    • If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
    • After duly passed by both Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
    • The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
    • After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 23

India was a pioneer when it comes to giving voting rights to the people. In this context, which of the following countries gave universal adult franchises after India? 
1. United States of America
2. Japan
3. France
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 23
  • In the nineteenth century struggles for democracy often centered around political equality, freedom and justice. One major demand was the right for every adult citizen to vote. Many European countries that were becoming more democratic did not initially allow all people to vote.
    • In some countries only people owning property had the right to vote. Often women did not have the right to vote. In the United States of America, the blacks all over the country could not exercise the right to vote until 1965.
      • India granted Universal Adult Franchise to its citizens in 1950, when the Constitution of India came into force declaring India a democratic republic. It is provided under the Article 326 of the Indian Constitution.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 24

Consider the following provisions of the Indian Constitution:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Which one of the following amendments have made changes in all of the given above parts?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 24

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002, has added the following provisions to the Constitution,

  • Fundamental Rights under Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine.
  • DPSP under Article 45 provides promotion for early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
  • Fundamental Duty under Article 51A provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. So, Option (a) is correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 25

Which of the following statements is/arecorrect regarding Fundamental Rights?
1. They are sacrosanct in nature and cannot be amended.
2. They are available against the actions of both State and private individuals.
3. They operate as checks on the tyranny of both executive and the Legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 25
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Fundamental rights can be amended by constitution amendment till they do not violate the basic structure of the constitution and thus they are not sacrosanct.
  • Statement 2 is correct: are available against the actions of both State and private individuals. Few Rights like Abolition of Untouchability etc are available against private citizens also.
  • Statement 3 is correct: These rights limit the power of the Executive and legislature and thus prevent tyranny of the executive and legislature.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 26

Which of the following is/are features of Indian secularism as adopted in the Constitution?
1. Religion is a personal matter and there is no interference by the state.
2. No citizen can be denied entry into any educational institute of the state on the grounds of religion or caste.
3. Every religious denomination has the  right to establish and maintain charitable institutions without any limitation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 26
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Though the word “Secular” was not added to the Preamble initially, the Indian Constitution has been secular from the beginning. It has Freedom of Religion (Art 25-28) and Protection of rights of minorities (Art 29-30) as Fundamental Rights. However, Indian secularism is different from the Western concept of secularism, where religion is treated as a personal matter and there is a strict separation between religion and State. In India, State can regulate economic, political, and secular activities related to religious practices, for example- throwing open Hindu religious institutions to all sections.
  • Statement 2 is correct: As per Art 29(2), no citizen can be denied entry into any educational institute maintained by the State only on the grounds of religion, race, caste, or any of them.
  • Statement 3 is not correct: The Freedom of Religion is not absolute. The Constitution provides for certain limitations on them. For example, every religious denomination has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. But this is subject to restrictions of public order, morality, and health.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 27

Which of the following bodies/institutionsis/are audited totally and directly by the CAG?
1. Reserve Bank of India
2. Oil and Natural Gas Commission
3. Life Insurance Corporation of India
4. State Bank of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 27
  • The role of CAG in the auditing of public corporations is limited. Broadly speaking, his relationship with public corporations falls into the following three categories:
    • Some corporations are audited totally and directly by the CAG, for example, Damodar Valley Corporation, Oil and Natural Gas Commission, and others. Hence option 2 is correct.
    • Some other corporations are audited by private professional auditors who are appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the CAG. If necessary, the CAG can conduct a supplementary audit. Examples are Central Warehousing Corporation, Industrial Finance Corporation, and others.
    • Some other corporations are totally subjected to private audits. In other words, their audit is done exclusively by private professional auditors and the CAG does not come into the picture at all. They submit their annual reports and accounts directly to the Parliament. Examples of such corporations are the Life Insurance Corporation of India, Reserve Bank of India, State Bank of India, Food Corporation of India, and others. Hence options 1, 3, and 4 are not correct.
  • The role of the CAG in the auditing of Government companies is also limited. They are audited by private auditors who are appointed by the Government on the advice of the CAG. The CAG can also undertake a supplementary audit or test audit of such Companies.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 28

Which of the following provisions in the constitution can be amended by a simple majority?
1. Establishment of the new states
2. Termination of citizenship
3. Election of the President
Select the correct code using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 28

Option (b) is correct:
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:

  • Admission or establishment of new states.
  • Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
  • Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
  • Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
  • Quorum in Parliament.
  • Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
  • Rules of procedure in Parliament.
  • Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
  • Use of English language in Parliament.
  • Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
  • Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
  • Use of official language.
  • Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
  • Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
  • Delimitation of constituencies.
  • Union territories.
  • Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
  • Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas. The following provisions can be amended by Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States:
  • Election of the President and its manner.
  • Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
  • Supreme Court and high courts.
  • Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
  • Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
  • Representation of states in Parliament.
  • Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 29

Which of the following renewable-rich states are included under Green Energy Corridor Project?
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Rajasthan
3. Punjab
4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 29

Option (a) is correct:

  • The Green Energy Corridor Project aims at synchronizing electricity produced from renewable sources, such as solar and wind, with conventional power stations in the grid.
  • For evacuation of large-scale renewable energy, Intra State Transmission System (InSTS) project was sanctioned by the Ministry in 2015-16. It is being implemented by eight renewable-rich states of Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
  • The project is being implemented in these states by the respective State Transmission Utilities (STUs). The revised target of the project is to install approx. 9700 ckm transmission lines and substations of a total capacity of approx. 22600 MVA to be completed by December 2020.
  • The purpose is to evacuate over 20,000 MW of large-scale renewable power and improvement of the grid in the implementing states. The Central grant is disbursed in two instalments to the STUs: a) 70% advance on the award of contract, and b) balance 30% after successful commissioning and three months of performance testing.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 30

The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. In this regard, the framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from which of the following?

  1. The Irish Constitution  
  2. Instrument of Instructions enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
  3. Gandhian ideology  
  4. Freedom struggle of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 30

The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937.
The provisions under Directive Principles derived their inspiration from many other sources such as

  • ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
  • Gandhian ideology, was inspired from the program of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement.
  • Noble ideals inspired the national struggle for freedom.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 31

Consider the following statements:
1. The constitution provides the equal representation to the states in Upper House.
2. The Parliament is empowered to legislate on any subject of the State List if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 31
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the
  • membership varies from 1 to 31. In US, on the other hand, the principle of equality of representation of states in the Upper House is fully recognised. Thus, the American Senate has 100 members, two from each state. This principle is regarded as a safeguard for smaller states.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Even in the limited sphere of authority allotted to them, the states do not have exclusive control. The Parliament is empowered to legislate on any subject of the State List if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest. This means that the legislative competence of the Parliament can be extended without amending the Constitution. Notably, this can be done
     
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 32

Consider the following statements regarding the steps taken by the Centre to promote app-based payment systems:

  1. UPI Lite is an 'on-device wallet' feature by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to allow users to make small-value payments of up to ₹1000 offline.
  2. All Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) with NRE (non-resident external) accounts can use the UPI platform from their international mobile numbers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 32
  • Centre has recently cleared Rs. 2600 crore incentive scheme to promote RUPAY, BHIM-UPI.
  • The scheme aims to promote RuPay Debit Cards and low-value BHIM-UPI transactions (person-tomerchant) in FY 2022-23.
  • Features of scheme:
    • Banks would be provided financial incentives for promoting Point of Sale (PoS) and e-commerce transactions using RuPay and UPI.
    • Promote UPI Lite and UPI 123PAY as economical and user-friendly digital payment solutions.
  • UPI Lite is an 'on-device wallet' feature by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to allow users to make small-value payments (upto ₹200) offline. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • UPI 123PAY is an instant payment system for feature phone (non-smartphone) users.
  • In addition, NPCI has allowed Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) with NRE (non-resident external) or NRO (non-resident ordinary) accounts in 10 countries to use the UPI platform from their international mobile numbers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Member banks have to ensure such types of accounts are only allowed as per extant Foreign Exchange Management Act regulations and RBI rules.
  • 10 countries are Singapore, Australia, Canada, Hongkong, Oman, Qatar, USA, Saudi Arabia, UAE, and United Kingdom. UPI works on the principle of SIM binding for security purposes and till now, it was enabled only for Indian mobile numbers.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 33

With reference to the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, consider the following statements:
1. It empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the inter- state river.
2. The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to the dispute.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 33

Option (b) is correct:
Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. It makes two provisions:

  • Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
  • Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint. Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted two laws [the River Boards Act (1956) and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956)]. The River Boards Act provides for the establishment of river boards for the regulation and development of inter-state river and river valleys. A river board is established by the Central government on the request of the state governments concerned to advise them. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley. The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to the dispute. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to have jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute which may be referred to such a tribunal under this Act.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 34

Article 51A of the Indian Constitution provides for the Fundamental Duties. In this context, which of the following acts have a bearing on the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties?

  1. Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971)
  2. Representation of People Act (1951)
  3. Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972  
  4. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of 1967  

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 34

The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) identified the existence of legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties. They are mentioned below:

  • The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971) prevents disrespect to the Constitution of India, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
  • The various criminal laws in force provide punishments for encouraging enmity between different sections of people on grounds of language, race, place of birth, religion and so on.
  • The Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955) provides for punishments for offences related to caste and religion.
  • The Indian Penal Code (IPC) declares the imputations and assertions prejudicial to national integration as punishable offences.
  • The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of 1967 provides for the declaration of a communal organisation as an unlawful association.
  • The Representation of People Act (1951) provides for the disqualification of members of the Parliament or a state legislature for indulging in corrupt practice, that is, soliciting votes on the ground of religion or promoting enmity between different sections of people on grounds of caste, race, language, religion and so on.
  • The Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 prohibits trade in rare and endangered species.
  • The Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980 checks indiscriminate deforestation and diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 35

Consider the following statements with respect to the Preamble of the Constitution of India:

  1. It was not a part of the constitution adopted on 26th November 1949.
  2. It specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives.
  3. It was the first time recognized as part of the constitution in the Berubari Union case in 1960.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 35
  • The American Constitution was the first, to begin with, a Preamble. Many countries, including India, followed this practice. The term ‘Preamble’ refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It contains the summary or essence of the Constitution.
  • The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. It has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words–Socialist, Secular and Integrity.
  • Originally (1949), the Constitution contained a Preamble, 395 Articles (divided into 22 Parts) and 8 Schedules. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:
    • Source of the authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.
    • Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic, and republican polity.
    • Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949, as the date.
  • In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution and is thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution. Further, where the terms used in any article are ambiguous or capable of more than one meaning, some assistance at interpretation may be taken from the objectives enshrined in the Preamble. Despite this recognition of the significance of the Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • The above opinion was reversed in the Keshavananda Bharati case in 1973; Supreme Court held that Preamble is part of the constitution. This opinion was further clarified by the Supreme Court in the LIC of India case (1995).
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 36

In the context Constituent Assembly of India, consider the following pairs: 

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 36
  • The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of constitution- making. Out of these, eight were major committees and the others were minor committees.
    • Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
    • Union Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
    • Provincial Constitution Committee - Sardar Patel. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
    • Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar o Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas - Sardar Patel.
      • This committee had the following five sub-committees:
      • Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee - J.B. Kripalani ▪ Minorities Sub-Committee - H.C. Mukherjee
      • North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub- Committee -Gopinath Bardoloi
      • Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee - A.V. Thakkar
      • North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee8a
    • Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    • States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal Nehru.
    • Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 37

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Information Commission:

  1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body, set up under the Right to Information Act in 2005.
  2. The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 37

The Central Information Commission is a statutory body, set up under the Right to Information Act in 2005 under the Government of India to act upon complaints from those individuals who have not been able to submit information requests to a Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer due to either the officer not have been appointed, or because the respective Central Assistant Public Information Officer or State Assistant Public Information Officer refused to receive the application for information under the Right to Information Act. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • However, the newly amended act, Right to Information Act (Amendment), 2019 empowers the Central Government to prescribe the term of office for the commissioners as it may deem fit to the government. Before this amendment, their term was fixed for 5 years.
  • The 2019 Amendment Act also states that the salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner (of Centre as well as States) shall be such as prescribed by the Central Government. Before this amendment, the salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner were similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner and that of an Information Commissioner were similar to those of an Election Commissioner (State Election Commissioners in case of States).
  • The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. The Commission, when constituted initially, had five commissioners including the Chief Information Commissioner. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The President can remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner from office under the following circumstances:
    • if he is adjudged insolvent; or
    • if he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the President) involves moral turpitude; or
    • if he engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
    • if he is (in the opinion of the President) unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of mind or body; or
    • if he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions.
  • In addition to these, the President can also remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. However, in these cases, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the President can remove him.
  • The Commission submits an annual report to the Central Government on the implementation of the provisions of this Act. The Central Government places this report before each House of Parliament.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 38

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Bar Council of India (BCI)?
1. It is a statutory body established under the section 4 of Advocates Act 1961.
2. The Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India are the ex officio members.
3. It cannot recognise foreign qualifications in law obtained outside India for admission as an advocate.
Choose the correct answer from options given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 38
  • Statements 1 is correct: The BCI is a statutory body established under the section 4 of Advocates Act 1961 that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It consists of members elected from each state bar council, and the Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India who are ex officio members.
  • Statement 3 is not correct: One of its functions is to recognise foreign qualifications in law obtained outside India for admission as an advocate. 
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 39

With reference to the Goods and Services Tax Council, consider the following statements:

  1. The Goods and Services Tax Council is a constitutional body.
  2. Union Revenue Secretary acts as the exofficio Secretary to the Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 39
  • The Constitution (One Hundred And First Amendment) Act, 2016” passed on the 8th of September, 2016. Since then the GST council and been notified bringing into existence the Constitutional body to decide issues relating to GST, inserted a new Article 279-A in the Constitution. This Article empowered the President to constitute a GST Council by order. Accordingly, the President issued the order in 2016 and constituted the Council. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • As per Article 279A of the amended Constitution, the GST Council which will be a joint forum of the Centre and the States shall consist of the following members: -
    • Union Finance Minister - Chairperson
    • The Union Minister of State, in charge of Revenue of finance - Member
    • The Minister In-charge of finance or taxation or any other Minister nominated by each State Government - Members
  • As per Article 279A (4), the Council will make recommendations to the Union and the States on important issues related to GST, like the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST, model GST Laws, principles that govern Place of Supply, threshold limits, GST rates including the floor rates with bands, special rates for raising additional resources during natural calamities/disasters, special provisions for certain States, etc.
  • The Secretariat of the Council is located in New Delhi. The Union Revenue Secretary acts as the exofficio Secretary to the Council. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 40

Consider the following pairs:

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 40
  • Pair 1 is correctly matched Mahabir Prasad Judgement: The case revolved around the question of the nature of the governor’s pleasure under article 164(1).
    • The withdrawal of the governor's pleasure must coincide with the withdrawal of support to the ministry by the assembly.
  • Pair 2 is correctly matched Nabam Rebia Judgement: SC ruled that Article 163 of the Constitution does not give the Governor a general discretionary power to act against or without the advice of his Council of Ministers.
  • Minerva Mills case: The judgement struck down 2 changes made to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act 1976, declaring them to be violative of the basic structure hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched
  • Pair 4 is correctly matched MC Mehta: SC held that its power under Article 32 is not restricted to preventive measures, but also remedial measures when rights are violated. 
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 41

Consider the statements regarding the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP):

  1. It is a central sector scheme under the Ministry of Rural Development.
  2. It aims to achieve computerization of land records.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 41
  • Recent Context: The union government has informed that cadastral maps of 35% of over six lakh villages in the country have so far been geo-referenced under the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP).
    • Cadastral Maps are a digital form of land records that show all boundaries of different parts of land pieces based on their length, area, and direction.
  • DILRMP is implemented by the Department of Land Resources under the Ministry of Rural Development. It is a Central Sector scheme that has been extended to 2023-24, to complete its original targets as well as expand its ambit with a slew of new schemes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • Its three major components: Computerization of land record, Survey/re-survey, Computerization of Registration. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 42

With reference to the procedure and conduct of business in Parliament consider the following statements:
1. It is regulated by rules made under Article 118 of the Constitution.
2. Rule 357 deals with the Personal explanation.
3. Personal explanation states that a member may make a personal explanation when there is a question before the House.
4. Rules were modified by the President under article 118(2) of the Constitution. 
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 42
  • Statement 1 is correct: The procedure and conduct of business in Parliament is regulated by rules made under Article 118 of the Constitution and, in relation to certain financial business, by law made by Parliament under Article 119 of the Constitution. (No such law has so far been made by Parliament under Article 119.)
  • Statement 2 is correct: Rule 357 procedure and conduct of business in Parliament deals with Personal explanation.
  • Statement 3 is not correct: Personal explanation states that a member may, with the permission of the Speaker, make a personal explanation although there is no question before the House, but in this case no debatable matter may be brought forward, and no debate shall arise.
  • Statement 4 is not correct: Rules were modified and adopted by the Speaker of Lok Sabha in exercise of the powers conferred on the Speaker by article 118(2) of the Constitution.
     
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 43

Which of the following countries have a federal system of government?

  1. India
  2. United Kingdom
  3. Brazil
  4. Mexico

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 43

Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of government. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest.

The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day -to-day administering of their state. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other.

Features of federalism

There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.

  • Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
  • The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
  • The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both levels of government.
  • Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective power.
  • Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.


Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 44

Consider the following pairs:
 
How many pairs given above is /are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 44

In News: Recently, The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, approved the creation of a national tribunal for the redressal of GST disputes.

  • The 102nd Amendment Act inserted Articles 338B and 342A into the Indian Constitution.
    • Article 338B deals with the structure, duties and powers of the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
    • Article 342A deals with the power of the President of India to notify a particular caste as a Socially and Educationally Backward Class (SEBC) and the power of the Parliament to change the list.
    • The amendment also brings about changes in Article 366.
    • This amendment gave the NCBC a constitutional status. The Commission was originally set up in 1993. ○ The One Hundred and Fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India, extends the deadline for the cessation of the reservation of seats for members from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies by a period of 10 years. Hence pair 1 is incorrectly matched Pairs 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched
  • The 101st Amendment Act led to Article 246A in the constitution which operationalised GST.
  • The 92nd Amendment Act amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santali languages. The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution originally included 14 languages. Sindhi was included by the 21st Amendment, enacted in 1967; and Konkani, Meitei and Nepali were included by the 71st Amendment in 1992.
  • The 61st amendment act amended Article 326 of the Constitution to reduce the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 45

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that the doctrine of basic structure would apply to constitutional amendments after April 24, 1973?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 45

In the Waman Rao case (1981), the Supreme Court adhered to the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ and further clarified that it would apply to constitutional amendments enacted after April 24, 1973. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
The court in Waman Rao vs Union of India ultimately ruled that the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951, that introduced Articles 31A, 31B, as well as the Twenty-Fifth Amendment Act that introduced Article 31C were constitutional, and did not damage any basic or essential features or the basic structure of the Constitution.

  • S.R. Bommai Case (1994):
    • The verdict concluded that the power of the President to dismiss a State government is not absolute. The verdict said the President should exercise the power only after his proclamation (imposing his/her rule) is approved by both Houses of Parliament. Till then, the Court said, the President can only suspend the Legislative Assembly by suspending the provisions of Constitution relating to the Legislative Assembly.
  • Kuldip Nayar Case (2006):
    • The case of Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006) deals with the amendments to the Representation of People's Act, 1951 where, initially it required for the electors to have a “domicile” in the State concerned for getting elected to the Council of States, which was subsequently deleted by the said amendment in 2003.
  • Indira Gandhi Nehru Case (1975):
    • The doctrine of basic structure of the constitution was reaffirmed and applied by the Supreme Court in the Indira Nehru Gandhi case (1975). In this case, the Supreme Court invalidated a provision of the 39th Amendment Act (1975) which kept the election disputes involving the Prime Minister and the Speaker of Lok Sabha outside the jurisdiction of all courts.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 46

With reference to Advocate General for the states, consider the following statements:

  1. The term of office of the advocate general is fixed by the Constitution.
  2. He holds office at the pleasure of the governor of a state.
  3. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of the state legislature.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 46
  • The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the office of the advocate general for the states. He is the highest law officer in the state.
  • The term of office of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • He holds office at the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the governor at any time. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • In the performance of his official duties, the advocate general is entitled to appear before any court of law within the state. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the state legislature or any committee of the state legislature of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of the state legislature. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 47

Consider the following statements in reference to Section 144 of CrP(c)
1. The order issued under it can be applied only to the general public.
2. An order is mandatory for the implementation of the section.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 47
  • Statement 1 is not correct: An order under Section 144 can be for a particular individual or to the public generally.
    • Section 144 CrPC prohibits such activities or actions which are generally allowed on normal, regular days. It is imposed to maintain peace and tranquillity in an area
  • Statement 2 is not correct: An order under section 144 may be passed even ex-parte (after implementation) if there is an emergent situation or if circumstances do not allow the serving of due time to the person against whom the order has been made. Any order under this section shall remain in force for not more than two months.
     
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 48

In the context of evolution of Indian constitution, which of the following Acts, for the first time, separated provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 48

The Government of India Act of 1919 was enacted and came into force in 1921. This Act is also known as Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms (Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India).

The features of this Act were as follows:

  • It relaxed central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. The central and provincial legislatures were authorized to make laws on their respective list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be centralized and unitary.
  • It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts– transferred and reserved. The transferred subjects were to be administered by the Governor with the aid of Ministers responsible to the legislative council.
  • The reserved subjects, on the other hand, were to be administered by the Governor and his executive council without being responsible to the legislative council. This dual scheme of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’.
  • It required that the three of the six members of the Viceroy’s executive Council (other than the Commander-in-Chief) were to be Indian.
  • It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
  • It granted franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of property, tax or education.
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 49

With reference to The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) consider the following statements:
1. It is apex body for promotion of biomedical research in India.
2. The Government of India set up the Indian Research Fund Association (IRFA) in 1949.
3. The governing body of the council is presided over by the Principal Scientific Adviser.
4. The ICMR is funded by the Ministry of Science and Technology.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 49
  • Statement 1 is correct: It is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination and promotion of biomedical research, and is one of the oldest medical research bodies in the world.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: In 1911, the Government of India set up the Indian Research Fund Association (IRFA) with the specific objective of sponsoring and coordinating medical research in the country.
    • It was redesignated the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in 1949.
  • Statement 3 is not correct: The governing body of the council is presided over by the Union Health Minister. It is assisted in scientific and technical matters by a scientific advisory board comprising eminent experts in different biomedical disciplines
  • Statement 4 is not correct: The ICMR is funded by the Government of India through the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. 
     
Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 50

Consider the following statements:

  1. Article 1 describes India as a federation of states.
  2. Currently, India has 28 states and 8 union territories.
  3. The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent are mentioned in the third schedule of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Practice Test: Polity- 1 - Question 50
  • Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country; and two, type of polity. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Secondly, the country is described as ‘Union’ although its Constitution is federal in structure. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation.
  • According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
  • Territories of the states
  • Union territories
  • Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
  • The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent are mentioned in the first schedule of the Constitution. At present, there are 28 states and 8 union territories. Hence statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.
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