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Test: Current Affairs- 4 - UPSC MCQ


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50 Questions MCQ Test - Test: Current Affairs- 4

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Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 1

Consider the following statements about Planum Boreum

  1. It is a mix of dust, water ice and frost settled on the ground over time.
  2. They are the layers that can be found in the north pole of the Earth and Mars.

Choose the correct statement:

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 1

Statement Analysis
Statement 1

  • The North Pole of the Mars is covered in layers and layers of fine dust and water ice that are several kilometers thick and stretch out for around 1000 kilometers.
  • Mars Express of European space agency (ESA) has been orbiting the Red Planet since 2003.
  • It is imaging Mars’s surface, mapping its minerals, identifying the composition and circulation of its tenuous atmosphere, probing beneath its crust.

Statement 2

  • The North Pole of Mars is known as Planum Boreum formed as a mix of dust, water ice and frost settled on the Martian ground over time.
  • In Martian winter, the layers are topped by a thin cap of dry ice (carbon dioxide ice) a couple of meters thick.
  • This cap completely disappears into the atmosphere each Martian summer.

Recently Mars Express, a European space craft captured massive dunes colliding with several layers of dusty ice covering the north pole of Mars.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 2

Consider the following scheme(s)/initiative(s)

  1. SWATI Portal.
  2. KIRAN.
  3. BioCARe Program.
  4. Vigyan Jyoti program

How many scheme(s)/initiative(s) are related to counter Gender Disparity in Science?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 2

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • Science for Women-A Technology & Innovation (SWATI)” Portal is aimed at creating a single online portal representing Indian Women and Girls in STEMM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics & Medicine).
  • The database of SWATI Portal will serve in policy making to address the challenges of Gender-gap.
  • The Portal is a complete interactive database; and the first-of-its-kind in India which is developed, hosted and maintained by the National Institute of Plant Genome Research (NIPGR)

Statement 2

  • KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing) Scheme: Launched by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), KIRAN aims to provide various career opportunities to women scientists and technologists, including fellowships, grants, and training programs.

Statement 3

  • Biotechnology Career Advancement and Re-orientation (BioCARe) Program: Under the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), this program aims to support women scientists by providing career development opportunities, mentoring, and financial assistance for research projects.

Statement 4

  • Vigyan Jyoti program aims to provide exposure and mentorship to girls in STEM.

The Government has launched the SWATI Portal on the occasion of the International Day for Girls and Women in Science.

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 3

With reference to ‘Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023’, consider the following statements

  1. It provides for an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers and other periodicals in the country
  2. The office of Press Registrar General of India (PRGI) shall be carrying out the purposes of the new Act
  3. The PRP Act brings books and journals to the purview of registration which was exempted by the old PRB Act

How many of the statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 3

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023 has replaced the colonial era Press and Registration of Books Act dating back to 1867. The office of Press Registrar General of India – PRGI (erstwhile Registrar of Newspapers for India – RNI) shall be carrying out the purposes of the new Act.

Statement 2

  • It provides for an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers and other periodicals in the country. The new system replaces the existing manual, cumbersome processes involving multiple steps and approvals at various stages, which were causing unnecessary hardships to the publishers.

Statement 3

  • The PRP Act exempts books and journals from the purview of registration necessitated by the old PRB Act, focusing solely on periodicals, which are defined as publications, including newspapers, published and printed at regular intervals containing public news or commentary, but excluding scientific, technical, and academic books or journals.

The registration of newspapers and other periodicals will be governed by the provisions of the Press and Registration of Periodicals Act, 2023, and it’s Rules, which came into effect recently.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 4

With reference to ‘Polygraph tests’ consider the following statements

  1. Polygraph tests, commonly known as lie detector tests, are admissible as evidence in Indian courts.
  2. The use of polygraph tests in India is regulated by the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
  3. Consent from the individual undergoing the polygraph test is not required for it to be legally administered in India

How many statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 4

Statement 1
Polygraph test results are generally not admissible as evidence in Indian courts. The reason for this is the perceived lack of absolute reliability and the potential for false positives and false negatives. Courts often consider polygraph results as suggestive but not conclusive proof of guilt or innocence.
Statement 2
The use of polygraph tests in India is not specifically regulated by the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act. Instead, the admissibility and use of polygraph tests are guided by general legal principles, and there is no specific legislation that comprehensively addresses the use of lie detector tests.
Statement 3
In India, obtaining informed consent from the individual before administering a polygraph test is considered crucial. Consent is a fundamental ethical and legal requirement, and individuals must be fully aware of the nature and implications of the test before agreeing to undergo it. The absence of consent could render the test inadmissible or raise ethical concerns.
Additional information
Legal and Constitutional Rulings

  • Selvi vs State of Karnataka & Anr (2010): The Supreme Court ruled that lie detector tests should be voluntary, with legal implications explained to the accused.
  • K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal (1997): The Court deemed involuntary administration of these tests as potentially violating the Right to Life and Liberty and the Right to Privacy.
  • Indian Evidence Act, 1871: The results of these tests are not admissible as evidence in court.
  • National Human Rights Commission Guidelines (1999): Established consent and procedural guidelines for administering polygraph tests.

In the ongoing investigation of the Parliament security breach, Delhi Police sought court permission for polygraph tests on six accused to uncover their motives.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 5

Consider the following countries:

  1. Oman
  2. Saudi Arabia
  3. Sudan
  4. Iran

How many of the above-mentioned countries share coastal line with Red Sea?
Select the correct statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 5

Statement Analysis:

 

There are six countries bordering the Red Sea:

  • Egypt: Egypt forms the western coast of the northern Red Sea, including the Gulf of Suez.
  • Sudan: Sudan shares the western coastline south of Egypt, extending to the northern tip of the Red Sea.
  • Eritrea: Eritrea occupies the northwestern coast of the Red Sea, with its capital, Asmara, located inland.
  • Djibouti: Djibouti sits at the southwestern corner of the Red Sea, bordering both Eritrea and Ethiopia.
  • Saudi Arabia: Saudi Arabia holds the eastern coastline, stretching from the northern tip down to Yemen.

Yemen: Yemen occupies the southernmost coastline of the Red Sea, including the Gulf of Aden.
Houthi Rebels Fire on Cargo Ships in Red Sea.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 6

 Consider the following with respect to ‘Qatar’

  1. Qatar is a peninsular country entirely surrounded by the Persian Gulf.
  2. It shares land borders with Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
  3. The major export of Qatar is natural gas, making it a key player in the global energy market.

Select the correct statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 6

Statement Analysis:

  • Qatar is a peninsular country entirely surrounded by the Persian Gulf. This statement accurately describes Qatar’s geographical location. It is a peninsula jutting out into the Persian Gulf with no other bodies of water bordering it.
  • Travelling from Qatar to UAE has to be via Saudi Arabia as there is no direct border between Qatar and UAE
  • The major export of Qatar is natural gas, making it a key player in the global energy market.

Hence statement 2 is wrong only 1 and 3 is correct.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 7

Consider the possible effects of increase in inflation

  1. RBI may decrease repo rate to reduce inflation.
  2. Real Yield of bond may increase as the price of a bond goes down.
  3. RBI will sell government bonds to reduce inflation.

Select the correct statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 7

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1
Understanding Repo Rate in Relation to Inflation:

  • Repo Rate, short for repurchase rate, is the interest rate at which the central bank lends money to commercial banks against government securities.

Control Mechanism:
Influence on Borrowing Costs:

  • Changes in the Repo Rate affect the cost of borrowing for commercial banks. When the central bank raises the Repo Rate, borrowing becomes more expensive for banks. This, in turn, can lead to higher interest rates for consumers and businesses.

Impact on Consumer Spending and Investment:

  • As borrowing costs rise, consumers may reduce spending, and businesses may cut back on investments. This reduction in spending and investment can contribute to a decrease in the overall demand for goods and services in the economy leading curbing Excessive Inflation:

Statement 2
Inverse Relationship:

  • Generally, there is an inverse relationship between bond yields and inflation.

Real and Nominal Yields:

  • Bond yields can be categorized into nominal yields and real yields. Nominal yields represent the stated interest rate on the bond, while real yields adjust for inflation. Real yields can be calculated by subtracting the inflation rate from the nominal yield.

Example:

  • Let’s consider a scenario where an investor holds a bond with a nominal yield of 5%. If inflation is 2%, the real yield of the bond would be 3% (5% – 2%). However, if inflation increases to 4%, the real yield would decrease to 1% (5% – 4%).

Impact on Bond Prices:

  • Rising inflation expectations can lead to higher interest rates in the economy. As market interest rates increase, existing bonds with lower yields become less attractive. Investors may demand higher yields, causing the prices of existing bonds to fall.

Statement 3

  • Central banks often use open market operations, including the sale of government bonds, as a tool to manage inflation within an economy.

Open Market Operations:

  • Open market operations refer to the buying or selling of government securities in the open market by a central bank. Selling government bonds is a contractionary monetary policy tool used to reduce the money supply and counteract inflationary pressures.

Absorbing Excess Liquidity:

  • When the central bank sells government bonds, it absorbs money from the financial system. By reducing the supply of money in circulation, the central bank aims to control inflation, as excessive liquidity can contribute to rising prices.

India’s retail inflation eased to a three-month low of 5.1% recently.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 8

‘Global Resources Outlook Report’ is published by

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 8

Global Resource Outlook is the flagship report of the International Resource Panel of the United Nations Environment Programme. This year’s report sheds light on how resources are essential to the effective implementation of the Agenda 2030 and multilateral environmental agreements to tackle the triple planetary crisis. It brings together the best available data, modelling and assessments from 180 countries, seven world regions and four income groups, to analyse trends, impacts and distributional effects of resource use.

  • Global Resource Outlook 2024 was launched on the final day of the Sixth United Nations Environmental Assembly (UNEA-6) at the UNEP headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.
Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 9

With reference to ‘Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati’, consider the following statements

  1. He is was the founder of Arya Samaj in 1875 with the motto “Krinvanto Vishwam Aryam”.
  2. He is associated with Shuddi Movements.
  3. He encouraged idol worship.

How many statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 9

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • He was a social reformer who founded Arya Samaj in 1875 to counter then prevalent social inequities.
  • The purpose of the Samaj was to move the Hindu religion away from the fictitious beliefs.
  • ‘Krinvanto Vishwam Aryam” was the motto of the Samaj, which means, “Make this world noble”.

Statement 2

  • Shuddhi Movement: The Shuddhi Movement was introduced to bring back the individuals to Hinduism who were either voluntarily or involuntarily converted to other religions like Islam or Christianity.
  • Back to Vedas: He highlighted the social reformer’s role in awakening India from the shackles of ignorance and superstition, leading a movement to rediscover the essence of Vedic knowledge.
  • Women’s Rights: Dayanand Saraswati advocated for the rights and empowerment of women.

Statement 3

  • The Samaj directs its members to condemn ritualistic practices like idol worship, pilgrimage and bathing in holy rivers, animal sacrifice, offering in temples, sponsoring priesthood etc.
  • The philosophy of Dayananda Saraswati can be known from his three famous contributions namely “Satyartha Prakash”, “Veda Bhashya Bhumika” and “Veda Bhashya Bhumika” and Veda Bhashya.
  • Further the journal “Arya Patrika’ edited by him also reflects his thoughts.

The Prime Minister virtually addressed the 200th birth anniversary celebrations of Swami Dayanand Saraswati.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 10

‘Weimar Triangle’ which was recently in news is include   

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 10

About Weimar Triangle

  • The “Weimar Triangle” is a regional alliance of France, Germany, and Poland created in 1991 in the German city of Weimar.
  • The group is intended to promote cooperation between the three countries in cross-border and European issues.
  • It also aimed at assisting Poland’s emergence from Communist rule.
  • France, Germany and Poland would unveil a new cooperation agreement to combat foreign disinformation operations.
  • The ministers discussed creating a joint mechanism to detect and respond to potential Russian internet attacks.

The Foreign Ministers of Poland, France and Germany have discussed reviving the Weimar Triangle in a meeting in Paris.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 11

Consider the following statements about ‘Cycas circinalis’

  1. It is an evergreen palm-like tree that typically occurs in fairly dense
  2. It is used as a nutraceutical plant by several indigenous communities
  3. It is known to be endemic to the Western Ghats

How many of the statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 11

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • Cycas circinalis is an evergreen palm-like tree that grows up to 25 ft. It typically occurs in fairly dense, seasonally dry scrubby woodlands in hilly areas. It is also facultative deciduous in extremely dry times. Eenthu Pana is like areca nut. It cannot be prepared unless it’s completely dry and this is difficult as it’s usually plucked in the rainy season.

Statement 2

  • It is a nutraceutical plant for several indigenous communities in the Western Ghats

Statement 3

  • It is known to be an Indian endemic, restricted to the Western Ghats, in the states of Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and the south of Maharashtra. Out of the nine species of cycads recognised within India, six are endemic.

Cycas circinalis is on the verge of extinction in the northern part of the Kerala after being hit by an unknown and fast spreading plant disease.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 12

Consider the following with respect to ‘Srimukhalingam temple’

  1. Srimukhalingam temple is located in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
  2. The temple is built in the Vesara architectural style.
  3. It was built by Kamarnava II, ruler from the family line of Eastern Ganga.

Select the correct statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 12

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • It is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
  • It is located on the banks of Vamsadhara River and is dedicated to lord Srimukha Lingeswara (a form of Shiva).
  • The Shivalinga here has a mukha or facial representation of Lord Shiva.

Statement 2

  • This temple, built in the Kalinga architectural style.
  • The Trinity of Madhukeswara, Someswara and Bheemeswara Temples are a testimony to the magnificent architectural skills of Kalinga Kings.

Statement 3

  • It was constructed in the 9th century CE by kings of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
  • It was built by Kamarnava II, ruler from the family line of Eastern Ganga.

Archaeological Survey of India assured to send a note to UNESCO over inclusion of Srimukhalingam temple in Andhra Pradesh in world heritage structures’ list.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 13

With reference to the term ‘Reverse Flip’, consider the following statements

  • Statement 1- Reverse Flip is a trend of overseas startups shifting their domicile to India. .
  • Statement 2- The trend of Reverse Flip is beneficial to Indian economy.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 13

Statement Analysis:
About Reverse Flip

  • It is trend of relocation of Indian unicorns, companies valued at over $1 billion, back to their homeland after initially setting up headquarters abroad.

Why the U-turn? The reasons are multifaceted:

  • Taxation Advantages: The complex and cumbersome Indian tax system often drives startups offshore to countries with simpler and more favorable tax regimes. However, recent government initiatives like the introduction of Special Economic Zones for startups and reduced capital gains tax are making India a more attractive destination.
  • Talent Acquisition: Accessing skilled tech talent remains a challenge for Indian startups. International hubs like Singapore and Dubai offer larger talent pools and easier visa processes, initially tempting companies to set up base there. But with India’s burgeoning tech talent pool and improved visa regulations, the tide is turning.
  • Market Proximity: Operating closer to their target market allows for better understanding of customer needs, faster product iteration, and stronger brand resonance. Being physically present in India enables startups to tap into the vast and diverse domestic market more effectively.
  • Government Support: Recognizing the importance of startups for economic growth, the Indian government has rolled out various support programs and initiatives like Startup India and Stand-up India. These programs offer funding, incubation facilities, and mentorship, making India a more supportive environment for startup growth.

Benefits of the Reverse Flip:

  • Boosts Investor Confidence: The return of established unicorns showcases India’s potential as a startup hub, attracting further investment and fueling the ecosystem’s growth.
  • Creates Jobs and Opportunities: Returning startups contribute to job creation, talent development, and overall economic growth within India.
  • Fosters Innovation and Knowledge Sharing: The influx of global expertise and experience from returning unicorns can benefit the broader Indian startup community through knowledge sharing and collaboration.
  • Strengthens Brand India: The success of Indian-born, globally-competitive startups shines a positive light on India’s entrepreneurial spirit and technological prowess.

Pine Labs, Udaan, Meesho Looking To Move Domicile to India

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 14

With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)’ consider the following statements

  1. FSDC is a statutory body established under the Ministry of Finance
  2. FSDC monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy.
  3. The chairperson of FSDC is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

How many statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 14

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • It is a non-statutory apex council under the Ministry of Finance constituted by the Executive Order in 2010.
  • The Raghuram Rajan committee (2008) on financial sector reforms first proposed the creation of FSDC.

Statement 2

  • To strengthen and institutionalize the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development.
  • To monitor macro-prudential supervision of the economy. It assesses the functioning of large financial conglomerates.

Statement 3

  • It is chaired by the Finance Minister and its members include the heads of all Financial Sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, and IRDA), Finance Secretary, Secretary of Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Secretary of Department of Financial Services (DFS), and Chief Economic Adviser.
  • In 2018, the government reconstituted FSDC to include the Minister of State responsible for the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Secretary of Department of Electronics and Information Technology, Chairperson of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) and the Revenue Secretary.
Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 15

‘Salton Sea’ which was recently in news is located in  

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 15

About Salton Sea

  • It is a shallow, saline lake located in the lower Colorado Desert, southern California, USA.
  • It is a geological depression tucked between mountain ranges and lying below sea level.

Formation:

  • The area that is now the lake was formerly a salt-covered sink or depression (a remnant of prehistoric Lake Cahuilla) about 280 feet (85 metres) below sea level until 1905–06, when diversion controls on the Colorado River broke a few miles below the California-Mexico border and floodwaters rushed northward, filling the depression.
  • Subsequent deepening of the sink was stopped in 1907, when a line of protective levees was built.
  • It is currently 228 feet below sea level.
  • It covers an area of 970 square km and includes 130 miles of shoreline.
  • It has an average depth of 29.9 feet and, at its deepest, 51 feet.
  • Its salinity (some 45 parts per thousand) far exceeds that of seawater.
  • The Salton Sea is an important stopping point for migratory waterfowl and serves as critical habitat for birds moving south to Mexico and Central America.

The U.S. Department of Energy recently discovered the world’s largest Lithium reserve beneath California’s Salton Sea.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 16

Consider the following with respect to ‘Nazool Land’

  1. It is owned and directly administered by the government as state property.
  2. The government generally uses these lands for public purposes like building schools, hospitals, Gram Panchayat buildings, etc.
  3. During British time, these lands were given as grants to Zamindars for their service.

Select the correct statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 16

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • Nazool land is owned by the government but is most often not directly administered as state property.
  • The state generally allots such land to any entity on lease for a fixed period, generally between 15 and 99 years.

Statement 2

  • How does the government use Nazool land?
  • The government generally uses Nazool land for public purposes like building schools, hospitals, Gram Panchayat buildings, etc.
  • Several cities in India have also seen large tracts of land denoted as Nazool land used for housing societies, generally on lease.

Statement 3

  • How did Nazool Land emerge?
  • During British rule, kings and kingdoms which opposed the British frequently revolted against them, leading to several battles between them and the British Army.
  • Upon defeating these kings in battle, the British would often take their land away from them.
  • After India got Independence, the British vacated these lands.
  • But with kings and royals often lacking proper documentation to prove prior ownership, these lands were marked as Nazool land—to be owned by the respective state governments.

Violence erupted in Uttarakhand recently after a mosque and a madrasa standing on Nazool land were demolished.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 17

Roen olmi, recently seen in news is related to?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 17

Roen olmi

  • It is a mushroom of the Termitomyces species.
  • It grows on termite hills and is locally known as ‘roen olmi’ in Goa.
  • It is an edible wild mushroom popular among Goans and consumed during the monsoons.
  • These mushrooms have no independent existence. They grow only in association with termites.
  • Habitat: It is endemic to the Western Ghats, where the thick forest cover and high humidity provides an ideal breeding ground.
  • Ecological significance: It plays a very important role as a powerful biodegrading fungus in forest and grassland ecosystems converting 50% dead plant material on the ground into rich soil.
  • In fact, all Termitomyces species are edible and have unique food value attributed to their texture, flavour, nutrient content, and beneficial mediational properties.
  • Additionally, Termito-myces have been recognized for their ethno-medicinal importance in various indigenous communities throughout Asia and Africa.
  • Termitomyces species possess various beneficial antioxidant and antimicrobial properties

Two researchers in Goa have said that they synthesised gold nanoparticles from a wild mushroom species that is widely eaten as a delicacy in the coastal state.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 18

With reference to ‘Stem Cell Therapy’, consider the following statements:

  • Statement 1: Stem Cell Therapy involves the use of specialized cells to replace or repair damaged tissues, offering a promising approach for medical treatment.
  • Statement 2: It primarily relies on induced pluripotent stem cells, which are manipulated to differentiate into specific cell types for therapeutic purposes.

Which one of the following is correct in respect to the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 18

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1: This statement is correct. Stem cell therapy does indeed involve using specialized cells to replace or repair damaged tissues. While it’s an emerging field with promise, its applications are still under development and not yet widely available for every condition.
Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. While induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are being explored in research, they are not the primary source of cells used in current stem cell therapy practices.
Here’s a breakdown of the reasons why Statement 2 is inaccurate:

  • Currently, most stem cell therapy utilizes adult stem cells found in blood, bone marrow, or fat tissues. These are readily available and less ethically controversial than embryonic stem cells (ESCs).
  • iPSC development: While iPSCs, created by reprogramming adult cells to an embryonic-like state, offer potential advantages, they are still in their early stages of clinical development and face challenges like potential tumor formation.
  • Limited applications: The use of iPSCs in current approved stem cell therapies is minimal, with most available treatments relying on adult stem cells.

Therefore, while Stem Cell Therapy is promising, relying primarily on iPSCs is not an accurate representation of its current state.
Through more equitable investments, researchers hope menstruation will be recognised as a new frontier in regenerative medicine.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 19

Consider the following with respect to ‘Know India Programme (KIP)’

  1. The KIP is primarily aimed at Indian diaspora youth between the ages of 21-35.
  2. KIP participants visit various Indian states to experience regional diversity and cultural heritage.
  3. The program comes under Ministry of Tourism.

Select the correct statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 19

Statement 1
The Know India Programme (KIP) is a unique initiative by the Indian Ministry of External Affairs, designed specifically for Indian diaspora youth aged 21-35.
It aims to bridge the gap between these young people and their ancestral homeland, fostering a deeper understanding and appreciation for contemporary India
Statement 2
KIP participants get an opportunity to acquaint themselves with the history and culture of India as a civilization as well as  the advancements and achievements of modern India across diverse domains, including but not limited to the realms of economy, industry, education, science and technology, telecommunications, information technology, and space science.
Statement 3
The Know India Programme (KIP) is a unique initiative by the Indian Ministry of External Affairs.
 

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 20

With reference to ‘Square Kilometre Array Observatory (SKAO)’ consider the following statements

  1. Its aim is to build and operate cutting-edge radio telescopes to transform the understanding of the Universe.
  2. Its headquarters is located in USA.

Select the INCORRECT statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 20

Statement 1

  • The SKA Observatory is an intergovernmental bringing together organizations from ten countries; Australia, Canada, China, India, Italy, New Zealand, South Africa, Sweden, the Netherlands and the UK.
  • Its aim is to build and operate cutting-edge radio telescopes to transform the understanding of the Universe.
  • It will explore the formation and evolution of galaxies, fundamental physics in extreme environments and the origins of life.

Statement 2

  • Headquarters: United Kingdom
  • The observatory consists of the two telescopes at radio-quiet sites in South Africa and Australia, and associated facilities to support the operations of the telescopes.
  • Indian Engagement in SKAO
  • India, through the Pune-based National Centre for Radio Astrophysics (NCRA) has been involved in the development of SKA since its inception in the 1990s.
  • India’s main contribution is in the development, and operation, of the Telescope Manager element, the “neural network” or the software that will make the telescope work.

India has approved to join the SKA project, accompanied by a financial commitment of Rs 1,250 crore.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 21

‘FAST Telescope’ which was recently in news is located in   

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 21

About FAST Telescope

  • The Five-hundred-meter Aperture Spherical radio Telescope (FAST), located in a karst depression in Guizhou, China.
  • It is the world’s largest single-dish radio telescope, with a receiving area equivalent to 30 football fields.
  • It is expected that FAST will maintain its world-class status for the next 20 to 30 years.

Goals

  • Detect neutral hydrogen to the edge of the universe, reconstruct the images of the early universe;
  • Discover pulsar, establish a pulsar timing array, and participate in pulsar navigation and gravitational wave detection in the future;
  • Join the International Very-Long-Baseline Interferometry Network to obtain hyperfine structures of celestial bodies;
  • Perform high resolution radio spectral survey. Detect weak space signals;
  • Participate in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence.

Recently, astronomers from the Nanjing University in China and elsewhere have detected a radio pulsar in a supernova remnant known as CTB 87 by using the Five-hundred-meter Aperture Spherical radio Telescope (FAST)

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 22

With reference to ‘High-Altitude Pseudo Satellite (HAPS) vehicles’ consider the following statements

  1. HAPS vehicles stay aloft using solar panels and operate at altitudes much higher than traditional airplanes.
  2. Compared to satellites, HAPS are cheaper to deploy and can be operational much faster, making them suitable for urgent needs.
  3. Some experts express concerns about the potential interference of HAPS with existing communication systems and their impact on migratory bird patterns.

How many statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 22

Statement 1

  • It is a new age unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) that can significantly increase India’s surveillance and monitoring capabilities in the border areas.
  • It has the ability to generate solar power.
  • It can fly at altitudes of 18-20 km from the ground, almost double the heights attained by commercial airplanes.

Statement 2
The cost of operating HAPS is several times lower than that of a satellite that is usually placed at least 200 km from the earth.
Applications of HAPS

  • It can be very useful in disaster situations.
  • It can even be used to provide mobile communications networks in remote areas
  • Even it can be used in continuous surveillance of border areas to detect changes or movements.

Statement 3

  • Depending on their frequency and technology, HAPS could indeed interfere with existing communication systems operating in similar bands. Additionally, their high altitude presence might disrupt the flight paths or habitats of migratory birds, requiring careful evaluation and mitigation strategies.

Recently, NASA’s Earth Observatory posted a detailed analysis of the reason behind Aral Sea’s disappearance.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 23

‘Cigaritis meghamalaiensis’ which was recently in news is   

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 23

About Cigaritis meghamalaiensis

  • It is the new species of butterfly.
  • It has become the first butterfly species to be described from the Western Ghats in 33 years.
  • The researchers had first come across the distinct species belonging to the Cigaritis genus in the high elevations of Periyar in Idukki in 2018.
  • Further explorations have revealed the species to be confined to the Meghamalais and the adjoining Periyar Tiger Reserve.
  • Appearance
  • The discal and post-discal bands on the forewing underside of the adult butterfly are conjoined and lie parallel from their origin at the costa.
  • The unique feature distinguishes the new species from all other Cigaritis occurring in Peninsular India and Sri Lanka
  • There are seven species of Cigaritisin the Western Ghats, viz., C. vulcanus, C. schistacea, C. ictis, C. elima elima, C. lohita lazularia, C. lilacinus, and C. abnormis. Of these, all except C. lilacinus have been reported from the southern Western Ghats.

The pristine hills of the Meghamalai in Tamil Nadu have thrown up a new species of ‘silverline’ butterflies.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 24

With reference to ‘MethaneSAT’, consider the following statements

  1. Statement 1 – It is equipped with a high-resolution infrared sensor and a spectrometer that can track differences in methane concentrations
  2. Statement 2 – It will orbit the Earth 24 times a day, monitoring the oil and gas sector to identify larger emitters

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 24

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • MethaneSAT will track and measure methane emissions at a global scale. It is equipped with a high-resolution infrared sensor and a spectrometer. It can track differences in methane concentrations as small as three parts per billion in the atmosphere. It also has a wide-camera view — of about 200 km by 200 km — allowing it to identify larger emitters so-called “super emitters”.

Statement 2

  • It will orbit the Earth 15 times a day, monitoring the oil and gas sector. It will create a large amount of data, which will tell “how much methane is coming from where, who’s responsible, and are those emissions going up or down over time”.

The MethaneSAT satellite was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon9 rocket from California.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 25

With reference to “Minimum Support Price (MSP)’’ consider the following statements

  1. Centre announces the MSP for 22 mandated crops along with FRP to sugarcane.
  2. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) announces the MSP at the start of each sowing season.

Select the INCORRECT statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 25
  • Statement 1
    Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.MSP protects the producer- farmers against distress sale during bumper production years.
    MSPs have no statutory backing — a farmer cannot demand MSP as a matter of right.
    The Centre announces the MSP for 22 mandated crops.These include:
    14 kharif crops (paddy, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi, tur/arhar, moong, urad, groundnut, soyabean, sunflower, sesamum, niger seed, cotton),
    6 rabi crops (wheat, barley, gram, masur/lentil, rapeseed and mustard,and safflower) and
    2 commercial crops (jute and copra).
    Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) FRP is the minimum price at which the sugar mills purchase sugarcane from farmers.
  • Statement 2
    The Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs announces the MSP at the start of each sowing season, taking into account the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

Several farmer associations, from Punjab and Haryana, are marching to Delhi, seeking a law to guarantee the minimum support price (MSP) for their produce.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 26

Consider the following statements about Neolithic Period

  1. It was characterized by stone tools shaped by polishing or grinding.
  2. The houses were built of mud and reed in rectangular or circular shapes.
  3. Burzahom in Kashmir and Edakkal caves in Kerala are the important Neolithic sites in India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 26

Statement Analysis
Statement 1

  • The Neolithic Period, also called the New Stone Age, is the final stage of cultural evolution or technological development among prehistoric humans.
  • The term Neolithic is most frequently used in connection with agriculture, which is the time when cereal cultivation and animal domestication were introduced.
  • It is characterized by the beginning of a settled human lifestyle.
  • The Neolithic stage of development was attained during the Holocene Epoch (the last 11,700 years of Earth’s history).
  • It was characterized by stone tools shaped by polishing or grinding, dependence on domesticated plants or animals, settlement in permanent villages, and the appearance of such crafts as pottery and weaving.

Statement 2

  • The houses were built of mud and reed in rectangular or circular shapes.
  • Alcohol was first produced during this period, and architecture, as well as its interior and exterior decoration, first appeared.
  • Status objects like elaborate pottery and carved jades were placed in tombs during the Neolithic period. This practice suggests two things: Neolithic people’s belief in the afterlife and the emergence of social classes. Only important and wealthy individuals had the privilege of being buried with these precious objects

Statement 3

  • Some of the important Neolithic sites in India include Burzahom in Kashmir, Chiron in Bihar and Uttar in Andhra Pradesh, and Edakkal caves in Kerala.

Researchers recently unearthed an ancient burial site of a child with a pot beside it likely dating back to the neolithic period, at Chettimedu Pathur near Chennai.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 27

With reference to ‘North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)’ consider the following statements

  1. NATO is based on the principle of Security Community.
  2. NATO currently has 31 members – most of them European nations, plus the United States and Canada.
  3. The newest member is Sweden, which joined in 2023 in reaction to Russia’s 2022 invasion of Ukraine.

How many statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 27

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • The foundations of NATO were officially laid down in 1949 to counter the Soviet Union with Cold War tensions rising with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty, more popularly known as the Washington Treaty
  • Military: NATO is committed to the peaceful resolution of disputes.
  • If diplomatic efforts fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations. These are carried out under the collective defense clause of NATO’s founding treaty – Article 5 of the Washington Treaty or under a United Nations mandate, alone or in cooperation with other countries and international organisations.

Statement 2

  • NATO currently has 31 members – most of them European nations, plus the United States and Canada.

Statement 3

  • The newest member is Finland, which joined in 2023 in reaction to Russia’s 2022 invasion of Ukraine.
  • Sweden applied to join along with Finland but is waiting for Hungary to ratify its application as the final major step before membership.

Former US President Donald Trump accused NATO allies of not spending enough on defence.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 28

‘UDGAM Portal’ which was seen in news recently was developed by

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 28

UDGAM refers to Unclaimed Deposits-Gateway to Access inforMation, which is an online portal developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It facilitates the registered users to search unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place in a centralized manner. The unclaimed deposits can be claimed only from the respective bank. There are 30 banks, which are part of UDGAM portal, and they cover around 90% of unclaimed deposits (in value terms) in Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.

  • The Reserve Bank of India said 30 banks are facilitating people to search their unclaimed deposits/accounts through UDGAM portal.
Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 29

Consider the following statements about ‘Holistic Progress Card (HPC)’

  1. It aims to provide a comprehensive view of students’ academic performance, cognitive abilities and socio-emotional skills
  2. It has been developed by Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development (PARAKH), a standard-setting body under the NAAC

Select the correct statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 29

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • Holistic Progress Card incorporates feedback from parents, classmates, and even self-evaluation by students. The approach aims to provide a comprehensive view of students’ academic performance, cognitive abilities, socio-emotional skills and creativity during class activities. HPC aligns with the National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCFSE) to prioritise a learner-centric evaluation.

Statement 2

  • HPC has been developed by Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development (PARAKH), a standard-setting body under the NCERT, for the foundational stage (Classes 1 and 2), preparatory stage (Classes 3 to 5), and middle stage (Classes 6 to 8), as per suggestions by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, marks a paradigm shift in assessing students’ overall progress.

The National Council for Educational and Research Training (NCERT) is introducing a new ‘holistic progress card’ (HPC).

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 30

With reference to ‘‘‘‘Greening and Restoration of Wasteland with Agroforestry (GROW)’ report and portal’’ consider the following statements

  1. It is an initiative of Ministry of Environment.
  2. An Agroforestry Suitability Index (ASI) developed for national-level prioritisation is part of this programme.

Select the INCORRECT statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 30

Statement 1

  • It is a multi-institutional effort led by NITI Aayog, which utilised remote sensing and GIS to assess agroforestry suitability across all districts in India.
  • It provides state-wise and district-wise analysis, supporting government departments and industries for greening and restoration projects.
  • It underscores the potential benefits of converting underutilised areas, especially wastelands, for agroforestry.

Statement 2

  • An Agroforestry Suitability Index (ASI) was developed for national-level prioritisation.
  • The GROW-Suitability Mapping portal Bhuvan allows universal access to state and district-level data.
  • Integrated Wasteland Development Programme (IWDP): It aims to develop wastelands mainly in non-forest areas by involving local people at every stage of development.
  • The programme focuses on improving the productivity of waste & degraded lands.

Recently, the NITI Aayog unveiled the ‘Greening and Restoration of Wasteland with Agroforestry (GROW)’ report and portal, aiming to bolster efforts in environmental conservation and sustainable land use across India..

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 31

Consider the following statements with respect to ‘National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation’

  • Statement 1 – It is the umbrella organization for the Urban Cooperative Banks which will also operate as a Self-Regulatory organization for the sector.
  • Statement 2 – It has received a Certificate of Registration from the Securities and Exchange Board of India to operate as a Non-Banking Finance Company

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 31

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation is the umbrella organization for the Urban Cooperative Banks. It aims to ensure specialized functions and services to cooperative banks, facilitate communication between banks and regulators and address challenges faced by Urban Cooperative Banks. It will also operate as a Self-Regulatory organization for the sector.

Statement 2

  • It has received a Certificate of Registration from the Reserve Bank of India to operate as a Non-Banking Finance Company. Also to modernize and strengthen the Urban Cooperative Banking Sector, which will benefit both the banks and their customers.

The Union Cooperation Minister launched the National Urban Co-operative Finance and Development Corporation Limited (NUCFDC)

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 32

‘Nyoma Advanced Landing Ground’ seen in news recently is located in

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 32

Nyoma is located at an altitude of about 13,700 feet and close to the south Bank of Pangong Tso. It is very close to the LAC in eastern Ladakh. Nyoma is home to an Advanced Landing Ground (ALG) of Indian Air Force that was built in 1962 but remained unutilized. It was reactivated in 2009 when an An-32 landed in this airfield. Now the airbase at Nyoma of the Indian Military is fully operational.

  • The Indian Air Force’s Advanced Landing Ground (ALG) in Nyoma, close to the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh, has now been black-topped, while work is ongoing to extend the runway so that it can eventually handle fighter jets
Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 33

Consider the following statements about ‘Green Tug Transition Programme (GTTP)’

  1. The goal is to convert at least 50% of all tugs into Green Tugs by 2030 and to have Green Tugs operating at all ports
  2. It aims to convert all tugboats working in the country into ‘Green Hybrid Tugs’, running on non-fossil fuel like Methanol, Ammonia, Hydrogen.

Select the correct statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 33

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • The goal of the GTTP is to convert at least 50% of all tugs into Green Tugs by 2030 and to have Green Tugs operating at all major ports.

Statement 2

  • It will convert all tugboats working in the country into ‘Green Hybrid Tugs’, running on non-fossil fuel like Methanol, Ammonia, Hydrogen. By implementing measures to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, domestic/short sea shipping ferries, port vessels (tugs/crafts/dredgers) India aims to achieve a remarkable reduction of 50% by 2030 to 70% by 2047.

Union Minister of MoPSW & AYUSH inaugurated the 60T bollard pull tug named ‘Ocean Grace’ and the Medical Mobile Unit (MMU).

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 34

Consider the following statements

  1. First Information Report (FIR) contains details of complaints, charges, arrests, confiscated property, witnesses examined and other events within the jurisdiction
  2. General Diary includes details of the offence, complainant, accused, witnesses, and other relevant information.

Choose the correct statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 34

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • First Information Report (FIR) summarizes information about the commission of a cognizable offence, initiating the investigation process. It includes details of the offence, complainant, accused, witnesses, and other relevant information.

Statement 2

  • General Diary (GD) records all important transactions and events within the police station, including complaints, arrests, confiscated property, and visits of senior officers. It contains details of complaints, charges, arrests, confiscated property, witnesses examined, and other significant events within the jurisdiction.

It was recently in news.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 35

‘M87’ which was recently in news is a 

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 35

About Black Hole

  • A black hole is an extremely dense object whose gravity is so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape it.
  • A black hole does not have a surface, like a planet or star. Instead, it is a region of space where matter has collapsed in on itself.
  • This catastrophic collapse results in a huge amount of mass being concentrated in an incredibly small area.

About Event Horizon Telescope (EHT)

  • The EHT is not a single telescope but a worldwide network of radio telescopes that work together to study a common object in space.
  • Very-long baseline interferometry: It is the technique, where the data each telescope collects about the object is correlated with data from the others using extremely precise clocks.
  • In this setup, the maximum distance between the telescopes defines the network’s resolution.
  • The Greenland Telescope has been commissioned to the array, which has improved the resolution of the EHT in the north-south direction.

The Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) Collaboration has released new images of M87, the supermassive black hole at the center of the galaxy Messier 87.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 36

Consider the following countries

  1. Azerbaijan
  2. Russia
  3. Malaysia
  4. Oman
  5. Kazakhstan
  6. Mexico
  7. Brunei

How many of the above mentioned countries are a part of OPEC+?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 36

OPEC+ is a group of oil-exporting countries which meets regularly to decide how much crude oil to sell on the world market. These nations came to an accord towards the end of 2016 “to institutionalize a framework for cooperation between OPEC and non-OPEC producing countries on a regular and sustainable basis.” OPEC+ controls about 40% of global oil supplies and more than 80% of proven oil reserves. At the core of this group are the members of OPEC (the Organization of the Oil Exporting Countries), which are mainly Middle Eastern and African countries. It comprises OPEC countries plus Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Russia, Mexico, Malaysia, South Sudan, Sudan, and Oman.

  • OPEC+ members led by Saudi Arabia and Russia recently agreed to extend voluntary oil output cuts first announced in 2023 as part of an agreement among oil producers to boost prices following economic uncertainty.
Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 37

Consider the following statements about Article 25 of Indian Constitution

  1. Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).
  2. These rights are available to all persons–citizens as well as non-citizens.
  3. The rights under Article 25 are subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions relating to fundamental rights.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 37

Statement Analysis
Statement 1

  • Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion.
  • Freedom of conscience: Inner freedom of an individual to mould his relation with God or Creatures in whatever way he desires.
  • Right to profess: Declaration of one’s religious beliefs and faith openly and freely.
  • Right to practice: Performance of religious worship, rituals, ceremonies, and exhibition of beliefs and ideas.
  • Right to propagate: Transmission and dissemination of one’s religious beliefs to others or exposition of the tenets of one’s religion.
  • Thus, Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).

Statement 2

  • The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 and 28 are available to all persons whether citizens or foreigners.

Statement 3

  • These rights are subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions relating to fundamental rights.
  • Further, nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law to regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political, or other secular activity associated with religious practice; provide for social welfare and reform, or throw open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus;
  • Article 25 also contains two explanations: one, the wearing and carrying of kirpans is to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion; and two, the Hindus, in this context, include Sikhs, Jains, and Buddhists.

The Kerala High Court recently observed that the fundamental right under Article 25 of the Constitution to enter a temple for worship does not give the right to any member of the Hindu community to perform the role of Archakas (priests).

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 38

‘Neora Valley National Park’ which was recently in news is located in 

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 38
  • Neora Valley National Park, nestled in the Eastern Himalayas of West Bengal, India, is a pristine biodiversity hotspot. Spanning around 88 square kilometers.
  • The park is characterized by dense forests, gushing rivers, and diverse flora and fauna. Home to elusive species like the Red Panda, Himalayan Tahr, and numerous avian species, it attracts nature enthusiasts and researchers alike.
  • The park’s elevation, ranging from 183 to 3,200 meters, contributes to its rich ecological diversity. With its breathtaking landscapes and unique wildlife,
  • Neora Valley National Park stands as a conservation haven, preserving the natural treasures of the Eastern Himalayan region.

A recent image captured by trap cameras in the Neora Valley National Park in the hills of West Bengal has confirmed the presence of Royal Bengal Tigers at an altitude of 10,509 feet above sea level.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 39

With reference to ‘Finance Commission’ consider the following statements

  1. It is a constitutionally mandated body under Article 280 of the constitution.
  2. The qualification of chairman and members are defined in an act of Parliament.

Select the INCORRECT statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 39

Statement 1

  • It is a Constitutionally mandated body that is at the center of fiscal federalism.
  • It is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
  • Its working is characterized by extensive and intensive consultations with all levels of governments, thus strengthening the principle of cooperative federalism.

Functions
It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to—

  • the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
  • the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
  • the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
  • the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State; any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.

Composition
As per the provisions contained in the Finance Commission [Miscellaneous Provisions] Act, 1951 and The Finance Commission (Salaries & Allowances) Rules, 1951, the Chairman of the Commission is selected from among persons who have had experience in public affairs, and the four other members are selected from among persons who–

  • are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court; or
  • have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of Government; or
  • have had wide experience in financial matters and in administration; or
  • have special knowledge of economics

The government appointed former Niti Aayog vice chairman, Arvind Panagariya as the chairman of the Sixteenth Finance Commission

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 40

Consider the following statements about ‘Hangul’

  1. It is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer endemic to Kashmir and surrounding areas
  2. It is classified as Critically Endangered by IUCN and comes under Appendix I of CITES agreement

Select the INCORRECT statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 40

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • The Kashmir stag also called hangul is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer endemic to Kashmir and surrounding areas. It is found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of Jammu and Kashmir and northern Himachal Pradesh.

Statement 2

  • It is classified as Critically Endangered by IUCN and comes under Appendix I of CITES agreement. In Kashmir, it is found primarily in the Dachigam National Park where it receives protection.

In a recent census conducted at Kashmir’s Dachigam National Park, it was found that the population of Hangul or Kashmiri Stag has gradually increased over time at the national park.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 41

With reference to ‘Alaska pox’ consider the following statements

  1. It is an orthopox virus that was first discovered in Alaska, USA, in 2015.
  2. It is a single-stranded DNA virus belonging to the same genus (Orthopoxvirus) as smallpox, monkey pox, and cowpox.
  3. Symptoms of Alaska pox have included one or more skin lesions (bumps or pustules) and other symptoms like swollen lymph nodes and joint and/or muscle pain.

How many statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 41

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • Alaska pox was first identified in 2015 in a woman from Fairbanks, Alaska, presenting with skin lesions

Statement 2

  • It is a double-stranded DNA virus belonging to the same genus (Orthopoxvirus) as smallpox, monkey pox, and cowpox.
  • Orthopoxvirus are zoonotic viruses that can infect various mammals, including humans.
  • Current evidence indicates that the Alaska pox virus primarily occurs in small mammals. The virus has been most commonly identified in red-backed voles and shrews.

Statement 3

  • Signs and Symptoms:
  • Symptoms of Alaska pox have included one or more skin lesions (bumps or pustules) and other symptoms like swollen lymph nodes and joint and/or muscle pain.
  • Nearly all patients had mild illnesses that resolved on their own after a few weeks.
  • Immune compromised people might be at increased risk for more severe illness.
  • Can people with Alaska pox infect other people?
  • While human-to-human transmission of Alaska pox has not yet been observed, some orthopoxviruses can spread by direct contact with lesions (particularly broken skin contact with lesion secretions).

An elderly man from Alaska recently became the first person to die after contracting Alaska pox.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 42

With reference to ‘‘National Judicial Academy (NJA)’’ consider the following statements

  1. It was established in 1993 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, is an independent society, fully funded by the Government of India.
  2. Hon’ble Chief Justice of India is the director of NJA.

Select the INCORRECT statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 42

Statement 1

  • NJA, established in 1993 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, is an independent society, fully funded by the Government of India, and works under the directions of the Supreme Court of India.
  • Mandate: Strengthening the Administration of Justice through Judicial Education, Research, and Policy Development.

Statement 2

  • The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the Chairman of the General Body of NJA as well as the Chairman of the Governing Council, the Executive Committee, and the Academic Council of NJA.
  • The Director, NJA is the Principal Executive Officer of NJA. The Director is appointed by the Chairman, the Hon’ble Chief Justice of India.

Supreme Court said recently while asserting that all advocates should undergo compulsory training.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 43

With reference to ‘Kuril Islands’ consider the following statements

  1. It is disputed island between Japan and China.
  2. It is located in South China Sea.

Select the INCORRECT statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 43

Statement 1
The Kuril Islands, a volcanic archipelago stretching between Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula and Japan’s Hokkaido, hold geopolitical significance. These islands, disputed between Russia and Japan, are a complex blend of natural beauty and historical tensions.
Statement 2
The Kuril Islands are located in the Sea of Okhotsk, which is part of the northwest Pacific Ocean. The Sea of Okhotsk is bordered by the Kamchatka Peninsula of Russia to the west, the Kuril Islands to the northeast, the Russian mainland and Sakhalin Island to the west, and Hokkaido, Japan, to the south. The Kuril Islands stretch from the northeastern tip of Hokkaido to the southern tip of Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula, forming a volcanic archipelago in this maritime region.

An earthquake of magnitude 6.3 on the Richter Scale jolted Japan’s Kuril Islands.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 44

With reference to ‘XPoSat mission’ consider the following statements

  1. XPoSat is a collaborative project between ISRO and NASA
  2. The XPoSAT mission launched using Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
  3. India became the third nation in the world to send an observatory to study black holes and neutron stars.

How many statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 44

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is India’s first dedicated polarimetry mission to study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources in extreme conditions.
  • The mission helps in comprehending the emission processes from various astronomical sources like black holes, neutron stars, active galactic nuclei, and pulsar wind nebulae.
  • Space based observatories are also unable to give information about the exact nature of the emission from such sources. Therefore, newer devices can measure specific properties.

Statement 2

  • The XPoSAT mission launch also marked the 60th flight of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
  • The spacecraft will carry two scientific payloads in a low earth orbit. The primary payload POLIX (Polarimeter Instrument in X-rays) will measure the polarimetry parameters.
  • The XSPECT (X-ray Spectroscopy and Timing) payload will give spectroscopic information in the energy range of 0.8-15 keV.

Statement 3

  • After this launch, India became the second nation after the US to send an observatory to study astronomical sources, such as black holes, and neutron stars, among others.
  • XPoSat’s payloads

Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation successfully launched the PSLV-C58 XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) mission.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 45

Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Innovations for Defence Excellence-Defence Innovation Organisation (iDEX-DIO)’

  1. Statement 1 – The scheme aims to cultivate an innovation ecosystem by collaborating with startups, innovators, MSMEs, incubators, and academia.
  2. Statement 2 – It offers grants and support for R&D with significant potential for future adoption in Indian defence and aerospace.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 45

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • Innovations for Defence Excellence-Defence Innovation Organisation is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Defence, Govt of India launched in 2018. Objective: The objective of the scheme is to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector by collaborating with startups, innovators, MSMEs, incubators, and academia.

Statement 2

  • It will be funded and managed by a ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO)’ which has been formed as a ‘not for profit’ company as per the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose, by the two founder memberse. Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) – HAL & BEL. It offers grants and support for R&D with significant potential for future adoption in Indian defence and aerospace.

The Innovations for Defence Excellence-Defence Innovation Organisation (iDEX-DIO), under the aegis of Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence, is organising DefConnect 2024 at Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi on March 04, 2024.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 46

Consider the following statements with respect to ‘LEAPS (Logistics Excellence, Advancement, and Performance Shield) Initiative’

  1. It is designed to acknowledge and celebrate the best practices and innovations within the logistics industry
  2. It is a flagship initiative of DPIIT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  3. It also recognizes the MSMEs, Startups and logistics sector enablers apart from recognizing players in the logistics sector

How many of the statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 46

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • The initiative is designed to acknowledge and celebrate the best practices and innovations within the logistics industry. It would celebrate the demonstrated leadership of the logistics sector in transforming the Indian logistics industry and realizing the combined vision of the National Logistics Policy 2022 and PM GatiShakti.

    Statement 2

  • LEAPS (Logistics Excellence, Advancement, and Performance Shield) Initiative is a flagship initiative by the logistics division of DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, designed to acknowledge and celebrate the best practices and innovations within the logistics industry.

Statement 3

  • LEAPS will create a new benchmark globally by not only recognizing players in the logistics sector, but also the MSMEs, Startups and logistics sector enablers who have been providing innovative solutions across the logistics ecosystem.

The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry organised a LEAPS Valedictory Session recently.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 47

Consider the following statements with respect to ‘National Commission for Protection of Child Rights’

  1. It is an executive body working under the Ministry of Women and Child Development
  2. It is mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012
  3. The members are appointed by the President for a term of 5 years

How many of the statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 47

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

  • National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has been constituted by the Government of India, under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. The Commission is mandated under section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005 “to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.”

Statement 2

  • It is also mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012; Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.

Statement 3

  • A chairperson who, is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children Six members, out of which at least two are woman, from the following fields, is appointed by the Central Government from amongst person of eminence, ability, integrity, standing and experience in Education, Child health, care, welfare or child development; Juvenile justice or care of neglected or marginalized children or children with disabilities, Elimination of child labour or children in distress, Child psychology or sociology; and Laws relating to children. These members are appointed by the Central Government for a term of 3 years.

The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has sought action against an app for allegedly disseminating explicit and objectionable material, including content targeted at children.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 48

Consider the following statements about Haemophilia A

  1. It is a sex linked disorder the gene for hemophilia is carried on the X chromosome.
  2. It is a rare disorder in which the blood doesn’t clot in the typical way because it doesn’t have enough blood-clotting proteins.

Choose the incorrect statement:

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 48

Statement Analysis
Statement 1

  • It is a genetic disorder that affects the body’s ability to form blood clots.
  • It is a rare disorder in which the blood doesn’t clot in the typical way because it doesn’t have enough blood-clotting proteins.
  • Symptoms: Signs and symptoms of hemophilia vary, depending on the level of clotting factors.
  • Males are much more likely to have hemophilia than are females.

Statement 2

  • It is a sex linked disorder. The gene for hemophilia is carried on the X chromosome.
  • Causes: It is caused by a mutation or change, in one of the genes, that provides instructions for making the clotting factor proteins needed to form a blood clot. This type is caused by a lack or decrease of clotting factor VIII.

Treatment:

  • It involves replacement therapy, which involves infusing clotting factor concentrates into the bloodstream to help the blood clot.
  • Other treatments may include medications to promote clotting or surgery to repair damage caused by bleeding.

Recently, the Union Science and Technology Minister told that India has conducted the first human clinical trial of gene therapy for ‘haemophilia A’ at Christian Medical College – Vellore.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 49

With reference to ‘Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)’, consider the following statements
Statement 1- D-SIBs are like financial giants – their failure could have a domino effect, shaking the entire banking system and harming the economy.
Statement 2- Regulators closely monitor D-SIBs and require them to hold extra capital to prevent any crisis
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 49

Statement Analysis:

  • While ICICI Bank maintains its previous categorization, SBI and HDFC Bank have moved to higher buckets
  • About Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
  • The BCBS finalized its framework for dealing with D-SIBs in October 2012. The D-SIB framework focuses on the impact that the distress or failure of banks will have on the domestic economy.
  • As opposed to the G-SIB framework, D-SIB framework is based on the assessment conducted by the national authorities, who are best placed to evaluate the impact of failure on the local financial system and the local economy.
  • The RBI had issued the framework for dealing with D-SIB in 2014. The D-SIB framework requires the Reserve Bank to disclose the names of banks designated as D-SIBs starting from 2015 and place these banks in appropriate buckets depending upon their Systemic Importance Scores (SISs).
  • The indicators which are used for assessment are: size, interconnectedness, substitutability and complexity.
  • Based on their systemic importance scores in ascending order, banks are plotted into four different buckets and are required to have additional Common Equity Tier 1 Capital (CET1) requirements ranging from 0.20% to 0.80% of risk weighted assets (RWA).
  • CET1 is the highest quality of regulatory capital, as it absorbs losses immediately when they occur. It is a capital measure introduced in 2014 globally as a precautionary means to protect the economy from a financial crisis.
  • RWA, are used to link the minimum amount of capital that banks must have, with the risk profile of the bank’s lending activities (and other assets).
  • In case a foreign bank having branch presence in India is a Global Systemically Important Bank (G-SIB), it has to maintain additional CET1 capital surcharge in India as applicable to it as a G-SIB, proportionate to its Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) in India.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released its list of domestic systemically important banks (D-SIBs) for 2023, including the State Bank of India (SBI), HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank.

Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 50

With reference to ‘Earthquakes’, consider the following statements
Statement 1- Earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy in the Earth’s crust, leading to seismic waves.
Statement 2- The point on the Earth’s surface directly above the earthquake’s point of origin is called the epicenter.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Test: Current Affairs- 4 - Question 50

Statement Analysis:
Earthquakes are sudden tremors of the Earth’s surface caused by the release of energy in the form of seismic waves. These waves travel outward from the point of origin, shaking the ground and sometimes causing widespread damage.
Causes:

  • Tectonic plate movement: The Earth’s crust is made up of giant plates that are constantly moving. When these plates grind against each other or suddenly slip, the energy released can trigger an earthquake.
  • Volcanic activity: Magma movement within volcanoes can also cause earthquakes, though generally less powerful than those caused by plate movement.

Types of Seismic Waves:

  • P-waves: These are the fastest waves, traveling through the Earth’s interior. They compress and expand the ground as they pass.
  • S-waves: These are slower than P-waves and can only travel through solid rock. They shake the ground from side to side.
  • Surface waves: These are the slowest and most destructive waves, causing the ground to roll and sway. They travel along the Earth’s surface.

Measuring Earthquakes: Earthquakes are measured by two main scales:

  • Magnitude: This measures the amount of energy released by the earthquake, based on the amplitude of seismic waves recorded on seismographs. It is a logarithmic scale, meaning that a magnitude 7 earthquake is ten times stronger than a magnitude 6 earthquake.
  • Intensity: This measures the shaking felt at a specific location, considering factors like distance from the epicenter and local geology. It is not a fixed scale and can vary significantly within a single earthquake.

Impact of Earthquakes: Earthquakes can have devastating consequences, causing:

  • Ground shaking: The most immediate impact, leading to building collapses, infrastructure damage, and landslides.
  • Tsunamis: Large earthquakes underwater can generate tsunamis, giant waves that can inundate coastal areas.
  • Liquefaction: When earthquake shaking loosens and saturates the ground, it can liquefy, causing buildings to sink and infrastructure to buckle.
  • Fires: Broken gas lines and electrical sparks can ignite fires, exacerbating the damage.

Context: Earthquake and Tsunami strikes Central Japan

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