Test: Geography - 2 (August 10, 2021)


25 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | Test: Geography - 2 (August 10, 2021)


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QUESTION: 1

Consider the following statements:

1. Temperate Grasslands of the midlatitude region are best-suited climatic regions for the production of wheat.

2. The harvesting of wheat is most advantageous during warm and sunny summer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is correct: Temperate grasslands of the mid-latitudes produce the greatest quantity of wheat per capita amongst the world’s wheat-growing nations.

The temperate grasslands are ideal for extensive wheat cultivation.

They are, naturally the greatest wheat exporters.

Statement 2 is correct: Three-quarters of the world's wheat is winter wheat, i.e. wheat sown in winter or late autumn, and is then harvested in the summer.

The cool, moist spring stimulates early growth and the light showers in the ripening period help to swell the grains to ensure a good yield. They warm, sunny summer is not only advantageous for harvesting but also enables the straw to be dried for farm use.

It is a hard wheat with a low moisture content, being ripened in the hot, sunny, continental summer. It is best for bread-making and is extensively traded.

QUESTION: 2

With reference to various trends of population growth across the world, consider the following statements:

1. The population of the world has more than tripled in the last century.

2. Asia has the highest rate of population growth during the last decade.

3. Currently the annual population growth rate in India is above 2%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Human population increased more than ten times in the past 500 hundred years. In the twentieth century itself the population has increased four times. Hence statement 1 is correct.

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following major ports of India:

1. Kandla

2. Vishakhapatnam

3. Marmagao

4. Paradwip

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the above ports as we travel from North to South?

Solution: Kandla - It is situated at the head of Gulf of Kuchchh has been developed as a major port to cater to the needs of western and north western parts of the country and also to reduce the pressure at Mumbai port. The port is specially designed to receive large quantities of petroleum and petroleum products and fertiliser. The offshore terminal at Vadinar has been developed to reduce the pressure at Kandla port,

Paradwip - It is situated in the Mahanadi delta, about 100 km from Cuttack. It has the deepest harbour specially suited to handle very large vessels. It has been developed mainly to handle large-scale export of iron-ore. Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand are the parts of its hinterland,

Vishakhapatnam - situated in Andhra Pradesh is a land-locked harbour, connected to the sea by a channel cut through solid rock and sand. An outer harbour has been developed for handling iron-ore, petroleum and general cargo. Andhra Pradesh and Telangana are the main hinterland for this port,

Marmagao - It is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary, is a natural harbour in Goa. It gained significance after its remodelling in 1961 to handle iron-ore exports to Japan. Construction of Konkan railway has considerably extended the hinterland of this port. Karnataka, Goa, Southern Maharashtra constitute its hinterland,

Hence, option (d) is correct.

QUESTION: 4

Consider the following pairs:

Dam Projects Rivers

1. Indirasagar Bcas

2. Krishnarajasagar Krishna

3. Mettur Kaveri

Solution: Indira Sagar dam built on the Narmada river. It is a concrete gravity dam, located in Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh. Indira sagar project was the key project on Narmada river providing excellent storage site of water. Indira Sagar Dam has the biggest reservoir in India. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Krishnarajasagar Dam built across Kaveri River near Mysore in Karnataka. It is one of the principal and largest dam built on the river Kaveri in Karnataka in, South India. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched,

Mettur Dam built across Kaveri River at Salem district in Tamil Nadu, It is one the largest and one of the oldest dam built in India. Mettur Dam has biggest and the most power generating capacity dam in Tamil Nadu. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

QUESTION: 5

With reference to the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA), consider the following statements:

1. It is the free trade agreement of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) countries.

2. It came into effect in 2018.

3. India is one of the signatory countries to the agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: (i) The South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) is the free trade arrangement of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). Hence statement 1 is correct.

(ii) The agreement came into force in 2006, succeeding the 1993 SAARC Preferential Trading

Arrangement. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

(iii) SAFTA signatory countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. Hence statement 3 is correct.

(iv) SAFTA recognizes the need for special and differential treatment for LDCs in its preamble.

This has been translated in the following measures:

(i) Market access: LDCs benefit from smaller sensitive lists in some of the SAFTA members and less stringent rules of origin.

(ii) LDCs were allowed smaller initial tariff reduction and longer implementation periods under trade liberalization programmes.

(iii) LDCs can have a longer list of sensitive products exempted from liberalization commitments than non-LDC signatories

(iv) LDCs were granted greater flexibility in the continuation of quantitative or other restrictions.

QUESTION: 6

Arrange the following minerals in increasing order of their total global reserves.

1. Gold

2. Silver

3. Titanium

4. Tin

Solution: Global reserves of the following minerals are as follows

(i) Gold - 42 Metric Tons (Mt)

(ii) Silver - 780 Mt

(iii) Tin - 5930 Mt

(iv) Titanium - 2,88,600 Mt

QUESTION: 7

Consider two countries X and Y having equal amount of net cultivated area and equal population size. Farming in country X is highly mechanised and it has lesser number of agricultural population compared to country Y. In this context consider the following statements:

1. Physiological density in country X is higher than country Y.

2. Agricultural density in country X is higher than country Y.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: (i) The physiological density is the number of people per unit area of net cultivated area.

(ii) Physiological density = total population / net cultivated area

(iii) The agricultural density is the number of farmers per unit area of net cultivated area.

(iv) Agricultural density = total agricultural population / net cultivable area

(v) Agricultural population includes cultivators and agricultural labourers and their family members,

Statement 1 is not correct: Physiological density is same in both countries as their population and net cultivated area are same.

Statement 2 is not correct: Agricultural density in country X is lower than country Y as it is highly mechanised and has lesser number of agricultural population for same amount of net cultivable area

QUESTION: 8

Consider the following statements regarding the Natural Gas Reserves in India:

1. India has both on-shore and off-shore Natural Gas reserves.

2. Natural Gas Reserves are mainly concentrated in the Western India.

Which of the statements given above is/arc correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is correct: Oil drilling falls into one of two main categories: offshore and onshore. The location of the drilling is the most obvious difference, but the two types vary in other areas, including cost, profits, timelines for drilling and processes.India has both on-shore as well off-shore reserves of Natural Gas. One of the off-shore reserves is near Mumbai High in Arabia Sea.

Statement 2 is not correct: Majority of the Natural Gas Reserves are concentrated in the Eastern and North-Eastern India.

Onshore drilling refers to drilling deep holes under the earth's surface whereas offshore drilling relates to drilling underneath the seabed. These drilling methods are used in order to extract natural resources - usually oil and gas - from the earth. While extracting oil from below the surface of the ocean used to be much more difficult than the traditional onshore drilling method of making wells on land and drilling holes, offshore drilling has become easier through the innovative methods that have surfaced such as making either floating or fixed platforms on the bed of the ocean to support drilling.

QUESTION: 9

Which of the following parameters of a population is/arc an indicator of its socioeconomic development?

1. Literacy rate

2. Occupational structure

3. Rural-urban composition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Proportion of literate population of a country in an indicator of its socio-economic development as it reveals the standard of living, social status of females, availability of educational facilities and policies of government Level of economic development is both a cause and consequence of literacy. In India - literacy rate denotes the percentage of population above 7 years of age, who is able to read, write and have the ability to do arithmetic calculations with understanding.

The division of population into rural and urban is based on the residence. This division is necessary because rural and urban life styles differ from each other in terms of their livelihood and social conditions. The age-sex-occupational structure, density of population and level of development vary between rural and urban areas.

Agriculture, forestry, fishing and mining are classified as primary activities manufacturing as secondary, trade, transport, communication and other services as tertiary and the jobs related to research, information technology and developing ideas as quaternary activities. The proportion of working population engaged in these four sectors is a good indicator of the levels of economic development of a nation. This is because only a developed economy with industries and infrastructure can accommodate more workers in the secondary, tertiary and quaternary sector. If the economy is still in the primitive stages, then the proportion of people engaged in primary activities world be high as it involves extraction of natural resources.

Hence the correct answer is option (d).

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding 'population ageing'?

Solution: Population ageing is the process by which the share of the older population becomes proportionally larger. This is a new phenomenon of the twentieth century. In most of the developed countries of the world, population in higher age groups has increased due to increased life expectancy. With a reduction in birth rates, the proportion of children in the population has declined.

Hence the correct answer is option (d).

QUESTION: 11

Consider the following statements:

1. The cotton textile industry in India developed under the British patronage.

2. Currently, the highest number of textile mills arc located in the state of Tamil Nadu.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: The cotton textile industry is one of the traditional industries of India. India was famous worldwide for the production of muslin, a very fine variety of cotton cloth, calicos, chintz and other different varieties of fine cotton cloth. The British initially discouraged the development of the indigenous cotton textile industry. They exported raw cotton to their mills in Manchester and Liverpool and brought back the finished products to be sold in India. This cloth was cheaper because it was produced at mass scale in factories in the U.K. as compared to the cottage based industries of India. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

By 1947, the number of mills in India went up to 423 but the scenario changed after partition, and this industry suffered a major recession. This was due to the fact that most of the good quality cotton-growing areas had gone to West Pakistan and India was left with 409 mills and only 29 percent of the cotton- producing area.

Tamil Nadu has the largest number of mills and most of them produce yarn rather than cloth. Coimbatore

has emerged as the most important center with nearly half the mills located there. Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Tuticorin, Thanjavur, Ramanathapuram and Salem are the other important centers. The total number of operational textile mills in Tamil Nadu is 752 (the figure has increased). While Tamil Nadu accounts for less than 2% of the country 's total raw cotton production, it has almost half of cotton spinning capacity in the country. Hence statement 2 is correct

QUESTION: 12

Consider the following statements:

1. Crude oil is a category of unrefined petroleum product.

2. Sweet crude contains more sulphur content as compared to Sour Crude.

3. Venezuela is the leading producer of Sweet crude oil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement I is correct: Crude oil is a naturally occurring, unrefined petroleum product composed of hydrocarbon deposits and other organic materials, A type of fossil fuel, crude oil can be refined to produce usable products such as gasoline, diesel and various forms of petrochemicals. It is a nonrenewable resource.

Crude oil is typically obtained through drilling, where it is usually found alongside other resources, such as natural gas (which is lighter and therefore sits above the crude oil) and saline water (which is denser and sinks below).

Crude oil is classified into two types, Sweet crude and Sour Crude depending on the content of Sulphur present in it.

Statement 2 is not correct: Crude oil may be referred to as sweet if it contains relatively little sulphur (0.5%) or sour if it contains substantial amounts of sulphur.

Sweet crude requires less energy to be extracted and once extracted, yields higher quality gasoline as well as larger quantities of it.

Statement 3 is not correct: Iraq is one of the leading producers of sweet crude.

Major locations where sweet crude is found include the Appalachian Basin in Eastern North America, Western Texas, the Bakken Formation of North Dakota and Saskatchewan, the North Sea of Europe, North Africa, Australia, and the Far East including Indonesia.

Sour crude, on the other hand, has a high level of impurities in it, namely sulphur, which must first be removed before being processed into gas and other petroleum-based products.

Venezuela is a leading producer of sour crude oil. Sour crude is more common in the Gulf of Mexico, Mexico, South America, and Canada.

Crude produced by OPEC member nations also tends to be relatively sour, with an average sulphur content of 1.77%.

QUESTION: 13

With reference to sex ratio, consider the following statements:

1. In India, sex ratio is in favour of the males, while the world average is in favour of females.

2. Majority countries with a higher proportion of the female population are located in West Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: The number of women and men in a country is an important demographic characteristic. The ratio between the number of women and men in the population is called the Sex Ratio. In some countries it is calculated by using the formula

Male Population/Female Population x 1000 or the number of males per thousand females,

In India, the sex ratio is worked out using the formula: Female Population/Male Population x 1000 or the number of females per thousand males,

On average, the world population reflects a sex ratio of 102 males per 100 females, o As per the latest figures (2018) according to the United Nations, the Sex ratio of the world in 2018 is 101.783. It means that the World has 101783 males for every 100000 females or 98248 females for every 100000 males. Hence statement 1 is net correct

The highest sex ratio in the world has been recorded in Latvia where there arc 85 males per 100 females. In contrast, in Qatar, there are 311 males per 100 females. The world pattern of sex ratio does not exhibit variations in the developed regions of the world. The sex ratio is favorable for females in 139 countries of the world and unfavorable for them in the remaining 72 countries listed by the United Nations,

In general, Asia has a low sex ratio. Countries like China, India, Saudi Arabia, Pakistan, Afghanistan have a lower sex ratio. According to the latest UN statistics, Eastern Europe has the highest ratio of the female population while Western Asia has the lowest. Among the top 20 countries having a greater proportion of females, 16 belongs to Europe and North America continent. Among the top 20 countries having a greater proportion of males, 14 belongs to Asia and 3 each from Africa and Oceania continent. Hence statement 2 is not correct,

On the other extreme is a greater part of Europe (including Russia) where males are in minority. A deficit of males in the populations of many European countries is attributed to a better status of women, and an excessively male-dominated out-migration to different parts of the world in the past.

QUESTION: 14

If you travel by road from Srinagar to Kolkata, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

Solution: If a person travels from Srinagar (Jammu & Kashmir ) to Kolkata (West Bengal) , then the minimum number of states through which he can pass via road is : Jammu & Kashmir - Himachal Pradesh - Uttar Pradesh - Jharkahnd - West Bengal

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following statements regarding India's International Trade in the past decade:

1. India s both exports and imports have seen a rise continuously.

2. The value of imports continued to be higher than that of exports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: However, from the below given image, it is clear that exports and imports have not seen a rise continuously. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 16

Rain-water harvesting can lead to:

1. Dilution of contaminants like fluorides and nitrates in groundwater

2. Prevention of soil erosion

3. Reduction in the saltwater intrusion in coastal areas

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Rainwater harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses. It is also used to recharge groundwater aquifers. It is a low cost and eco-friendly technique for preserving every drop of water by guiding the rainwater to bore well, pits and wells, o Rainwater harvesting has several benefits like

(i) Increases water availability,

(ii) Checks the declining groundwater table,

(iii) Improves the quality of groundwater through dilution of contaminants like fluoride and nitrates,

(iv) Prevents soil erosion and flooding and

(v) Arrests saltwater intrusion in coastal areas if used to recharge aquifers.

Rainwater harvesting has been practiced through various methods by different communities in the country for a long time. There is a wide scope to use rainwater harvesting technique to conserve precious water resource. It can be done by harvesting rainwater on rooftops and open spaces.

QUESTION: 17

Consider the following statements regarding the mineral resources:

1. Khetri and Bhilwara arc famous for Copper mines.

2. Amarkantak and Koraput are famous for Bauxite extraction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is correct: Famous Copper extraction mines in India are Khetri, Alwar, Bhilwara, and Udaipur in Rajasthan, Balaghat in Madhya Pradesh, Hazaribagh and Singhbhum in Jharkhand.

Statement 2 is correct: Famous Bauxite mines in India are Katni, Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh, Bilaspur and Maikala Hills in Chhattisgarh, Koraput in Odisha.

QUESTION: 18

Which of the following cities in India are among the top ten largest megacities based on population?

1. New Delhi

2. Mumbai

3. Kolkata

4. Chennai

Solution:

According to the United Nation’s World Urbanisation Prospects 2018, Tokyo is the world‘s largest city with an agglomeration of 37 million inhabitants, followed by New Delhi with 29 million, Shanghai with 26 million, and Mexico City and Sao Paulo, each with around 22 million inhabitants. Today, Cairo, Mumbai, Beijing and Dhaka all have close to 20 million inhabitants.

By 2020, Tokyo‘s population is projected to begin to decline, while Delhi is projected to continue growing and to become the most populous city in the world around 2028.

 

 

 

QUESTION: 19

Which of the following metallic minerals belong(s) to the category of ferrous minerals?

1. Manganese

2. Copper

3. Bauxite

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: On the basis of chemical and physical properties, minerals are be grouped under two main categories of metallics and non-metallics.

Metallic minerals are the sources of metals. Iron ore and copper produce metal and are included in this category. Non-metallic minerals are either organic in origin such as fossil fuels also known as mineral fuels which are derived from the buried animal and plant life such as coal and petroleum. Other type of non-metallic minerals are inorganic in origin such as mica, limestone, and graphite, etc.

Metallic minerals are further divided into ferrous and non-ferrous metallic minerals. Ferrous minerals refers to iron. Thus, all those minerals which have iron content are ferrous such as iron ore itself. For e.g iron, manganese etc. Hence option 1 is correct.

Those metallic minerals which do not have iron content are referred to as non-ferrous such as copper, bauxite, aluminium, brass, lead etc. Hence options 2 and 3 are not correct.

QUESTION: 20

Consider the following statements with respect to Census in India:

1. The first complete Census was conducted in the first decade of the 20th century.

2. Population in India has steadily and continuously increased in the last century.

Which of the statements given above is/arc correct?

Solution: A population Census is the process of collecting, compiling, analyzing and disseminating demographic, social, cultural and economic data relating to all persons in the country, at a particular time in ten years interval.

The first population Census in India was conducted in 1872 but its first synchronous decennial Census was conducted only in 1881. Since then, censuses have been undertaken uninterruptedly once every ten years. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

The census year 1921 registered a negative growth rate of -0.31 per cent which happened only once throughout the demographic history of India. It is because of this decline that the year 1921 is called the ’demographic divide’ in the demographic history of India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Out of the 121 crore Indians, 83.3 crore live in rural areas while 37.7 crore stay in urban areas. Census 2011 shows that for the first time since Independence, the absolute increase in population is more in urban areas than in rural areas. The rural-urban distribution is 68.84% and 31.16% respectively.

QUESTION: 21

'Aus\ Amaif and 'Boro' arc terms used to denote which of the following?

Solution: Rice is a staple food for the overwhelming majority of the population in India. Though it is considered to be a crop of tropical humid areas, it has about 3,000 varieties which are grown in different agro-climatic regions. These are successfully grown from sea level to about 2,000 m altitude and from humid areas in eastern India to dry but irrigated areas of Punjab, Haryana, western U.P., and northern Rajasthan.

In southern states and West Bengal, the climatic conditions allow the cultivation of two or three crops of rice in an agricultural year. In West Bengal farmers grow three crops of rice called „aus", „aman" and „boro". But in Himalayas and northwestern parts of the country, it is grown as a kharif crop during southwest Monsoon season.

QUESTION: 22

'Human beings can conquer nature by obeying it' is a concept proposed under which of the following?

Solution: Nature is extremely important to develop technology and technology loosens the shackles of environment on human beings. In the early stages of their interaction with their natural environment humans were greatly influenced by it. They adapted to the dictates of Nature. This is so because the level of technology was very low and the stage of human social development was also primitive. This type of interaction between primitive human society and strong forces of nature was termed as environmental determinism. At that stage of very low technological development we can imagine the presence of a naturalised human, who listened to Nature, was afraid of its fury and worshipped it.

With social and cultural development, humans develop better and more efficient technology. They move from a state of necessity to a state of freedom. They create possibilities with the resources obtained from the environment. The human activities create cultural landscape. The imprints of human activities are created everywhere; health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains and rolling hills, ports on the coasts, oceanic routes on the oceanic surface and satellites in the space. The earlier scholars termed this as possibilism.

A geographer, Griffith Taylor introduced another concept which reflects a middle path (Madhyam Marg) between the two ideas of environmental determinism and possibilism. He termed it as Neodeterminism or stop and go determinism. The concept shows that neither is there a situation of absolute necessity (environmental determinism) nor is there a condition of absolute freedom (possibilism). It means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it. They have to respond to the red signals and can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits the modifications. It means that possibilities can be created within the limits which do not damage the environment and there is no free run without accidents. Hence the correct answer is option (c).

QUESTION: 23

Which of the following are essential raw materials for Iron and Steel Industry?

1. Coking coal

2. Limestone

3. Fire clay

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Almost all sectors of the Indian industry depend heavily on the iron and steel industry for their basic infrastructure. The other raw materials besides iron ore and coking coal,essential for iron and steel industry are limestone, dolomite, manganese and fire clay. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Coking coal is a vital ingredient in the steel making process as iron occurs only as iron oxides in the earth’s crust. Hence, the ores must be converted, or ’reduced’, using carbon. The primary source of this carbon is coking coal.

Limestone is used as a slag former for removing impurities in the extraction of iron ore.

Dolomite is used as a slag former, slag modifier and as a refractory material.

Manganese removes oxygen and sulfur when iron ore (an iron and oxygen compound) is converted into iron. It also is an essential alloy that helps convert iron into steel.

Fire clay is used in the iron and steel industry as it can withstand high temperature and used for making refractories.

QUESTION: 24

Consider the following statements regarding 'Green Revolution' in India:

1. It was limited to a few crops only.

2. Initially, it led to regional disparities in agricultural development in the country.

3. It made the country self-reliant in foodgrain production.

Which of the statements given above arc correct?

Solution: New seed varieties of wheat (Mexico) and rice (Philippines) known as high yielding varieties (HYVs) were available for cultivation by mid-1960s. India took advantage of this and introduced package technology comprising HYVs, along with chemical fertilizers in irrigated areas of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, and Gujarat. Hence statement 1 is correct.

An assured supply of soil moisture through irrigation was a basic pre-requisite for the success of this new agricultural technology. This strategy of agricultural development paid dividends instantly and increased foodgrains production at a very fast rate. This spurt of agricultural growth came to be known as =Green Revolution4.

This also gave a fillip to the development of a large number of agro-inputs, agro-processing industries, and small-scale industries. This strategy of agricultural development made the country self-reliant in foodgrain production. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The green revolution was initially confined to irrigated areas only. This led to regional disparities in agricultural development in the country until the seventies, after which the technology spread to the Eastern and Central parts of the country. Hence statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 25

Which of the following bases were used in the enumeration of migration in Census 2011?

1. Rail Traffic Data

2. Place of birth

3. Place of residence

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: In the Census of India migration is enumerated on two bases

(i) Place of birth, if the place of birth is different from the place of enumeration (known as life-time migrant);

(ii) Place of residence, if the place of last residence is different from the place of enumeration (known as migrant by place of last residence).

(iii) As per 2001 census, out of 1,029 million people in the country, 307 million (30 per cent) were reported as migrants by place of birth. However, this figure was 315 million (31 per cent) in case of place of last residence. Over 45.58 crore Indians were found to be “migrants” for various reasons during the enumeration exercises of Census 2011. Census data shows that marriage and employment are the major reasons for migration.

(iv) The Economic Survey 2016-17 used data from Census 2011, rail traffic data and changes in population in different age categories to estimate migration statistics. It estimates that an average of 90 million people migrated annually through railways between Indian statesannually during the last five years.

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