UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 1


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 1


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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 1 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 1 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 1 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 1 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 1 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

With reference to impact on rights of Citizens during National Emergency, consider the following statements:

  1. Right to constitutional remedies is immune from suspension under any kind of national emergency.

  2. Right to freedom of speech and expression get automatically suspended when a national emergency is imposed on grounds of war and external aggression only.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 359 of Constitution provides for suspension of enforcement of fundamental rights. Suspension of enforcement of fundamental rights implies right to constitutional remedies are not immune from suspension under any kind of national emergency. Right to constitutional remedies gets suspended only through Presidential orders. Presidential order mentions which all right’s enforcement are suspended. The article applies in all cases of national emergency i.e. war, external aggression or armed rebellion. Also,

  • Statement 2 is correct: Article 358 of Constitution provides for automatic suspension of freedom of speech and expression (Article 19). 44th Amendment limits the suspension of freedom of speech and expression only when National Emergency is imposed on the grounds of war and external aggression (external emergency) and not in case of internal emergency (armed rebellion).

QUESTION: 2

With reference to ancient Indian history, consider the following statements:

  1. The use of iron plough in agriculture was seen for the first time in Kalibangan during Harappan period.

  2. The republic form of governance was a prevalent during the later Vedic era.

  3. A large-scale use of bronze was prevalent during the Megalithic period in South India.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Indus Valley was predominated by bronze age culture. Kalibangan in Rajasthan has given the evidence of the earliest (2800 BC) ploughed agricultural field, revealed through an excavation. Plough used at Kalibangan was probably of wooden and copper and not of iron.

  • Statement 2 is correct: A republican government is one in which the political authority comes from the people.

    The later Vedic period witnessed certain significant changes in the political structure which were closely related to the growing importance of settled agriculture and the consequent social differentia-tion. Later Vedic literature contains, probably for the first time, discussions on the origins of kingship which is quaintly stated in the Aitareya Brahmana.

    Instances of the election of the king appear in the later Vedic texts. Those individuals who were considered to have the best physical and other attributes were elected Raja.

    There were certain other limitations also on the authority of the king. The king could also be elected and there are references in Atharva Veda of his expulsion, re-election and restorations to the throne. The king had to take an oath of loyalty to the constitution and law at the time of his coronation. There is also the mention of king taking approval or Anumati of the earth. The King was often elected by an assembly i.e. Samiti. Sabha in the exercise of its judicial functions could remove the King.

    The Sabha and the Samiti also acted as a check on the king. These two bodies have been described as the twin daughters of god Prajapati, and therefore, were no fewer divine creations than the kingship.

QUESTION: 3

‘Education Quality Upgradation and Inclusive Programme (EQUIP)’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to

Solution:

Statement a is correct: The EQUIP exercise has set the following objectives to be achieved in a period of 5 years:

  • Double the Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education and resolve the geographically and socially skewed access to higher education institutions in India

  • Upgrade the quality of education to global standards

  • Position at least 50 Indian institutions among the top-1000 global universities

  • Introduce governance reforms in higher education

  • Accreditation of all institutions as an assurance of quality

  • Promote Research & Innovation ecosystems

  • Double the employability of the students passing out of higher education

  • Harness education technology for expanding the reach

  • Promote India as a study destination

  • Achieve a quantum increase in investment in higher education

Statements b, c and d are recommendations of the committee for draft National educational Policy which was chaired by Dr. K. Kasturirangan. The report proposes an education policy, which seeks to address the challenges of: (i) access, (ii) equity, (iii) quality, (iv) affordability, and (v) accountability faced by the current education system.

QUESTION: 4

Almatti Dam is on which of the following rivers?

Solution:

The Almatti Dam is a dam project on the Krishna River in North Karnataka, India which was completed in 2005.

QUESTION: 5

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Preamble to Indian

Constitution?

Solution:

Option a is correct: Preamble sets the nature of state i.e. it mentions Indian state to be sovereign, secular, republic and democratic. It set the objectives of Indian state i.e. it ensures social, economic and political justice; equality of status and opportunity; brotherhood, fraternity, unity and integrity.

Option b is incorrect: Preamble is based on the Objective Resolution introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1946. On the basis of the Objectives Resolution, India’s Preamble gave expression to the fundamental commitments: equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty and a cosmopolitan identity.

Option c is correct: The Supreme court in Berubari case 1960, held that Preamble serves as a key to open the minds of the framers, and shows the general purpose for which they made the several provisions in the Constitution.

Option d is correct: The Constitution can be amended to meet the needs and requirements of present times, provided it does not violate basic structure. Hence, Preamble too can be amended as it reflects the goals and objectives of the Constitution. It gets amended only under Article 368 by special majority.

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements in respect of The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (recognition of forest rights) Act, 2006:

  1. It was enacted to protect the marginalised socio-economic class of citizens and balance the right to environment with their right to life and livelihood.

  2. It authorises the Gram Sabha to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both that may be given to the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers within the local limits of its jurisdiction.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: This Act recognizes the rights to hold and live in the forest land under the individual or common occupation for habitation or for self-cultivation for livelihood, but also grants several other rights to ensure their control over forest resources which, inter-alia, include right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce, community rights such as nistar; habitat rights for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities; right to protect, regenerate or conserve or manage any community forest resource which they have been traditionally protecting and conserving for sustainable use.

Statement 2 is correct: The Act authorises the Gram Sabha to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both that may be given to the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers within the local limits of its jurisdiction. The Act also provides for diversion of forest land for public utility facilities managed by the Government, such as schools, dispensaries, fair price shops, electricity and telecommunication lines, water tanks, etc. with the recommendation of Gram Sabhas.

QUESTION: 7

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of official language at the Union and State level in India as per the provisions of the Indian Constitution?

Solution:

All the statements are correct, hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Option a is correct: As per article 345 of the Constitution, the legislature of a state can adopts any one or more of the languages in use in the State including the eighth schedule languages for official purposes of the State.

Option b is correct: As per article 348 of the Constitution, the Governor of a State may, with the previous consent of the President, authorise the use of the Hindi language, or any other language used for any official purposes of the State, in proceedings in the High Court having its principal seat in that State.

Option c is correct: Article 348(1) of the Constitution provides Parliament the power to change or add language in which proceedings of the Supreme Court and High Court can be conducted. Till now, no such law has been provided by the Parliament and all the proceedings of supreme court are conducted in English Language.

QUESTION: 8

Which of the following statements is correct regarding financial committees of the Parliament?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect: Financial committees are not an executive body and hence cannot issue an order. Only Parliament can take final decisions on its findings.

Option b is incorrect: It is the Estimate committee which suggests an alternative policy to bring efficiency and effectiveness in administration and not a Public Account Committee. The Public Account committee analyses the policy from the point of view of economy, prudence, wisdom and propriety to bring out the cases of waste, loss, corruption, extravagance, inefficiency and nugatory expenses.

Option c is correct: Three Finance committees are: Public Account Committee, Estimates Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings. All the three committees have work which is post-mortem in nature. Option d is incorrect: The recommendations of the committee are not binding. It is just an advisory in nature.

QUESTION: 9

The “Gender Social Norm Index”, recently seen in the news, is published by

Solution:

This is the 1st Gender Social Norm Index released by the United Nations Development Program. According to the index 90% of the people (men and women both) are biased against women.

Almost half of the population believe that men are better leaders in Politics. The dimensions of the index include Political empowerment, Educational empowerment, Economic empowerment and Physical Integrity.

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)?

  1. It is a joint program of the Ministry of Science and Technology and Ministry of Human Resource Development.

  2. It aims to set up world-class incubators at corporate industry level to promote startups.

  3. One of its initiatives ARISE, seeks to stimulate innovation and research in MSME sector.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country, based on a detailed study and deliberations on innovation and entrepreneurial needs of India in the years ahead. Statement 2 is correct: At the university, NGO, SME and Corporate industry levels, AIM is setting up world- class Atal Incubators (AICs) that would trigger and enable successful growth of sustainable startups in every

sector / state of the country. Women led incubators and entrepreneurial startups are strongly encouraged by AIM.

Statement 3 is correct: ARISE is an initiative under the AIM, to promote research, innovation and competitiveness of Indian start-ups and small enterprises including Micro, Small, and Medium enterprises. The program’s objective is to catalyse research, innovation, find solutions to the sectoral problems and subsequently trigger creation of new industrial sectors, through support of Central Government Ministries / Departments, who will become the first buyer of the solutions / products innovated under the ARISE program by start-ups and small enterprises.

QUESTION: 11

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the new series of GDP in India?

  1. The base year of the GDP Series in India has been revised to 2011-12.

  2. Under new series, Headline GDP is now calculated as GDP at market price.

  3. Under new series, taxes will be included in the calculation of Headline GDP.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Changes in Methodology and Data Sources in the New Series of National Accounts, Base Year 2011-12. The 2011-12 series of National Accounts Statistics incorporates changes in data sources, expansion in coverage of activities and improvements in procedures that are aligned to the latest recommendations of the UN System of National Accounts 2008, to the extent data is available.

Statement 2 is correct: GVA at basic prices + (product taxes) - (product subsidies) gives GDP at market price. Headline GDP is now GDP at market prices as per the new GDP series.

Statement 3 is correct: GDP at market price which is headline GDP will include taxes and exclude subsidies as per new GDP series. This has been shown in above statement.

QUESTION: 12

With reference to classical dances of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Sattriya dance evolved in the state of Assam to be a medium for propagation of the Vaishnava faith.

  2. Chowk and Tribhaga are the techniques of movement associated with Odissi dance.

  3. Kathak is the only form of classical dance wedded to Hindustani or the North Indian music.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Vaishnava Saint and reformer of Assam, MahapurushaSankaradeva, introduced Sattriya dance as a medium of propagation of Vaishnavism. Sattriya has aspects of local folk dances of Assam, incorporated by Sankardeva.

Statement 2 is correct: The techniques of movement in Odissi dance are built around the two basic postures of the Chowk and the Tribhanga. The chowk is a position imitating a square - a very masculine stance with the weight of the body equally balanced. The tribhanga is a very feminine stance where the body is deflected at the neck, torso and the knees.

Statement 3 is correct: Being the only classical dance of India having links with Muslim culture, it represents a unique synthesis of Hindu and Muslim genius in art. Further, Kathak is the only form of classical dance wedded to Hindustani or the North Indian music. Both of them have had a parallel growth, each feeding and sustaining the other.

QUESTION: 13

Who among the following was/were associated with the development of civil services during British Rule?

  1. Lord Wellesly

  2. Lord Macaulay

  3. Lord Linlithgow

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Option 1 is correct. Lord Wellesly has been associated with one of the early initiatives of the civil services reforms. He established Fort William College in Kolkata in 1800 to train civil servants in India. Here the civil servants were taught local culture traditions and practices. This was aimed at improving local administration and governance.

Option 2 is correct. Lord Macaulay presented a report to the Select Committee of the British Parliament which recommended modern, merit based civil services. Consequently, merit oriented and modern civil services were introduced in India in 1854. A Civil Services Commission was founded in London in 1854. In 1864 Satyendra N ath T agore became the first Indian to qualify. From 1923 onwards the prestigious exam was conducted in India.

Option 3 is incorrect. Lord Linlithgow was the Viceroy of India from 1936 to 1944. He is not associated with civil services reforms in India. Some of the major events his tenure witnessed were enforcement of GOI act

1935 in 1937, Provincial election of1937, Cripps Proposal, Quit India Movement etc.

QUESTION: 14

In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of BS-VI (Bharat Stage-VI) fuel over BS-IV fuel?

  1. Significant reduction in emission of PM 2.5 and PM 10 in diesel vehicles.

  2. NOx emissions in BS -VI compliant vehicles are lower than BS-IV vehicles.

  3. Sulphur content in BS - VI fuel is higher than BS - IV fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Compared to BS-IV, the BS-VI will reduce particulate matter like PM 2.5 and PM 10 in diesel vehicles by 80 percent. This would help in tackling the problem of air pollution and the menace of cancer.

Statement 2 is correct: Compared to BS-IV, the use of BS-VI compliant vehicles can reduce the harmful NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions by nearly 70% and 25% in Diesel and Petrol vehicles respectively.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The main difference between the BS-IV and BS-VI is that the BS-VI grade fuel has only 10 parts per million (ppm) sulphur content while the BS-IV grade fuel contains 50 ppm sulphur.

QUESTION: 15

The Government of India Act 1915 provided for the

Solution:

Statement (c) is the correct answer. The Government of India Act 1915 repealed 47 prior acts of Parliament, starting with an act of 1770, and replaced them with a single act containing 135 sections and five schedules.

It was an act of the British Parliament which superseded previous acts concerning British India. A supplementary act was passed in 1916. Both the acts provided for easier understanding of the English law related to India.

QUESTION: 16

Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution provides for good governance/good government?

Solution:

All of the above options are correct, hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Option a is correct: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is a set of directives to be followed by the government of the day while framing any policies. Hence, DPSP is a set of provisions to ensure good governance in the country.

Option b is correct: Urban Local Bodies is a third tier of the system of Government. Third tier of government is based on subsidiarity principle. Subsidiarity principles ensure good governance.

Option c is correct: Article 240 of the Constitution provided the President the power to make regulations for peace, progress and good government of the Union territory without legislatures.

QUESTION: 17

Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy

  1. It enshrines the ideal of the Welfare State of the Indian Constitution.

  2. It acts as a limitation on the power of the Central Government and Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Directive Principles of State Policy consists of three principles: Socilaistic Principles, Gandhian Principles and Liberal- Intellectual Principles. Socialistic Principles aims to achieve socio-economic justice by setting the ideal of a Welfare state for the government. Various Articles of the Constitution reflects the ideals:

  • Article 38: to promote the welfare of the people by setting a social order which ensures social, political and economic justice.

  • Article 39 provides special directives for vulnerable sections like women and children. It also aims at preventing the concentration of wealth, equal pay for men and women etc.

  • Article 39A provides for free legal aid

  • Article 41 provides for public assistance to unemployed, old age and sick people.

  • Article 42 provides for maternity relief.

 

Statement 2 is incorrect. Directive Principles does not set the limitation on power of state, rather it enriches state to frame policies which promote good governance in the country.

QUESTION: 18

The “Peace to Prosperity Plan” recently seen in the news is related to

Solution:

Option(a) is the correct answer. The Peace to Prosperity plan is USA’s initiative for the betterment of the life of people of Israel and Palestine. The plan proposed that Jerusalem will remain the capital of Israel and sacred places of Jerusalem should be open to people of all faiths. The plan also proposes a $50 billion investment plan for the region over a decade. The plan has been rejected by the Palestinian authorities.

QUESTION: 19

From the ecological point of view, it is the world’s largest fully functional organic sewage management system. The nutrients contained in the wastewater sustain fish farms called bheris and agriculture in the nearby areas. The site is also recognized as a Ramsar site but is under imminent threat of encroachments.

The water body described above is:

Solution:

Option (b) is the correct answer. The East Kolkata Wetlands (EKW), located on the eastern fringes of Kolkata city bordering the Salt Lake township on the one hand and the new township at Rajarhat on the other, forms one of the largest assemblages of sewage fed fishponds.

The wetlands serve as a natural sewage treatment plant as Kolkata’s wastewater is introduced into and detained in shallow water bodies (bheris in Bengali) which serve as oxidation ponds because of the presence of algae. Under the open tropical sun, the water undergoes change, getting comprehensively treated and cleaned as the bacteria disintegrate and the algae proliferate, serving as food for fish.

The treated water is used by villagers in the area to grow vegetables and paddy. The 125 sq. km area of the wetlands were recognised internationally in 2002 as a ‘Ramsar site’, or a wetland of international significance, which made it incumbent by both the State and the Central governments to protect them from invasive encroachments

QUESTION: 20

With reference to Consumer Protection Act 2019, consider the following statements:

  1. The act has defined who is a consumer and the rights of the consumer.

  2. The act provides for penalties to both celebrities and advertising agencies involved in misleading advertisements.

  3. The act establishes National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission to look into disputes involving monetary value of more than Rs. 1 crore.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The act has defined the Consumer. It defines Consumer as a person who buys any good or avails a service for consideration. It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multi-level marketing or direct selling.

Six consumer rights have been defined in the Bill, including the right to:

(i) be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property;

(ii) be informed of the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods or services;

(iii) be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices; and

(iv) seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.

Statement 2 is correct: The act provides penalties for misleading advertisements. It provides penalties against both celebrities and advertising agencies.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The District Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission (CDRC) will entertain complaints where value of goods and services does not exceed Rs 1 crore. The State CDRC will entertain complaints when the value is more than Rs 1 crore but does not exceed Rs 10 crore. Complaints with value of goods and services over Rs 10 crore will be entertained by the National CDRC.

 

 

QUESTION: 21

Which of the following can be the possible consequence/consequences from the dying of coral reefs?

  1. Genetic and species diversity in the marine ecosystem may decline.

  2. Vulnerability of Shorelines may increase towards waves and storms.

  3. Livelihoods and food security may be threatened in coastal communities.

Select the correct using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Fishes and invertebrates rely on live coral for food, shelter, or recruitment habitat. Death of corals would eventually lead to the death of the species dependent on corals and hence declining the genetic and species diversity of marine ecosystems.

Statement 2 is correct: Coral reefs help to protect vulnerable coastal areas from waves and storms. Death of corals would lead to increased vulnerability of coastal areas to these hazards.

Statement 3 is correct: Death of corals would lead to decline in tourism activities and significant losses in the fishing industry. This would threaten the livelihoods and food security of the people living in the coastal areas.

QUESTION: 22

In the context of reproductive technologies, consider the following statements regarding in Vitro Fertilization (IVF):

  1. IVF is an Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) in which the egg is fertilized outside the body and then transferred to the uterus.

  2. IVF babies face higher mortality risk than those who are conceived naturally.

  3. In traditional surrogacy, the resulting baby is genetically unrelated to the surrogate.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: In vitro fertilization (IVF) is a type of assisted reproductive technology (ART). It involves retrieving eggs from a woman’s ovaries and fertilizing them with sperm. This fertilized egg is known as an embryo. The embryo is then transferred to a woman’s uterus.

Statement 2 is correct: Babies that have been conceived through assisted reproductive techniques like IVF face a higher risk of mortality than naturally conceived babies. It is due to the fact that there are many premature births in IVF-conceived children.

Statement 3 is incorrect: There are two types of surrogacy: traditional surrogacy, in which the surrogate mother and the commissioning father are the genetic parents of the child, and gestational surrogacy, in which the commissioning mother and father are the genetic parents.

In gestational surrogacy, the resulting baby is genetically unrelated to the surrogate i.e., the surrogate has no biological link to the baby. In traditional surrogacy, the surrogate's eggs are used, making her the biological mother of the child she carries.

QUESTION: 23

Which of the following are the objectives of ‘Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme’?

  1. To improve the nutritional and health status of children in the age-group 0-6 years

  2. To enhance the capability of the mother to look after the normal health and nutritional needs of the child

  3. To enhance the nutritional and health status of adolescent girls.

  4. To reduce the incidence of mortality, morbidity, malnutrition and school dropout

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The beneficiaries under the Scheme are children in the age group of 0-6 years, pregnant women and lactating mothers. Objectives of the Scheme are first, to improve the nutritional and health status of children in the age-group 0-6 years and Second, to lay the foundation for proper psychological, physical and social development of the child.

Statement 2 is correct: Third objectives to reduce the incidence of mortality, morbidity, malnutrition and school dropout and to achieve effective coordination of policy and implementation amongst the various departments to promote child development; and

Statement 3 is correct: The ICDS Mission targets would be to attain three main outcomes namely;

(i) Prevent and reduce young child under-nutrition (% underweight children 0-3 years) by 10 percentage point;

(ii) Enhance early development and learning outcomes in all children 0-6 years of age; and (iii) Improve care and nutrition of girls and women and reduce anaemia prevalence in young children, girls and women by one fifth.

Statement 4 is correct: Fourth objectives to enhance the capability of the mother to look after the normal health and nutritional needs of the child through proper nutrition and health education.

QUESTION: 24

Consider the following statements:

  1. Lala Lajpat Rai was the founding member of All Indian Trade Union Congress (AIUTC).

  2. Kazi Nazrul Islam was the founding member of Labour Swaraj Party within Indian National Congress.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The AITUC was founded in 1920. Lala Lajpat Rai along with NM Joshi, Diwan Chaman Lal and Joseph Baptista were among the founders of AITUC. Lajpat Rai was its first President. He was also the President of INC that year.

Statement 2 is correct: KaziNasrul Islam was one of the founders of Workers and Peasant Party (also known as Kirti Kisan Party). He is popularly called “Bidrohi Kavi” or Rebel Poet. Through his poetry like Bidrohi and BhangarGaan he inspired the National movement. He was imprisoned many times for his activism against British rule.

QUESTION: 25

In the context of rising pollution levels, which of the following device/devices can be used to curb air pollution?

  1. Electrostatic Precipitator

  2. Smokestack

  3. Catalytic Converter

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Option 1 is correct: Electrostatic precipitator is an air purification tool that uses electrostatic force to grab and hold dust and other particles.

Option 2 is incorrect: Smokestack is a large, chimney-like pipe that releases smoke and air pollutants like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides high into the atmosphere.

Option 3 is correct: Catalytic converter is designed to turn harmful constituents of exhaust emitted by internal combustion engines into harmless gases by means of a chemical reaction. A catalytic converter is therefore an important part of modern emission purification systems.

QUESTION: 26

The Lee Commission was constituted in 1923 with an objective to

Solution:

Option (b) is the correct answer. Lee Commission was appointed in 1923 to consider ethnic composition of superior public services. It recommended that 40% of Indians should be recruited directly, 20% Indians to be promoted from provincial services and the remaining 40% should be British.

It also recommended a Public Service Commission with five members to be appointed immediately.

QUESTION: 27

The term ‘Contingent ReserveArrangement’ is sometimes seen in the news with

reference to

Solution:

Option d is correct: Contingent reserve arrangement (CRA) established in 2015 by BRICS member nations Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa, is a framework for the provision of support through liquidity and precautionary instruments in response to actual or potential short-term balance of payments pressures.

Option a is incorrect: Balance of payments difficulties can arise—and, in the worst case, build into crises— even in the face of strong prevention efforts. The IMF assists countries in restoring economic stability by helping to devise programs of corrective policies and providing loans to support them.

Option b is incorrect: RBI avoids situations like Bank Run through deposit insurance. Deposit insurance is such a safety valve through which the losses of the so-called "unsophisticated" depositors of banks can be plugged, albeit to a stipulated limit, in case banks fail, and thereby help arrest cataclysmic impact of bank runs. Option c is incorrect: The Ministry of MSME, Government of India and SIDBI set up the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) with a view to facilitate flow of credit to the MSE sector without the need for collaterals/ third party guarantees.

QUESTION: 28

Consider the following statements.

  1. Australian Group is an export control regime that deals with transparency and greater responsibility in transfer of conventional arms and dual use goods.

  2. Wassenaar arrangement is an export control regime that deals with prevention of proliferation of chemical and biological weapons

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Australia group is a multilateral export control regime (MECR) which prevents proliferation of chemical and biological weapons. It does not impose any legally binding obligation on the participant countries. All member countries are parties to the Chemical Weapon Convention (CWC) and Biological Weapon Convention (BWC).

Statement 2 is incorrect: Wassenaar Arrangement (is also MECR) to prevent proliferation of conventional weapons. It contributes to regional and international security and stability through transparency and conveying responsibility in transfers of conventional weapons and dual use of technologies. The aim is to keep away these items from the terrorists

QUESTION: 29

With reference to Farmers Producers Organization, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a legal entity formed by the primary producers in the country.

  2. It seeks to double farmers’ income by ensuring economies of scale for farmers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: A Farmers Producer Organisation (FPO) is a legal entity formed by primary producers, viz. farmers, milk producers, fishermen, weavers, rural artisans, craftsmen. A PO can be a producer company, a cooperative society or any other legal form which provides for sharing of profits/benefits among the members. In some forms like producer companies, institutions of primary producers can also become members of FPO.

Statement 2 is correct: The main aim of FPO is to ensure better income for the producers through an organization of their own. Small producers do not have the volume individually (both inputs and produce) to get the benefit of economies of scale.

QUESTION: 30

With reference to river Barak, consider the following statements:

  1. The source of the river is Loktak Lake in Manipur.

  2. The river is one of the habitats of Ganges River Dolphin.

  3. Tipaimukh dam has been proposed to be constructed on this river.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Barak River is a 900-kilometre-long (560 mi) river flowing through the states of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram and Assam in India and into the Bay of Bengal via Bangladesh.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Barak river originates near LiyaiKhullen Village in Manipur state of India. Near its source, the river receives a lot of streams, including the Vehrei, Gumti, Howrah, Kagni, Senai Buri, Hari Mangal, Kakrai, Kurulia, Balujhuri, Shonaichhari, and Durduria.

Loktak lake is present in Manipur but is not the source of Barak River.

Statement 2 is correct. The endangered Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangeticagangetica) inhabits the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna (GBM) river basin of India, Nepal and Bangladesh and the disjunct Karnaphuli-Sangu river basin of Bangladesh. This includes the Barak river system.

Statement 3 is correct. Tipaimukh Dam is a proposed embankment dam on the Barak River. Environmentalists have highlighted that the construction of the Dam can prove to be disastrous for the habitat of the dolphin in the Barak river.

QUESTION: 31

Consider the following statements regarding Lymphatic Filariasis:

  1. It is a vector borne tropical parasitic disease.

  2. India has been declared lymphatic filariasis free in 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Lymphatic filariasis is a parasitic disease caused by microscopic, thread-like roundworms. A wide range of mosquitoes can transmit the parasite, depending on the geographic area. In Africa, the most common vector is Anopheles, and, in the Americas, it is Culex quinquefasciatus. Aedes and Mansonia can transmit the infection in the Pacific and in Asia. It is a neglected tropical disease and is also called elephantiasis.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Globally 1.5 billion people are at risk of contracting the disease, out of which 600 million people are said to be in India. The disease is endemic to 256 districts across 21 states in India.

QUESTION: 32

Consider the following statements:

  1. Vivaad se Vishwaas is an amnesty scheme aimed at reducing tax litigations pending at various forums.

  2. Taxpayer Charter is to ensure fairness and avoid harassment in the quest of collecting taxes from the citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The ‘Vivad se Vishwas’ Scheme was announced during the Union Budget, 2020, to provide for dispute resolution in respect of pending income tax litigation.

Statement 2 is correct: Under the ‘Vivad se Vishwas’ Scheme Taxpayer Charter is in the Income Tax Act to ensure fairness to all assesses and to make sure that officials in their quest to collect taxes do not end up harassing citizens.

QUESTION: 33

Consider the following statements regarding the centrally sponsored scheme Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):

  1. It is an initiative based on community approach which seeks to provide potable water accessibility to all Indian households by 2024.

  2. It envisages mission to create a people's movement for water, making it everyone’s priority.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Jal Jeevan Mission will be based on a community approach to water and will include extensive Information, Education and communication as a key component of the mission. JJM looks to create a janandolan for water, thereby making it everyone’s priority.

The mission’s goal is to provide all households in rural India safe and adequate water through individual Functional Household Tap Connection (FHTC) by 2024.

Statement 2 is correct: Jal Shakti Abhiyan aims to make water conservation a people's movement and also the government aims at providing drinking water to every household on priority and in a sustainable manner.

QUESTION: 34

With reference to National Food Security Act 2013, consider the following statements:

  1. It gives legal entitlement to a set of population to receive highly subsidised food grains.

  2. The food grains under the scheme includes wheat, rice and pulses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The Government of India enacted National Food Security Act (NFSA) in July 2013 which gives legal entitlement to 67% of the population (75% in rural areas and 50% in urban areas) to receive highly subsidized food grains.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Pulses are not included. Under the Act, food grain is allocated @ 5 kg per person per month for priority households’ category and @ 35 kg per family per month for AAY families at a highly subsidized price of Rs. 1/-, Rs. 2/- and Rs. 3/- per kg for nutri - cereals, wheat and rice respectively.

QUESTION: 35

With reference to IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity

  2. It is a key indicator for the Sustainable Development Goals and Aichi Targets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world ’ s biodiversity. Far more than a list of species and their status, it is a powerful tool to inform and catalyse action for biodiversity conservation and policy change, critical to protecting the natural resources we need to survive. It provides information about range, population size, habitat and ecology, use and/or trade, threats, and conservation actions that will help inform necessary conservation decisions.

Statement 2 is correct. The IUCN Red List is a key indicator for the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and Aichi Targets. Data from the IUCN Red List are used as indicators for the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, particularly Goal 15: Life on Land. The IUCN Red List Index is also used by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) to monitor progress towards achieving the Aichi Targets.

QUESTION: 36

With reference to Petitions in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The provision of Curative Petition is a judicial invention which now enjoys constitutional support under Article 137.

  2. Mercy petition an extra constitutional mechanism, is the last resort when a person has lost all judicial, statutory and constitutional remedies.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. The concept of Curative Petition originated from Rupa Ashok Hurra Vs. Ashok Hurra and Anr. case. Hence, it is a judicial invention. However, Article 137 provides that in the matter of laws and rules made under Article 145, the Supreme Court has the power to review any judgement pronounced (or order made) by it. Hence, curative petition has constitutional recognition under Article 137.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Mercy petition is the power of President and Governor in its respective domain. Mercy Petition is not an extra- constitutional mechanism. It is provided under Article 72 and Article 161 of the Constitution also called as Pardoning power of President and Governor respectively. In the context of Indian Judicial System, Mercy Petition is the last resort. When a person has lost all the remedies available to him/her under all the prevailing laws as well as under the Constitutional remedies, he may file a mercy petition before the President of India and Governor. Under mercy petition President exercises pardon, remission, respite, commutation and Reprieve.

QUESTION: 37

Consider the following pairs;

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Pair 1 is correct. PrarthnaSamaj was founded in 1867 in Bombay. Its aim was to make people believe and worship only one God. It rejected casteism, encouraged women education and worked for increasing the age for marriage of boys and girls.

Pair 2 is correct. The Servants of India Society was founded by Gokhale with the help of M G Ranade. Its aim was to promote true interest of Indian people and prepare selfless workers dedicated to the cause of the country.

Pair 3 is incorrect. Annie Besant founded Indian Women’s Association at Adayar, Madras. Its aim was to obtain women’s franchise in state and central legislature.

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following objective is embodied in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

Solution:

Option a is correct. Preamble embodies all three forms of justice: social, economic and political. Option b is incorrect. Preamble embodies liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.

Option c is incorrect. Preamble embodies equality of status and opportunity and to promote among them all.

QUESTION: 39

With refence to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) consider the following statements:

  1. It provides farmers with energy sovereignty through exploitation of solar energy.

  2. It seeks to provide income sovereignty to rural farmers.

  3. It was launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers ’ Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Pradhan Mantri KisanUrja Suraksha UtthanMahabhiyan (PM KUSUM) Scheme under which 20 lakh farmers would be provided funds to set up standalone solar pumps. The scheme will remove farmers' dependence on diesel and kerosene and link them to solar energy. The scheme also enables the farmers to set up solar power generation capacity and sell it to the grid. Thus, the scheme will provide farmers sovereignty of income as well as energy through exploitation of solar energy both for use in fields as well as selling it as a commodity.

Statement 3 is incorrect: It was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).

QUESTION: 40

With reference to Companies (Amendment) Act 2019, consider the following statements:

  1. It seeks to tighten the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) compliance.

  2. It aims to reduce the load of cases before the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)

  3. It envisages to decriminalise certain minor offences.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019 (“Amendment Act”), received the assent of the President on July 31, 2019. With the Amendment Act, the Central Government seeks to ensure more accountability and better enforcement to strengthen the corporate governance norms and compliance management in the corporate sector.

Statement 2 is correct: Under the Act, change in period of financial year for a company associated with a foreign company, has to be approved by the N ational Company Law Tribunal. Similarly, any alteration in the incorporation document of a public company which has the effect of converting it to a private company, has to be approved by the Tribunal. Under the Act, these powers have been transferred to the central government.

Statement 3 is correct: The 2013 Act contains 81 compoundable offences punishable with fine or fine or imprisonment, or both. These offences are heard by courts. The 2013 act was amended to decriminalise a number of offences and ease corporate social responsibility (CSR) requirements, especially for smaller companies.

QUESTION: 41

With reference to Sendai Framework, consider the following statements:

  1. It aims to achieve a substantial reduction of disaster risk over a span of 15 years.

  2. It was adopted at the conference of the United Nations Development Programme in Sendai, Japan, in 2015.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The Sendai framework (2015-2030) is a campaign that combines efforts of governments, NGO’s, local governments and other private organizations to promote best practices for disaster risk reduction. There are seven targets under Sendai Framework which are to be achieved by 2030

Statement 2 is incorrect: It was adopted at the Third UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction in Japan in 2015

QUESTION: 42

A country’s government is called a true federal government if it has a/an

Solution:

Option a is incorrect. When distribution of power is tilted in favour of Centre than State, then it cannot be called as true federalism. Federalism is about more and more decentralisation of power. When power is tilted towards the centre then it can be called a Quasi- federal state but not true federal state.

Option b is correct. When the Constitution is amended by a special majority then it is not so easy to change the nature of distribution of power between Centre and State. Government without support from Opposition and State cannot change the nature of distribution of power between Union and State. Hence, the country’s government can be called truly federal.

Option c is incorrect. Integrated and Hierarchical judiciary is the nature of Unitary form of government. Option d is incorrect. The Unicameral Legislature alone cannot ensure a truly federal government. For ex: In India, we have a bicameral legislature. Rajya Sabha or Upper house represents the interests of the state and hence more federal.

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the negative rate monetary policy?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect: Negative rates may encourage borrowing and spend money, they are also a strong incentive not to save money. Borrowers could access the money at a very low or negative rate. Negative interest rate reduces the cost of borrowing.

Option b is correct: Negative interest rates occur when borrowers are credited interest rather than paying interest to lenders. When negative interest rates are in place, investors tend to search for better returns in foreign markets, which influences a decrease in their country's currency valuation. This leads to weakening of domestic currency against foreign currencies. Lower currency valuation helps boost exports by making them more attractively priced around the world.

With negative interest rates, cash deposited at a bank yields a storage charge, rather than the opportunity to earn interest income; the idea is to incentivize loaning and spending, rather than saving and hoarding.

Option C is incorrect: Negative interest rates occur when borrowers are credited interest rather than paying interest to lenders.

QUESTION: 44

The term ‘Pratyush’, ‘Mihir’, ‘Param Shivay’ and ‘Colour Boson’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

Solution:

Option (d) is the correct answer.

Pratyush, Mihir, Param Shivay and Colour Boson are supercomputers used for scientific and engineering applications.

Pratyushis India’s fastest supercomputer built for weather forecasting. It is installed at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune and has a capacity of 4 petaflops.

Mihir is also built for weather forecasting. It is installed at the National Center for Medium Range Weather Forecast (NCMRWF), Noida and has a capacity of 2.8 petaflops.

Param Shivay is built for climate assessment, weather forecasting, space engineering, seismic analysis, finance, disaster simulation and management, search astrophysics and macro-data analytics. It is installed at the Indian Institute of T echnology (IIT BHU), V aranasi and has a capacity of 833 teraflops.

Colour Boson (Cray XC-30) is built for research of quark-boson, a phase of matter that holds the mystery of the creation of our universe. It is also being used in developing theoretical physics and quantum chromodynamics and QCD. It is installed at the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), Mumbai and has a capacity of 558 teraflops.

QUESTION: 45

Which of the following characteristic/characteristics make thermal batteries preferred choice for electric grids and electric vehicles?

  1. high weather dependent operation than solar panels

  2. high heat sensitivity

  3. low carbon footprint that lithium batteries

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect. Unlike thermal batteries, Solar panels are dependent on sunlight to effectively gather solar energy. Therefore, a few cloudy, rainy days can have a noticeable effect on the energy system. Thermal batteries provide consistent energy making them more preferable.

Option 2 is incorrect. Thermal batteries have less heat sensitivity and are thus preferred over conventional batteries.

Option 3 is correct. Thermal batteries have lower carbon footprint and also last longer than Lithium-ion batteries. Thus, they are more preferred in electric grids and electric vehicles.

QUESTION: 46

With reference to rights of citizen in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Right to reservation in appointment and promotion in government jobs is an implied fundamental right.

  2. Right to maternity benefit is implicit in fundamental rights and explicit in directive principles of state policy.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme court, recently, held that Article 16(4) and 16(4A) of the Constitution are in the nature of enabling provisions. It is the discretion of any government to consider providing reservation, if the circumstances so warrant. Articles 16 (4) and 16 (4A) of the Constitution did not confer individuals with a fundamental right to claim reservations in promotion.

Statement 2 is correct. Right to maternity benefit is implicit in fundamental rights. Right of a child to live their life with dignity is inherent in Article 21 A and hence this also provided ground to maternity benefit. Because parents are the sole care provider of their children in childhood. Also, maternity benefit is explicitly mentioned under Article 42 of Constitution (DPSP).

QUESTION: 47

Which of the following statements regarding rights is correct?

Solution:

All the statements given above are incorrect. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Option a is incorrect. Human Rights are not guaranteed by any State or Constitution. Human rights are rights inherent to all human beings, regardless of race, sex, nationality, ethnicity, language, religion, or any other status. They exist by virtue of birth as humans not because of any Constitution or any States.

Option b is incorrect. Fundamental rights are those rights which are essential for intellectual, moral and spiritual development of individuals. Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution.

Option c is incorrect. Not all fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution are part of Human Rights. Few of the fundamental rights like:

  • Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)

  • Article 33 which restricts the fundamental rights of armed forces, paramilitary forces and police forces.

  • Article 34 also provides for restriction on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area.

QUESTION: 48

Which of the following statements regarding electoral bonds is correct?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect. Electoral bonds are not available for purchase throughout the year. The electoral bonds are available for purchase for 10 days in the beginning of every quarter.

Option b is incorrect. It can be purchased both by the foreigners and Indians.

Option c is correct. The electoral bond will be available for 15 days from the date of issue.

Option d is incorrect. Not all parties registered under Representation of People’s Act 1951 can issue electoral bonds. Parties who have secured at least 1 percent of the votes polled in the most recent Lok sabha or state elections.

QUESTION: 49

Which of the following will not be encountered by a Ship travelling from Mumbai to the United Kingdom by the shortest route possible?

Solution:

The shortest route possible for a ship from Mumbai to the United Kingdom, will be through Red Sea and suez canal. The ship will pass through the Gulf of Aden, Bab-el Mandeb Strait, Red Sea, Suez Canal, Mediterranean Sea, Strait of Gibraltar and Atlantic Ocean.

The Great Bitter Lake is a saltwater lake in Egypt, connected to the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea via the Suez Canal i.e it lies within the suez canal, hence the Ship will also have to pass through this.

The Strait of Hormuz on the other hand, is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

QUESTION: 50

Which of the following is/ are the essential features of parliamentary form of government?

  1. Empowered Group of Ministers

  2. Cabinet form of government

  3. Existence of Cabinet committee

  4. Collective responsibility

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Empowered group of ministers is not an essential feature of parliamentary form of government. This is a concept devised by Government of India under Transaction of Business Rules 1961. It can be abolished anytime by the Government. Infact, the NDA led government abolished the Group of Minister and Empowered Group of Ministers as a part of Minimum Government and Maximum Governance philosophy.

Statement 2 is correct. Cabinet form of Government is one of the essential features of Parliamentary form of Government. When a single party is in complete majority the same cabinet form turns into the Prime Ministerial form of Government. For ex: tenure of NDA government from 2014 to 2019 and even now.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Existence of a Cabinet committee is not essentially a feature of Parliamentary form. Committee can be the feature of any form of government.

Statement 4 is correct. Article 75 of Constitution provides for Collective responsibility. Article 75 provides for council of ministers shall be accountable to legislatures.

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following was an important seaport of Pandya Kingdom

Solution:

Option (c) is the correct answer.

Korkai was a Pandyan port in Ancient India (now T amil Nadu). It was also a great centre of pearl fishing in ancient India. Korkai is mentioned in ancient texts like Greco-Roman text “Periplus of Erythrean Sea” and in Sangam Literature Classics like “Akananuru”.

Barygaza is modern day Bharuch. It was a commercial centre and had trade contacts with Egypt, Ceylon Java etc.

Suppara or Sopara was a commercial centre and an important port on the coast of Maharashtra, India. Dasarnawas a port in today's Odish

QUESTION: 52

Consider the following statements regarding the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA):

  1. It was launched at the COP 21 of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, 2015.

  2. It promotes the adoption and sustainable use of all forms of renewable energy, including bio-energy and geothermal energy.

  3. The Global Atlas for Renewable Energy is coordinated by IRENA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Founding Conference of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) was held in Bonn, Germany, on 26 January 2009. 75 countries signed the Agency's statute which entered into force on 8 July 2010.

Statement 2 is correct. IRENA promotes the widespread adoption and sustainable use of all forms of renewable energy, including bio-energy, geothermal, hydropower, ocean, solar and wind energy in the pursuit of sustainable development, energy access, energy security and low-carbon economic growth and prosperity. Statement 3 is correct. IRENA provides a wide range of products and services, including: The Global Atlas, which maps resource potential by source and by location; Renewable energy technology briefs and facilitation of regional renewable energy planning.

QUESTION: 53

In the context of Vajrayana Sect of Buddhism, consider the following statements:

  1. Its followers believed that salvation could be attained by acquiring magical powers, which they called Vajra.

  2. Its chief divinities were called as the T aras. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Vajrayana (thunderbolt vehicle) is a form of tantric buddhism. It is also called Mantrayana. Enlightenment can be achieved by chanting mantras which prevent the mind going astray into the world.

Statement 2 is correct: Tara is an important figure and is considered a liberating mother in Vajrayana. Tara is worshipped to develop inner qualities to understand the outer world.

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following countries shares border with Black Sea?

  1. Greece

  2. Georgia

  3. Russia

  4. Romania

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Solution:

QUESTION: 55

With reference to Dairy Processing & Infrastructure Development Fund (DIDF), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is under the aegis of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.

  2. It has a corpus of Rs. 8000 crores at present.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Funding will be in the form of interest-bearing loan, which will flow from National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) to National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) / National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) and in turn to eligible End Borrowers.

Statement 2 is correct: Dairy processing and Infrastructure Development Fund (DIDF) scheme. It was announced as Central Sector Scheme under NABARD with a total corpus of Rs. 8000 crores over a period of 3 years (i.e. 2017-18 to 2019-20), in the Union Budget of 2017-18.

QUESTION: 56

Which article of the Indian Constitution provides the right to constitutional remedies, that allows Indian citizens to stand up for their rights against anybody - even the government of India?

Solution:

It is one of the fundamental rights listed in the Constitution that each citizen is entitled. Article 32 deals with the 'Right to Constitutional Remedies', or affirms the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred in Part III of the Constitution.

QUESTION: 57

For elections/nomination to the Parliament, which of the following is correct?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect. Nomination to Rajya Sabha requires a person to have special knowledge or practical experience in matters like literature, science, art and social service. Recently, retired Chief Justice of India, Ranjan Gogoi has been nominated to the Rajya Sabha.

Option b is incorrect. A candidate filing for candidature needs one proposer from his/ her constituency when the candidate belongs to a recognized national or State party.

Option c is correct. A candidate gets six year of disqualification if he/ she gets convicted for an offence of bribery under Representation of People’s Act 1951.

QUESTION: 58

Consider the following statements:

  1. In India, the Tropic of Cancer passes through nine states only.

  2. In India, the Indian Standard Time longitude passes through six states only.

  3. The Mahi river cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. In India, the Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 states. Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Indian Standard Meridian (82.5' E meridian) passes through UP, MP, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh. (5 states)

Statement 3 is correct. The Mahi river rises in Madhya Pradesh and, after flowing through Rajasthan, enters Gujarat and flows into the Arabian Sea. It is one of the many west-flowing rivers in India. It cuts the tropic of Cancer twice.

QUESTION: 59

With reference to species interaction, Commensalism refers to

Solution:

Option (a) is the correct answer.

Commensalism is a biological interaction in which one species is benefited while the other species is neither harmed nor benefited. Examples: Cattle egrets and livestock, orchids Growing on branches of trees, remora fish and sharks, barnacles and whales etc

QUESTION: 60

With reference to the work of International Telecommunication Union (ITU), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a United Nations specialized agency for Information and Communication Technologies.

  2. Its membership is limited to member countries of the United Nations only.

  3. It allocates global radio spectrum and satellite orbits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: ITU is one of the specialised agencies of the UN. It specialises in information and communication technologies. Its key areas include telecommunications network, cybersecurity, child protection online etc. It also specialises in broadband, maritime navigation, radio astronomy and next generation networks.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Its membership is open to all the countries. It also offers membership to corporate entities, Universities, International and regional organisations.

Statement 3 is correct: It develops standard technical parameters such that functioning of technologies and networks provide seamless connectivity and interconnectedness across the globe. It is also working to improve the accessibility of the ICTs to each and every individual.

QUESTION: 61

Which of the following is/are a likely outcome of decreasing tax to GDP ratio in a country?

  1. constrains the government from spending on the infrastructure.

  2. can lead to government ’ s failure in meeting its fiscal deficit targets.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Both statements represent the likely outcome of decreasing tax to GDP ratio in an economy. T ax-to-GDP ratio represents the size of a country's tax kitty relative to its GDP. It is a representation of the size of the government's tax revenue expressed as a percentage of the GDP.

A low tax-to-GDP ratio poses significant challenges for the government to spend money on creating necessary infrastructure in the economy and raise investment.

Lower tax-to-GDP ratio constrains the government to spend on infrastructure and puts pressure on the government to meet its fiscal deficit targets.

QUESTION: 62

In the context of Indian history, Tinkathia System refers to.

Solution:

Option (a) is the correct answer.

The Tinkathia system was an arrangement in Champaran that forced peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 part of their land. The Planters followed illegal means of indigo farming on land holding of farmers. The first satyagraha of Gandhi in India, Champaran Satyagraha, was undertaken against this exploitative agricultural arrangement. Rajkumar Shukla requested Gandhi to look into the problem of farmers of Champaran. Later, Gandhi convinced local authorities about the injustice caused by the Tinkathia system.

QUESTION: 63

Consider the following statements regarding the National Medical Commission as provided under the National Medical Commission Act 2019

  1. It has the power to grant a limited license to mid-level practitioners to prescribe specified medicines in primary and preventive healthcare.

  2. It will be responsible for the overall monitoring of all health-related critical infrastructure in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. The act has empowered the National Medical Commission to grant a limited license to practice medicine at mid-level as Community Health Provider to such persons connected with the modern scientific medical profession.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The act has nowhere provided the National Medical Commission to monitor the critical health infrastructure. However, the act has provided power to assess the requirements in healthcare infrastructure and to develop a road map for meeting such requirements.

QUESTION: 64

Which of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect: The amended Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, which came into effect in June 2016, paved the way for a flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework in India by specifying the primary objective of monetary policy as maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

Option b is incorrect: Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) provides inflation forecasts. The inflation target is set by the Government of India and not by MPC. The Government of India notified a medium-term inflation target of 4 per cent, with a band of +/- 2 percent for the period from August 2016 to March 2021. The inflation target has been fixed in terms of all-India CPI-Combined published by the Central Statistics Office (CSO).

Option c is correct and is incorrect: The central government notified the following as factors that constitute failure to achieve the inflation target: (a) the average inflation is more than the upper tolerance level of the inflation target for any three consecutive quarters, or (b) the average inflation is less than the lower tolerance level for any three consecutive quarters. Average inflation below a lower tolerance level for three consecutive quarters does not constitutes success in achieving the inflation target. This is one of the two factors as stated above which constitute failure to achieve inflation targets.

QUESTION: 65

Consider the following statements:

  1. Carbon pool is a reservoir or system which has the capacity to accumulate or release carbon.

  2. Carbon stock is the quantity of the carbon contained in carbon pool.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Both statements are correct, hence option (d) is the answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Carbon pools are reservoirs of carbon that have the capacity to both take in and release carbon. These pools exchange carbon with one another, known as carbon fluxes, comprising what is known as the global carbon cycle. The four very broad global carbon pools are:

  1. The ocean

  2. Terrestrial ecosystems

  3. Earth's crust

  4. The atmosphere

Statement 2 is correct. Carbon stock is the absolute quantity of carbon that has been sequestered within the atmosphere, the forest ecosystem, the ocean, living biomass and soil, and to a lesser extent also in dead wood and litter.

QUESTION: 66

With reference to the increased cyclonic activity in Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal in 2019, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Arabian Sea is comparatively less prone to cyclonic storms than the Bay of Bengal.

  2. A positive Indian Ocean Dipole can cause strong cyclonic activity in Arabian Sea.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The Arabian Sea is comparatively less prone to cyclonic storms than the Bay of Bengal due to colder sea surface temperature of Arabian Sea than Bay of Bengal, which is not favorable for the development and sustenance of cyclonic storms. Also, Bay of Bengal can receive remnants of cyclones originating in Pacific Ocean, which can intensify after reaching Bay of Bengal after crossing Kra isthmus of Thailand.

Statement 2 is correct: Indian Ocean Dipole is an irregular natural oscillation of Sea Surface Temperatures (SSTs) in which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean. A positive IOD brings warmer-than-average SSTs to the Arabian Sea and cooler-than-average SSTs near Indonesia.

A warmer SST in Arabian Sea during positive IOD can promote strong cyclogenesis in Arabian Sea.

QUESTION: 67

If you want to see Starry Dwarf Frogs in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

Solution:

Option (c) is the correct answer.

The starry dwarf frog is only found in a single hill range in India's Western Ghats. It is not only a new species but different enough to be assigned to a new ‘subfamily’. Genetic analysis reveals that the species is at least 60 million years old.

QUESTION: 68

Consider the following statements in respect to UNESCO Creative Cities Network:

  1. It seeks to promote cooperation among cities which recognized creativity as a major factor in their urban development.

  2. Mumbai and Delhi has been included as UNESCO cultural cities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) helps promote cooperation among cities that are using creativity as a strategy for Sustainable Urban development. It is a network of cities that are active centres of cultural activities. The member cities have a common mission of placing creativity and creative economy at the core of urban development plans.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Delhi is not a part of UCCN. Indian cities which are part of UCCN are Mumbai (film), Hyderabad (Gastronomy), Jaipur (craft and folk arts), Varanasi and Chennai (creative city of music),

QUESTION: 69

Considered as one of the finest examples of art during the Mauryan era, which of the following is associated with commemoration of the first sermon of Buddha?

Solution:

Option (b) is the correct answer.

This is one of the finest examples of sculpture from the Mauryan period. Built in commemoration of the historical event of the first sermon or the Dhammachakrapravartana by the Buddha at Sarnath, the capital was built by Ashoka.

The four lions represent four Noble Truths and spreading Dharma by roaring. It is made of sandstone. The Lions are mounted on an abacus on which the wheels are carved. The wheel represents Dharmachakra in Buddhism.

 

 

 

QUESTION: 70

Consider the following pairs.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Pair 1 is correct. NagobaJatra is the second biggest Tribal festival, held in Telangana. The Mesaram clan of the Gond Tribe celebrated it for 10 days.

Pair 2 is correct. Losar is a Buddhist festival celebrated in Ladakh.

Pair 3 is incorrect. Sarhul festival marks the beginning of new year for Oraon, Munda and Ho tribes in Jharkhand. Sarhul implies worshiping of trees.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following practice/practices can help in protection against soil erosion?

  1. Shifting Cultivation

  2. Vetiver agrotechnology

  3. Strip Farming

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Option 1 is incorrect. The clearance of forest in shifting cultivation causes deforestation which accelerates soil erosion and accentuates the variability in rainfall distribution.

Option 2 is correct. Vetiver agrotechnology is suitable for erosion and sediment control because it slows runoff and gives the rainfall a better chance of soaking into the soil instead of rushing off the slope.

Option 3 is correct. Strip farming involves cultivating a field partitioned into long, narrow strips which are alternated in a crop rotation system. It is used when a slope is too steep. It helps to stop soil erosion by creating natural dams for water, helping to preserve the strength of the soil.

QUESTION: 72

Consider the following statements with reference to Harmonized System (HS) code:

  1. It is a six-digit identification code developed by World Trade Organisation (WTO).

  2. The system helps in harmonizing of customs and trade procedures, thus reducing costs in international trade.

  3. India’s handspun and handwoven Khadi textile has been allotted a HS code.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a six-digit identification code developed by the World Customs Organization (WCO) not by WTO.

Statement 2 is correct: The HS contributes to the harmonization of Customs and trade procedures, and the non-documentary trade data interchange in connection with such procedures, thus reducing the costs related to international trade. It is also extensively used by governments, international organizations and the private sector for many other purposes such as internal taxes, trade policies, monitoring of controlled goods, rules of origin, freight tariffs, transport statistics, price monitoring, quota controls, compilation of national accounts, and economic research and analysis. The HS is thus a universal economic language and code for goods, and an indispensable tool for international trade.

Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of Commerce and Industry allocated a separate Harmonised System (HS) code for Khadi, India’s signature handspun and handwoven cloth that was made iconic by Mahatma Gandhi during the freedom struggle

QUESTION: 73

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Bioaccumulation is the gradual accumulation of substances, such as pesticides or other chemicals, in an organism (single trophic level).

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Bioconcentration can be defined as the process by which chemical concentration of a substance in an aquatic organism, through intake by air, water or other sources exceeds that in water as a result of exposure to a waterborne chemical.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Biomagnification, also known as bio amplification or biological magnification, is any concentration of a toxin, such as pesticides, in the tissues of organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain

QUESTION: 74

Voice over Wi-Fi technology (VoWiFi) uses Wi-Fi network to place calls to another person. What are the advantages of VoWiFi over Voice over LTE/4G (VoLTE)?

  1. VoWiFi is data only network whereas VoLTE is a voice network.

  2. VoWiFi can be done even through smartphones not supporting VoLTE.

  3. Call drops will be less over VoWiFi as compared to VoLTE.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Wi-Fi Calling or VoWiFi is aimed especially for areas where cellular networks are not strong. It uses high speed Internet connection, available via broadband, to make and receive high definition (HD) voice calls.

Hence, both VoLTE (uses 4G data network) and VoWiFi use data to place calls.

Statement 2 is correct. For VoWIFI, the device needs to be compatible with the VoWIFI, and not necessarily VoLTE also. Using this, non-cellular devices can also make calls.

Statement 3 is correct. Since these calls use stable Wi-Fi connections, call drops are expected to be lesser than the VoLTE connections.

QUESTION: 75

Which of the following sites is/are famous for Kailasa Temple?

  1. Ellora

  2. Kanchi

  3. Ajanta

Select the answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Option 1 is correct. The Kailasa temple at Ellora is one of the largest rock cut temples in the world and largest rock cut Hindu temple in Ellora caves.. It is the 16th cave of the 34 cave temples and monasteries of the Ellora caves. Ellora has Buddhist, Jain and Brahmanical caves. It was built in the 8th century by Rashtrakuta king Krishna 1. The temple is of Dravidian style and carved out of a single rock.

Option 2 is correct. The Kailasa temple at Kanchi is dedicated to Lord Shiva. The temple was built by Rajsimha, a Pallava King.

Option 3 is incorrect. Ajanta caves are rock cut Buddhist monuments. All the 29 caves in Ajanta are Buddhist. The caves have fresco paintings mostly related to the life of Buddha. It includes painting and sculptures. Ajanta mainly depict stories of buddha in previous lives. Cave 1 of Ajanta has Buddha in Dharmachakra Pravartana Mudra and paintings of Bodhisattva, Padmapani and Vajrapani

QUESTION: 76

Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the Constitution, both the Governor and President can be removed on grounds of violation of the Constitution.

  2. As per the Constitution, the discretionary powers of the Governor are broader than that of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 61 of Constitution provides that a President can be impeached on the ground of violation of the Constitution. And for removal of the Governor, Article 156 of the Constitution provides that a Governor holds office to the pleasure of the President. The Constitution has not provided any ground for removal of the Governor. The Governor's existence in the office depends on the wish of the President.

Statement 2 is correct. Governor has broader discretion than that of the President. Governor exercises discretion on various grounds: administration of fifth and sixth schedule areas, administration of states under Article 371(A to J) etc.

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following is/are the guiding pillars of Basel - III Norms?

  1. Minimum capital requirement

  2. Capital Adequacy Ratio

  3. Supervisory Review Process

  4. Market Discipline

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Option (b) is the correct answer.

Basel III is an international regulatory accord that introduced a set of reforms designed to improve the regulation, supervision and risk management within the banking sector.

Basel III was published in 2009, largely in response to the credit crisis associated with the Great Recession. Principal pillars of Basel - III:

  • Pillar-1 - Enhanced Minimum Capital & Liquidity Requirements
  • Pillar-2 - Enhanced Supervisory Review Process for Firm-wide Risk Management and Capital Planning

 

Pillar-3 - Enhanced Risk Disclosure and Market Discipline Capital Adequacy Ratio is included in the Basel II.

QUESTION: 78

In which of the following diseases does Proton therapy proves to be an effective treatment?

Solution:

Option (a) is the correct answer.

Proton therapy is an advanced form of radiation treatment that uses protons instead of X-rays to treat cancers and noncancerous tumours. Protons are positively charged particles. Proton therapy delivers radiation to tumour tissue in a much more confined way than conventional radiation therapy.

QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements:

  1. Anti-Dumping Duty is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on foreign imports that it believes are priced below fair market value.

  2. Countervailing Duty is imposed in order to counter the negative impact of import subsidies to protect domestic producers.

Which of the statements given above correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: An anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff that a domestic government imposes on foreign imports that it believes are priced below fair market value. Dumping is a process where a company exports a product at a price lower than the price it normally charges in its own home market. For protection, many countries impose stiff duties on products they believe are being dumped in their national market, undercutting local businesses and markets.

Statement 2 is correct: In cases foreign producers attempt to subsidize the goods being exported by them so that it causes domestic production to suffer because of a shift in domestic demand towards cheaper imported goods, the government makes mandatory the payment of a countervailing duty on the import of such goods to the domestic economy.

 

 

QUESTION: 80

Shannon-Wiener Index, was recently seen in the news in the context of

Solution:

Option (d) is the correct answer. Shanon Wiener Index which gives species richness along with the relative abundance, has also been calculated for each forest type groups in each State & UT in The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019 report. The Shannon-Wiener index is one of many indices of species diversity and is one based on the concept of evenness or equitability (i.e., the extent to which each species is represented among a sample).

QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements:

  1.  

    Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council is a constitutional body.

  2.  

    Harmonised System of Nomenclature (HSN) code is used for classifying the goods under GST regime.

  3.  

    India currently has four different slabs of GST.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Goods & Services Tax Council is a constitutional body for making recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States.

Statement 2 is correct: HSN is used by 180 countries to determine the tax rate of a product. A product can be classified as HNS by using the General Rules for the interpretation of Harmonized Systems. HSN codes are determined based on various factors like the product's composition, its form and its functions. HSN stands f or Harmonized System of Nomenclature which was developed by the World Customs Organization (WCO) with the vision of classifying goods all over the World in a systematic manner.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The GST rates on goods and services were fitted into 5 slabs i.e. Nil, 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%, largely based on the pre- GST cumulative indirect tax incidence both of Central and State taxes, including the embedded taxes, which are subsumed in GST, so as to ensure revenue neutrality.

KB:

The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Second Amendment) Bill, 2016, for introduction of Goods and Services tax in the country was introduced in the Parliament and passed by Rajya Sabha on 3rd August, 2016 and by Lok Sabha on 8th August, 2016. Consequent upon this, the Hon’ble President of India accorded assent on 8th September 2016, and the same was notified as the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016. As per Article 279A (1) of the amended Constitution, the GST Council has to be constituted by the President within 60 days of the commencement of Article 279A. The notification for bringing into force Article 279A with effect from 12th September 2016 was issued on 10th September, 2016.

 

 

QUESTION: 82

The Agreement on Reciprocal Logistics Support is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

Solution:

Option (a) is the correct answer. Agreement on Reciprocal Logistics Support (ARLS) is an agreement between India and Russia. This arrangement will allow access to both Russia and India to access each other's military facilities for expanding logistics support, supplies and fuels. This will benefit Indian Navy owing to its large number of Ships which are Russian in origin. India will get access to the Russian part of the Arctic which is an energy rich region

QUESTION: 83

Consider the following statements:

  1. India has acceded to the Hong Kong Convention, 2009 of the International Maritime Organization in 2019.

  2. The Hong Kong Convention is related to the safe and environmentally sound recycling of ships.

  3. The Hong Kong Convention came into force in 2010.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: India has acceded to Hong Kong convention which will encourage ship wrecking industry in India. Through this accession globally best and scientific practices of ship recycling will come to India.

Statement 2 is correct: The Hong Kong convention covers the design, construction, operation and maintenance of ships for eco-friendly recycling. According to the convention, ship recycling facilities should have a “Ship Recycling Plan” which will, depending upon specific characteristics of the ship, specify how each ship will be recycled.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The treaty was adopted in 2009. But it hasn't come into force. The treaty can be entered into force 24 months after ratification by 15 States, representing 40 percent of world merchant shipping by gross tonnage, combined maximum annual ship recycling volume not less than 3 percent of their combined tonnage.

QUESTION: 84

Special 301 Report is sometimes seen in the news is prepared annually by

Solution:

Option (d) is the correct answer.

The US Trade Act has a provision under section 301 that asks the office of USTR to prepare a list of countries having negative impact on American products due to their IPR regime. The report monitors policies and practices of other countries that are not able to give IP protection for US inventors, creators and service providers. In the latest Special 301 report India has been termed as one of the most challenging economies with respect to Intellectual Property protection.

QUESTION: 85

Which of the following vector borne diseases are caused by virus and are transmitted through mosquitoes?

  1.  

    Japanese Encephalitis

  2.  

    Plague

  3.  

    Malaria

 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Option 1 is correct. Japanese encephalitis is a mosquito-borne viral infection. It is the leading cause of viral encephalitis in Asia.

Option 2 is incorrect. Plague is a bacterial disease that affects humans and other mammals. Humans usually get plague after being bitten by a rodent flea that is carrying the plague bacterium or by handling an animal infected with plague.

Option 3 is incorrect. Malaria is a disease caused by plasmodium parasites. The parasites are transmitted to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes.

 

 

QUESTION: 86

With reference to Centre – State relations, which of the statements is correct?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect. President rule cannot be imposed if the state fails to comply with the center’s direction on legislative matters. Firstly, the Centre cannot direct the state on legislative matters except subjects on the concurrent list. Article 365 of the Constitution provides that if a state fails to comply with the Union's directive on executive matters then it becomes the ground to impose President rule.

Option b is incorrect. The State Legislature has the power to disagree with the Union Legislature by passing a motion in that regard. For example, recently, the Kerala Assembly Passed a resolution to Demand withdrawal of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019.

Option c is correct. State Government entities can directly borrow from the external bilateral funding agencies subject to fulfilment of certain conditions and all repayments of loans and interests to the funding agencies will be directly remitted by the concerned borrower. The concerned State Government will furnish a guarantee for the Loan. The Government of India will provide a counter-guarantee for the loan. The Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA), a State Government entity, has also been allowed to borrow directly from Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) Official Development Assistance (ODA) loan for implementation of Mumbai Trans Harbour Link (MTHL) project.

Option d is incorrect. There are two types of grants in aid to states: Statutory Grants (Article 275) and Discretionary Grants (Article 282). Finance commission recommends only on Statutory grants. Discretionary grants were recommended by the Planning commission. However, after the abolition of the Planning commission, Union finance ministers themselves decided on discretionary grants.

QUESTION: 87

In which of the following field can one see the application of quantum dots?

Solution:

Option (d) is the correct answer.

Quantum dots (QDs) are tiny semiconductor particles, a few nanometres in size, having optical and electronic properties that differ from larger particles due to quantum mechanics. Potential applications of quantum dots include single-electron transistors, solar cells, LEDs, lasers, single-photon sources, second- harmonic generation, quantum computing, and medical imaging. Their small size allows for some QDs to be suspended in solution, which may lead to use in inkjet printing and spin-coating.

QUESTION: 88

What is the purpose of ‘Direct Benefit Transfer’?

  1. Re-engineering the process in welfare schemes for simpler and faster flow of funds

  2. To ensure accurate targeting of the beneficiaries

  3. De-duplication and reduction of fraud Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution:

Option (d) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: First purpose, Reforming the Government delivery system by re-engineering the existing process in welfare schemes for simpler.

Statement 2 is correct: Second purpose, faster flow of information/funds and to ensure accurate targeting of the beneficiaries.

Statement 3 is correct: Third purpose, de-duplication and reduction of fraud Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).

KB:

JAM: - Jan Dhan, Aadhaar and Mobile are DBT enablers and as on date more than 22 crore Jan Dhan Account, more than 100 crore Aadhaar and about 100 crore Mobile connections provide a unique opportunity to implement DBT in all welfare schemes across the country including States & UTs. DBT will bring efficiency, effectiveness, transparency and accountability in the Government system and infuse confidence in citizens in governance. Use of modern technology and IT tools will realize the dream of maximum governance minimum government.

QUESTION: 89

What is the aim of the programme ‘SamagraShiksha’ ?

Solution:

Option d is correct: The Government of India has launched Samagra Shiksha - An Integrated Scheme for school education, w.e.f. 2018-19, which is an overarching programme for the school education sector extending from pre-school to class XII and aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education at all levels of school education. It envisages the ‘school’ as a continuum from pre-school, primary, upper primary, secondary to senior secondary levels and subsumes the three erstwhile centrally sponsored schemes i.e. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and Teacher Education(TE).

Option a is incorrect: RashtriyaUchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (C.S.S.), launched in 2013 aims at providing strategic funding to eligible state Higher Educational Institutions.

Option b is incorrect: It is an objective of IMPRESS Scheme, To identify and fund research proposals in social sciences with maximum impact on governance and society.

Option c is incorrect: It is a Pradhan Mantri Innovative Learning Programme aimed to identify and encourage talented children to enrich their skills and knowledge.

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following statementsregarding 86th Constitutional Amendment Act:

  1. It added a clause to article 21, providing for free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.

  2. It amended article 45, mandating the State to provide opportunities for education to children between the age of six and fourteen years.

  3. It made it the fundamental duty of every parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his ward until he/she completes the age of six years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. 86th Constitutional Amendment does not add a clause rather added a new Article 21 A making right to education a fundamental right. Right to free and compulsory education to all the children between the age group of 6yrs to 14 yrs.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 45 does not mandate to provide free and compulsory education; it is provided by Article 21 A. Article 45 provides directions to the state to provide pre-school education and nutritional development of children between the age of 0 to 6 yrs.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The amendment added Article 51 A (k) made it the duty of parents to send their children between the age of 6yrs to 14 years school.

QUESTION: 91

Recently, Great Indian Bustard was added to the Appendix I of the Convention for Migratory Species of Animals (CMS). What does it imply?

Solution:

Appendix I of the Convention for Migratory Species of Animals (CMS) comprises migratory species that have been assessed as being in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of their range. Parties that are a Range State to a migratory species listed in Appendix I shall endeavour to strictly protect them by: prohibiting the taking of such species, with very restricted scope for exceptions; conserving and where appropriate restoring their habitats; preventing, removing or mitigating obstacles to their migration and controlling other factors that might endanger them.

QUESTION: 92

The term Locus Standi, implies

Solution:

Option (b) is the correct answer.

Option a is incorrect: Third parties who assist the court in its proceedings are called Amicus Curiae.

Option b is correct: Locus Standi is a person who is affected by the case and hence becomes part of the judicial proceeding related to that case.

Option c is incorrect: Locus Standi is not the advocates who are appealing on behalf of aggrieved.

QUESTION: 93

With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events.

  1. Cripps Mission

  2. Individual Satyagraha

  3. Day of Deliverance

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

Solution:
  • Day of Deliverance was observed by Muslim League in 1939 when Congress Ministers resigned in the protest of Viceroys decision of making India a part in second world war.

  • Individual satyagraha was first started by VinohaBhave in October 1940.

  • Cripps Mission came to India in 1942.

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following statements:

  1. Operation Twist and Long-Term Repo Operation (LTRO) are a means of monetary policy.

  2. Operation Twist is an Indian invention while LTRO has been inspired from United States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Operation Twist is the name given to a monetary policy tool that the US Federal Reserve had initiated to influence the prevailing rate of interest in the markets.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) decided to introduce long-term repo operations (LTRO) and revised its liquidity management framework to facilitate the transmission of monetary policy actions and flow of credit to the economy.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Operation Twist was initiated by the United States and LTRO introduced by The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) with an influence from European Union.

QUESTION: 95

Recently, there was a proposal to give which of the following sites the status of sixth Tiger Reserve in Karnataka?

Solution:

The MalaiMahadeshwara Wildlife Sanctuary (MMWS), which has around 20 tigers is expected to be declared as the sixth tiger reserve in Karnataka. It will become a tiger reserve after the approval of the National Tiger Conservation Authority.

Subject) Environment & Biodiversity.

QUESTION: 96

Consider the following statements regarding Financial Emergency in India

  1. The Presidential Proclamation of Financial Emergency is subject to Judicial Review

  2. Once proclaimed, the Financial Emergency continues until it is revoked by the President without Parliamentary approval.

  3. During Financial Emergency, the President can reduce the salary and allowances of State government employees.

Which of the statement given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Article 360 empowers the President to impose financial emergency if he/ she is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India is threatened. The 38th Amendment held that the decision of the President to impose financial emergency shall be final and conclusive and cannot be challenged in court of law. However, in 44th Amendment, provided that the satisfaction of the President is not beyond the judicial review.

Statement 2 is incorrect. A proclamation of financial must be approved from both the houses within 2 months from the date of issue. However, the Constitution has not provided any limit in the period of operation. Parliamentary approval is not needed for its continuation.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The President can reduce the salary and allowances of all union government employees and the judges of the Supreme Court and High Court. The President cannot reduce the salary and allowances of State government employees.

QUESTION: 97

Which of the following Writs can be issued by Supreme Court against the President of India?

  1. Writ of Mandamus

  2. Writ of Certiorari

  3. Writ of Quo - Warranto

  4. Writ of Prohibition

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court can issue writ of Mandamus against delayed implementation of any policy/ legislation by executives. However, the President acts as a Head of State under the Constitution of India. Hence, the Supreme court cannot issue writ of Mandamus against such a high constitutional office.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Writ of Certiorari is issued by the Supreme court to its lower courts. This is issued by a superior court to direct that the record of the lower court be sent to the superior court for review.

Statement 3 is correct. The Supreme Court can issue writ of Quo- Warranto against the President. The Supreme court can issue writs if a person appointed at the office of President is eligible to be appointed or not.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The Supreme Court Issue Writ of Prohibition to its lower courts. This writ is often issued by a superior court to the lower court directing it not to proceed with a case which does not fall under its jurisdiction.

QUESTION: 98

Recently, Ramsar has declared 10 more wetland sites from India as sites of international importance. Which of the following sites doesn’t lie in the state of Uttar Pradesh?

Solution:

Option (d) is the correct answer.

Recently, 10 new sites from India have been declared as Ramsar sites. With this, the numbers of Ramsar sites in India are now 37 and the surface area covered by these sites is now 1,067,939 hectares. Maharashtra gets its first Ramsar site (N andurMadhameshwar), Punjab which already had 3 Ramsar sites adds 3 more (Keshopur- Miani, Beas Conservation Reserve, Nangal) and UP with 1 Ramsar site has added 6 more (Nawabganj, Parvati Agra, Saman, Samaspur, Sandi and SarsaiNawar).

KeshopurMiani is in Punjab.

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following statements iscorrect regarding passage of Budget in India?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect. Only when expenses are made from Consolidated fund of India (CFI), it has to be made through Parliamentary appropriation route. Appropriation bill is passed in the Parliament which authorises for expenses to be done from CFI. When expenses are made from the Public Account of India fund and Contingency fund of India, Parliamentary appropriation is not needed.

Option b is incorrect. Cut motion can be admitted only for non-charged expenditure from Consolidated Fund of India. Parliament can pass any of three motions: cut motion, economy motion and token motion on any demand of grants voting.

Option c is correct. If any of three motions: cut motion, economy motion and token motion are not passed then it may lead to resignation of the government. This may result in the introduction of no - confidence motion on the floor of the house.

Option d is incorrect. Since demand for grants is a form of money bill, Rajya Sabha does not enjoy equal privilege to that of Lok Sabha.

QUESTION: 100

With respect to different types of bills of the Parliament, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

Option a is incorrect. Money bill and Constitutional Amendment bill are two bills which are exempted from joint sittings. Joint sittings are held under two circumstances: a) the bill is rejected by another house b) the bill is delayed from more than six months in another house without its passage.

Rajya Sabha is provided less power while dealing with Money Bill. Rajya Sabha can atmax hold Money bill for 14 days, but ultimately it will get passed. Rajya Sabha can provide any suggestions on amendment of the bill, however, it is up to the Lok Sabha whether to consider it or not.

Constitutional Amendment Bills: Both the houses have equal powers and no joint sitting is possible. The bill has to be passed by both the houses with a special majority.

Option b is correct. There are three types of financial bills:

a) Money Bill

b) Financial Bills I

c) Financial Bills II.

Only Money bills are passed even without approval from the Upper House (Council of States).

Option c is correct. In case of Money Bill, the bill on the first instance is introduced with the assent of the President. Hence, the President cannot send it for reconsideration unlike Ordinary bills (Article 111).

Option d is correct. A bill can be considered as Money Bill only under following six circumstances:

  • imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;

  • regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;

  • custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;

  • appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;

  • Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount of any such expenditure;

Imposition of fine and other pecuniary benefits does not come under all the above-mentioned categories. Hence, it's not a money bill rather an ordinary bill.