UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 14 (May 13, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 14 (May 13, 2021)


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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 14 (May 13, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 14 (May 13, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 14 (May 13, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 14 (May 13, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 14 (May 13, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Bioasphalt is an asphalt alternative made from non-petroleum based renewable resources.


Which of the following are the potential sources of the Bioasphalt?


1. sugar, molasses and rice
2. corn and potato starches
3. Natural tree and gum resins
4. Natural latex rubber and vegetable oils
5. Lignin, cellulose, palm oil waste
6. Coconut waste, peanut oil waste 

Solution:

Bioasphalt is an asphalt alternative made from non-petroleum based renewable resources. These sources include sugar, molasses and rice, corn and potato starches, natural tree and gum resins, natural latex rubber and vegetable oils, lignin, cellulose, palm oil waste, coconut waste, peanut oil waste, canola oil waste, potato starch, dried sewerage effluent and so on. Bitumen can also be made from waste vacuum tower bottoms produced in the process of cleaning used motor oils, which are normally burned or dumped into land fills. 

QUESTION: 2

Fossil fueled power stations are major emitters of CO2. Which of the following statements are correct about the fossil fuels?


1. Brown coal emits 3 times as much CO2 as natural gas.
2. Black coal emits twice as much CO2 per unit of electric energy. 

Solution:

Fossil fueled power stations are major emitters of CO2, a greenhouse gas (GHG) which according to a consensus of scientific organisations is a contributor to global warming observed over the last 100 years. Brown coal emits 3 times as much CO2 as natural gas, black coal emits twice as much CO2 per unit of electric energy. 

QUESTION: 3

A satellite in a geostationary orbit appears stationary, always at the same point in the sky, to ground observers. A perfect stable geostationary orbit is an ideal that can only be approximated. In practice, the satellite drifts out of this orbit because of perturbations such as the
1. Solar wind
2. Radiation pressure
3. Variations in the Earth's gravitational field
4. Gravitational effect of the Moon and Sun 

Solution:

A circular geosynchronous orbit in the plane of the Earth's equator has a radius of approximately 42,164 km (26,199 mi) from the center of the Earth. A satellite in such an orbit is at an altitude of approximately 35,786 km (22,236 mi) above mean sea level. It maintains the same position relative to the Earth's surface. If one could see a satellite in geostationary orbit, it would appear to hover at the same point in the sky, i.e., not exhibit diurnal motion, while the Sun, Moon, and stars would traverse the heavens behind it. This is sometimes called a Clarke orbit. Such orbits are useful for telecommunications satellites. 
A perfect stable geostationary orbit is an ideal that can only be approximated. In practice the satellite drifts out of this orbit (because of perturbations such as the solar wind, radiation pressure, variations in the Earth's gravitational field, and the gravitational effect of the Moon and Sun), and thrusters are used to maintain the orbit in a process known as station-keeping.  

QUESTION: 4

Which one of the following dramas was written by Sriharsha?

Solution:

Sri Harsha wrote Priyadarshika. His other important works were Ratanvali. Both of them are plays. 
In Priyadarshika, it is about the love story of Vatsaraja Udayana with princess Priyadarshika. It is written under the influence of the Kalidasa Malavikagnimitram.  

QUESTION: 5

Which of the following syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21) 

Solution:

Trisomy 21 is the most common chromosomal anomaly in humans, affecting about 5,000 babies born each year and more than 350,000 people in the United States.

Also known as Down syndrome, trisomy 21 is a genetic condition caused by an extra chromosome. Most babies inherit 23 chromosomes from each parent, for a total of 46 chromosomes. Babies with Down syndrome however, end up with three chromosomes at position 21, instead of the usual pair.

Other examples of trisomies occur at position 13 and 18. Trisomy 21 is the most common of the three, occurring in 1 out of every 691 births. The disorder was first identified in 1866 by John Langdon Down, a British physician, and later named after him.

QUESTION: 6

Which of the following statements are correct about the exports by a country?

Solution:

Trade balance, i.e. the difference between export and import, is clearly the first variable influenced by export dynamics. Export is a source of foreign currency, easing import expenditure and increasing central bank reserves of foreign currency. If for exporting a country needs raw materials and semi-manufactured goods from abroad, then export growth will increase imports as well. Provided export does not simply replace production previously directed to domestic demand, the increase of export will increase production, GDP, employment. Through Keynesian multiplier, this will engender a higher consumption and higher production again, giving rise to a positive feedback loop. Probably, imports will rise as a consequence. On the supply side, firms may compensate slower domestic dynamics with export, stabilizing their production and eventually profitability. Growing exports usually mean a firm strategy of market diversification. 

QUESTION: 7

A microbial fuel cell (MFC) or biological fuel cell is a 

Solution:

A microbial fuel cell (MFC) or biological fuel cell is a bio-electrochemical system that drives a current by mimicking bacterial interactions found in nature. Mediator-less MFCs are a more recent development; due to this, factors that affect optimum efficiency, such as the strain of bacteria used in the system, type of ion-exchange membrane, and system conditions (temperature, pH, etc.) are not particularly well understood. Bacteria in mediator-less MFCs typically have electrochemically active redox proteins such as cytochromes on their outer membrane that can transfer electrons to external materials 

QUESTION: 8

The fiscal policy of a Government is best described as 

Solution:

In economics and political science, fiscal policy is the use of government expenditure and revenue collection (taxation) to influence the economy. Fiscal policy can be contrasted with the other main type of macroeconomic policy, monetary policy, which attempts to stabilize the economy by controlling interest rates and spending. The two main instruments of fiscal policy are government expenditure and taxation. Changes in the level and composition of taxation and government spending can impact the following variables in the economy: 
Aggregate demand and the level of economic activity; 
The pattern of resource allocation;
The distribution of income. 
Fiscal policy refers to the use of the government budget to influence the first of these: economic activity. 

QUESTION: 9

There has been a steady decline in the total volume of ozone in Earth's stratosphere (the ozone layer) since 1970s to the tune of 

Solution:

Ozone depletion describes two distinct but related phenomena observed since the late 1970s: a steady decline of about 4% per decade in the total volume of ozone in Earth's stratosphere (the ozone layer), and a much larger springtime decrease in stratospheric ozone over Earth's polar regions. The latter phenomenon is referred to as the ozone hole. In addition to these well-known stratospheric phenomena, there are also springtime polar tropospheric ozone depletion events. The details of polar ozone hole formation differ from that of mid-latitude thinning, but the most  important process in both is catalytic destruction of ozone by atomic halogens. The main source of these halogen atoms in the stratosphere is photodissociation of man-made halocarbon refrigerants (CFCs, freons, halons). These compounds are transported into the stratosphere after being emitted at the surface. Both types of ozone depletion were observed to increase as emissions of halo-carbons increased.

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following are the strategies to reduce the current account deficit?

Solution:

What are three strategies to reduce the current account deficit? 
This for any country in general, what are three strategies a government can do to reduce their current account deficit? 
1. Devalue the currency (either actively if fixed exchange rate, or by lowering interest rates if on a floating exchange rate). This makes your exports cheaper to foreigners and makes their goods more expensive, lowering imports.
2. Decrease demand for imports - you can do this by raising taxes or cutting spending (lower aggregate demand generally) or directly by raising tariffs, quotas, etc. to keep foreign goods out.
3. Sell more of your own exports. One way to do this is with policies that channel resources to exporting sectors - for example, setting up tax free export processing zones, subsidizing capital to those sectors (exhibit A - see Korea after WWII), creating infrastructure that makes it easier to export, etc. 

QUESTION: 11

Consider the following map below and match the mountain peaks 

Solution:

QUESTION: 12

Which of the following statements are correct about the Chandipur-on-sea? 
1. It is located Andhra Pradesh
2. It is unique in bio-diversity
3. It is described often as 'the land of hidden treasures'
4. It is the the location of the Indian Army's Integrated Test Range (ITR) 

Solution:

Chandipur also known as Chandipur-on-sea is a small sea resort in Baleswar District, Orissa, India. The resort is on the Bay of Bengal and is approximately 16 kilometers from the Baleswar Railway Station. The beach is unique in that the water recedes anywhere from 1 kilometer to 4 kilometers during the ebb and returns at the time of high-tide. The beach, due to this uniqueness, supports a lot of bio-diversity. Horseshoe crab is also found here on the beach towards Mirzapur, the nearby fishing market and community at the confluence of the Budhabalanga River. Described often as 'the land of hidden treasures', Chandipur-on-Sea is one of the finest beaches on the eastern coastline of India. Also referred to as Chandipur, this unique beach is located 16 kilometers from Balasore in Orissa.
This place is also the location of the Indian Army's Integrated Test Range (ITR) and a number of successful missiles like - Akash, Agni and Prithvi - have been launched from here. 

QUESTION: 13

Which of the following is caused by decisions on the part of the central bank to increase the money supply much more than markets had previously expected? 

Solution:

By definition, hyperinflation is a rapid increase in Price Index (the Money Supply multiplied by the velocity of money) without a corresponding increase in real output (see Equation of exchange). This is often caused by decisions on the part of the central bank to increase the money supply much more than markets had previously expected, often when money is printed to finance government spending. This results in a fall in the demand for money relative to its supply, which in an extreme case can grow into a complete loss of confidence in the money, similar to a bank run. This loss of confidence causes a rapid increase in velocity of spending which causes a corresponding rapid increase in prices. For example, once inflation has become established, sellers try to hedge against it by increasing prices. This leads to further waves of price increases. 
Hyperinflation will continue as long as the entity responsible for increasing bank credit and/or printing currency continues to promote excessive money creation. In severe cases, legal tender laws and price controls to prevent discounting the value of paper money relative to hard currency or commodities can fail to force acceptance of the rapidly increasing money supply which lacks intrinsic value, in which case hyperinflation usually continues until the currency is abandoned entirely. 

QUESTION: 14

Which of the following phenomena are associated with the demographic dividend? 
1. A rising share of working age people in a population
2. Rise in fertility rate
3. Decline in youth dependency rate

Solution:

The demographic dividend is a rise in the rate of economic growth due to a rising share of working-age people in a population. This usually occurs late in the demographic transition when the fertility rate falls and the youth dependency rate declines. During this demographic window of opportunity, output per capita rises. It has been argued that the demographic dividend played a role in the "economic miracles" of the East Asian Tigers and that the economic boom in Ireland in the 1990s (the Celtic tiger) was in part due to the legalization of contraception in 1979 and subsequent decline in the fertility rate. In Ireland, the ratio of workers to dependents improved due to lower fertility but was raised further by increased female labor market participation and a reversal from outward migration of working-age population to a net inflow. Africa, on the other hand, continues to have high fertility and youth dependency rates.

QUESTION: 15

Carbon credits were one of the outcomes of the 

Solution:

The concept of carbon credits came into existence as a result of increasing awareness of the need for pollution control. Carbon credits were one of the outcomes of the Kyoto Protocol, an international agreement between 169 countries. The Kyoto Protocol created legally binding emission targets for developing nations. To meet these targets, nations must limit C02 emissions. It was enforced from Feb’05. The very phase “Kyoto Protocol” has become synonymous with the idea of saving the planet from the global meltdown. This can be accomplished by either reducing emissions or by absorbing emissions through processes such as tree-planting and sequestration., which contribute to its economic stagnation. The magnitude of the demographic dividend appears to be dependent on the ability of the economy to absorb and productively employ the extra workers, rather than be a pure demographic gift. 

QUESTION: 16

What is Bisphenol A (BPA)?

Solution:

Bisphenol A (BPA) is a synthetic chemical compound used in a wide range of consumer products and is classed by the Government of Canada as a hormone disruptor. Bisphenol A is found in many everyday products including food cans, plastic water containers and baby bottles. A study in the US found that 95% of people tested had been exposed to BPA.

QUESTION: 17

A closed economy is an economy in which no activity is conducted with outside economies. It is also known as ​

Solution:

An economy that does not interact with the economy of any other country. A closed economy prohibits imports and exports and prohibits any other country from participating in their stock market. There have been many examples of closed economies throughout history, but very few closed economies exist today, also called autarky.

QUESTION: 18

Bark is a tree's natural armor and protects from external threats. Which of the following functions are carried out by bark?
1. Ridding the tree of wastes by absorbing and locking them into its dead cells and resins
2. Transporting large quantities of nutrients throughout the tree
3. Preventing loss of water from the tree by evaporation

Solution:

Bark is a tree's natural armor and protects from external threats. Bark also has several physical functions, one is ridding the tree of wastes by absorbing and locking them into its dead cells and resins. Also, the bark's phloem transports large quantities of nutrients throughout the tree. Trees, like knights of old, wear armor to protect themselves from injury. However, a tree's armor, called bark, is not made of heavy metal. Its outer layer, which we see, is composed of dead cells that become filled with a corklike substance and air. The inner bark, called Phloem, contains living cells and transports food from the leaves to other parts of the tree, including the roots. When these short-lived inner bark cells die, they become a part of the outer bark. Bark serves as a waterproof overcoat for the tree, helps prevent loss of water from the tree by evaporation, acts as a barrier against attacks by insects and diseases, insulates the tree from drastic temperature changes, and in some instances, protects the tree from fire damage. It also serves as a shield to protect a very important part of the tree - the cambium layer. This layer of cells, which can be seen only with the aid of a microscope, manufactures both the inner bark cells and the sapwood cells. It produces a completely new layer of sapwood and bar tissue every growing season. 

QUESTION: 19

In which one of the following Smruti is found the statement: “the royal charters were written on cloth or copper plate"? 

Solution:

A stone inscription of about the first quarter of the 8th century A.D. refers to itself as a kraya-cirika, i.e. 'a deed of purchase written on a piece of cloth'. The original document must have been later engraved on the stone.
According to Yajnavalkya (I, 319), the royal charters were written on cloth (pata explained as karpasika-pata by the commentator Vijnanesvara) or copper plate (tamra-patta). Some of the Satavahana charters later engraved on 
1. Al-Biruni says, "They (i.e. the Hindus) use black tablets for the children in the schools and write upon them along the long side, not the broad side, writing with a white material from the left to the right" (Sachau, Alberuni's India, Part I, p. 182).
cave walls refer to themselves aspatika. It is however difficult to determine whether this word is derived from pata (cloth) or is an inscriptional Prakrit from standing for pattika derived form patta (plate).

QUESTION: 20

The Indian Rhinoceros is one of the 45 species of globally threatened mammals found in the 

Solution:

The Indian Rhinoceros is one of the 45 species of globally threatened mammals found in the Eastern Himalayas. The Eastern Himalayas is the region encompassing Bhutan, northeastern India, and southern, central, and eastern Nepal. The region is geologically young and shows high altitudinal variation. It has nearly 163 globally threatened species including the One-horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis), the Wild Asian Water buffalo (Bubalus bubalis (Arnee)) and in all 45 mammals, 50 birds, 17 reptiles, 12 amphibians, 3 invertebrate and 36 plant species. The Relict Dragonfly (Epiophlebia laidlawi) is an endangered species found here with the only other species in the genus being found in Japan. The region is also home to the Himalayan Newt (Tylototriton verrucosus), the only salamander species found within Indian limits. 

QUESTION: 21

The following map shows the major producing area of 

Solution:

QUESTION: 22

Upwelling is an oceanographic phenomenon that involves motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient-rich water towards the ocean surface driven by 

Solution:

Upwelling is an oceanographic phenomenon that involves wind-driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient-rich water towards the ocean surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient-depleted surface water. The increased availability in upwelling regions results in high levels of primary productivity and thus fishery production. Approximately 25% of the total global marine fish catches come from five upwellings that occupy only 5% of the total ocean area. Upwellings that are driven by coastal currents or diverging open ocean have the greatest impact on nutrient-enriched waters and global fishery yields. 

QUESTION: 23

Which of the following statements are correct about the tropical rainforest 
1. A tropical rainforest is a place roughly within 28° north or south of the equator
2. Minimum normal annual rainfall between 100 and 150 cm
3. Mean monthly temperatures exceed 10°C during all months of the year 

Solution:

A tropical rainforest is a place roughly within 28 degrees north or south of the equator. They are found in Asia, Australia, Africa, South America, Central America, Mexico and on many of the Pacific Islands. Within the World Wildlife Fund's biome classification, tropical rainforests are thought to be a type of tropical wet forest (or tropical moist broadleaf forest) and may also be referred to as lowland equatorial evergreen rainforest. Minimum normal annual rainfall between 175 cm (69 in) and 200 cm (79 in) occurs in this climate region. Mean monthly temperatures exceed 18°C (64°F) during all months of the year. Rainforests are home to half of all the living animal and plant species on the planet. 

QUESTION: 24

The largest family of flowering plants with 750 species in the Himalaya hotspot is the 

Solution:

Of the estimated 10,000 species of plants in the Himalaya hotspot, about 3,160 are endemic, as are 71 genera. Furthermore, five plant families are endemic to the region, the Tetracentraceae, Hamamelidaceae, Circaesteraceae, Butomaceae and Stachyuraceae. The largest family of flowering plants in the hotspot is the Orchidacea, with 750 species, and a large number of orchids, many representing rather young endemic species, have recently been reported from the hotspot, indicating that further exploration will probably reveal a much higher degree of plant endemism. The Eastern Himalaya is also a center of diversity for several widely distributed plant taxa, such as Rhododendron, Primula, and Pedicularis. 

QUESTION: 25

India is divided into how many biogeographic regions

Solution:

India is one of the 12 mega biodiversity countries in the world. The country is divided into 10 biogeographic regions. The diverse physical features and climatic situations have formed ecological habitats like forests, grasslands, wetlands, coastal and marine ecosystems and desert ecosystems, which harbour and sustain immense biodiversity. Biogeographically, India is situated at the tri-junction of three realms - Afro-tropical, Indo-Malayan and Paleo-Arctic realms, and therefore, has characteristic elements from each of them. This assemblage of three distinct realms makes the country rich and unique in biological diversity. 

QUESTION: 26

In Karl Marx's ideology Membership in a class is defined by one's relationship to the 

Solution:

Class struggle is the active expression of a class conflict looked at from any kind of socialist perspective. Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels wrote "The [written] history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggle". 
Marx's notion of class has nothing to do with social class in the sociological sense of upper, middle and lower classes (which are often defined in terms of quantitative income or wealth). Instead, in an age of capitalism, Marx describes an economic class. Membership in a class is defined by one's relationship to the means of production, i.e., one's position in the social structure that characterizes capitalism. Marx talks mainly about two classes that include the vast majority of the population, the proletariat and the bourgeoisie. Other classes such as the petty bourgeoisie share characteristics of both of these main classes Karl Marx believed that social change is what was needed for a better society, and to get social change there must be class conflict. Marx's major concern of social change was economic change. Marx's most well-known work dealt with class conflict, the opposition between the capitalists and the working class. The capitalists are also known as the bourgeoisie. They are the ones that are responsible for controlling the land, factories, etc. The working class, which is also known as the proletariat, are the workers that are being exploited by the bourgeoisie. 

QUESTION: 27

Which one of the following animals breathe through the skin? 

Solution:

Animals which Breathe through their Skin 

Some animals which live on land have a skin which is so thin that gases can easily pass through it. We say that they have a permeable skin. Earthworms and amphibians have a skin which is permeable to gases. Amphibians also have a pair of simple lungs but they are not sufficient on their own for breathing.
Large animals which breathe through their skin also use blood to transport oxygen to their tissues and to bring carbon dioxide to the surface of the body. This means that the blood vessels must come very close to the skin. With a microscope it is possible to see the tiny blood vessels called capillaries. 


The main disadvantage of breathing through the skin is that the animal loses a lot of water in this way. The skin of these animals is always wet. To stop their bodies from drying out they must always live where the air is humid. 

QUESTION: 28

Which of the following statements are correct about the FDI and FII?
1. Foreign direct investment is involved in direct production activities and is a short-term investment
2. Foreign institutional investment is a long term investment in the financial market 

Solution:

Foreign investment refers to investments made by the residents of a country in the financial assets and production processes of another country. The effect of foreign investment, however, varies from country to country. It can affect the factor productivity of the recipient country and can also affect the balance of payments. Foreign investment provides a channel through which countries can gain access to foreign capital. It can come in two forms: foreign direct investment (FDI) and foreign institutional investment (FII).  
Foreign direct investment involves in direct production activities and is also of a medium- to long-term nature. But foreign institutional investment is a short-term investment, mostly in the financial markets.  
FII, given its short-term nature, can have bidirectional causation with the returns of other domestic financial markets such as money markets, stock markets, and foreign exchange markets. Hence, understanding the determinants of FII is very important for any emerging economy as FII exerts a larger impact on the domestic financial markets in the short run and a real impact in the long run. India, being a capital scarce country, has taken many measures to attract foreign investment since the beginning of reforms in 1991. 

QUESTION: 29

Bacillus Thuringiensis Brinjal, popularly known as Bt brinjal has been developed by 

Solution:

Bacillus Thuringiensis Brinjal, popularly known as Bt brinjal, is at the centre of a major controversy in India. Bt brinjal, a genetically modified strain created by India's number one seeds company Mahyco in collaboration with American multinational Monsanto, claims to improve yields and help the agriculture sector. However, the debate over the safety of Bt brinjal continues with mixed views from scientists working for the government, farmers and environment activists. Environment activists says the effect of GM (genetically modified) crops on rats have shown to be fatal for lungs and kidneys. It is dangerous to introduce these experimental foods into the market without proper research, they say. A study by French scientist Gilles-Eric Seralini says the tests conducted by Mahyco, the company producing Bt brinjal, were simply not valid and raised serious health concerns. 

QUESTION: 30

With reference to "Aam Admi Bima Yojana", consider the following statements:
1. Aam Admi Bima Yojana is a prestigious scheme of the Central and State / Union Territory Governments and administered by LIC
2. It is a scheme for the rural landless households, wherein the head of rural landless families or one earning member in each such family will be insured
3. In the event of death of a member prior to the terminal date, the Sum Assured of Rs.30,000/- will become payable to the nominee 
4. In the event of death by accident or Total Permanent Disability due to accident, Rs.75,000/- is payable 

Solution:

AAM ADMI BIMA YOJANA, a prestigious scheme of the Central and State / Union Territory Governments and administered by LIC brings a ray of hope and smile to these households. 
ELIGIBILITY 
-The member should be aged between 18 and 59 years 
-The member should be the head of the family or one earning member in the family of rural landless household. 
-It is a scheme for the rural landless households, wherein the head of rural landless families or one earning member in each such family will be insured. The premium under the scheme is Rs. 200/- for natural death, accident death, disability due to accident, and permanent total disability due to accident. 
-The eligibility condition for the plan is that the individual should be aged between 18 and 59 years. Further, the member should be the head of the family or one earning member in the family of rural landless households. 
-The premium under the scheme shall be Rs.200/- out of which 50% shall be subsidized from the fund created for this purpose by the Central Government and the remaining 50% shall be contributed by the State Government. 
-In the event of death of a member prior to the terminal date, the Sum Assured of Rs.30,000/- will become payable to the nominee. In the event of death by accident or Total Permanent Disability due to accident, Rs.75,000/- is payable. 

QUESTION: 31

The following map shows the mineral distribution of 

Solution:

Lead and zinc are available in U.P, rajasthan and andhra pradesh.But in the figure it has been also talked about the west bengal also where lead and manganese are available but the zinc is not. So the correct option is lead.

QUESTION: 32

Which of the following statements are correct about India's position in Heavy Water production?
1. India is the world's largest producer of heavy water through its Heavy Water Board
2. India also exports to countries like Republic of Korea and the United States 

Solution:

India is the world's largest producer of heavy water through its Heavy Water Board and also exports to countries like Republic of Korea and the United States.  
Development of heavy water process in India happened in three phases: The first phase (late1950s to mid 1980s) was a period of technology development, the second phase was of deployment of technology and process stabilisation (mid 1980s to early 1990s) and third phase saw consolidation and a shift towards improvement in production and energy conservation. 

QUESTION: 33

The National Commission for Minorities has been observing which day as a Minorities Rights Day every year

Solution:

UN Declaration of 18th December 1992 In order to strengthen the cause of the minorities, the United Nations promulgated the “Declaration on the Rights of Persons belonging to National or Ethnic, Religious and Linguistic Minorities” on 18th December 1992 proclaiming that: 
“States shall protect the existence of the National or Ethnic, Cultural, Religious and Linguistic identity of minorities within their respective territories and encourage conditions for the promotion of that identity.”
The National Commission for Minorities has been observing the 18th December as a Minorities Rights Day every year. 

QUESTION: 34

THE PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES (Equal Opportunities, Protection Of Rights And Full Participation) ACT, 1995 extends to

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

As per India’s national Population Policy, 2000, by which one of the following years is it our longterm objective to achieve population stabilization?

Solution:

National Population Policy 2000 – OBJECTIVES
The immediate objective of the NPP 2000 is to address the unmet needs for contraception, health care infrastructure, and health personnel, and to provide integrated service delivery for basic reproductive and child health care. The medium term objective is to bring the TFR to replacement levels by 2010, through vigorous implementation of inter-sectoral operational strategies. The long-term objective is to achieve a stable population by 2045, at a level consistent with the requirements of sustainable economic growth, social development, and environmental protection.

QUESTION: 36

Which of the following is in the nature of an imprest and is kept at the disposal of the President of India to enable the Government to meet unforeseen expenditure pending its authorisation by the Parliament?

Solution:

The Contingency Fund of India established under Article 267 (1) of the Constitution is in the nature of an imprest (money maintained for a specific purpose) which is placed at the disposal of the President to enable him/her to make advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the Parliament.

QUESTION: 37

Receipts from the sale of Savings Certificates, contributions into General Provident Fund and Public Provident Fund, Security Deposits and Earnest Money Deposits received by the Government are accounted for under 

Solution:

Government accounts are kept in the following three parts:- 


(i) CONSOLIDATED FUND OF INDIA: 
All revenues received by Government by way of taxation like income-tax, central excise, custom, land revenue (tax revenues) and other receipts flowing to Government in connection with the conduct duct of Government business like receipts from Railways, Posts, Transport etc. (non-tax revenues) are credited into the Consolidated Fund. Similarly, all loans raised by Government by issue of Public notifications, treasury bills (internal debt) and loans obtained from foreign governments and international monetary institutions (external debt) and all moneys received by Government in repayment of loans and interest thereon are also credited into this Fund. All expenditure incurred by the Government for the conduct of its business including repayment of internal and external debt and release of loans to States/Union Territory Governments for various purposes is debited against this Fund. 


(ii) CONTINGENCY FUND OF INDIA:
This is in the nature of an imprest and is kept at the disposal of the President of India to enable the Government to meet unforeseen expenditure pending its authorisation by the Parliament. The money is to be used to provide immediate relief to victims of natural calamities and also to implement any new policy decision taker, by the Government pending its approval by the Parliament. In all such cases, after the Parliament meets, a Bill is presented indicating the total expenditure to be incurred on the scheme/project during the current financial year. After the Parliament votes the bill, the money already spent out of the Contingency Fund is recouped by debiting the expenditure to the concerned functional Major Head etc. in the Consolidated Fund of India. 


(iii) PUBLIC ACCOUNT OF INDIA: 
All Public Money received by Government other than those which are for credit to the Consolidated Fund of India are accounted for under Public Account. The receipts into the Public Account and disbursements out of it are not subject to vote by the Parliament. Receipts under this account mainly flow from the sale of Savings Certificates, contributions into General Provident Fund and Public Provident Fund, Security Deposits and Earnest Money Deposits received by the Government. In respect of such receipts, the Government is acting as a Banker or Trustee and refunds the money after completion of the contract/event. The Public Account also includes various suspense and remittance heads. 

QUESTION: 38

The modern use of the expression "microfinancing" has roots in the 1970s when organizations such as Grameen Bank of Bangladesh was set up. It was pioneered by 

Solution:

The history of micro financing can be traced back as long to the middle of the 1800s when the theorist Lysander Spooner was writing over the benefits from small credits to entrepreneurs and farmers as a way getting the people out of poverty. Independently to Spooner, Friedrich Wilhelm Raiffeisen founded the first cooperative lending banks to support farmers in rural Germany.
The modern use of the expression "micro-financing" has roots in the 1970s when organizations, such as Grameen Bank of Bangladesh with the microfinance pioneer Muhammad Yunus, were starting and shaping the modern industry of micro-financing. Another pioneer in this sector is Akhtar Hameed Khan. 

QUESTION: 39

Southeast Asia is a subregion of Asia, consisting of the countries that are geographically 
1. South of China
2. East of India
3. West of New Guinea
4. North of Australia 
Which of the above are correct 

Solution:

Southeast Asia, South-East Asia, South East Asia or Southeastern Asia is a subregion of Asia, consisting of the countries that are geographically south of China, east of India, west of New Guinea and north of Australia. The region lies on the intersection of geological plates, with heavy seismic and volcanic activity. Southeast Asia consists of two geographic regions: Mainland Southeast Asia, also known as Indochina, comprises Cambodia, Laos, Burma (Myanmar), Thailand, Vietnam and Peninsular Malaysia, and  Maritime Southeast Asia, which is analogous to the Malay Archipelago, comprises Brunei, East Malaysia, East Timor, Indonesia, the Philippines,  Christmas Island and Singapore. 

QUESTION: 40

Which of the following statements are correct about the Trans fats
1. Trans fat is the common name for unsaturated fat with trans-isomer (E-isomer) fatty acid(s)
2. Trans fats are not essential fatty acids.
3. The consumption of trans fats decreases the risk of coronary heart disease 

Solution:

Trans fat is the common name for unsaturated fat with trans-isomer (E-isomer) fatty acid(s). Because the term refers to the configuration of a double carbon-carbon bond, trans fats are sometimes monounsaturated or polyunsaturated but never saturated. Trans fats are not essential fatty acids. The consumption of trans fats increases the risk of coronary heart disease by raising levels of LDL cholesterol and lowering levels of "good" HDL cholesterol. Health authorities worldwide recommend that consumption of trans fat be reduced to trace amounts. Trans fats from partially hydrogenated oils are more harmful than naturally occurring oils. Two Canadian studies, that received funding by the Alberta Livestock and Meat Agency and the Dairy Farmers of Canada, have shown that the natural trans fat vaccenic acid, found in beef and dairy products, can have the opposite health effect and can actually be beneficial compared to hydrogenated vegetable shortening, or a mixture of pork lard and soy fat, e.g. lowering total and LDL cholesterol and triglyceride levels. 

QUESTION: 41

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the following rivers from north to south? ​

Solution:

The Krishna River has its origin at Mahabaleswar in the vicinity of Jor village in the state of Maharashtra.
The Penner (also Penna, Penner or Penneru and Pinākinī in Sanskrit) is a river of southern India. The Penna rises on the hill of Nandi Hills in Chikballapur District of Karnataka state, and runs north and east through the state of Andhra Pradesh to empty into the Bay of Bengal.
Kollidam River, also called Coleroon River, river, east-central Tamil Nadu state, southeastern India.
Palar River, river in southern India. It rises near the Ponnaiyar River, southwest of Chintamani, in Karnataka state, and flows 183 miles (295 km) southeastward through Tamil Nadu state to the Bay of Bengal, south of Chennai.

QUESTION: 42

India's "Look East" policy, which was initiated in 1991, marked a strategic shift in India’s perspective of the world. India has developed multilateral organisations such as the MekongGanga Cooperation and BIMSTEC, forging extensive cooperation on environmental, economic development, security and strategic affairs. Which of the following country has been instrumental in bringing India into ASEAN+6 to dilute the ASEAN+3 process 

Solution:

India has developed multilateral organisations such as the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation and BIMSTEC, forging extensive cooperation on environmental, economic development, security and strategic affairs, permitting the growth of influence beyond South Asia and without the tense and obstructive presence of Pakistan and China that has stalled its efforts in the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. India became a sectoral dialogue partner with ASEAN in 1992, a full dialogue partner in 1995, a member of the Council for Security Cooperation in the Asia-Pacific, a member of the ASEAN Regional Forum in 1996, and a summit level partner (on par with China, Japan and Korea) in 2002. The first India-ASEAN Business Summit was held in New Delhi in 2002. India also acceded to ASEAN's Treaty of Amity and Cooperation in Southeast Asia in 2003. 
In many cases, India's membership to these forums has been a result of attempts by the region to balance China's growing influence in the area. Notably, Japan brought India into ASEAN+6 to dilute the ASEAN+3 process, where China is dominant, while Singapore and Indonesia played a significant role in bringing India into the East Asia Summit. The United States and Japan have also lobbied for India's membership in the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation. Numerous infrastructure projects also serve to tie India closer to East Asia. India is participating in the UN Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific initiatives for an Asian Highway Network and the Trans-Asian Railway Network. Discussions are also proceeding on reopening the World War II-era Stilwell Road linking India's Assam state with China's Yunnan province through Myanmar. 

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following statements are correct about the Union Budget of India?
1. The Union Budget of India is referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in Article 112 of the Constitution of India
2. It is presented each year on the last working day of March by the Finance Minister of India in Parliament
3. The budget has to be passed by the House before it can come into effect on April 1 

Solution:

The Union Budget of India, referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in Article 112 of the Constitution of India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India, presented each year on the last working day of February by the Finance Minister of India in Parliament. The budget has to be passed by the House before it can come into effect on April 1, the start of India's financial year. Former Finance Minister Morarji Desai presented the budget eight times, the most by any. 

QUESTION: 44

How many Fundamental Duties are prescribed by the Constitution of the Nation under PART [IV-A] to its every citizen 

Solution:

The fundamental duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of our constitution by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Presently we have 11 fundamental duties in our constitution under article 51-A, which are statutory duties and are enforceable by law

QUESTION: 45

As per the Constitution, the Finance Commission is appointed every five years and consists of a 

Solution:

The Finance Commission of India came into existence in 1951. It was established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the President of India. It was formed to define the financial relations between the centre and the state. The Finance Commission Act of 1951 states the terms of qualification, appointment and disqualification, the term, eligibility and powers of the Finance Commission. As per the Constitution, the commission is appointed every five years and consists of a chairman and four other members. Since the institution of the first finance commission, stark changes have occurred in the Indian economy causing changes in the macroeconomic scenario. This has led to major changes in the Finance Commission’s recommendations over the years. Till date, Thirteen Finance Commissions have submitted their reports. 

QUESTION: 46

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was the result of the experience of the

Solution:

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, which was adopted by the UN General Assembly on 10 December 1948, was the result of the experience of the Second World War. With the end of that war and the creation of the United Nations, the international community vowed never again to allow atrocities like those of that conflict happen again. World leaders decided to complement the UN Charter with a road map to guarantee the rights of every individual everywhere. 

QUESTION: 47

Which of the following statements are correct about an algal bloom?
1. Algal blooms occur in freshwater
2. Algal blooms occur in marine environments
3. Algal bloom concentrations may reach millions of cells per milliliter
4. Algal blooms are green in colour 

Solution:

An algal bloom is a rapid increase or accumulation in the population of algae (typically microscopic) in an aquatic system. Algal blooms may occur in freshwater as well as marine environments. Typically, only one or a small number of phytoplankton species are involved, and some blooms may be recognized by discoloration of the water resulting from the high density of pigmented cells. Although there is no officially recognized threshold level, algae can be considered to be blooming at concentrations of hundreds to thousands of cells per milliliter, depending on the severity. Algal bloom concentrations may reach millions of cells per milliliter. Algal blooms are often green, but they can also be other colors such as yellow-brown or red, depending on the species of algae. 

QUESTION: 48

Future CO2 emissions can be calculated by the

Solution:

The Kaya identity is an equation relating factors that determine the level of human impact on climate, in the form of emissions of the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide. It states that total emission level can be expressed as the product of four inputs: population, GDP per capita, energy use per unit of GDP, carbon emissions per unit of energy consumed. This equation is very simple and tricky, as it can be reduced to only two terms, but it is developed so that the carbon emission calculation becomes easy, as per the available data, or generally in which format the data is available.
The Kaya identity was developed by Japanese energy economist Yoichi Kaya. It is the subject of his book Environment, Energy, and Economy: strategies for sustainability coauthored with Keiichi Yokobori as the output of the Conference on Global Environment, Energy, and Economic Development  

QUESTION: 49

The Australia Group (AG) is an informal forum of countries which, through the harmonisation of export controls, seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the development of
1. Chemical weapons
2. Biological weapons
3. Nuclear weapons

Solution:

he Australia Group (AG) is an informal forum of countries which, through the harmonisation of export controls, seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the development of chemical or biological weapons. Coordination of national export control measures assists Australia Group participants to fulfill their obligations under the Chemical Weapons Convention and the Biological and Toxin Weapons Convention to the fullest extent possible.

QUESTION: 50

Ice floats in the oceans because

Solution:

The density of water is dependent on the dissolved salt content as well as the temperature of the water. Ice still floats in the oceans, otherwise, they would freeze from the bottom up. However, the salt content of oceans lowers the freezing point by about 2°C  and lowers the temperature of the density maximum of water to the freezing point. This is why, in ocean water, the downward convection of colder water is not blocked by an expansion of water as it becomes colder near the freezing point. The oceans' cold water near the freezing point continues to sink. For this reason, any creature attempting to survive at the bottom of such cold water as the Arctic Ocean generally lives in water that is 4°C colder than the temperature at the bottom of frozen-over freshwater lakes and rivers in the winter. 

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the religious places from north to south?

Solution:

Abu, also called Mount Abu, town, southwestern Rajasthan state, northwestern India. It is situated on the slopes of Mount Abu, an isolated massif in the Aravalli Range.
arika is an ancient city and a municipality of Devbhoomi Dwarka district in the state of Gujarat in northwestern India.
Somnath is a magnificent temple situated in Sagar Kant of Saurashtra in Gujarat state. One of the 12 holy Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva is in Jyotirlinga here in Somnath. Somnath is also mentioned in Rigveda.
Nashik is an ancient city in the northwest region of Maharashtra in India. Situated on the banks of Godavari river Nashik is best known for being one of Hindu pilgrimage sites, that of Kumbh Mela which is held every 12 years.

QUESTION: 52

Which of the following statements are correct about the effects of La Nina and EI Nino on the tropical cyclones?
1. During El Niño there are on an average fewer hurricanes over the Atlantic Ocean, the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico whereas La Niña often brings more
2. The west coast of Mexico and the United States see more landfalling hurricanes during El Niño
3. In the central Pacific Ocean El Nino brings more typhoons, both north and south of the equator
4. There are no effects on the number of cyclones over the Indian Ocean 

Solution:

Changes in global atmospheric circulation patterns accompany La Nina and are responsible for weather extremes in various parts of the world that are typically opposite to those associated with El Nino. These patterns result from colder than normal ocean temperatures inhibiting the formation of rain-producing clouds over the eastern equatorial Pacific region while at the same time enhancing rainfall over the western equatorial Pacific region (Indonesia, Malaysia and northern Australia.) These patterns affect the position and intensity (weakening) of jet streams and the behavior of storms outside of the tropics in both the Northern and Southern hemispheres. 
El Nino affects the weather in large parts of the world. The effects depend strongly on the location and the season. The strongest effects on precipitation are in South-East Asia and the western Pacific Ocean, especially in the dry season (August-November). There are temperature effects throughout most of the tropics. The number of tropical cyclones also depends on El Nino in most basins. In boreal winter the effects are most wide-spread: from southern Africa to eastern Russia and most of the Americas. 
For the four meteorological seasons, we computed how El Niño and La Nina perturbed the average weather of the last century. We used observations from 1185 precipitation stations en 402 temperature stations in the GHCN v2 database with at least 40 years of data and at least 2° apart to compare linear correlations with the Nino3.4 index. 
Precipitation 
Blue circles indicate that during El Nino there was, on average, more rain than normal, red circles indicate drought during El Nino. La Nina has the opposite effect in almost all locations. The size of the circles is a measure of the strength of the relationship. 
Tropical Cyclones 
During El Nino, there are on average fewer hurricanes over the Atlantic Ocean, the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico. La Nina often brings more. The west coast of Mexico and the United States see more landfalling hurricanes during El Niño. In the central Pacific Ocean, El Nino brings more typhoons, both north and south of the equator. Their more easterly genesis makes that fewer of these tropical cyclones reach Australia. In the northern Pacific Ocean, the area with typhoons also shifts east. There are no effects on the number of cyclones over the Indian Ocean. 

QUESTION: 53

Which of the following statements are correct about the disease Anthrax? 
1. Anthrax is an acute disease caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis
2. It affects animals only
3. It can be prevented through vaccination
4. Anthrax infection is now relatively rare in domestic animals 

Solution:

Anthrax is an acute disease caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Most forms of the disease are lethal, and it affects both humans and animals. There are effective vaccines against anthrax, and some forms of the disease respond well to antibiotic treatment. 
Anthrax commonly infects wild and domesticated herbivorous mammals that ingest or inhale the spores while grazing. Ingestion is thought to be the most common route by which herbivores contract anthrax. Carnivores living in the same environment may become infected by consuming infected animals. Diseased animals can spread anthrax to humans, either by direct contact (e.g., inoculation of infected blood to broken skin) or by consumption of a diseased animal's flesh.
Until the twentieth century, anthrax infections killed hundreds of thousands of animals and people worldwide each year. French scientist Louis Pasteur developed the first effective vaccine for anthrax in 1881. Thanks to over a century of animal vaccination programs, sterilization of raw animal waste materials, and anthrax eradication programs in North America, Australia, New Zealand, Russia, Europe, and parts of Africa and Asia, anthrax infection is now relatively rare in domestic animals (with only a few dozen cases reported each year). Anthrax is especially rare in dogs and cats, as is evidenced by a single reported case in the USA in 2001 

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following are the synonyms of Drip irrigation? 
1. Trickle irrigation
2. Micro-irrigation
3. Localized irrigation 

Solution:

Drip irrigation, also known as trickle irrigation or microirrigation or localized irrigation, is an irrigation method which saves water and fertilizer by allowing water to drip slowly to the roots of plants, either onto the soil surface or directly onto the root zone, through a network of valves, pipes, tubing, and emitters.It is done with the help of narrow tubes which delivers water directly to the base of the plant. 

QUESTION: 55

Generally, there is an increase in biodiversity from the poles to the tropics. Thus localities at lower latitudes have more species than localities at higher latitudes. The main reason for this is

Solution:

Generally, there is an increase in biodiversity from the poles to the tropics. Thus localities at lower latitudes have more species than localities at higher latitudes. This is often referred to as the latitudinal gradient in species diversity. Several ecological mechanisms may contribute to the gradient, but the ultimate factor behind many of them is the greater mean temperature at the equator compared to that of the poles. 

QUESTION: 56

Which of the following is a natural constituent of many fermented or aged foods, including soy sauce, fermented bean paste, and cheese, and is also a component of hydrolyzed protein such as yeast extract

Solution:

Glutamic acid and its ions and salts, called glutamates, are flavor-enhancing compounds which provide an umami (savory) taste to food. Glutamic acid is a natural constituent of many fermented or aged foods, including soy sauce, fermented bean paste, and cheese, and is also a component of hydrolyzed protein such as yeast extract. The sodium salt of glutamic acid, monosodium glutamate (MSG), is a widely used additive in the food industry. 

QUESTION: 57

Sir William, Wedderburn's attention during his tenure in India was focussed on 

Solution:

Sir William was born in March 1838 in Edinburgh, Scotland. The Wedderburn's of the Scottish Border were a family of great antiquity. In 1859 William appeared for the Indian Civil Service examination. He left for India in 1860 and began official duty at Dharwar as an Assistant Collector. He was appointed Acting Judicial Commissioner in Sind and Judge of the Sadar Court in 1874. In 1882 he became the District and Sessions Judge of Poona. At the time of his retirement in 1887, he was the Chief Secretary to the Government of Bombay. During his service in India, William, Wedderburn's attention was focussed on famine, the poverty of the Indian peasantry, the problem of agricultural indebtedness and the question of reviving the ancient village system. His concern with these problems brought him in touch with the Indian National Congress. After his retirement, William Wedderburn threw himself, heart and soul, into it. He presided over the fourth Congress held in Bombay in 1889. 

QUESTION: 58

Which of the following are the advantages of LED lamps over CFLs?
1. LED lamps typically use less power (watts) per unit of light generated (lumens)
2. LED lamps last much longer than CFLs, as much as 10 x longer
3. LED lamps generate less heat than CFLs
4. LED lamps emit Infrared or Ultraviolet radiation

Solution:

LED lamps typically use less power (watts) per unit of light generated (lumens). A good LED lamp can generate twice as many lumens per watt as a CFL (50-100+ versus 40-80). 
- less greenhouse gas emissions from power plants 
- lower electric bills 
LED lamps last much longer than CFLs, as much as 10x longer (50,000 hours versus 5,000 hours). 
- fewer spent lamps in the landfill 
- less frequent lamp purchasing/changing, especially important for hard-to-reach lamp locations 
LED lamps generate less heat than CFLs. 
- decreased load on Air Conditioning systems 
- reduced danger of burns from touching lamps
- reduced fire hazards 
LED lamps typically are RoHS compliant, meaning that they have no or at most negligible amounts of hazardous substances within the scope of that compliance (lead, cadmium, mercury). CFLs, on the other hand, all have 1mg-5mg of Mercury (even more in tubular fluorescent lamps), and no doubt many people are not properly disposing of spent CFLs, resulting in Mercury making its way into the environment, with serious consequences. And if a CFL were to break in your house you might be exposed to Mercury.
- virtually no risk of environmental contamination 
- no risk of personal exposure to hazardous materials 
LED lamps tend not to have unpredictable failure modes. There are stories of CFLs catching fire, emitting smoke and odors, exploding, etc. The ballast circuitry in CFLs can fail in a variety of ways, some not so pleasant for anyone in the same room/house. This is especially the case when market pressure causes the designers to cut corners to save production costs. LED drivers are not nearly as unstable and usually fail by just no longer supplying power to the LEDs themselves. 
- virtually no risk of fire/smoke/odor 
LED lamps emit no Infrared or Ultraviolet radiation. CFLs (and tubular fluorescent lamps) generate light by exciting the Mercury vapor inside the lamp with electricity, generating Ultraviolet radiation, which stimulates the phosphor coating on the inner surface of the glass bulb, causing it to re-radiate most of the Ultraviolet radiation as visible light. LED lamps generally create "white" light by using blue LEDs and a phosphor coating which re-radiates some of the blue light as longer wavelength light (yellow range of the spectrum), together appearing as white. 
- no personal exposure to Ultraviolet radiation, which can cause cell damage 
- artwork and other sensitive items are not degraded as a result of exposure to Ultraviolet radiation 

QUESTION: 59

Which of the following statements are correct about TERI?
1. TERI stands for The Energy and Resources Institute, a research institute based in New Delhi focusing its research activities in the fields of energy, environment and sustainable development
2. Formerly it was Tata Energy Research Institute 

Solution:

The Energy and Resources Institute, commonly known as TERI (formerly Tata Energy Research Institute), established in 1974, is a research institute based in New Delhi focusing its research activities in the fields of energy, environment and sustainable development. 

QUESTION: 60

Unto This Last, an essay on economy by John Ruskin had a very important impact on Gandhi's philosophy. Which of the following are the outcomes of this impact?
1. Gandhiji decided to publish his own newspaper, Indian Opinion
2. Gandhiji created Phoenix Settlement where every body would get the same salary.
3. Gandhiji translated it later into Gujarati, entitling it Sarvodaya 

Solution:

In a chapter in his Autobiography (Part IV, Chapter XVIII) entitled "The Magic Spell of a Book" Gandhiji tells us how he read Ruskin's Unto this Last on the twenty-four hours' journey from Johannesburg to Durban. "The train reached there in the evening. I could not get any sleep that night. I determined to change my life in accordance with the ideals of the book. ... I translated it later into Gujarati, entitling it Sarvodaya." 
Unto This Last had a very important impact on Gandhi's philosophy. He discovered the book in March 1904 through Henry Polak, whom he had met in a vegetarian restaurant in South Africa.
Polak was chief editor of the Johannesburg paper The Critic. Gandhi decided immediately not only to change his own life according to Ruskin's teaching but also to publish his own newspaper, Indian Opinion, in a farm where everybody would get the same salary, without distinction of function, race or nationality, which for that time, was quite revolutionary. Thus Gandhi created Phoenix Settlement. 

QUESTION: 61

During Mughal period, who were the Gilkars? 

Solution:

During Mughal period the Gilkars were the workers in lime.

QUESTION: 62

Which of the following statements are correct about the Vitamin D? 
1. Vitamin D is an essential vitamin required by the body for the proper absorption of calcium
2. A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to rickets
3. Excess vitamin D can lead to increased risk of heart attack and kidney stones
4. Vitamin D is water-soluble 

Solution:

Vitamin D is an essential vitamin required by the body for the proper absorption of calcium, bone development, control of cell growth, neuromuscular functioning, proper immune functioning, and alleviation of inflammation. A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to rickets, a disease in which bones fail to properly develop. Further, inadequate levels of vitamin D can lead to a weakened immune system, increased cancer risk, poor hair growth, and osteomalacia, a condition of weakened muscles and bones. Conversely, excess vitamin D can cause the body to absorb too much calcium, leading to increased risk of heart attack and kidney stones. The current U.S. DV for vitamin D is 600 IU (international units) and the toxicity threshold for vitamin D is thought to be 10,000 to 40,000 IU/day.2 Vitamin D is oil soluble, which means you need to eat fat to absorb it. It is naturally found mainly in fish oils, fatty fish, and to a lesser extent in beef liver, cheese, egg yolks, and certain mushrooms. Vitamin D is also naturally made by your body when you expose your skin to the sun, and thus, is called the sun-shine vitamin. In addition, vitamin D is widely added to many foods such as milk and orange juice, and can also simply be consumed as a supplement. 

QUESTION: 63

Which of the following statements are correct about Infrasound?
1. Infrasound is sound that is lower in frequency than 20 Hz
2. The waves produced by earthquakes are infrasonic in nature 

Solution:

Infrasound, sometimes referred to as low-frequency sound, is sound that is lower in frequency than 20 Hz (Hertz) or cycles per second, the "normal" limit of human hearing. Hearing becomes gradually less sensitive as frequency decreases, so for humans to perceive infrasound, the sound pressure must be sufficiently high. The ear is the primary organ for sensing infrasound, but at higher intensities, it is possible to feel infrasound vibrations in various parts of the body.
The study of such sound waves is referred to sometimes as infrasonics, covering sounds beneath 20 Hz down to 0.001 Hz. 
Infrasound sometimes results naturally from severe weather, surf, lee waves, avalanches, earthquakes, volcanoes, bolides, waterfalls, calving of icebergs, aurorae, meteors, lightning and upper-atmospheric lightning. Nonlinear ocean wave interactions in ocean storms produce pervasive infrasound vibrations around 0.2 Hz, known as microbaroms. According to the Infrasonics Program at the NOAA, infrasonic arrays can be used to locate avalanches in the Rocky Mountains, and to detect tornadoes on the high plains several minutes before they touch down  

QUESTION: 64

Indian Census considers an area as urban only if it fulfills the following criteria:
1. The population of the settlement should be 5000 or more
2. Density of at least 400 persons per sq. km
3. At least 75% of the male workers engaged in non-agricultural occupations 

Solution:

Various terms such as mega-city, metropolitan area, urban agglomeration, greater urban area etc. are used by various scholars. The Indian census uses the term urban agglomeration which comprises a core city, other contiguous municipalities and what census considers as urban outgrowths. It is necessary to note that the Indian census considers an area as urban only if it fulfills the following criteria: 
(a) The population of the settlement should be 5000 or more
(b) Density of atleast 400 persons per sq.km
(c) Atleast 75% of the male workers engaged in non agricultural occupations 

QUESTION: 65

Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)? 

Solution:

THE Minister of Rural Development, Mr Raghuvansh Prasad Singh, has said the national mission on bio-diesel has got the in-principle nod of the Planning Commission. The Rural Development Ministry will be the nodal ministry for implementing the programme.

QUESTION: 66

The IMF's fundamental mission is to help ensure stability in the international system. It does so by

Solution:

The IMF's fundamental mission is to help ensure stability in the international system. It does so in three ways: keeping track of the global economy and the economies of member countries; lending to countries with balance of payment difficulties; and giving practical help to members. Surveillance 
The IMF oversees the international monetary system and monitors the financial and economic policies of its members. It keeps track of economic developments on a national, regional, and global basis, consulting regularly with member countries and providing them with macroeconomic and financial policy advice. 
Technical Assistance 
To assist mainly low- and middle-income countries in effectively managing their economies, the IMF provides practical guidance and training on how to upgrade institutions, and design appropriate macroeconomic, financial, and structural policies. 
Lending 
The IMF provides loans to countries that have trouble meeting their international payments and cannot otherwise find sufficient financing on affordable terms. This financial assistance is designed to help countries restore macroeconomic stability by rebuilding their international reserves, stabilizing their currencies, and paying for imports-all necessary conditions for relaunching growth. The IMF also provides concessional loans to low-income countries to help them develop their economies and reduce poverty. 

QUESTION: 67

Arrange the mangrove ecosystem on Indian coastlines in increasing size i.e, smallest to largest
1. Sundarban mangroves
2. Gulf of Kachch
3. Andaman-Nicobar Islands

Solution:

The distribution of mangrove ecosystem on Indian coastlines indicates that the Sundarban mangroves occupy very large area followed by the Andaman-Nicobar Islands and Gulf of Kachch in Gujarat. Rest of the mangrove ecosystems are comparatively smaller. However, good number of studies have been carried out in almost all ecosystems. Over 1600 plant and 3700 animal species have been identified from these areas. MANDATE is a database on Indian mangroves analyzing information from available literature using the specific parameters as have been depicted on left-hand side. Please do use this information freely and also provide any other information that has not been covered here. 
Mangroves are various kinds of trees up to medium height and shrubs that grow in saline coastal sediment habitats in the tropics and subtropics – mainly between latitudes 25° N and 25° S. The word is used in at least three senses:  
(1) most broadly to refer to the habitat and entire plant assemblage or mangal, for which the terms mangrove forest biome, mangrove swamp and mangrove forest are also used
(2) to refer to all trees and large shrubs in the mangrove swamp, and  
(3) narrowly to refer to the mangrove family of plants, the Rhizophoraceae, or even more specifically just to mangrove trees of the genus Rhizophora. 

QUESTION: 68

According to Jainism, this loka or Universe is 

Solution:

Structure of Universe as per the Jain Scriptures. 
According to Jainism, this loka or Universe is an uncreated entity, existing since infinity, immutable in nature, beginningless and endless. Jain texts describe the shape of the Universe as similar to a man standing with legs apart and arm resting on his waist. The Universe according to Jainism is narrow at top and broad at middle and once again becomes broad at the bottom. 

QUESTION: 69

Salt-affected soils are caused by excess accumulation of salts, typically most pronounced at 

Solution:

Salt-affected soils are caused by excess accumulation of salts, typically most pronounced at the soil surface. Salts can be transported to the soil surface by capillary transport from a salt-laden water table and then accumulate due to evaporation. They can also be concentrated in soils due to human activity, for example, the use of potassium as fertilizer, which can form sylvite, a naturally occurring salt. As soil salinity increases, salt effects can result in degradation of soils and vegetation. 

QUESTION: 70

Which of the following statements are correct about the Red Data Book
1. The Red Data Book is issued by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (lUCN) listing species judged as threatened
2. The pink pages in this publication include the critically endangered species
3. Green pages are used for those species that were formerly endangered, but have now recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened 

Solution:

The Red Data Book 
Species judged as threatened are listed by various agencies as well as by some private organizations. The most cited of these list is the Red Data Book. It is a loose-leaf volume of information on the status of many kinds of species. This volume is continually updated and is issued by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (lUCN) located in Morges, Switzerland. "Red" of course is symbolic of the danger that these species both plants and animals presently experience throughout the globe. The Red Data Book was first issued in 1966 by the lUCN's Special Survival Commission as a guide for formulation, preservation and management of species listed. In this Book, information for endangered mammals and birds is more extensive than for other groups of animals and plants, coverage is also given to less prominent organisms facing extinction. 
The pink pages in this publication include the critically endangered species. As the status of the animal's changes, new pages are sent to the subscribers. Green pages are used for those species that were formerly endangered but have now recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened. With passing time, the number of pink pages continues to increase. There are pitifully few green pages. 

QUESTION: 71

Consider the following map of South Indian region. Which of the following thermal power plant is shown in the map? 

Solution:

Rayalaseema Thermal Power Plant (RTPP) at Kadapa by the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC), the Joint Action Committee (JAC) of Andhra Pradesh power utilities is asking the State government to reject any such proposal on the ground that building new units to compensate for the consequent reduction in the total installed capacity is not only a costly but also a time-consuming affair.

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following statements about the artificial satellites are correct?
1. Artificial satellites can have a range of missions, including scientific research, weather observation, military support, navigation, Earth imaging, and communications
2. Low orbiting satellites are mostly above the Earth’s atmosphere and are likely to last for many years
3. The satellites orbiting in high orbits eventually decays and they crash back into the atmosphere

Solution:

Artificial satellites are human-built objects orbiting the Earth and other planets in the Solar System. This is different from the natural satellites, or moons, that orbit planet, dwarf planets and even asteroids. Artificial satellites are used to study the Earth, other planets, to help us communicate, and even to observe the distant Universe. Satellites can even have people in them, like the International Space Station and the Space Shuttle. The first artificial satellite was the Soviet Sputnik 1 mission, launched in 1957. Since then, dozens of countries have launched satellites, with more than 3,000 currently operating spacecraft going around the Earth. There are estimated to be more than 8,000 pieces of space junk; dead satellites or pieces of debris going around the Earth as well. 
Artificial satellites can have a range of missions, including scientific research, weather observation, military support, navigation, Earth imaging, and communications. Some satellites fulfill a single purpose, while others are designed to perform several functions at the same time. Equipment on a satellite is hardened to survive in the radiation and vacuum of space. Satellites are built by various aerospace companies, like Boeing or Lockheed, and then delivered to a launch facility, such as Cape Canaveral. Launch facilities are located as close as possible to the Earth’s equator, to give an extra velocity kick into space. This allows rockets to use less fuel or launch heavier payloads. 
The altitude of a satellite’s orbit defines how long it will stay in orbit. Low orbiting satellites are mostly above the Earth’s atmosphere, but they’re still buffeted by the atmosphere and their orbit eventually decays and they crash back into the atmosphere. Other satellites orbiting in high orbits will likely be there for millions of years. 

QUESTION: 73

Laser is a device to produce

Solution:

A laser is a device that emits light through a process of optical amplification based on the stimulated emission of electromagnetic radiation. The term "laser" originated as an acronym for "light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation". Lasers differ from other sources of light because they emit light coherently. Spatial coherence allows a laser to be focused to a tight spot, enabling applications like laser cutting  and  lithography. Spatial coherence also allows a laser beam to stay narrow over long distances (collimation), enabling applications such as laser pointers. Lasers can also have high temporal coherence which allows them to have a very narrow spectrum, i.e., they only emit a single color of light. Temporal coherence can be used to produce  pulses of light—as short as a femtosecond.

QUESTION: 74

Which of the following peasant movements were formed by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
1. Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS)
2. All India Kisan Sabha (Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha)  

Solution:

The Kisan Sabha movement started in Bihar under the leadership of Swami Sahajanand Saraswati who had formed in 1929 the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) in order to mobilize peasant grievances against the zamindari attacks on their occupancy rights, and thus sparking the Farmers' movement in India. All India Kisan Sabha (All India Peasants Union, also Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha), was the name of the peasants front of the undivided Communist Party of India (CPI), an important peasant movement formed by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati in 1936, and which later split into two organizations, by the same name. 

QUESTION: 75

Which of the following statements are correct about the Eurasian steppes?
1. The Eurasian steppes extend through central and western Asia to Eastern Europe
2. The puszta is an exclave of the Eurasian Steppe located in Russia
3. The Silk Road during Antiquity and the Middle Ages was an overland trade route of the Steppes
4. The Eurasian Land Bridge, the rail transport route for moving freight and passengers overland from Pacific seaports in the Russian Far East and China to seaports in Europe is also known as the New Silk Road 

Solution:

The Eurasian Steppe also called the Steppe or the Steppes is the vast steppe ecoregion of Eurasia in the temperate grasslands, savannas, and shrublands biome. It stretches from Moldaviathrough Ukraine to Siberia with one major exclave located mostly in Hungary called Puszta. The steppe has connected Europe, Central Asia, China, South Asia, and the Middle East economically, politically, and culturally through overland trade routes, most notably the Silk Road during Antiquity and the Middle Ages, and the Eurasian Land-Bridge in the modern era. 
Puszta  is a grassland biome on the Great Hungarian Plain (Alfold) around the River Tisza in the eastern part of Hungary as well as on the western part of Hungary and in the Austrian Burgenland. The Hungarian puszta is an exclave of the Eurasian Steppe. 
The Eurasian Land Bridge, sometimes called the New Silk Road, is the rail transport route for moving freight and passengers overland from Pacific seaports in the Russian Far East and China to seaports in Europe. 

QUESTION: 76

Which of the following are the essential differences between a jet aircraft and a propeller-powered aircraft?
1. A jet aircraft is nearly always a fixed-wing aircraft
2. Jet aircraft generally flys much faster than propeller-powered aircraft
3. Jet aircraft flys at higher altitudes than propeller-powered aircraft 

Solution:

A jet aircraft is an aircraft (nearly always a fixed-wing aircraft) propelled by jet engines. Jet aircraft generally fly much faster than propeller-powered aircraft and at higher altitudes – as high as 10,000–15,000 meters (33,000–49,000 ft). At these altitudes, jet engines achieve maximum efficiency over long distances. The engines in propeller-powered aircraft achieve their maximum efficiency at much lower altitudes. Some jet aircraft can move faster than sound. 
Aerodynamics: 
The shape of most airliners is usually designed to have nearly the same cross-sectional area at each point along its length as the Sears-Haack body Because of the way they work, the typical exhaust speed of jet engines is transonic or faster, therefore most jet aircraft need to fly at high speeds, either supersonic or speeds just below the speed of sound ("transonic") so as to achieve efficient flight. Aerodynamics is, therefore, an important consideration. 
Jet aircraft are usually designed using the Whitcomb area rule, which says that the cross-section of the aircraft at any point must be approximately the same as the SearsHaack body. This minimises the production of shockwaves which would waste energy.

QUESTION: 77

The Salt Satyagrah was started by Mahatma Gandhi on 

Solution:

The Salt Satyagrah was started by Mahatma Gandhi on 12 March 1930 from Sabarmati Ashram to 6 April till Dandi where he manufactured Salt, broke the Salt Law and started a nationwide Civil disobedience Campaign. Though the government did grant some concessions after the Salt March, not any major changes could be achieved. However, this March helped India in another important aspect. The March brought millions of Indians together. It also increased public support for Mahatma Gandhi. Also, due to large amount of Worldwide publicity it got, India's domestic situation was exposed worldwide. 

QUESTION: 78

Which one of the following is responsible for the stimulating effect of tea? 

Solution:

The effect of tea on your body depends largely by the growth stage of the leaf, the brewing time, the amount of tea used and a person's sensitivity to tea's ingredients. The stimulating effect of a tea is mainly due to what is called alkaloid caffeine which is then linked with tannin found in a tea leaf. Almost the entire amount of caffeine is dissolved during the infusion within the first 1-2 minutes because caffeine dissolves well in hot water. This is without the tannin. 
This short brewing time results to a brew with a high level of caffeine not related to tannin. If the tea is brewed for a longer time about 4-8 minutes, the tannin, as well as other ingredients, start to dissolve gradually. This results, however, to a stronger brew. 
Tannin has the ability to prevent or delay the caffeine from being absorbed quickly in the stomach or intestines. It has been found that this delayed effect can stretch the cumulative effect of caffeine to 10-12 hours with frequent, daily tea-drinking. So, if you want a more stimulating effect of a black tea or green tea, consider a short brewing time and if you only want a slightly stimulating effect, have a longer brewing time.
The caffeine of a tea can be reduced by pouring a little boiling water over the amount of tea to be used and then sieving this off after half a minute. When not consumed in excess, tea can have a stimulating effect but not irritating, unlike other beverage. This stimulating effect does not raise blood pressure. However, an excess intake of caffeine can cause an increase in blood pressure. 
A recommended amount of tea to use is a maximum of one level teaspoon per cup of tea leaves with a longer brewing time about 4-6 minutes. This can be consumed naturally without the use of artificial sweeteners or sugar. 
A tea left for a shorter time only results to a milder brew.  

QUESTION: 79

The Lahore Resolution (commonly known as the Pakistan Resolution), was a formal political statement adopted by the Muslim League at the occasion of its three-day general session on 22–24 March 1940 that called for greater Muslim autonomy in British India. It was authored by 

Solution:

The Lahore Resolution (commonly known as the Pakistan Resolution), was a formal political statement adopted by the Muslim League at the occasion of its three-day general session on 22–24 March 1940 that called for greater Muslim autonomy in British India. This has been largely interpreted as a demand for a separate Muslim state, Pakistan. The resolution was presented by A. K. Fazlul Huq and was authored by Muhammad Zafrulla Khan. 
Although the name "Pakistan" had been proposed by Choudhary Rahmat Ali in his Pakistan Declaration in 1933, Muhammad Ali Jinnah and other leaders had kept firm their belief in Hindu- Muslim unity. However, the volatile political climate and sidelining of Muslims by Indian National Congress showed the future of the Muslims in the subcontinent not so bright and gave the idea stronger backing. 

QUESTION: 80

The Pakistan Declaration was a pamphlet published on 28 January 1933 by

Solution:

The Pakistan Declaration (titled Now or Never; Are We to Live or Perish Forever?) was a pamphlet published on 28 January 1933 by Choudhary Rahmat Ali and was supported by Muhammad Aslam Khan Khattak, Sahibzada Sheikh Mohd Sadiq, Inayat Ullah Khan in which the word Pakistan was used for the first time and was presented in the round table conference in 1933. The pamphlet started with this famous sentence: “At this solemn hour in the history of India, when British and Indian statesmen are laying the foundations of a Federal Constitution for that land, we address this appeal to you, in the name of our common heritage, on behalf of our thirty million Muslim brethren who live in PAKSTAN - by which we mean the five Northern units of India, Viz: Punjab, North-West Frontier Province (Afghan Province), Kashmir, Sind, and Baluchistan.” 

QUESTION: 81

Which one of the following is present in chlorophyll which gives a green colour to plant leaves?

Solution:

Chlorophyll is a compound that is known as a chelate. A chelate consists of a central metal ion bonded to a large organic molecule, composed of carbon, hydrogen, and other elements such as oxygen and nitrogen. 
Chlorophyll has magnesium as its central metal ion, and the large organic molecule to which it bonds is known as a porphyrin. The porphyrin contains four nitrogen atoms bonded to the magnesium ion in a square planar arrangement. Chlorophyll occurs in a variety of forms. 
Chlorophyll does not contain chlorine as the name might suggest; the chloro- portion stems from the Greek chloros, which means yellowish green. The element chlorine derives its name from the same source, being a yellowish-green gas.

QUESTION: 82

Match the following Agents of Transmission with the diseases 
A. Anophles mosquito - 1. Kala azar
B. Culex mosquito - 2. Dengue
C. Aedes - 3. Malaria
D. Sandfly - 4. Filaria 

Solution:

The Anopheles mosquito is known universally as the Malaria Mosquito species because it is considered the primary vector of the disease. It is also considered a transmitter of heartworm in dogs. 
Lymphatic filariasis is transmitted by different types of mosquitoes for example by the Culex mosquito. 
The Aedes aegypti mosquito is the main vector that transmits the viruses that cause dengue. The viruses are passed on to humans through the bites of an infective female Aedes mosquito, which mainly acquires the virus while feeding on the blood of an infected person. 
Kala azar is caused by bites from female phlebotomine sandflies – the vector (or transmitter) of the leishmania parasite.

QUESTION: 83

Which of the following statements are correct about Swamy Dayanand Saraswati? 
1. Swamy Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875
2. He was the first to give the call for Swarajya as "India for Indians" – in 1876
3. The philosopher and President of India, Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, called him one of the "makers of Modern India" 

Solution:

Dayanand Saraswati (12 February 1824 – 30 October 1883) was an important Hindu religious leader of his time. He is well known as the founder of the Arya Samaj, a Hindu reform movement of the Vedic tradition. He was a profound scholar of the Vedic lore and Sanskrit language. He was the first to give the call for Swarajya as "India for Indians" – in 1876, later taken up by Lokmanya Tilak. Denouncing the idolatry and ritualistic worship prevalent in Hinduism at the time, he worked towards reviving Vedic ideologies. Subsequently, the philosopher and President of India, S. Radhakrishnan, called him one of the "makers of Modern India," as did Sri Aurobindo. 
Those who were influenced by and followed Dayananda included Madam Cama, Pandit Guru Dutt Vidyarthi, Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, Lala Hardayal, Madan Lal Dhingra, Ram Prasad Bismil, Bhagat Singh, Mahadev Govind Ranade Swami Shraddhanand, Mahatma Hansraj,Lala Lajpat Rai and others. One of his most influential works is the book Satyarth Prakash, which contributed to the Indian independence movement. He was a sanyasi (ascetic) from boyhood, and a scholar, who believed in the infallible authority of the Vedas. 
Maharshi Dayananda advocated the doctrine of Karma (Karmasiddhanta in Hinduism) and Reincarnation (Punarjanma in Hinduism). He emphasized the Vedic ideals of brahmacharya(celibacy) and devotion to God. The Theosophical Society and the Arya Samaj were united from 1878 to 1882, becoming the Theosophical Society of the Arya Samaj. Among Maharshi Dayananda's contributions are his promoting of the equal rights for women, such as the right to education and reading of Indian scriptures, and his intuitive commentary on the Vedas from Vedic Sanskrit in Sanskrit as well as Hindi so that the common man might be able to read them. Dayanand was the first to give the word of Swadeshi long before Mahatma Gandhi.
Arya Samaj  is a Hindu reform movement founded by Swami Dayananda on 7 April 1875. He was a sannyasi who promoted the Vedas. Dayananda emphasized the ideals of brahmacharya (chastity). 

QUESTION: 84

The copper-hoard culture in the post-Harappa period has provisionally been identified with which one of the following pottery types? 

Solution:

The Ochre Coloured Pottery culture (OCP) is a 2nd millennium BC Bronze Age culture of the Indo-Gangetic Plain (Ganges-Yamuna plain). It is a contemporary of and successor to the Indus Valley Civilization. The OCP marked the last stage of the North Indian Bronze Age and was succeeded by the Iron Age black and red ware culture and the painted gray ware culture. Early specimens of the characteristic ceramics found near Jodhpura, Rajasthandate from the 3rd millennium. (This Jodhpura is located in the district of Jaipur and should not be confused with the city of Jodhpur.) The culture reached the Gangetic plain in the early 2nd millennium. 
Late 3rd millennium B.C.: Construction of water storage tanks for irrigation, invented in Cevlon, reaches India and spreads throughout the subcontinent.
2000 b.c,: First cultivation of cotton, Advent of spinning, dying, and weaving cotton; raw cotton is brought for processing in cities. Indians are first to use cotton for clothing; cotton manufacture remains India’s major in-dustn for millennia.
Early 2nd millennium b.c.; Neolithic South Indian communities domesticate cattle.
2000-1700 b.c.; Gradual economic breakdown throughout Harappan territory.
1900 b.c.: As the power of Ha rap pan cities declines, cultural uniformity gives way to regionalization. Many elements of Ha tap pan art and technology7 are preserved, but as Aryan ideas and culture replace Indus culture, urban civilization, writing, stamp seals, and some specialized crafts disappear,
1750-900 B-C,; Post-Urban/Post-I larappan Period. 1 he quality of material culture declines sharply in Punjab and Sind; makeshift settlements arc built over earlier Harappan sites as their populations revert to village life. Some individual settlements (e.g., Cemetery H in tire Indus region and the successive jbnkar and Jbangar cultures in Sind, Iron Age Londo Ware settlements in Baluchistan) show tiie local influence of distinct Harappan, Aryan, or Iranian culture. Ganges Doab is broadly settled by uniform Copper Hoard Culture,

QUESTION: 85

Which one of the following contains the famous Gayatri Mantra? 

Solution:

The Gayatri Mantra is a highly revered mantra, based on a Vedic Sanskrit verse from a hymn of the Rigveda (3.62.10), attributed to the rishi (sage) Visvamitra. The mantra is named for its Vedic Gayatri metre. As the verse can be interpreted to invoke the deva Savitr, it is often called Savitri. Its recitation is traditionally preceded by oṃ and the formula bhur bhuvaḥ svaḥ, known as the mahavyahṛti ("great utterance"). 
The Gayatri Mantra is repeated and cited very widely in vedic literature and praised in several well-known classical Hindu texts such as Manusmṛti, Harivamsa, and the Bhagavad Gita. The mantra is an important part of the upanayana ceremony for young males in Hinduism and has long been recited by Brahmin males as part of their daily rituals. Modern Hindu reform movements spread the practice of the mantra to include women and all castes and its use is now very widespread. 

QUESTION: 86

The famous phrase "tattvamasi" is found in which one of the following Upanishads? 

Solution:

Tat Tvam Asi is a Sanskrit sentence, translated variously as "That art thou," "That thou art," "Thou art that," "You are that," or "That you are," is one of the Mahāvākyas (Grand Pronouncements) in Vedantic Sanatana Dharma. It originally occurs in theChandogya Upanishad 6.8.7, in the dialogue between Uddalaka and his son Śvetaketu; it appears at the end of a section and is repeated at the end of the subsequent sections as a refrain. The meaning of this saying is that the Self - in its original, pure, primordial state - is wholly or partially identifiable or identical with the Ultimate Reality that is the ground and origin of all phenomena. 

QUESTION: 87

Disguised unemployment generally exists in

Solution:

Disguised unemployment exists when part of the labor force is either left without work or is working in a redundant manner such that worker productivity is essentially zero. It is unemployment that does not affect aggregate output. An economy demonstrates disguised unemployment when productivity is low and too many workers are filling too few jobs.Disguised unemployment exists frequently in developing countries whose large populations create a surplus in the labor force. It can be characterized by low productivity and frequently accompanies informal labor markets and agricultural labor markets, which can absorb substantial quantities of labor.

QUESTION: 88

Price discrimination may be possible when
1. the nature of commodity or service is such that there is no possibility of transference from one market to the other
2. the markets are separated by large distance or tariff barriers
3. several groups of buyers require the same service from clearly differentiated commodities
4. buyers are well informed and rational

Solution:

Price discrimination 
A monopolist may be able to engage in a policy of price discrimination. This occurs when a firm charges a different price to different groups of consumers for an identical good or service, for reasons not associated with the costs of production. It is important to stress that charging different prices for similar goods is not price discrimination. For example, price discrimination does not does not occur when a rail company charges a higher price for a first-class seat. This is because the price premium over a second-class seat can be explained by differences in the cost of providing the service. 
CONDITIONS REQUIRED FOR PRICE DISCRIMINATION TO WORK 
There are basically three main conditions required for price discrimination to take place. 
Monopoly power 
Firms must have some price-setting power - so we don't see price discrimination in perfectly competitive markets. 
Elasticity of demand 
There must be a different price elasticity of demand for the product from each group of consumers. This allows the firm to extract consumer surplus by varying the price leading to additional revenue and profit.  
Separation of the market 
The firm must be able to split the market into different sub-groups of consumers and then prevent the good or service being resold between consumers. (For example, a rail operator must make it impossible for someone paying a "cheap fare" to resell to someone expected to pay a higher fare. This is easier in the provision of services rather than goods. 
The costs of separating the market and selling to different sub-groups (or market segments) must not be prohibitive. 
Examples of price discrimination 
There are numerous good examples of discriminatory pricing policies. We must be careful to distinguish between discrimination (based on consumer's willingness to pay) and product differentiation - where price differences might also reflect a different quality or standard of service. 
Some examples worth considering include:
• Cinemas and theatres cutting prices to attract younger and older audiences
• Student discounts for rail travel, restaurant meals and holidays
• Car rental firms cutting prices at weekends
• Hotels offering cheap weekend breaks and winter discounts 
The aims of price discrimination 
It must be remembered that the main aim of price discrimination is to increase the total revenue and/or profits of the supplier! It helps them to off-load excess capacity and can also be used as a technique to take market share away from rival firms.
Some consumers do benefit from this type of pricing - they are "priced into the market" when with one price they might not have been able to afford a product. For most consumers, however, the price they pay reflects pretty closely what they are willing to pay. In this respect, price discrimination seeks to extract consumer surplus and turn it into producer surplus (or monopoly profit). 

QUESTION: 89

A surge in foreign capital inflows in India would lead to the

Solution:

Effects of Capital Flows on Macroeconomic Variables: 
This section theoretically explains the economic relationship between capital inflows and macroeconomic variables such as exchange rate,  money supply, foreign exchange reserve and interest rates, etc, in  India. Some commonly observed effects of capital inflows are exchange rate appreciation, monetary expansion, foreign exchange reserve accumulation and interest rate.  
Impact of Capital Flows on Exchange Rate: 
Foreign capital inflows will raise the level of domestic expenditure in economy, which will raise the demand for non-tradable goods that result in an appreciation of the real exchange rate. The price adjustment process then leads to a reallocation of resources from tradable and non-tradable goods. The rise in aggregate expenditure  also increases the demand for tradable, leading to rise in imports and  widening of the trade deficit 
The capital inflows have been associated with real exchange rate appreciation in India. 
The circumstances indicate that policy responses is undoubtedly a major factor in thwarting appreciation pressure upon the real exchange rate closer to the march 1993 level.  
A policy response prevailed in India over the real exchange rate appreciated in response to capital inflows in 1996-97 and the appreciation was reduced by 9 percent in December 1997. The capital inflows contributed both to real exchange rate appreciation and reserve accumulation in this country. This can be affected by changes in terms of trade, Government spending and monetary as well as exchange rate policies. 
There is a lot of chatter in money market circles that RBI should not allow a runaway appreciation of the rupee. As of now the rupee has appreciated 12.5 percent from its all-time low scaled on Aug 28 and again on September 4. However,  the rupee is still 11 percent cheaper year-to-date and 15 percent cheaper than year-ago levels. 
The RBI has to bring the marginal standing facility (MSF) rate down to 100 bps over repo. It needs to dismantle the limits placed on repo borrowing so that the call rate is aligned with the repo rate. Then it has to slowly bring in the oil demand into the market. Only then can we consider whether the rupee has stabilised. Even then, it won’t be easy for RBI to start buying dollars to prevent rupee appreciation all that easily. Any such purchase can lead to an overreaction in the market leading to a sharp rupee fall and a vicious chain reaction. 
RBI buying dollars in spot market & selling it in forward market to stabilise rupee 
The Reserve Bank of India, under GovernorRaghuram Rajan, seems to have changed its strategy when it comes to defending the fragile rupee and managing liquidity. The central bank, which earlier used to sell dollars in the local markets, is now increasingly buying the US currency in the spot market and selling it in the forward market. The revised strategy seems to be having a bearing on the non-deliverable forwards, or NDF, market. 
The move, experts say, is aimed at not only stabilising the local currency but also managing liquidity, as there was a surge in inflows after banks were allowed to swap Foreign Currency (Non-Resident) Accounts (Banks), or FCNR (B), proceeds for a premium. 

QUESTION: 90

Structural transformation is that process in which

Solution:

Structural transformation refers to the reallocation of economic activity across the broad sectors agriculture, manufacturing and services
Structural transformation is the defining characteristic of the development process; it is both the cause and the effect of economic growth. Four quite relentless and interrelated processes define the structural transformation process: 
(1) a  declining share of agriculture in gross domestic product (GDP) and employment,
(2) the rapid process of urbanization as  people migrate from rural to urban areas,  
(3) the rise of a modern industrial and service economy, and  
(4) a demographic transition from high to low rates of births and deaths. The final outcome of structural transformation is an economy and society where agriculture as an economic activity has no distinguishing characteristics from other sectors, at least in terms of the productivity of labor and capital, or the location of poverty.  

QUESTION: 91

Which of the following are the components of the Inclusive growth?
1. Rapid pace of growth
2. Pattern of the economic growth
3. Productive employment
4. Direct income redistribution, as a means of increasing incomes for excluded groups

Solution:

Defining Inclusive Growth: 
Rapid and sustained poverty reduction requires inclusive growth that allows people to contribute to and benefit from economic growth. Rapid pace of growth is unquestionably necessary for substantial poverty reduction, but for this growth to be sustainable in the long run, it should be broad-based across sectors and inclusive of the large part of the country’s labor force.
This definition of inclusive growth implies a direct link between the macro and micro determinants of growth. Inclusive growth as the literal meaning of the two words refers to both the pace and the pattern of the economic growth. The literature on the subject draws fine distinction between direct income redistribution or shared growth and inclusive growth. The inclusive growth approach takes a longer-term perspective as the focus is on productive employment rather than on direct income redistribution, as a means of increasing incomes for excluded groups. Inclusive growth is, therefore, supposed to be inherently sustainable as distinct from income distribution schemes which can in the short run reduce the disparities, between the poorest and the rest, which may have arisen on account of policies intended to jumpstart growth. While income distribution schemes can allow people, to benefit from economic growth in the short run, inclusive growth allows people to “contribute to and benefit from economic growth”. 

QUESTION: 92

Asteroids are chunks of rock that orbit the Sun in a belt and are not very big though. The biggest asteroid in the Asteroid Belt is

Solution:

Asteroids are chunks of rock that orbit the Sun in a belt. They are not very big though, if they were all put together, they would form a body no more than 1500km in diameter! The biggest asteroid in the Asteroid Belt is Ceres, and it is only around 900km across, another asteroid, called Braille, is only 2km in diameter!
Asteroids don't get very bright either. The brightest ones only get to around magnitude 6 or 7. You need a telescope or a pair of binoculars to be able to see any. 
Asteroid Belt: 
Asteroids are essentially chunks of rock that measure in size from a few feet to several miles in diameter. (Small asteroids are called meteoroids.) The largest asteroid, Ceres, is about 590 miles (950 kilometers) wide. Like most asteroids, it lies in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. Many astronomers believe the belt is primordial material that never glommed into a planet because of Jupiter's gravitational pull. Other astronomers say the belt is a planet that was broken apart during a collision. 

QUESTION: 93

Which of the following statements are correct about the Farm output in India?
1. India ranks second in the world in terms of total farm output
2. The average yield in India is generally 60% to 80% of the highest average yield in the world

Solution:

India ranks second worldwide in farm output. Agriculture and allied sectors like forestry, logging and fishing accounted for 15.7% of the GDP in 2009–10, employed 52.1% of the total workforce, and despite a steady decline of its share in the GDP, is still the largest economic sector and a significant piece of the overall socio-economic development of India. Yields per unit area of all crops have grown since 1950, due to the special emphasis placed on agriculture in the five year plans and steady improvements in irrigation, technology, application of modern agricultural practices and provision of agricultural credit and subsidies since the Green Revolution in India. 
However, international comparisons reveal the average yield in India is generally 30% to 50% of the highest average yield in the world. Indian states Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Maharashtra are key agricultural contributing states of India. 
India receives an average annual rainfall of 1,208 millimeters (47.6 in) and a total annual precipitation of 4000 billion cubic metres, with the total utilisable water resources, including surface and groundwater, amounting to 1123 billion cubic metres. 546,820 square kilometers (211,130 sq mi) of the land area, or about 39% of the total cultivated area, is irrigated. India's inland water resources including rivers, canals, ponds and lakes and marine resources comprising the east and west coasts of the Indian ocean and other gulfs and bays provide employment to nearly six million people in the fisheries sector. In 2008, India had the world's third-largest fishing industry.
India is the largest producer in the world of milk, jute and pulses, and also has the world's second-largest cattle population with 175 million animals in 2008. It is the second-largest producer of rice, wheat, sugarcane, cotton and groundnuts, as well as the second-largest fruit and vegetable producer, accounting for 10.9% and 8.6% of the world fruit and vegetable production respectively. India is also the second-largest producer and the largest consumer of silk in the world, producing 77,000 million tons in 2005. 

QUESTION: 94

Which of the following methods are used by the Central Banks to increase (or decrease) the amount of money in the banking system?
1. Printing paper currency at its discretion in an effort to increase the amount of money in the economy
2. Modifying reserve requirements, which is the amount of funds banks must hold against deposits in bank accounts
3. Changing short-term interest rates
4. Buying and selling government securities in the open market

Solution:

Central banks use several different methods to increase (or decrease) the amount of money in the banking system. These actions are referred to as monetary policy. While the Federal Reserve Board (the Fed) could print paper currency at its discretion in an effort to increase the amount of money in the economy, this is not the measure used. Here are three methods the Fed uses in order to inject (or withdraw) money from the economy: The Fed can influence the money supply by modifying reserve requirements, which is the amount of funds banks must hold against deposits in bank accounts. By lowering the reserve requirements, banks are able loan more money, which increases the overall supply of money in the economy. Conversely, by raising the banks' reserve requirements, the Fed is able to decrease the size of the money supply. 
The Fed can also alter the money supply by changing short-term interest rates. By lowering (or raising) the discount rate that banks pay on short-term loans from the Federal Reserve Bank, the Fed is able to effectively increase (or decrease) the liquidity of money. Lower rates increase the money supply and boost economic activity; however, decreases in interest rates fuel inflation, so the Fed must be careful not to lower interest rates too much for too long. 
Finally, the Fed can affect the money supply by conducting open market operations, which affects the federal funds rate. In open operations, the Fed buys and sells government securities in the open market. If the Fed wants to increase the money supply, it buys government bonds. This supplies the securities dealers who sell the bonds with cash, increasing the overall money supply. Conversely, if the Fed wants to decrease the money supply, it sells bonds from its account, thus taking in cash and removing money from the economic system. 

QUESTION: 95

Which of the following statements are correct about the Westerlies?
1. Westerlies are the prevailing winds in the middle latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees latitude, blowing from the high pressure area in the horse latitudes towards the poles
2. These prevailing winds blow from the east to the west
3. The winds are predominantly from the southwest in the Northern Hemisphere and from the northwest in the Southern Hemisphere

Solution:

The Westerlies, anti-trades, or Prevailing Westerlies, are the prevailing winds in the middle latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees latitude, blowing from the high-pressure area in the horse latitudes towards the poles. These prevailing winds blow from the west to the east, and steer extratropical cyclones in this general manner. Tropical cyclones which cross the subtropical ridge axis into the Westerlies recurve due to the increased westerly flow. The winds are predominantly from the southwest in the Northern Hemisphere and from the northwest in the Southern Hemisphere. 

QUESTION: 96

Which of the following strait is the main shipping channel between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, linking major Asian economies such as India, China, Japan and South Korea?

Solution:

From an economic and strategic perspective, the Strait of Malacca is one of the most important shipping lanes in the world. The strait is the main shipping channel between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, linking major Asian economies such as India, China, Japan and South Korea. Over 50,000 vessels pass through the strait per year, carrying about one-quarter of the world's traded goods including oil, Chinese manufactures, and Indonesian coffee. 

QUESTION: 97

The Mahayana Buddhism had two philosophical schools. Which of the following belonged to Mahayana Buddhism?

Solution:

According to I-ching's report from India (A. D. 691), Mahayana Buddhism was divided into two schools, the Madhyamika and Yogachara. The main author of Madhyamika school was Nagarjuna. Other popular name of Madhyamika is Shunyavada. In English translations, it repeatedly termed as Buddhist philosophy or Mahayana Philosophy of Emptiness. Madhyamika originated with Nagarjuna. Nagarjuna was born around 150 AD in Guntur District of Andhra Pradesh. 
Yogachara school of Mahayana developed around 4c. AD. In Sanskrit, it is also called Vigyana Vada. The main text of Yogachara Mahayana is Sandhinirmochana Sutra. The main scholars of this school of Mahayana were Vasubandhu and Asanga. Vasubandhu and Asanga were half brothers. 

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following are the diseases involving the blood-brain barrier?
1. Meningitis
2. Epilepsy
3. Multiple sclerosis
4. Neuromyelitis Optica

Solution:

Meningitis is an inflammation of the membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord (these membranes are known as meninges). Meningitis is most commonly caused by infections with various pathogens, examples of which are Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. When the meninges are inflamed, the blood-brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. Antibiotics used to treat meningitis may aggravate the inflammatory response of the central nervous system by releasing neurotoxins from the cell walls of bacteria like lipopolysaccharide (LPS) Depending on the causative pathogen, whether it is bacterial, fungal, or protozoan, treatment with third-generation or fourth-generation cephalosporin or amphotericin B is usually prescribed. 
Epilepsy:
Epilepsy is a common neurological disease that is characterized by recurrent and sometimes untreatable seizures. Several clinical and experimental data have implicated the failure of blood-brain barrier function in triggering chronic or acute seizures, some studies implicate the interactions between a common blood protein—albumin and astrocytes. These findings suggest that acute seizures are a predictable consequence of disruption of the BBB by either artificial or inflammatory mechanisms. In addition, expression of drug resistance molecules and transporters at the BBB are a significant mechanism of resistance to commonly used anti-epileptic drugs. 
Multiple sclerosis: 
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is considered to be an auto-immune and neurodegenerative disorder in which the immune system attacks the myelin that protects and electrically insulates the neurons of the central and peripheral nervous systems. Normally, a person's nervous system would be inaccessible to the white blood cells due to the blood-brain barrier. However, it has been shown using Magnetic Resonance Imaging, that when a person is undergoing an MS "attack," the blood-brain barrier has broken down in a section of the brain or spinal cord, allowing white blood cells called T lymphocytes to cross over and attack the myelin. It has sometimes been suggested that, rather than being a disease of the immune system, MS is a disease of the blood-brain barrier. A recent study suggests that the weakening of the blood-brain barrier is a result of a disturbance in the endothelial cells on the inside of the blood vessel, due to which the production of the protein P-glycoprotein is not working well.
There are currently active investigations into treatments for a compromised blood–brain barrier. It is believed that oxidative stress plays an important role into the breakdown of the barrier. Antioxidants such as lipoic acid may be able to stabilize a weakening blood– brain barrier. 
Neuromyelitis optica: 
Neuromyelitis optica, also known as Devic's disease, is similar to and is often confused with multiple sclerosis. Among other differences from MS, a different target of the autoimmune response has been identified. Patients with neuromyelitis optica have high levels of antibodies against a protein called aquaporin 4 (a component of the astrocytic foot processes in the blood– brain barrier). 
Late-stage neurological trypanosomiasis (Sleeping sickness):
Late-stage neurological trypanosomiasis, or sleeping sickness, is a condition in which trypanosoma protozoa are found in brain tissue. It is not yet known how the parasites infect the brain from the blood, but it is suspected that they cross through the choroid plexus, a circumventricular organ.
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML): 
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) is a demyelinating disease of the central nervous system that is caused by reactivation of a latent papovavirus (the JC polyomavirus) infection, that can cross the BBB. It affects immune-compromised patients and it is usually seen with patients suffering from AIDS. 
De Vivo disease: 
De Vivo disease (also known as GLUT1 deficiency syndrome) is a rare condition caused by inadequate transportation of the sugar, glucose, across the blood-brain barrier, resulting in developmental delays and other neurological problems. Genetic defects in glucose transporter type 1 (GLUT1) appears to be the primary cause of De Vivo disease. 
Alzheimer's Disease: 
Some new evidence indicates that disruption of the blood-brain barrier in Alzheimer's Disease patients allows blood plasma containing amyloid-beta (AB) to enter the brain where the AB adheres preferentially to the surface of astrocytes.  
HIV Encephalitis: 
It is believed that latent HIV can cross the blood–brain barrier inside circulating monocytes in the bloodstream ("Trojan horse theory") within the first 14 days of infection. Once inside, these monocytes become activated and are transformed into macrophages. Activated macrophages release virions into the brain tissue proximate to brain microvessels. These viral particles likely attract the attention of sentinel brain microglia and perivascular macrophages initiating an inflammatory cascade that may cause a series of intracellular signaling in brain microvascular endothelial cells and damage the functional and structural integrity of the BBB. This inflammation is HIV encephalitis (HIVE). Instances of HIVE probably occur throughout the course of AIDS and are a precursor for HIV-associated dementia (HAD). The premier model for studying HIV and HIVE is the simian model. 
Rabies: 
During lethal rabies infection of mice, the blood-brain barrier (BBB) does not allow antiviral immune cells to enter the brain, the primary site of rabies virus replication. This aspect contributes to the pathogenicity of the virus and artificially increasing BBB permeability promotes viral clearance. Opening the BBB during rabies infection has been suggested as a possible novel approach to treating the disease, even though no attempts have yet been made to determine whether or not this treatment could be successful. 

QUESTION: 99

According to Mathura pillar inscription Uditacharya consecrated two Sivalingas named

Solution:

Mathura Pillar inscription belongs to Chandragupta II. Uditacharya was follower of Pasupata Sect.(four in total). He is considered founder of the Pasupata sect, one of the oldest Shaivite Sect. The Mathura Pillar inscription was written in 380 AD.
Uditacharya declares himself to be the tenth descendent of Bhagvat Kaushika, the founder of Maheshvara sect. This fact appears in Vayu Purana and Linga Purana. Bhagvat Kaushika was the disciple of Lakuli, the real Siva Maheshvara. The two Sivalinga were attributed to the teachers of Acharya Upendra. 

QUESTION: 100

Which of the following are the main crops of the Indo-Gangetic Plain?

Solution:

Farming on the Indo-Gangetic Plain primarily consists of rice and wheat grown in rotation. Other crops include maize, sugarcane, and cotton. The main source of rainfall is the southwest monsoon which is normally sufficient for general agriculture. The many rivers flowing out of the Himalayas provide water for major irrigation works. 
Geography 
The Indo-Gangetic plains, also known as the "Great Plains," are large floodplains of the Indus and the Ganges–Brahmaputra river systems. They run parallel to the Himalaya mountains, from Jammu and Kashmir in the west to Assam in the east and draining most of northern and eastern India. The plains encompass an area of 700,000 km² (270,000 mile²) and vary in width through their length by several hundred kilometers. The major rivers of this system are the Ganges and the Indus along with their tributaries; Beas, Yamuna, Gomti, Ravi, Chambal, Sutlej and Chenab. 
Extent of the Indo-Gangetic plain across South Asia. The great plains are sometimes classified into four divisions:
The Bhabar belt — is adjacent to the foothills of the Himalayas and consists of boulders and pebbles which have been carried down by the river streams. As the porosity of this belt is very high, the streams flow underground. The bhabar is generally narrow about 7–15 km wide. 
The Terai belt — lies next to the Bhabar region and is composed of newer alluvium. The underground streams reappear in this region. The region is excessively moist and thickly forested. It also receives heavy rainfall throughout the year and is populated with a variety of wildlife. 
The Bangar belt — consists of older alluvium and forms the alluvial terrace of the flood plains. In the Gangetic plains, it has a low upland covered by laterite deposits. 
The Khadar belt — lies in lowland areas after the Bangar belt. It is made up of fresh newer alluvium which is deposited by the rivers flowing down the plain. 
The Indo-Gangetic belt is the world's most extensive expanse of uninterrupted alluvium formed by the deposition of silt by the numerous rivers. The plains are flat and mostly treeless, making it conducive for irrigation through canals. The area is also rich in groundwater sources. 
The plains are the world's most intensely farmed areas. The main crops grown are rice and wheat, which are grown in rotation. Others include maize, sugarcane and cotton. The Indo-Gangetic plains rank among the world's most densely populated areas.