UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 16 (May 27, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 16 (May 27, 2021)


Description
This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 16 (May 27, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 16 (May 27, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 16 (May 27, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 16 (May 27, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 16 (May 27, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

With reference to Maratha Administration, which of the following correctly outlines the difference between Chauth and Sardeshmukhi?

  1. Chauth was protection money against Maratha invasions while Sardeshmukhi was a claimed hereditary right

  2. Chauth was paid to the Jagirdars of Maratha Empire whereas Sardeshmukhi went directly to the king's treasury.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Chauth was a tax which small Kingdoms or dynasties had to pay to the Marathas. This was a kind of security money to protect their own territory from Maratha invasions. It was not collected in the Maratha kingdom but in the neighbouring territories of mughals or Deccan Sultanate. Shivaji appointed his own revenue officials known as Karkuns.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Sardeshmukhi was an additional 10% tax levied on the Chauth. It was claimed on those lands which Marathas claimed to be having hereditary rights. It was started by Maharaja Som Shah of Ramnagar.

QUESTION: 2

With reference to the controversy surrounding official language in the Independent India, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

The Official Language Amendment Act 1967 provides for continuing use of English in official work. The act mandated that both Hindi and English will be used for the purpose of Resolutions, General Orders, Administrative reports and other official papers which were to be laid before the both Houses of Parliament. According to Munshi Ayyangar Formula (1949) English was to continue as the official language of India alongwith Hindi for a period of 15 years, but this limit can be changed and power of extension was given to the Parliament. Munshi and Ayyangar represented Pro Hindi and English blocs respectively. The Munshi Ayyangar formula is considered as the basis for the provisions of language in the Constitution. It recommended Hindi with Devanagari script, Union Government to develop and promote hindi language, State government free to choose their own official language etc.

The first Official Language commission was appointed in 1955 with BG Kher as Chairman. It submitted its report in 1956. The Commission was constituted by the President of India according to Article 344 of the Constitution. The three language formula was proposed by the Government of India in 1968 which provided for the study of Hindi, English and modern Indian language in Hindi speaking state and Hindi, English and Regional language in non-Hindi speaking state.

QUESTION: 3

Which among the following has introduced the concept of ‘Learning Poverty’ ?

Solution:

Learning poverty means being unable to read and understand simple text by the age of 10. This indicator brings together schooling and learning indicators with the share of children who have not achieved minimum reading efficiency and is adjusted by the proportion of children who are out of school and assumed not able to read proficiently. The average Human Capital Index score across countries is 0.56 which means that by the age of 18 a child will be only 56% proficient as compared to a child having standard education and health. The World Bank along with UNESCO has a global learning target of reducing the learning Poverty Rate by half before 2030.

QUESTION: 4

Consider the following about Regulating Act 1773

  1. A system of hierarchy in politico-military affairs regarding provinces was created.

  2. A collegiate form of government was introduced headed by the Governor General.

  3. The Supreme Court was established with only original jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: The main objective of the Regulating Act was to solve the issue of dual administration instituted by Lord Clive. The Regulating Act 1773 was the first intervention by the British Government in the Company's territorial affair. The Governor General of Bengal now had supervisory powers over presidencies of Madras and Bombay. Warren Hastings became the first Governor General of India. The act recognised the political function of the company and set up a written constitution for British ownership in India instead of arbitrary rule of the company.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The British Government appointed a council of 4 men to advice and control Governor General. The four members were Clavering, Monson, Barwell and Francis. These members could only be removed by the British Queen on recommendation from the Court of Directors.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court established had Original and Appellate Jurisdiction. It had one Chief Justice, Sir Elijah Imphey and 3 other Judges. It was given jurisdiction over all the British subjects. The Supreme Court was made to respect religious and social customs of Indians. Appeals can be made to the provincial courts and finally to the King in Council

QUESTION: 5

With reference to Rajah Moonje Pact of 1932, consider the following statements:

  1. It was the first ever agreement on reservation between Caste Hindus and Schedule Caste community

  2. According to this pact, Congress offered reserved seats to scheduled castes in return for Dalit’s support.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Rajah Moonje pact serves as a model for the scheduled communities not to compromise justice nor would get carried away by the Divide and Rule policy of the British. Rajah was a leader of Justice Party and the first to organise scheduled castes at the national level. He was also the pioneer of the mid-day meal scheme in India.

  • Statement 2 is correct: MC Rajah concluded the pact with two members of Congress, BS Moonje and Jadhav. According to the pact Moonje offered reserved seats for scheduled castes in return for Rajah support. Rajah did not support the conversion of scheduled castes from hinduism. Moonje was a social reformer and founded schools, gymnasiums and hostels for dalit children

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following pairs

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution: Mirat ul Akbar was a persian language journal founded by Ram Mohan Roy. It was first published in 1822. Hindustan Times is a daily newspaper published in English. It was inaugurated by Gandhi in 1924 and played an important role in the Independence Movement. Bahishkrit Bharat was a Journal started by BR Ambedkar. It was a Marathi Fortnightly and critical of upper class Hindu society.
QUESTION: 7

Who of the following sites is not associated with the Sangam Age?

Solution:

Mahishmati was an ancient city in present Central India. It is said to be the most important part of the Avanti Kingdom. Its mention can be found in Ramayana, Mahabharata and other Epics. Epigraphic records suggest that it may have served the capital of Kalachuri Kingdom. Uraiyur in Tamil means the residence. Uraiyur was the capital of early Cholas. Found near today's Tiruchirapalli it was ruled by Karikalan, a Chola King. Korkai is a small village in Tamil Nadu. It was a port city and trade centre in Pandyan Kingdom. It is mentioned in the Sangam Literature as well as classical Western Literature. Keeladi is a village near Madurai Border in Tamil Nadu. The excavations in this area reveal evidence of the Sangam era.

QUESTION: 8

The Ashokan Edict illustrating about his conversion to Buddhism is found at

Solution: Rummindei inscriptions inform us that after the 20th year of his reign Ashoka went to Buddha birthplace and made personal offerings. The Bhabru Bairat inform us about personal history of Ashoka, summary of his Dhamma and events leading to his conversion to Buddhism. Lauria Nandangarh and Lauria Arairaj are appendix to rock edicts.
QUESTION: 9

Which of the following is/are characteristic of ancient sect Ajivika?

  1. Absolute determinism

  2. Antinomian Ethics

  3. Belief in formless soul

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution:

Ajivika is a heterodox school of Indian Philosophy founded by Makkhali Gosala. The school is known for its Fate doctrine which states that there is no free will and everything is predestined as a function of cosmic principle.

Antinomianism is a view that rejects laws and legal aspects and encourages going against social and moral norms. Ajivaks believe that there is no objective moral law. Tamil Literature suggests that Ajivaks practised Ahimsa and were non-meat eaters.

Ajivaks had atheistic philosophy. They did not presume any deity as the creator of the Universe. They believe that the soul exists in every being. The soul has a material form that helps in focusing while meditating.

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following about Saptamatrika cult is incorrect?

Solution: In Hinduism, Saptmatrika is a group of seven female deities who personify the energy of their partners. The seven deities are Brahmani (Brahma), Maheshwari (Shiva), Kaumari (Kumara), Vaishnavi (Vishnu), Varahi (Varaha), Indrani (Indra) and Yami (Yama). The concept of Matrika has existed since the Early Vedic Period. The Rig Veda speaks about seven mothers who control the preparation of Soma. Recently ASI has discovered the earliest Sanskrit inscription about Saptmatrika in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh, South India. The Chebrolu inscription was issued by Satvahana King Vijaya in 207 AD. The inscription records construction of temples and sculpting dedicated images.
QUESTION: 11

‘Cist Burial’ and ‘Urn Burial’ was a common feature in the

Solution:

Megalithic burials were done in stone capped burial monuments and similar interment arrangements in stone. The Urns were earthen pots for man in sitting posture. The dead men were placed in sitting posture in earthenware pots. The pot was then filled with Sand rice and other grains. Burials in subterranean chambers formed of stone slabs is called Cist burial. A number of burials of this type have been excavated. The main burial chamber was around 8 ft large and 7 feet deep. There were smaller elaborate small chambers and partitions.

One more type of burial is grave burial in which the body is buried in a horizontal position. 

QUESTION: 12

Consider the following statements:

  1. Mirabai’s bhajan were dedicated to Giridhar Gopal

  2. Gitawali and Kavitavali are famous work of Tulsidas

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Lord Krishna is also known as Girdhar Gopal. Mirabai was a mystic poet and devotee of Lord Krishna. She sang in praise of Lord Krishna having deep devotion and complete surrender to Lord Krishna. Even today some of her compositions are sung in India like ―Payo ji maine Ram Ratan Dhan Payo”. She finds mention in Sikh literature also. Prem Ambodh Pothi dedicated to Guru Gobind Singh includes poetry of Mirabai.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Tulsidas is also known as Goswami Tulsidas was a Vaishnava saint and poet devoted to Lord Rama. He is best known for his epic Ramcharitmanas written in Awadhi. He is also the founder of Sankatmochan Temple in Varanasi, dedicated to Lord Hanuman. He is also credited for Ramlila folk theatre plays which are popular all over India.

QUESTION: 13

With reference to British Colonial rule in India, consider the following

  1. With the efforts of George Thomson, Bengal British India Society was founded in 1843.

  2. During WWI in 1915, the Ghadarites planned the February sepoy mutiny in India.

  3. In the Green Pamphlet, Gandhi voiced support for British against the Boers in South Africa

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Bengal British India society was founded in Calcutta in 1843. George Thompson played a major role in Its establishment. The organization was represented by intellectuals from Bengal especially the Young Bengal group. Its membership was open to all adults donating to the society funds. The society sent petitions urging the government for increasing employment of Indians in public offices and asking for judicial reforms.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Ghadar Mutiny or Ghadar conspiracy was a plan to initiate pan India mutiny in the British Indian Army to overthrow British in India. It was planned that mutiny will start Punjab to be followed in Bengal and then to the rest of India. The British intelligence thwarted the plan at the last moment and hence the mutiny could not happen. Consequently, new laws were introduced like The Foreigners Act 1914, Defence of India Act 1915.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Gandhi wrote and issued ―Green Pamphlet” at Rajkot in which he exposed the conditions of Indentured labourers and coolies in South Africa. The British government considered it as an anti-government publication. When Gandhi reached Durban his ship was not allowed to dock for three days and later on he was even beaten by the Britishers.

QUESTION: 14

With reference to Indian Freedom Struggle movement, consider the following pairs

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

Solution: The Congress Nationalist Party was founded in 1934 by Madan Mohan Malviya and Madhav Shrihari Aney. It was founded as a reaction to the communal awards of 1932. It even contested the 1934 elections of the Central Legislature. The Namdhari movement was founded by Baba Ram Singh. Namdhari, also called Kuka is a sect within Sikhism. Under the leadership of Ram Singh, Namdharis sought resurgence of Sikhs in Punjab. Indian Reform Association was founded in 1870 and Keshub Chandra Sen was its President. He wanted to put his ideas, which he got during his visit to Britain, into practise. Its main objective was to create public opinion against child marriage, get Brahmo form of marriage legalised, promote status of women.
QUESTION: 15

With reference to Marsiya Poetry, which one of the following statements is not correct!

Solution:

Marsiya is derived from Arabic word which means tragedy for a departed soul. It is written to commemorate the Martyrdom of Imam Hussain and the Battle of Karbala. It is a form of Urdu Poetry and its tradition first evolved in Delhi and Deccan but it reached its peak during the Nawabs of Lucknow. Mir Anis and Mirza Dabir are among the most iconic poets of marsiya. Depicting events of 7th century Arabia in a manner relating to South Asian audience is also a unique feature of it.

QUESTION: 16

Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the humid subtropical zone?

Solution:

QUESTION: 17

The scheme ICEDASH, launched by Finance Minister is an

Solution:

ICEDASH: Ease of Doing Business monitoring dashboard of the Indian Customs helping the public see the daily Customs clearance times of import cargo ATITHI: Easy to use mobile app for international travelers to file the Customs declaration in advance.

Two new IT initiatives – ICEDASH and ATITHI – for improved monitoring and pace of Customs clearance of imported goods and facilitating arriving international passengers by electronic filing of Customs baggage and currency declarations.

ICEDASH is an Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) monitoring dashboard of the Indian Customs helping the public see the daily Customs clearance times of import cargo at various ports and airports. With ICEDASH, Indian Customs has taken a lead globally to provide an effective tool that helps the businesses compare clearance times across ports and plan their logistics accordingly. This dashboard has been developed by CBIC in collaboration with NIC. ICEDASH can be accessed through the CBIC website.

QUESTION: 18

During the annular solar eclipse

Solution: During the annular solar eclipse the Sun appears as a ring (annulus) around the Moon. Solar eclipse is a natural phenomenon that occurs when the Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth.

QUESTION: 19

Which of the following is a group of Native Indian Food?

Solution: Indian Sherbet berries, Sugar Palm fruit, Bael, Mangosteen, Star fruits are fruits of Indian origin. Red chillies, Potato, Cashew, Cabbage and Pineapple were introduced by Portugese in India. Pumpkin is native to North America. Apple was introduced by British in Kullu Valley of Himachal.
QUESTION: 20

Consider the following statements:

1. Sangai Deer is naturally found in India only.

2. Hispid Hare is naturally found in India only.

3. Markhor is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct. The sangai deer is an endemic and endangered subspecies of brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur, India. It is also the state animal of Manipur. Its original natural habitat is the floating marshy grasslands of the Keibul Lamjao National Park, located in the southern parts of the Loktak Lake, which is the largest freshwater lake in eastern India.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The hispid hare also called Assam rabbit and bristly rabbit is found in Bangladesh, India, Nepal and possibly Bhutan. The species inhabits tracts of early successional tall grasslands and takes refuge in marshy areas or grasses adjacent to river banks during the dry season, when these areas are susceptible to burning.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The markhor is native to Central Asia, Karakoram and the Himalayas. It is listed on the IUCN Red List as Near Threatened. Markhor are adapted to mountainous terrain, and can be found between 600 and 3,600 meters in elevation. They typically inhabit scrub forests made up primarily of oaks, pines and junipers.

QUESTION: 21

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Solution:
  • Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The Dhuandhar Falls is a waterfall in Jabalpur district in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. The Narmada River, making its way through the marble rocks, narrows down and then plunges to form the waterfall.

  • Pair 2 is correctly matched. Kempty Falls is the most popular and one of the oldest tourist spots near Mussoorie. The Kempty Falls, and the area around is surrounded by high mountain ranges at an altitude of 4500 feet.

  • Pair 3 is correctly matched. Nohkalikai Waterfalls is around 5 km from Cherrapunjee and is the fourth highest waterfall in the world. Falling from a height of 1,100 ft, this fall is a great attraction of Cherrapunjee.

QUESTION: 22

In context of income accounting in India, which of the following statements is correctly stated?

Solution:

Gross value added (GVA) is defined as the value of output less the value of intermediate consumption. It is used to measure the output or contribution of a particular sector. When such GVAs from all sectors (∑ GVA) are added together and adding taxes (product) and reducing subsidies (product), we can get the GDP (at market price). GVA thus shows the production contribution of a particular sector.

Technically, GDP at Market Prices = ∑ GVA at basic prices + product taxes – product subsidies.

In this context, when GVA from all sectors are added together and necessary adjustment for taxes and subsidies are made, we will get the GDP for the economy.

GVA is for a particular sector ∑GVA is for the economy GDP is for the economy When the value of taxes on products (less subsidies on products) is added to the gross value added, the sum of gross value added for all resident units gives the value of gross domestic product (GDP). Thus, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of any nation represents the sum total of gross value added (GVA) in all the sectors of that economy during the said year after adjusting for taxes and subsidies.

QUESTION: 23

In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of transplant technique?

Solution:

Transplantation technique is a form of active reef restoration that is usually designed to assist natural recovery processes of the reef. It includes the transplanting of living corals from one location to another. Other reef restoration techniques include installing branching ceramic stoneware on damaged reefs for new corals to colonize, and using electrolysis within reef-associated water currents to accelerate the deposition of calcium carbonate.

QUESTION: 24

In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay’ mentioned?

Solution:

ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) is a plate-based assay technique designed for detecting and quantifying peptides, proteins, antibodies and hormones. In an ELISA, an antigen must be immobilized to a solid surface and then complexed with an antibody that is linked to an enzyme. Detection is accomplished by assessing the conjugated enzyme activity via incubation with a substrate to produce a measurable product. The most crucial element of the detection strategy is a highly specific antibody-antigen interaction.

QUESTION: 25

Which of the following are in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve?

Solution:

The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India established in the year 1986. It is located in the Western Ghats and spreads over parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka. Nilgiri Biosphere reserve includes Bandipur and Nagarhole Tiger Reserves; Aralam, Mudumalai, Mukurthi and Silent Valley national parks as well as the Wayanad and Sathyamangalam wildlife sanctuaries.

QUESTION: 26

With reference to Asian Elephant, consider the following statements:

1. It has been declared as the National Heritage Animal of India.

2. It is listed as critically endangered on IUCN Red List.

3. It is included in Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

4. It has been included in Appendix 1 of the UN Convention on Migratory Species (CMS).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct. Indian elephant is one of three recognized subspecies of Asian elephant and native to mainland Asia. It has been declared as the national heritage animal of India.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List. The main threats to the asian elephant include agriculture, hunting and biological resource use.

  • Statement 3 is correct. It is included in Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Species included in the Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 get absolute protection and offences under this schedule attract the maximum penalties.

  • Statement 4 is correct. India’s proposal to include Great Indian Bustard, Asian Elephant and Bengal Florican in Appendix I of the UN Convention on migratory species was unanimously accepted at the thirteenth Conference of the Parties to the Convention on MigratorySpecies (CMS).

QUESTION: 27

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Solution:
  • Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The purple frog, also known as pignose frog, was first discovered in October 2003 in the Idukki district of Kerala. It is endemic to the Western Ghats in India. The purple frog has a bloated body with short stout limbs and is dark purple to greyish in colour.

  • Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Indus Dolphin can only be found in the lower parts of the Indus River in Pakistan and in River Beas, a tributary of the Indus River in Punjab, India. They have adapted to life in the muddy river and are functionally blind. They rely on echolocation to navigate, communicate and hunt prey including prawns, catfish, and carp.

  • Pair 3 is correctly matched. Jerdon's Courser is a nocturnal bird known only from Eastern Ghats. It is listed as Critically Endangered in the IUCN red list. It inhabits open patches within scrub-forest. Their habitat is under tremendous pressure due to various anthropogenic activities.

QUESTION: 28

Which of the following global initiatives is not associated with mitigation of Nitrogen Pollution?

Solution:

Kyoto protocol aims to reduce emissions of air pollutants such as carbon monoxide, sulfur and nitrogen oxides, and toxic trace pollutants in exhaust gases. The Gothenburg Protocol to Abate Acidification, Eutrophication and Ground-level ozone covers four air pollutants - sulphur (mainly sulphur dioxide), nitrogen oxides, ammonia and volatile organic compounds (VOC) other than methane and particulate matter. The key aims of the International Nitrogen Initiative are to optimize nitrogen’s beneficial role in sustainable food production and minimize nitrogen’s negative effects on human health and the environment resulting from food and energy production.

QUESTION: 29

Recently, scientists have discovered a new archaeon in Sambhar Salt Lake in Rajasthan. In which of the following areas does this archaeon find its application?

Solution:

Scientists at the National Centre for Microbial Resource — National Centre for Cell Science (NCMRNCCS) in Pune have reported a new archaeon (a kind of microorganism), which they discovered in Sambhar Salt Lake in Rajasthan. Archaea (singular archaeon) are a primitive group of microorganisms that thrive in extreme habitats such as hot springs, cold deserts and hypersaline lakes. These slow-growing organisms are also present in the human gut, and have a potential relationship with human health. They are known for producing antimicrobial molecules, and for antioxidant activity with applications in eco-friendly waste-water treatment.

QUESTION: 30

The Copernicus programme was launched to provide which of the following services?

  1. Information about the past, present and future climate.

  2. Information on the variability and dynamics of the ocean and marine ecosystems.

  3. Spatial and urban planning, forest management, agriculture and food security.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct. The Copernicus Climate Change Service (C3S) supports society by providing authoritative information about the past, present and future climate in Europe and the rest of the World. It offers free and open access to climate data and tools based on the best available science.

  • Statement 2 is correct. The Copernicus Marine Environment Monitoring Service (CMEMS) provides regular and systematic reference information on the physical and biogeochemical state, variability and dynamics of the ocean and marine ecosystems for the global ocean and the European regional seas. The service also contributes to the protection and the sustainable management of living marine resources in particular for aquaculture, sustainable fisheries management or regional fishery organisations decisionmaking process.

  • Statement 3 is correct. The Copernicus Land Monitoring Service (CLMS) supports applications in a variety of domains such as spatial and urban planning, forest management, water management, agriculture and food security, nature conservation and restoration, rural development, ecosystem accounting and mitigation/adaptation to climate change.

QUESTION: 31

Consider the following States:

  1. Madhya Pradesh

  2. Tamil Nadu

  3. Gujarat

  4. Uttarakhand

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of the number of national parks, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

Solution:

Madhya pradesh has 10 National Parks which is the maximum for any state in India. Some of the important National parks in Madhya Pradesh are - Satpura National Park, Bandhavgarh National Park, Panna National Park and Kanha National Park. Next state is Uttarakhand with 6 National parks. Some of the important National parks in Uttarakhand are - Corbett National Park, Rajaji National Park and Nanda Devi National Park. Tamil Nadu has 5 National Parks. Some of the important National parks in Tamil Nadu are - Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park, Mukurthi National Park and Mudumalai National Park. Gujarat has 4 National Parks. Some of the important National parks in Gujarat are - Marine (Gulf of Kachchh) National Park and Gir National Park.

QUESTION: 32

Which of the following statements are correct about 'soil organic carbon (SOC)'?

  1. Soils contain more carbon than the atmosphere and terrestrial vegetation combined.

  2. SOC levels have direct correlation with soil productivity and sustainability of agriculture.

  3. Higher SOC promotes soil structure and reduces the risk of erosion and nutrient leaching.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  1. Statement 1 is correct. Soils are a major carbon reservoir containing more carbon than the atmosphere and terrestrial vegetation combined. Soil organic carbon (SOC) is dynamic, however, and anthropogenic impacts on soil can turn it into either a net sink or a net source of GHGs.

  2. Statement 2 is correct. The soil organic carbon levels have direct correlation with soil productivity and, by extension, sustainability of agriculture. There is a link to climate change as well: Atmospheric carbon dioxide is stored in the form of SOC through the process of absorption in crop production and plant residue retention in soil. This sequestration of atmospheric carbon dioxide can, indeed, be a powerful mitigating measure for climate change.

  3. Statement 3 is correct. Higher soil organic carbon promotes soil structure or tilth meaning there is greater physical stability. This improves soil aeration (oxygen in the soil) and water drainage and retention, and reduces the risk of erosion and nutrient leaching.

QUESTION: 33

Consider the following:

  • Manganese
  • Mercury

  • Cadmium

  • Cobalt

Which of the above are released into water by the Textile Industries?

Solution:

Dye used in the Textile industry releases highly colored wastewaters and also contains heavy metals such as Copper, Cadmium, Cobalt, Mercury, Nickel, Magnesium, Iron and Manganese. Other than this, the wool processing releases bacteria and other pathogens. Pesticides are sometimes used for the preservation of natural fibers and these are transferred to wastewaters during washing and scouring operations.

QUESTION: 34

Consider the following pairs.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution: The Houthi movement or Houthis is an Islamic Political and armed movement that started in the region of northern Yemen in the 1990s. Hezbollah is a Political party of Shia sect and a militant group based in Lebanon. Hamas is a Palestine based Sunni Islamic Fundamentalist militant organization. Uyghurs are a minority group in China. They are Turkik in ethnicity belonging to Central Asia.
QUESTION: 35

Among the following, which one is the largest importer of palm oil in the world in the last five years?

Solution:

India is the largest importer of Palm oil in the world followed by China, Pakistan, Netherlands and Spain.

QUESTION: 36

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

Solution:
  • Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. BaraLacha is a high mountain pass in Zanskar range, connecting Lahaul district in Himachal Pradesh to Leh district in Ladakh.
  • Pair 2 is correctly matched. Jelep La is a high mountain pass between East Sikkim District, Sikkim, India and Tibet Autonomous Region, China. It is on a route that connects Lhasa to India.
  • Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Niti Pass is a high mountain pass, connecting Uttarakhand, India and southern Tibet, an autonomous region of the People's Republic of China.
  • Pair 4 is correctly matched. Lipu Lekh is a Himalayan pass on the border between India's Uttarakhand state and the Tibet region of China, near their trijunction with Nepal. Pair 5 is correctly matched. Bomdi La is situated at an elevation of 2600 m to the east of Bhutan in the Greater Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh. It connects Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa, Tibet.

QUESTION: 37

Which of the following is not the characteristics of Lagrange points?

Solution:
  • Option a is correct. Lagrange points is a position where the gravitational pull of two large masses precisely equals the centripetal force required for a small object to move with them. This is the point overall forces balance.

  • Option b is incorrect. There are five lagrange points in the earth- sun system where a small mass can orbit in a constant pattern.

  • Option c is correct. Since, overall force balances out, these are the points where spacecraft needs less fuel consumption to remain in position.

  • Option d is correct. Aditya Mission to study the corona of the sun will take its position at L1 lagrange point. L1 point is solar and heliospheric observatory satellites.

QUESTION: 38

Consider the following statements regarding National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC):

  1. It will prepare and update climate scenarios and will also assess vulnerability and climate impact.

  2. It will fund the projects in sectors such as agriculture, animal husbandry, water, forestry and tourism.

  3. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  1. Statement 1 is correct. The objectives of the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) include:

    • Preparing and updating climate scenario, assessing vulnerability and climate impact assessment

    • Capacity building of various stakeholders on climate change adaptation and project cycle management and developing knowledge network etc.

  2. Statement 2 is correct. The projects related to adaptation in sectors such as agriculture, animal husbandry, water, forestry, tourism etc. are eligible for funding under the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC).

  3. Statement 3 is correct. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE). The States/UTs are required to prepare the project proposal in consultation with NABARD. The project proposals are required to be approved by the State Steering Committee on Climate Change to be eligible for consideration under NAFCC.

QUESTION: 39

Consider the following statements:

  1. Pesticide industries release arsenic into environment.

  2. Plastic industries release fluoride into environment.

  3. Brick kilns release black carbon into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct. Arsenic-based pesticides are the best examples of agricultural applications of arsenic. This large amount of inorganic arsenic-based pesticides has led to serious arsenic contamination in the environment. A number of acute and sub-acute arsenic intoxication cases have been reported in the affected regions.

  • Statement 2 is correct. Hydrogen fluoride is used to make aluminum, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), aluminum fluoride, sodium fluoride and other fluoride salts. It is used in the petroleum, chemical, and plastics industries. Health effects due to fluoride contamination include abnormal tooth enamel in children, adults having joint pain and deformity of the limbs and spine.

  • Statement 3 is correct. Brick kilns release high levels of health-relevant pollutants, including PM2.5 and black carbon, worsening local air quality and leading to high occupational exposures. The use of solid fuels in brick kilns is an important source of black carbon. Technological interventions exist that can substantially reduce emissions from these industries. Fossil fuel extraction and distribution are major sources of methane, which can be reduced through the recovery and use of released gases.

QUESTION: 40

What is common to the landscapes known as Dolines, Uvalas and Grikes?

Solution: Dolines and Uvalas are a type of enclosed topographic depressions and are characteristic of karst regions on Earth. Grykes is a fissure separating blocks or clints in a limestone pavement.
QUESTION: 41

In the context of using biofuels as an alternative energy source, consider the following statements:

  1. Biodiesel can eliminate the emissions of Nitrogen oxides (NOx).

  2. They are derived from used cooking oil, plastic and municipal solid waste.

  3. They can significantly reduce carbon dioxide emissions.

  4. Biodiesel only upto one-tenth by volume can be blended with petroleum diesel.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Number of studies show that using biodiesel and biodiesel blends slightly increases the generation of nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide-any combination of which constitutes oxides of nitrogen (NOx). NOx increases can range anywhere from less than 1 percent to 15 percent higher than petro-diesel.

  • Statement 2 is correct. Biofuels are derived from renewable biomass resources and wastes such as Used Cooking Oil, Plastic, Municipal Solid Waste, waste gases, etc. and provide higher degree of national energy security in an environmentally friendly and sustainable manner by supplementing conventional energy resources, reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels and meet the energy needs of India’s urban and vast rural population.

  • Statement 3 is correct. Fossil fuel consumption is a major cause of climate change. Biofuels can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels and thus reduce carbon dioxide emissions, because biofuels are carbon neutral. The carbon dioxide that is emitted when a biofuel is burned merely returns to the atmospheric carbon dioxide that was taken into plants from the atmosphere by photosynthesis. Therefore, biofuels seem to be a very effective means for reducing these emissions.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect. Biodiesel can be blended with petroleum diesel and used in many different concentrations. The most common are B5 (up to 5% biodiesel) and B20 (6% to 20% biodiesel). B100 (pure biodiesel) is typically used as a blendstock to produce lower blends and is rarely used as a transportation fuel.

QUESTION: 42

Which one of the following correctly explains the phenomenon of Supermoon?

Solution: Supermoon is when the moon, earth and sun are in a syzygy position. Supermoon is a moon whose size is 14 percent more than that of a normal moon. This happens when the moon is in a perigee position. Moon has an elliptical orbit around Earth. When the moon is at closest position with respect to earth is called perigee position. When the moon is at its farthest position then the position is called apogee.
QUESTION: 43

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Supreme Court of India in the Waman Rao case upheld that the Ninth Schedule of the constitution is not immune from judicial review.

  2. The Supreme Court of India in Kesavananda Bharati case proposed to maintain harmonious balance between fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was added in the very first constitutional amendment. The purpose of the Ninth Schedule was to provide the government the power to achieve the objective of land reforms. Observation of constitution bench of Supreme Court in Waman Rao case about Ninth schedule: the Constitution Bench observed that, according to Waman Rao & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors. [(1981) 2 SCC 362], amendments to the Constitution made on or after 24th April, 1973 (the date of verdict of Kesavananda Bharati case) by which the Ninth Schedule was amended from time to time by inclusion of various Acts, regulations therein were open to challenge on the ground that they, or any one or more of them, are beyond the constituent power of Parliament since they damage the basic or essential features of the Constitution or its basic structure. In other words SC set up a cut-off date of 24th April 1973 to check constitutional validity of the acts of the Parliament. The laws made before that date and placed under 9th Schedule will be immune from judicial review. Whereas the laws made by Parliament after that date and placed in 9th schedule can be checked by judiciary for constitutional validity and hence not immune from judicial review. By and large it made the 9th schedule subject to judicial review.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. In Kesavananda bharati judgement supreme court propounded doctrine of basic structure. In Minerva Mills case, the supreme court provided the concept of harmonious construction between fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy. In Minerva case 1980, the supreme court cleared the situation of conflict between fundamental rights(FR) and directive principles of state policy (DPSP) and promoted that both FR and DPSP are complementary in nature.

QUESTION: 44

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to increase the number of judges of the Supreme Court.

  2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgements.

  3. The Constitution of India explicitly provides for procedure to transfer the judges of the High Court

The Constitution of India has defined the term ‘contempt of court’ under Article 129.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. Article 124 provides that Parliament has the power to increase the number of judges of the Supreme Court. Recently, after the enactment of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act of 2019 into law the judicial strength has been increased to 34 including Chief Justice of India.

Statement 2 is correct. Under Article 137, the Supreme Court shall have power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it. In order to give effect to this, the SC came out with Review Petition (under it the verdict of SC itself can be challenged) and Curative Petition (under it the verdict given by SC on review petition can be challenge and it the ultimate verdict given by SC, i.e. no appeal lies on verdict given on the Curative Petition)

Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 222 of the Constitution makes provision for the transfer of a Judge (including Chief Justice) from one High Court to any other High Court. The initiation of the proposal for the transfer of a Judge should be made by the Chief Justice of India whose opinion in this regard is determinative. But the constitution does not provide for complete procedure for their transfer.

The complete procedure for the transfer of Chief Justices and Judges of the High court was first provided in Three Judges case. Later, when the Supreme Court declared the National Judicial

Appointment Commission unconstitutional, both the government and judiciary came to a memorandum of understanding in 2016. The same Memorandum of understanding explicitly provided for the procedure of transfer of chief justice and judges. It provides that

  • The Judges shall be transferred by Chief Justice of India on consultation with Chief justice of both the high court and two more supreme court judges.

  • The Chief Justice of High court shall be transferred by Chief Justice of India on consultation with one knowledgeable supreme court judge.

Hence, the complete procedure is not provided explicitly in the Constitution.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 129 provides that ―Supreme Court to be a court of record The Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.” It does not define contempt of court. Contempt of court is defined under Contempt of court act 1971. Under the Act, contempt is of two types, civil and criminal contempt. Wilful disobedience of the orders of the judiciary is considered as Civil Contempt and publication of material that scandalises or lowers the image of judiciary is considered as Criminal Contempt.

QUESTION: 45

Which of the following is not related to the 44th Amendment Act?

Solution:
  • The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act made following changes :

    1. Replace the term ‘internal disturbance’ by ‘armed rebellion’ in respect of national emergency under article 352. Consequently, the National Emergency can be imposed on grounds of war, external aggression and armed rebellion and on written recommendation of the Cabinet by the President. The provision of written recommendation of the Cabinet was also added by 44th CAA and article 352 is the only article which mentions and defines the term Cabinet.

    2. Providing that the fundamental rights guaranteed by articles 20 & 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency under Article 359 which provides for suspension of enforcement of the Fundamental Rights by the President.

    3. 19(1) (f) and Art. 31, dealing with Right to Property were deleted from the Constitution and a new article named Article 300A was added into the Constitution providing for Right to Property. Consequently, the right to property is not a fundamental right but only a constitutional right now.

    4. Insertion of new Article 226A under the Constitution (Forty-third Amendment) Act, 1977. Article 226A barred the High Courts from deciding the validity of any Central law and article 228A required that there should be a Bench of at least five Judges for determining the constitutional validity of any State law and prescribed a special majority for a judgment invalidating such a law.

QUESTION: 46

Which of the following is/are the component/components of National Mission on Oil Seeds and Oil Palm?

  1. Reduce the import of edible oils

  2. Bringing additional area under oil palm cultivation

  3. Enhancing seed collection of Tree-borne Oilseed

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  1. Statement 1 is correct: To increase domestic availability and reduce import dependency, a National Mission on Edible Oils (NMEO) is proposed for next five years (2020-21 to 2024-25). The above strategies will deliberate the following output by the end of 2024-25: 1) Oilseed production will be increased from 30.88 to 47.80 million tonnes 2) Productivity will be increase from 1263 to 1587 kg per ha 3) Reduction in import dependence from 60% to 45% 4) Edible oil production will be 18.00 million tonne from 10.50 million tonnes.

  2. Statement 2 is correct: The following action point will be initiated for increasing production and productivity of oilseeds and promotion of Secondary Sources of Edible oils:

    1. Increasing seed replacement rate and varietal replacement rate

    2. Promotion of oilseed in rice fallow/ potato areas

    3. Promotion of oilseeds through intercropping

    4. Extending oilseed cultivation in nontraditional area

    5. Targeting 100 low productivity districts

    6. Crop diversification in different reasons

    7. Promotion of community based oil extraction unit

    8. Value addition and promotion of export

    9. Promotion of rice bran and cottonseed oil

    10. Consumer awareness for judicious consumption of oils for good health

  3. Statement 3 is correct: NMOOP is to be implemented under three mini-missions. Mini Mission III, on tree-borne oilseed (TBOs), aims at enhancing seed collection of TBOs from 9 lakh tonnes to 14 lakh tonnes.

QUESTION: 47

Consider the following statements regarding Anti- Defection Laws:

  1. The Speaker acts as a quasi- judicial body while exercising the power under this law.

  2. The law has not provided any time limit on the Presiding Officer to decide on the plea for disqualification of members.

  3. The anti-defection law is applicable to elected members only.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1985 added the 10th Schedule into Indian Constitution providing for Anti Defection measures. The parliament in pursuant to this enacted Anti Defection Act in 1985 itself dealing with the entire gamut of Anti Defection in India.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The nature of duties of the Speaker, technically as an ―arbiter” or a ―quasi-judicial body” should not be limited exclusively to matters under the Tenth Schedule; rather, it extends to a range of its functions. While facilitating the business of the House and to maintain decorum in the House, the Speaker has ‘extensive functions to perform in matters regulatory, administrative and judicial, falling under her domain. She enjoys vast authority under the Constitution and the Rules, as well as inherently’.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The law does not specify a time-period for the Speaker or Chairman to decide on a disqualification plea in their respective houses. Given that courts can intervene only after the Speaker or Chairman has decided on the matter, the petitioner seeking disqualification has no option but to wait for this decision to be made.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any person. An elected legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party on whose ticket he/she has won the seat in house or disobeys the directives of the party leadership in house. This implies that a legislator defying the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House. On the other hand the nominated members can join a political party within six months of their nomination. Thus, if a nominated member joins a political party after six month of his nomination then he/she may lose a seat as per anti-defection laws. For independent legislators, they can not join any political party at all. If they join any political party then they are subjected to disqualification under Anti-Defection Law. The law applies to both Parliament and State Legislatures.

QUESTION: 48

Which of the following is not the power provided to Gram Sabha under Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996?

Solution: All statements are correct except Option b. Gram Sabha under PESA act is just provided with the power of consultation (and not concurrence) before land acquisition in the scheduled areas for development projects.
QUESTION: 49

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Classification of tribes as De-notified and Nomadic Tribes is made under Habitual Offenders Act.

  2. National Commission for denotified nomadic and semi-nomadic tribes is a statutory body set up to safeguards the rights of these communities.

  3. Denotified, nomadic and semi-nomadic tribes form the sub-part of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct. Initially during British rule, some of the tribal communities which were nomadic and semi-nomadic in nature were placed under Criminal Tribes Act 1871. After independence these communities were denotified from the act and thereafter the Act itself was repealed. Hence the terminology of denotified nomadic and semi-nomadic tribes became prevalent.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Commission for denotified, semi- nomadic and nomadic tribes is not a statutory body, rather created through executive resolution by the central government. The first such Commission was created in 2003 under Chairmanship of Mr. Renke and second such commission was created in 2015 under Chairmanship of Mr Idate.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as PVTGs.

  • PVTGs have some basic characteristics - they are mostly homogenous, with a small population, relatively physically isolated, absence of written language, relatively simple technology and a slower rate of change etc.

  • Currently, 75 tribal groups have been categorized by the Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s. PVTGs reside in 18 States and UT of A&N Islands. The highest number is in Odisha.

QUESTION: 50

Which of the following is correct regarding Departmental Related Standing Committees?

Solution:
  • Option a is incorrect. Every demand of grants must go through a comprehensive examination of the Departmental Related Standing Committee (DRSC) but it is nor necessary that every bill must go through it. Ordinary bills go through the select committee or joint committee of the Parliament instead of DRSC. Hence, Lok Sabha rules do not provide that every bill has to go to the DRSC.

  • Option b is incorrect. Anti-Defection Law does not apply to any committees including DRSCs, and thus, members can put forward their own opinions. Their proceedings are devoid of any party bias.

  • Option c is correct. DRSCs can avail of expert opinion or public opinion to make the reports.

  • They are authorised to invite experts and eminent persons to testify before them and incorporate their opinions in their reports. But it is not mandatory.

  • Option d is incorrect. A minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the standing committees. In case a member, after his nomination to any of the standing committees, is appointed a minister, he then ceases to be a member of the committee.

QUESTION: 51

With reference to the State Legislatures in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The state legislature can levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List.

  2. The State Legislature has power to make laws with respect to goods and services tax imposed by the Union or by such state.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament has exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the Union List, the state legislature has exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the State List, both can levy taxes on the subjects enumerated in Concurrent List whereas residuary power of taxation lies with Parliament only.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution (One Hundred and first Amendment) Act, 2016 inserted a new article 246A in the Constitution. As per this article, the state legislatures have power to make laws with respect to goods and service tax imposed by the Union or by such State.

QUESTION: 52

With reference to Sinai Peninsula, consider the following statements.

  1. It is located between Mediterranean Sea in the north and the red sea in the south in Egypt.

  2. It acts as a land bridge between Asia and Africa.

  3. Its land borders include the Suez Canal to the northwest and Israel border in the northeast.

  4. It is currently under the control of Israel since the Armistice Agreement of 1956.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Sinai Peninsula is a desert region between the red sea and mediterranean sea. It is the only part of Egypt located in Asia.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Since early 2000 Sinai has been under several terror attacks which were motivated by the poverty faced by bedouin in the area. Since 2011 Egyptian Revolution unrest has become more prevalent in the area. Also, there are increased instances of kidnapping of foreign tourists
  • Statement 3 is correct: Sinai is linked to African Continent by Suez Isthmus. Arish, the capital of North Sinai is the largest city of Sinai.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: In 1979 Egypt and Israel signed an agreement and Israel subsequently withdrew in stages. The treaty allows monitoring of the region by observers from different countries and putting a limit on the number of military forces of Egypt in the Peninsula.

QUESTION: 53

Consider the following statements:

  1. A two-tiered structure has been established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 at the national and state levels.

  2. Access and benefit sharing arrangements have been provided under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

  3. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 provides exemptions to growers and cultivators of biodiversity and to Vaids and Hakims to use biological resources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. A three tiered structure has been established at the national, state and local levels under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

  • At the local level, the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are to be established by institutions of local self-government for implementation of specific provisions of the Act and Rules.

  • At the state level, the State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) are established to deal with all matters relating to implementation of the Act and the Rules.

  • At the national level, the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is established to deal with all matters relating to implementation of the Act and the Rules.

Statement 2 is correct. As per the access and benefit sharing arrangements provided under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 and Rules 2004, any foreign individual, institution or company desiring access to biological resources occurring in India or knowledge associated thereto for research, commercial utilisation or biosurvey and bio utilisation is required to seek prior approval of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA).

Statement 3 is correct. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 provides for the following exemptions:

  • Exemption to local people and communities of the area for free access to use biological resources within India.

  • Exemptions to growers and cultivators of biodiversity and to Vaids and Hakims to use biological resources.

  • Exemption through notification of normally traded commodities from the purview of the Act only when used as commodity etc.

QUESTION: 54

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards the right to choose one’s own gender identity?

Solution:

In National Legal Services Authority v Union of India and others, 2014, Supreme Court held that the right to choose one’s gender identity is integral to the right to a life with dignity and therefore falls within the scope of the right to life under the Indian Constitution (Article 21). However, expressing one’s identity i.e. how a person shall dress and express themselves in public purely falls under Article 19 of Indian Constitution.

QUESTION: 55

Consider the following statements regarding Whistle blower protection Act 2014:

  1. The Act allows registration of complaints against every public servant except the council of ministers

  2. The Act is not applicable to the Special Protection Group (SPG) personnel and officers, constituted under the Special Protection Group Act 1988.

  3. The Act allows for anonymous complaints to be made and such complaints have to be entertained by competent authority.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The Whistleblowers Protection Act, 2014 enables any person (i.e. a whistleblower) to report an act of corruption, willful misuse of power or discretion, or criminal offence by a public servant. This includes all public servants, including Ministers, Members of Parliament, the lower judiciary, regulatory authorities, central and state government employees, etc.

  • Statement 2 is correct. The act is not applicable to the Special Protection Group (SPG) personnel and officers, constituted under the Special Protection Group Act, 1988.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The law does not allow anonymous complaints to be made and clearly states that no action will be taken by a competent authority if the complainant does not establish his/her identity. However, the act does provide protection to whistleblowers through provision that competent authority shall not disclose the identity, and in case the identity is disclosed, the competent authority shall be penalised.

QUESTION: 56

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 empowers the Government of India to

  2. Restrict the power of the state in respect of de-reservation of forests and use of forestland for non-forest purposes

  3. Declare any area a wildlife sanctuary, national park or closed area

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 was adopted to protect and conserve forests. The Act restricts the power of the state in respect of de-reservation of forests and use of forestland for non forest purposes.

  • Statement 2 is correct. The Wildlife (Protection) Act (WPA),1972 provides protection to listed flora and fauna and establishes a network of ecologically important protected areas. It empowers the central and state governments to declare any area a wildlife sanctuary, national park or closed area. The Act prohibits hunting of animals except with permission of an authorized officer when the animal has become dangerous to human life or property or so disabled as to be beyond recovery.

QUESTION: 57

As per the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

As per the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016:

  • First time, responsibility for waste generators is being introduced. Individual and bulk generators like offices, commercial establishments, industries are to segregate the plastic waste at source, handover segregated waste, pay user fee as per bye-laws of the local bodies.

  • Plastic carry bags will be available only with shopkeepers/street vendors pre -registered with local bodies on payment of certain registration fees. The amount collected as registration fee by local bodies is to be used for waste management.

  • Manufacturing and use of non-recyclable multi-layered plastic to be phased in two years.

  • Rural areas have been brought in ambit of these Rules since plastic has reached to rural areas also. Responsibility for implementation of the rules is given to Gram Panchayat.

QUESTION: 58

Consider the following statements: As per the Labour Code on Wages, 2019

  1. It provides for justice to workers including casual and informal workers, through access to judicial courts for violation with respect to their wages.

  2. Code puts the liability on principal employer to pay the wages to workers if labour contractor fails to do so.

Which of the following statement above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Code does not provide for justice to workers including casual and informal workers, through access to judicial courts for violation with respect to their wages. The Wage Code takes away the jurisdiction of courts in providing justice to workers who have faced violations with respect to their wages. They can only approach the quasi-judicial body and appellate authority set up under the provisions of the Wage Code. The government is claiming that the setting up of an appellate authority to redress violations regarding workers’ wages will lead to speedy, cheap and effective resolution of wage disputes.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The code omits the liability of the principal employer to pay wages to workers if the labour contractor has failed to do so. The Wage Code defines the principal employer broadly, to include contractors or anyone who is in charge of the worksite, making it difficult to pin the liability on the actual employer.

QUESTION: 59

Which of the following is not recommended by the 15th Finance Commission in its 1st Report submitted in February 2020?

Solution:
  • Option A is correct: Demographic Performance criterion which has been introduced by the 15th Finance Commission. The Demographic Performance criterion is to reward efforts made by states in controlling their population. The 15th Finance Commission used the following criteria while determining the share of states:

    (i) 45% for the income distance,

    (ii) 15% for the population in 2011,

    (iii) 15% for the area,

    (iv) 10% for forest and ecology,

    (v) 12.5% for demographic performance, and

    (vi) 2.5% for tax effort.

  • Option B is correct: The Commission recommended setting up National and State Disaster Management Funds (NDMF and SDMF) for the promotion of local-level mitigation activities. The Commission has recommended retaining the existing cost-sharing patterns between the centre and states to fund the SDMF (new) and the SDRF (existing). The cost-sharing pattern between centre and states is

    (i) 75:25 for all states, and

    (ii) 90:10 for north-eastern and Himalayan states.

  • For 2020-21, State Disaster Risk Management Funds have been allocated Rs 28,983 crore, out of which the share of the union is Rs 22,184 crore. The National Disaster Risk Management Funds has been allocated Rs 12,390 crore.

  • Option C is incorrect: The Commission has recommended a total devolution of Rs 8,55,176 crore to the states, which is 41% of the divisible pool of taxes.

QUESTION: 60

With reference to Rare- Earth Minerals, Consider the following statements:

  1. India is the second largest producer of rare earth minerals.

  2. Indian Rare Earths Limited is responsible for exploration of rare earth minerals in India.

  3. Rare earth elements are found in sufficient quantities in earth's crust.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. India stands at fourth position in terms of Rare Earth Minerals producer. China accounts for around more than 95 percent of rare earth mineral depositions. China is the largest producer. Australia is the second largest producer. In India, rare earth minerals are monazite sands. Though monazite sands are in good amounts in Kerala coast and Orissa region but a bit greater content of Thorium in it makes it difficult to extract.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Atomic General Directorate is responsible for exploration of rare earth minerals whereas India Rare Earth Limited is responsible for extraction of rare earth minerals.

  • Statement 3 is correct. Rare earth elements occur in many minerals but typically in concentrations too low to be refined in an economical manner; the concentration of REEs in the Earth's crust is estimated to be between 150 to 220 parts per million, which is higher than the concentration of other metals mined for industrial use, such as Copper. Hence, Rare earth minerals are as such not rare in amount, but are present in significant quantities on earth crust.

KB:

China has denied to export the minerals claiming that the extraction of rare earth is environmentally degrading. Rare Earth Minerals have huge application in technological products. It is used in many devices that people use every day such as computer memory, DVDs, rechargeable batteries, cell phones, catalytic converters, magnets, fluorescent lighting and much more. Further, rare earth minerals are even more required in the age of the fourth industrial revolution.

Since, China has denied exports to countries like Japan. Japan is in agreement with India for its production.

QUESTION: 61

Consider the following statements:

  1. Government internal debt has been continuously increasing in the past decade.

  2. Most of the Central Govt debt is long term and has a maturity profile of more than 10 years.

Which of the given statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Internal debt is a part of the total debt that's owed to lenders among the country. it's the money the government borrows from its own citizens. The government borrows by supplying the government Bonds and T-Bills (Treasury Bills). It also includes the Market borrowings by the government. The government bonds and T-Bills are traded within the market that is additionally called Gilt Market. Once the government borrows from the domestic sources, the increase in inflation is less compared to easily printing the money.

  • Government internal Debt include

    a) Marketable Security and

    b) Non-Marketable Security (A+B)

    Debt Position of the Central Government: -Government internal debt has been continuously increasing in last seven years, it (a+b) = 2012-13 in 37.65 lakh crore, 2013-14 in 42.41lack crore, 2014-15 in 47.38lack crore, 2015-16 in 53.05lack crore, 2016-17 in 57.42lack crore, 2017-18 in 64.01lack crore and 2018-19 in 70.66lack crore.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Central government debt is characterised by low currency and interest rate risks. This is owing to low share of external debt in the debt portfolio and almost entire external borrowings being from official sources. Further, most of the public debt has been contracted at a fixed interest rate making India’s debt stock virtually insulated from interest rate volatility. This lends certainty and stability to budget in terms of interest payments. The maturity profile of the Central Government’s debt leading to reduced rollover risks. The proportion of dated securities maturing in less than five years has seen consistent decline in recent years.

QUESTION: 62

With reference to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which one of the following statements is correct regarding Ways and Means Advance (WMA) ?

Solution:

The Ways and Means Advances scheme was introduced to meet mismatches in the receipts and payments of the government. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gives temporary loan facilities to the central and state governments. This loan facility is called Ways and Means Advances (WMA). The government can avail of immediate cash from the RBI, if required. But it has to return the amount within 90 days. Interest is charged at the existing repo rate. If the WMA exceeds 90 days, it would be treated as an overdraft (the interest rate on overdrafts is 2 percentage points more than the repo rate). There are two types of Ways and Means Advances — normal and special. A Special WMA or Special Drawing Facility is provided against the collateral of the government securities held by the state. After the state has exhausted the limit of SDF, it gets normal WMA. The interest rate for SDF is one percentage point less than the repo rate. The number of loans under normal WMA is based on a three-year average of actual revenue and capital expenditure of the state.

QUESTION: 63

Consider the following statements:

  1. G-secs in India are considered one of the safest investments.

  2. A government bond yield curve provides the most accurate reflection of current and future economic growth.

  3. Yield inversion happens when the yield on a longer tenure bond becomes less than the yield for a shorter tenure bond.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: A bond is an instrument to borrow money. It is like an IOU. A bond could be floated/issued by a country’s government or by a company to raise funds. Since government bonds (referred to as G-secs in India, Treasury in the US, and Gilts in the UK) come with the sovereign’s guarantee, they are considered one of the safest investments.

  • Statement 2 is correct: A government bond yield curve most accurately reflects what investors think about current and future economic growth prospects. Statement 3 is correct: Yield inversion happens when the yield on a longer tenure bond becomes less than the yield for a shorter tenure bond. This, too, happened last week when the 10-year Treasury yield fell below the 2-year Treasury yield. A yield inversion typically portends a recession. An inverted yield curve shows that investors expect the future growth to fall sharply; in other words, the demand for money would be much lower than what it is today and hence the yields are also lower.

QUESTION: 64

Which one of the following suggested that for the office of Governor, the doctrine of pleasure of the President should be deleted from the constitution. Governors should not be removed at whim of the central government. Instead, a resolution by the state legislature should be there to remove the Governor of the state.

Solution:

Punchhi Commission is the correct answer. Major recommendations of Punchhi Commission (Constituted in 2007 and submitted report in 2010) regarding Office of Governor:

Appointment of Governor

The Punchhi commission recommended that the person who is slated to be a Governor should not have participated in active politics at even local level for at least a couple of years before his appointment. State chief minister should have a say in the appointment of the governor. Appointment of governor should be entrusted to a committee comprising the Prime Minister, Home Minister, Speaker of the Lok Sabha and chief minister of the concerned state. The Vice- President can also be involved in the process.

Removal of Governor

For office of Governor, the doctrine of pleasure should end and should be deleted from the constitution. Governors should not be removed at whim of the central government. Instead, a resolution by the state legislature should be there to remove the Governor. There should be provisions for impeachment of the Governor by the state legislature along the same lines as that of President by President.

Governor as Chancellor of Universities

The convention of making the Governors as chancellors of universities should be done away with.

QUESTION: 65

Which of the following is issued by an international financial institution to foreign companies/investors who wants to invest in a domestic company in India?

Solution:
  • Option A is incorrect: IDR is a depository receipt denominated in Indian rupees issued by a domestic depository in India. Much like an equity share, it is an ownership pie of a company. Since foreign companies are not allowed to list on Indian equity markets, IDR is a way to own shares of those companies. These IDRs are listed on Indian stock exchanges.

  • Option B is incorrect: Commercial paper is a commonly used type of unsecured, short-term debt instrument issued by corporations, typically used for the financing of payroll, accounts payable and inventories, and meeting other short-term liabilities.

  • Option C is correct: A global depositary receipt (GDR) is a bank certificate issued in more than one country for shares in a foreign company. Each GDR represents a particular number of shares in a specific company. A single GDR can represent anywhere from a fraction of a share to multiple shares, depending on its design. In a situation that involves multiple shares, the receipt value shows an amount higher than the price for a single share. Depository banks manage and distribute various GDRs and function in an international context.

  • Option D is incorrect: Preference shares, more commonly referred to as preferred stock, are shares of a company’s stock with dividends that are paid out to shareholders before common stock dividends are issued. If the company enters bankruptcy, preferred stockholders are entitled to be paid from company assets before common stockholders.

QUESTION: 66

Consider the following statements regarding the third National Wildlife Action Plan:

  1. It is the first time India has recognised the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.

  2. It emphasises the importance of integrated management of coastal and marine ecosystems in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct. The third National Wildlife Action Plan is unique as this is the first time India has recognised the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife and stressed on integrating actions that need to be taken for its mitigation and adaptation into wildlife management planning processes.

  • Statement 2 is correct. The Plan also gives special emphasis to recovery of threatened species and aquatic ecosystems. Further, the Action Plan emphasise the importance of integrated management of coastal and marine ecosystems in India.

QUESTION: 67

Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding Defence Acquisition Council?

  1. It takes decisions regarding 'offset' provisions in respect of acquisition proposals.

  2. It suggests a strategy to boost defence exports.

  3. It is tasked with responsibility to prepare a roadmap to build defence manufacturing ecosystems in the country

  4. It takes decisions on categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to 'Buy', 'Buy & Make' and 'Make’.

  5. It is headed by the Defence Minister and includes Chief of Defence Staff among other members.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • The Defence Acquisition council is headed by the Defence Minister. The Defence Planning committee is headed by a National Security Advisor. Defence Acquisition council prepares defence procurement procedure.

  • Statement 1 is correct. Defence Acquisition Council takes decision on offset provisions. Offset provisions are to promote domestic base of manufacturing and further a step towards indigenisation. Offset provision provides to vendors that they should be mandatorily buying products of around 30 percent of total value from Indian manufacturing bases.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The Defence Planning committee headed by the National Security advisor is responsible to make strategies to boost exports.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The Defence Planning committee is tasked with responsibility to prepare a roadmap to build defence manufacturing ecosystems in the country.

  • Statement 4 is correct. The Defence Procurement procedure contains provisions of Indigenous design development and manufacturing (IDDM).

  • Statement 5 is correct. Defence Acquisition council headed by Raksha Mantri also consists of Chief of defence staff to ensure effective procurement (as per the requirements).

QUESTION: 68

Consider the following statements with reference to challenges in monetary policy transmission in Indian Economy:

  1. Increase in Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) has been one of the major reasons for the impaired monetary policy transmission in India.

  2. Fluctuation in deposits impedes the ability of banks to respond to monetary policy changes.

  3. Competition from other financial saving instruments also creates a challenge for monetary policy transmission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: Major reasons for the impaired monetary policy transmission in India.

    1. High average cost of deposits,

    2. Limited flexibility to reduce interest rates in the short-run,

    3. High non-performing assets (NPAs),

    4. Higher cost of acquiring and servicing customers,

    5. Non-interest operating expenses

    6. Procedural bottlenecks in recovery of dues by banks coupled with large borrowings by the government.

  • Statement 2 is correct: As per research, the major reasons behind weak transmissions are

    (i) rigidity in saving deposit interest rates;

    (ii) competition from other financial saving instruments; and

    (iii) deterioration in the health of the banking sector.

    Rigidity in savings deposit interest rate: Around 58% of the total deposits are term deposits and 77% of the term deposits are for 1 year and above. Most of the term deposits have fixed interest rate which means the transmission is effective only for fresh deposits. Besides, banks have no incentive to decrease the deposit rate with the decrease in repo rate due to high operating expenses of savings accounts and already stressed balance sheets.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Competition from other financial saving instruments: With an increased risk appetite, financial literacy, good performance of stock markets and well-structured products, households are diverting a part of their savings to risky assets like mutual funds. Risk-free instruments including public provident fund, national savings certificate, etc. also compete with bank deposits. Despite quarterly review of interest rates, movement in the small savings rate has remained highly inflexible. There is an increased reliance of public sector enterprises (PSEs) to source funds from the National Small Savings Fund to meet

QUESTION: 69

Consider the following statements:

  1. Hague Convention for the Protection of Cultural Property in the Event of Armed Conflict is the first international treaty that focuses exclusively on the protection of cultural property in armed conflict.

  2. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is a specialized agency of United Nations.

  3. A status of forces agreement (SOFA) is an agreement between a host country and a foreign nation stationing military forces in that country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: The convention was adopted in the wake of massive destruction of cultural heritage during the 2nd World War. It is the first International Treaty with a worldwide focus exclusively on protection of Cultural Heritage in event of armed conflict

  • Statement 2 is correct: ICAO helps in planning and development of international air transport. It adopts and recommends practices concerning air navigation, infrastructure, unlawful activities etc. It also defines protocols for air accident investigation.

  • Statement 3 is correct: A Status of forces agreement is about stationing of foreign country troops in host country. SOFA is often part of comprehensive security arrangements. It establishes the rights and privileges of the foreign personnel in the host country.

QUESTION: 70

What was the purpose of Country by Country Report Agreement signed between India and USA?

Solution:

India and the United States of America signed an Inter-Governmental Agreement for Exchange of Country-by-Country (CbC) Reports. The Agreement was signed by Shri P.C.Mody, Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes and Mr. Kenneth I. Juster, Ambassador of the United States of America to India on behalf of the two countries.

This Agreement for Exchange of CbC Reports, alongwith the Bilateral Competent Authority Arrangement between the two Competent Authorities, will enable both the countries to automatically exchange CbC Reports filed by the ultimate parent entities of Multinational Enterprises (―MNEs”) in the respective jurisdictions, pertaining to the years commencing on or after 1st January, 2016. It would also obviate the need for Indian subsidiary companies of US MNEs to do local filing of the CbC Reports, thereby reducing the compliance burden.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following statement about Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is incorrect?

Solution:
  • Option a is correct: The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government has notified in the Official Gazette 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.

  • The Central Government notified the following as factors that constitute failure to achieve the inflation target:(a) the average inflation is more than the upper tolerance level of the inflation target for any three consecutive quarters; or (b) the average inflation is less than the lower tolerance level for any three consecutive quarters.

  • Option b is correct: Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934 also provides for an empowered sixmember monetary policy committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette. Accordingly, the Central Government in September 2016 constituted the MPC as under: Governor of the Reserve Bank of India – Chairperson, ex officio;

  • Option c is incorrect: The MPC is headed by the RBI Governor. Of the six members, three are nominated by the government, while the remaining three are from the RBI (including the Governor). The Monetary Policy Committee takes decisions based on majority vote. Each member has one vote but the RBI Governor gets a casting vote in case of a tie.

  • Option d is correct: Under the amended RBI Act, the monetary policy making is as under: The MPC is required to meet at least four times in a year. The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is four members. Each member of the MPC has one vote, and in the event of an equality of votes, the Governor has a second or casting vote.

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following is/are component / components of economic cost of food grains to Food Corporation of India?

  1. Pooled cost of food grains

  2. Procurement incidentals

  3. Cost of distribution

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

The Economic Cost of foodgrains consist of three components, namely pooled cost of grains, procurement incidentals and the cost of distribution. The polled cost of food grains is the weighted MSP of the stock of foodgrains available with FCI at the time of calculating the economic cost. The Economic cost both Wheat and Rice witnessed significant increase during the last few years due to increase in MSPs and proportionate increase in the incidentals. An examination of the determinants of the real economic cost of wheat suggests that MSP stocks handling charges and average stock of the grain are the significant factors. Increase of one unit in real MSP leads to 0.48-unit increase in real economic cost and the impact is significant.

QUESTION: 73

With reference to communication technologies, what is/ are the difference/ differences between 4G (generation) and 5G (generation)?

  1. 5th Generation Technology will have faster speed and latency to that of 4th Generation Technology.

  2. The wavelength of the allocated spectrum for 5th Generation is lower than that of 4th Generation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Fifth Generation Technology has faster speed and lower latency than that of fourth generation technology. Fifth Generation Technology

  • 5G is the fifth generation cellular technology that apart from increasing the downloading and uploading speeds over the mobile network, also reduces the latency i.e. the time taken by a network to respond.

  • 5G will provide download speed of 1 Gbps, which is at least 100 times the existing data speeds.

  • It also increases energy efficiency and offers more stable network connections.

  • 5G will have a wider area in the frequency spectrum (range of frequencies) that will ensure no network congestion.

  • In addition, it will also ensure connectivity to a full circle i.e. everything is connected to every other thing.

The 5th generation technology is going to give a push to the fourth Industrial revolution. The 4th IR technology comprises Artificial Intelligence, Machine Learning, Data Analytics and Internet of Things, Driverless cars.

Statement 2 is correct. The bandwidth frequency allocated for 5th generation technology is higher than that of 4th generation technology. The wavelength is inverse of frequency, hence, the bandwidth wavelength of 5th generation is lower than that of 4th generation.

QUESTION: 74

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Revamped PM Fasal Bima Yojana 2020?

  1. States to allocate business to insurance companies afresh every year instead of 3 years earlier.

  2. Enrolment under the scheme is made voluntary for all farmers, both loanee and non-loanee.

  3. Premiums for Kharif and Rabi crops remains unchanged at 2% and 1.5% respectively.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

It is proposed to modify certain parameters/provisions of ongoing schemes of PMFBY and RWBCIS as under:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Allocation of business to Insurance Companies to be done for three years (Both PMFBY/RWBCIS).

    Option shall be given to States/UTs to choose Scale of Finance or district level Value of Notional Average Yield (NAY) Minimum Support Price (MSP) as Sum Insured for any district crop combination (Both PMFBY/RWBCIS). Farm gate price will be considered for the other crops for which MSP is not declared.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Enrolment under the Scheme to be made voluntary for all farmers (Both PMFBY/RWBCIS).

    Central Subsidy under PMFBY/RWBCIS to be limited for premium rates upto 30% for unirrigated areas/crops and 25% for irrigated areas/crops. Districts having 50% or more irrigated area will be considered as irrigated area/district (Both PMFBY/RWBCIS).

  • Statement 3 is correct: The PMFBY, which was launched in February 2016 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, provides comprehensive crop insurance from pre-sowing to post-harvest period against nonpreventable natural risks at extremely low premium rate of 2 per cent for kharif crops, 1.5 per cent for rabi crops and 5 per cent for horticulture and commercial crops. Under Revamping of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) and Restructured Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme (RWBCIS), Premiums for Kharif and Rabi crops remain unchanged at 2% and 1.5% respectively.

QUESTION: 75

Which of the following is not among the dimensions of Global Gender Gap Index?

Solution:

The index is published by the World Economic Forum since 2006. The fourth dimension being Political empowerment. According to the latest report Gender parity will not be achieved for next 100 years. In the latest report the top country for Gender empowerment was Iceland and the most improved countries were Ethiopia, Albania, Mexico and Spain.

QUESTION: 76

The Critical Care Medical equipment has been prohibited for import under which of the following?

Solution:

The Critical Care Medical equipment has been prohibited for import under the Hazardous Waste Management Rules, 2016.

Other items that have been prohibited for import under the Hazardous Waste Management Rules, 2016 are:

  • Waste edible fats and oil of animals, or vegetable origin;

  • Household waste;

  • Tyres for direct reuse purpose;

  • Solid Plastic wastes including Pet bottles;

  • Waste electrical and electronic assemblies scrap;

  • Other chemical wastes especially in solvent form.

QUESTION: 77

Which of the following is not a component under New Economy as mentioned in Union Budget 2020 - 21?

Solution:

The union Budget 2020-21 stressed on economic development based on technological infrastructure.

It highlighted the importance of the New economy. Union Budget mentions the following components under New Economy:

To take advantage of new technologies:

  1. Policy to enable the private sector to build Data Centre parks throughout the country to be brought out soon.

  2. Fibre to the Home (FTTH) connections through Bharatnet to link 100,000 gram panchayats this year.

  3. Rs.6000 crore proposed for Bharatnet programme in 2020-21.

Measures proposed to benefit Start-ups:

  1. A digital platform to be promoted to facilitate seamless application and capture of IPRs.

  2. Knowledge Translation Clusters to be set up across different technology sectors including new and emerging areas.

  3. For designing, fabrication and validation of proof of concept, and further scaling up Technology Clusters, harbouring test beds and small scale manufacturing facilities to be established.

  4. Mapping of India’s genetic landscape- Two new national level Science Schemes to be initiated to create a comprehensive database.

  5. Early life funding proposed, including a seed fund to support ideation and development of early stage Start-ups.

QUESTION: 78

In which of the following locations has the Government announced India’s first national maritime museum in its Union Budget 2020 - 21?

Solution:

Under the Budget.

  1. Museum on Numismatics and Trade to be located in the historic Old Mint building in Kolkata.

  2. 4 more museums from across the country to be taken up for renovation and re-curation.

  3. Support for setting up of a Tribal Museum in Ranchi (Jharkhand).

  4. Maritime museum to be set up at Lothal- the Harrapan age maritime site near Ahmedabad, by Ministry of Shipping.

  5. State governments expected to develop a roadmap for certain identified destinations and formulate financial plans during 2021 against which specified grants to be made available to the States in 2020-21.

Lothal

India and Portugal has decided to cooperate in the setting up of a national maritime heritage museum at Lothal in Gujarat. The project is being implemented by the Ministry of Shipping through its Sagarmala programme with the involvement of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), the State government and other stakeholders. Further, the Indian Navy is keen to be a stakeholder in the project and the Portuguese Navy has agreed to assist with their experience of administering the maritime museum in Lisbon. The museum will showcase and preserve India’s rich and diverse maritime heritage. It will display objects relating to ships and travel on large bodies of water.

QUESTION: 79

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The President can appoint a duly qualified person as an acting judge of a high court when there are arrears of work in the high court.

  2. The President can appoint duly qualified persons as additional judges of a high court for a temporary period not exceeding five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Option (d) – Neither 1 nor 2 is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The President can appoint a duly qualified person as an acting judge of a high court when a judge of that high court (other than the chief justice) is:

  1. Unable to perform the duties of his office due to absence or any other reason: or

  2. Appointed to act temporarily as chief justice of that high court.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The President can appoint duly qualified persons as additional judges of a high court for a temporary period not exceeding two years when;

  1. There is a temporary increase in the business of the high court or

  2. There are arrears of work in the high court

QUESTION: 80

With reference to State Development Loans, consider the following statements

  1. It is used by state governments to raise loans directly from the market.

  2. It is a dated security and is qualified for Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Option (c) – Both 1 and 2 is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: State Governments also raise loans from the market which are called SDLs. SDLs are dated securities issued through normal auction similar to the auctions conducted for dated securities issued by the Central Government. Interest is serviced at half-yearly intervals and the principal is repaid on the maturity date. Like dated securities issued by the Central Government, SDLs issued by the State Governments also qualify for SLR. They are also eligible as collaterals for borrowing through market repo as well as borrowing by eligible entities from the RBI under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and special repo conducted under market repo by CCIL.

Statement 2 is correct: Statutory Liquidity Ratio securities (SLR securities) namely:

1) Dated securities of the Government of India issued from time to time under the Market Borrowing Programme and the Market Stabilization Scheme

2) Treasury Bills of the Government of India

3) State Development Loans (SDLs) of the State Governments issued from time to time under the market borrowing programme

QUESTION: 81

A large portion of crop residue is burnt ‘on-farm’ primarily to clean the field for sowing the next crop. With reference to crop residue burning in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The generation of crop residues is highest in the state of Uttar Pradesh.

  2. The highest contribution to the amount of residue burned on the farm is from the state of Punjab.

  3. Crop residue burning is a punishable offence in India.

  4. The Happy Seeder technique will eliminate air pollution by crop burning and reduce greenhouse gas emissions (GHG) from on- farm activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. In a study conducted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, it is estimated that about 500 million tons of crop residues are generated annually. The generation of crop residues is highest in Uttar Pradesh (60 million tons), followed by Punjab (51 million tons) and Maharashtra (46 million tons).

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) report provides that the highest contribution to the amount of residue burned on the farm is from the states of Uttar Pradesh, followed by Punjab and Haryana

Statement 3 is correct. Any person or body that is found offending the directions of the National Green Tribunal is liable to pay Environmental Compensation and it is collected by the concerned State Governments. Hence, Crop residue burning is a punishable offence

Statement 4 is correct. Happy Seeder - a tractor-mounted device- will eliminate air pollution and reduce greenhouse gas emissions from on-farm activities by more than 78 percent relative to all options.

QUESTION: 82

Among the agricultural and allied commodities exported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest exports in terms of value in the last three years?

Solution:

Option (d) – Basmati Rice is the correct answer.

Option b is correct: India’s Export of Principal Agricultural & Allied Commodities (In Value)

1) Rice-Basmati

2) Spices

3) Rice (Other than Basmati)

4) Cotton Raw Including Waste

5) Oil Meals

6) Castor Oil

7) Tea

8) Coffee

9) Fresh Vegetables

QUESTION: 83

In the context of the Constitution of India, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate for definition of social justice?

Solution:

Option (d) – Democratic Equality is the correct answer.

Social justice denotes the equal treatment of all citizens without any social distinction based on caste, colour, race, religion, sex and so on. It means absence of privileges being extended to any particular section of the society, and improvement in the conditions of backward classes (SCs, STs and OBCs) and women. Hence, Democratic equality can be seen as the most appropriate answer.

QUESTION: 84

Which of the following has facilitated Reserve Bank of India to withdraw CDR, SDR, S4A and JLF schemes to restructure defaulted loans?

Solution:

Options a is correct: The Reserve Bank of India has scrapped numerous loan restructuring programmes prevalent among banks to restructure defaulted loans and made resolution of defaults time bound with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code becoming the main tool to deal with defaulters. The central bank has warned banks of monetary penalties and higher provisions if banks are found to have violated or found `evergreening’ accounts to escape its stringent new norms on fixing defaults. All the schemes such as the Corporate Debt Restructuring, Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets or S4A, Strategic Debt Restructuring, and Flexible Structuring of Existing Long Term Project Loans stand abolished.

Options b is incorrect: Project Sashakt was proposed by a panel led by PNB chairman Sunil Mehta to address the bad loans problem in India's banking sector. Bad loans of up to 50 crore will be managed at the bank level, with a deadline of 90 days. For bad loans of 50-500 crore, banks will enter an inter-creditor agreement, authorizing the lead bank to implement a resolution plan in 180 days, or refer the asset to NCLT. For loans above 500 crore, the panel recommended an independent AMC, supported by institutional funding through the AIF. The idea is to help consolidate stressed assets.

Option c is incorrect: Plan Indradhaush: Government announced Indradhanush plan for revamping Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in August 2015. The plan envisaged, inter alia, infusion of capital in PSBs by the Government to the tune of Rs. 70,000 crore over a period of four financial years.

QUESTION: 85

Consider the following statements about cost push inflation in Indian economy:

  1. It occurs when the aggregate demand for a good or service outstrips aggregate supply.

  2. Government regulation and taxation on certain commodities can lead to cost push inflation.

  3. It can occur when companies achieve monopoly over certain industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Option (b) – 2 and 3 only is the correct answer.

Inflation: Inflation is when a currency experiences a drop in value over time. Minor inflation is normal and a natural byproduct of a healthy economy. When inflation grows too quickly, money loses value at a quick rate and an entire economy can spiral out of control. Countries fight inflation through government regulation and adjustments to the monetary policies of central banks.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Cost-push inflation occurs when the supply of a good or service changes, but the demand for it stays the same.

Statement 2 is correct: Causes of Cost-Push Inflation: Supply shock, Higher wages, Imported inflation and Higher taxes. Increases in indirect taxes like sales tax and excise duties can also lead to inflation by forcing prices up. When value added taxes or duties are applied to products, it leads to price inflation, and the consumer ends up shouldering some of the added tax burden.

Statement 3 is correct: It occurs most often when a monopoly exists, wages increase, natural disasters occur, regulations are introduced, or exchange rates change. Cost-push inflation is rare.

QUESTION: 86

To which of the following countries did India deliver stock of essential medicines under “Operation Sanjivani”?

Solution:

Option (b) – Maldives is the correct answer.

India has recently supplied 6.2 tonnes of essential medicines to Maldives under Operation Sanjivani as a help in fighting against COVID 19. The medicines include Influenza vaccines, antiviral drugs like lopinavir and ritonavir, nebulisers and infant feeding tubes.

QUESTION: 87

CLOUD Act, an act to provide transborder access to communications data in criminal law enforcement investigations, is an act of

Solution:

Option (a) – United States of America is the correct answer.

Clarifying Lawful Overseas Use of Data Act is a federal law in the USA. The law will allow the US government to enter into agreements for cross border data sharing. The act establishes procedures for law enforcement request for data in other countries. The agreement will enable foreign countries for data requests directly to US companies rather than via the US government. The act imposes certain restrictions and limits on law enforcement request to address privacy and civil liberty concerns.

QUESTION: 88

Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to Leverage ratio?

Solution:

Option (a) is the correct answer.

The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) introduced a leverage ratio in the 2010 Basel III package of reforms. The leverage ratio is defined as the capital measure divided by the exposure measure, expressed as a percentage. The leverage ratio measures a bank's core capital to its total assets. The ratio uses tier 1 capital to judge how leveraged a bank is in relation to its consolidated assets. Tier 1 assets are ones that can be easily liquidated if a bank needs capital in the event of a financial crisis. So, it is basically a ratio to measure a bank's financial health. The higher the tier 1 leverage ratio, the higher the likelihood of the bank withstanding negative shocks to its balance sheet.

QUESTION: 89

In the context of vaccine research and development, consider the following statements:

  1. DNA based Vaccines involve the direct introduction into appropriate tissues of a plasmid containing the DNA sequence encoding the antigen(s) against which an immune response is sought.

  2. DNA based vaccines stimulate both B cell and T cell responses unlike traditional approaches where only B cell responses are stimulated.

  3. Oral Polio Vaccine is developed through traditional approaches where the attenuated virus is directly introduced in the human's body, and the body produces respective antibodies and gets immunised.

  4. Injectable Polio Vaccine is more difficult to administer than Oral Polio Vaccine.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Option (d) – 1, 2, 3 and 4 is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. DNA based vaccines involve the direct introduction into appropriate tissues of a plasmid containing the DNA sequence encoding the antigen(s) against which an immune response is sought, and relies on the in situ production of the target antigen. The other two traditional approaches of vaccination are: attenuated virus vaccine and killed virus vaccines.

Statement 2 is correct. DNA based vaccines offer a number of potential advantages over traditional approaches, including the stimulation of both B- and T-cell responses, improved vaccine stability, the absence of any infectious agent and the relative ease of large-scale manufacture. In the case of Vaccines based on traditional approaches, only B cell responses are stimulated.

Statement 3 is correct. Oral Polio vaccine is developed through attenuated virus where Injectable Polio Virus is developed through killed virus. Both come under traditional approaches.

Statement 4 is correct. Injectable Polio vaccines, though more effective but are difficult to administer. The IPV vaccination requires trained frontline health workers

QUESTION: 90

The term ‘Deep Fakes’ sometimes mentioned in the news, is associated with

Solution:

Option (a) – Artificial Intelligence Technology is the correct answer.

Advances in Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) have enabled computer systems to create synthetic videos, a.k.a. deepfakes. A deep fake video can show a person saying or doing something that they never said or did. An AI algorithm is taught, using deep learning, to manipulate actual video and audio to mislead viewers.

QUESTION: 91

With reference to the recent developments in nano-pharmaceuticals, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

Option (d) is the correct answer.

Nano- pharmaceuticals are broadly of two types:

1) Those were the therapeutic molecules themselves the drug (i.e., the therapeutic compound itself also functions as its own carrier).

2) Those are the therapeutic molecules that are directly coupled (functionalized, entrapped, or coated) to a nano-particle carrier.

Option a is correct. When the drug is obtained through the first mechanism from the above two mechanisms, it can significantly alter the bio-distribution of traditional drugs impacting its efficacy adversely. This is the one of the challenges which the developments in nano- pharmaceuticals encounter.

Option b is correct. Nano- pharmaceuticals has its applications in Drug delivery systems. It overcomes the limitation of conventional drug delivery systems by increasing the oral- bioavailability of conventional drugs through improved special uptake mechanisms.

Option c is correct. Nano pharmaceuticals can enhance the precision targeting of drugs, thereby reducing the toxic systemic side effects. Hence, it has immense application in treatment of diseases like cancer.

Option d is incorrect. Recently, the government has come up with regulatory guidelines to ensure evaluation of nano- pharmaceuticals in the country.

QUESTION: 92

Consider the following statements regarding Digital Therapeutics:

  1. It is an internet-based digital health technology which majorly focuses upon treating communicable diseases.

  2. It may even substitute conventional drugs for treating many conditions ranging from substance abuse to attention deficit hyperactivity syndrome.

  3. Widespread use of this technology is one of the objectives of Digital India Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Option (a) – 2 only is the correct answer.

Digital therapeutics can broadly be defined as a treatment or therapy that utilizes Internet-based digital health technologies to bring about changes in patient’s behavior so as to treat a medical or psychological condition.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Digital Therapeutics uses methods rooted in cognitive behavioural therapy. It focuses majorly on non-communicable diseases. This method can be used to manage and prevent numerous conditions such as Type II diabetes, congestive heart failure, obesity, depression etc.

Statement 2 is correct. Digital Therapeutics may compliment or even substitute conventional drugs for treating many conditions ranging from substance abuse to attention deficit hyperactivity syndrome.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Digital India Programme has broadly three objectives: to provide broadband infrastructure, to promote digital literacy and to provide services digitally. Hence, as such Digital Therapeutics is not the main objective of Digital India Programme. Tele- medicine can be one of the objectives of Digital India but not Digital Therapeutics.

QUESTION: 93

In the context of different transportation technologies, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

  1. Maglev is a system of train transportation which works on magnetic repulsion technique which completely eliminates contact friction.

  2. Hyperloop transportation technology can be multiple times faster than bullet trains as the air and surface resistance is almost negligible.

  3. Head on Generation technology in railways aims at supplying power to railways through overhead electric supply.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Option (d) – 1, 2 and 3 is the correct answer.

Some of the transportation technologies which can change the face of transportation by reducing journey time, green transportation etc:

1) Maglev Technology

2) Hyperloop Technology

3) Head on Generation Technology.

4) Bullet Train technology Government of India is working hard on adopting all these technologies

Statement 1 is correct. Maglev technology works on application of magnetic fields. Magnetic field creates repulsion which eliminates the contact with the surface and hence the surface contact friction is almost zero. Though the air resistance is not zero.

Statement 2 is correct. Hyperloop technology uses transportation in the vacuum medium. It eliminates both the contact friction and air resistance. It can be three to four times faster than bullet train technology.

Statement 3 is correct. Head on Generation Technology is regarding supply of electrical energy through overhead electric supply. The Government of India is employing this technology in railways as we are focussed in direction of making railway diesel free.

QUESTION: 94

With reference to 4DNA Fingerprinting’ Technology, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a type of genetic engineering in which DNA is inserted, deleted, modified or replaced for identification of individuals.

  2. It is used as a tool for designing personalized medical treatments for cancer patients.

  3. It can be used to identify genetically modified plants or plants that are likely to have therapeutic value.

  4. India has a regulatory body to oversee the use and application of DNA Fingerprinting Technology.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Option (a) – 2 and 3 only is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. DNA Fingerprinting is a technique used especially for identification (as for forensic purposes) by extracting and identifying the base-pair pattern of an individual's DNA. DNA Fingerprinting is used for identification of individuals but the statement is wrong because the technique about which it is talking is of genetic engineering. DNA Fingerprinting is not a genetic engineering technique.

Statement 2 is correct. DNA fingerprinting can be used in identifying good genetic matches for organ or marrow donation. It is used as a tool for designing personalized medical treatments for cancer patients.

Statement 3 is correct. DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify genetically modified plants or plants that are likely to have therapeutic value.

Statement 4 is incorrect. There is still no regulation mechanism to regulate DNA Fingerprinting technique. The DNA Technology (Use and Application) regulation bill is still to become an act. Hence, there is no regulatory body in existence.

QUESTION: 95

With reference to the Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave- Observatory (LIGO), which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution:

Option (b) is the correct answer.

Option a is correct. LIGO- India is being funded by the department of atomic energy and department of science and technology.

Option b is incorrect. It is the goal of an Astrosat mission to study the cosmic sources simultaneously over a wide range of the electromagnetic spectrum. LIGO has the aim of detecting gravitational waves which provides information about the evolution of galaxies and black holes.

Option c is correct. The ability to detect gravitational waves opens up the “new field of gravitational-wave astronomy”, in which scientists will now “listen to the waves” to know more about the objects that can produce them, including black holes, neutron stars and supernovae and directly study violent events like mergers of very massive and dense stars. Till LIGO came into the picture, black holes were never directly detected.

Option d is correct. According to the theory of general relativity, the pair of black holes orbiting around each other lost energy through the emission of gravitational waves. As the holes lost energy, they were gravitationally drawn closer to each other. As they came closer, the spinning became faster and they emitted even more gravitational waves and lost even more energy. The LIGO validated the existence of gravitational waves.

QUESTION: 96

Which of the following is/ are the advantage/ advantages of HyperSpectral Imaging Satellite?

  1. It contains a subset of targeted wavelengths at chosen locations unlike multispectral imaging where there is a contiguous range of wavelengths.

  2. It combines the power of digital imaging and spectroscopy to attain both spatial and spectral information from an object.

  3. It can help the military for surveillance or anti-terror operations by enhancing communications.

  4. It is placed in polar sun-synchronous orbit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Option (b) – 2 and 4 only is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Hyperspectral Imaging satellite contains a contiguous range of wavelengths while imaging the objects whereas multispectral imaging contains a subset of targeted wavelengths.

Statement 2 is correct. Hyperspectral imaging combines digital imaging and spectroscopy to attain both spatial and spectral information from an object. Hyperspectral images provide much more detailed information about the scene by dividing the spectrum into many more bands than a normal colour camera, which only acquires three different spectral channels corresponding to the visual primary colours red, green and blue.

Statement 3 is incorrect. It has applications in military surveillance. It can be highly useful in marking out a suspect object or person and separating it from the background which could aid in detecting transborder or other stealthy movements. However, military surveillance is not done by enhancing communications; rather it provides imagery to keep surveillance over any region.

Statement 4 is correct. Hyperspectral imaging satellite is placed in Low earth orbit. The satellites are placed in polar sun- synchronous orbit.

QUESTION: 97

The term ‘Data exclusivity’ sometimes mentioned in the refers to

Solution:

Option (a) is the correct answer.

Option a is correct. Data exclusivity is protection of clinical trial data which is submitted to the regulatory authorities to prove safety, quality and efficacy of a new drug, and preventing the generic drug manufacturers from relying on this data in their own applications.

Option b is incorrect. Patents are an important form of intellectual property, but are not themselves necessarily sufficient to create the favorable environment needed to support the development of medical advances. Data exclusivity is not an extension of patent rights, and it does not prevent the introduction of generic versions of the innovative drug during the data exclusivity period, as long as the marketing approval of the generic version does not use or rely upon the innovator’s test data. Patents and data exclusivity are different concepts, protect different subject matter, arise from different efforts, and have different legal effects over different time periods.

Option c is incorrect. The critical data which is not meant to share with foreign countries without the consent of citizens is Data Protection through data localisation.

Option d is incorrect. The data of intellectual property can be shared for generic medicine development without the consent of patent owners after a certain period of time is called compulsory licensing.

QUESTION: 98

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

Option (a) is the correct answer.

Option a is incorrect. The BCG vaccine, to prevent Tuberculosis infections, is effective up to 80 percent in preventing the infection.

Option b is correct. Revised National Tuberculosis Control programme (RNTCP) focuses on following areas:

  • Directly Observed Treatment – Short Strategy (DOT-S).

  • Multi- Drug resistant Tuberculosis (MDR- TB).

  • Molecular diagnosis instead of sputum diagnosis.

  • TB as an infection from HIV/AIDS.

Option c is correct. Isoniazid and Rifampicin are first line drugs used for treating Tuberculosis. Bedaquiline and Delamanid are second line drugs of treatment for treating Multi- Drug Resistant Tuberculosis.

Option d is correct. Sustainable development Goals 3 aims at eradicating TB by 2030. However, National Health Policy 2017 aims are eradicating TB by 2025.

QUESTION: 99

Consider the following statements
1.    In the Pala Kingdom provinces were called the bhuktis
2.    The Rashtrapati in Rashtrakuta had similar function like Uparika in Pala Empire
3.    The unit below district was called Pattala in Pratihara empire
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Pala empire was divided into bhuktis (provinces) which were further divided into Vishayas (division) and Mandals (district) 
  • Statement 2 is correct: In Rashtrakuta kingdom the administered areas were divided into rashtra (province), visaya and bhukti. Head of Rashtra was called rashtrapati and he was equivalent to governor of a province in Pala kingdom called Uparika. 
  • Statement 3 is correct: In the Pratihara empire Visaya was a District and Visayapati was head of district. The unit below the district was Pattala. Their exact role is not known. It is believed that their purpose was realisation of land revenue and organizing law and order. 
QUESTION: 100

Who of the following rulers introduced the concept of local responsibility for local crimes wherein local officials were held accountable for failure to find culprits?

Solution:

Sher Shah Suri is considered as one of the greatest administrators of Medieval India. He established four major Central departments of Diwan-i-wijarat (finance), Diwan-i-Arz (Military), Diwan-i-Insha (Royal Secretariat) and Diwan-i-Risalat (Religious and Foreign Affairs). He introduced a system of Tri metalism called Rupia. He constructed GT roads lined with trees, wells and rest houses. He introduced a system of land revenue under which the cultivator was asked to pay one third of his produce. He revived system of branding of horse of every royal trooper and raised full-fledged standing army.