UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 6 (March 25, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 6 (March 25, 2021)


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QUESTION: 1

In the context of judicial interpretation, the presumption of constitutionality is best described as which of the following?

Solution:

• In constitutional law, the presumption of constitutionality is the legal principle that the judiciary should presume statutes enacted by the legislature to be constitutional unless the law is clearly unconstitutional or a fundamental right is implicated. Hence, a court cannot declare legislation to be constitutional as there is any way a presumption of constitutionality. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act-2014 passed by the Lok Sabha on 13 August 2014 and by the Rajya Sabha on 14 August 2014 which created a National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges to the higher judiciary in India. The Constitution Bench of Supreme Court by 4:1 Majority upheld the collegium system and struck down the NJAC as unconstitutional after hearing the petitions filed by several persons and bodies. Hence, the 99th constitutional amendment act violated the presumption of constitutionality.
• The court ought not to interpret the statutory provisions, unless compelled by their language, in such a manner as would involve its unconstitutionality, since the legislature of the rulemaking authority is presumed to enact a law which does not contravene or violate the constitutional provisions. Therefore, there is a presumption in favor of the constitutionality of legislation or statutory rule unless ex facie it violates the fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution
• Article 13: Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights

QUESTION: 2

With reference to the Fugitive Economic Offenders (FEO) in India, consider the following statements:
1. A Fugitive Economic Offender is any individual who is will fully not paying a debt of more than Rs 5 crores and has absconded without facing the consequences.
2. Any such individual is declared a Fugitive Economic Offender by the money-lending institution to whom he owes the debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act 2018 was brought to” provide for measures to deter fugitive economic offenders from evading the process of law in India by staying outside the jurisdiction of Indian courts, to preserve the sanctity of the rule of law in India and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto”.
• Statement 1 is not correct: An FEO is defined by the act as “any individual against whom a warrant for arrest in relation to a scheduled offense has been issued by any court in India, who (i) has left India so as to avoid criminal prosecution; or (ii) being abroad, refuses to return to India to face criminal prosecution”. The individual should be involved in offenses of at least 100 crores.
• Statement 2 is not correct: To declare a person an FEO, an application has to be filed in a Special Court (designated under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002) containing details of the properties to be confiscated, and any information about the person’s whereabouts. The Special Court will require the person to appear at a specified place at least six weeks from the issue of notice. Proceedings of the FEO court will be terminated if the person appears. But he will have to face the due proceedings under other concerned laws.

QUESTION: 3

The term „Rules of Origin‟ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

Solution:

• Rules of origin are the rules to attribute a country of origin to a product in order to determine its "economic nationality". The need to establish rules of origin stems from the fact that the implementation of trade policy measures, such as tariffs, quotas, trade remedies, in various cases, depends on the country of origin of the product at hand.
• Rules of origin are used:
o to implement measures and instruments of commercial policy such as anti-dumping duties and safeguard measures;
o to determine whether imported products shall receive most-favoured-nation (MFN) treatment or preferential treatment; o for the purpose of trade statistics;
o for the application of labelling and marking requirements; and
o for government procurement.
• General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) has no specific rules governing the determination of the country of origin of goods in international commerce. Each contracting party was free to determine its own origin rules, and could even maintain several different rules of origin depending on the purpose of the particular regulation.
• During international trade, an exporting country needs to show a certificate under norms of "rules of origin" to prove that the commodity or a product originates there. Rules of origin norms help in containing dumping of goods.
• Recently there has been a surge in import of cheap areca nut from SAARC nations. Hence Finance ministry has been requested to check the rules of origin to curb cheaper imports from SAARC countries.

QUESTION: 4

A system declared as Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS), by FAO, uses which of the following criteria?
1. Food and Livelihood security
2. Agro-biodiversity
3. Local and Traditional Knowledge systems
4. Cultures, Value systems, and Social Organisations
5. Landscapes and Seascapes Features
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Global important agricultural Heritage systems are outstanding landscapes of aesthetic beauty that combine agricultural biodiversity and ecosystem and valuable cultural heritage. It is designated by the Food and agricultural organization (FAO).
• Its goal and objective include: to leverage global and national recognition of the importance of agricultural Heritage systems-capacity building of local farming communities and local and national institutions-to promote enabling regulatory policies and incentive environments to support the conservation-.It also aims to achieve food security and poverty alleviation.
• Indian sites include: Kuttanad below sea level farming system in Kerala; Koraput traditional agriculture in Odisha; Saffron heritage of Kashmir; Grand Anicut and associated farming system in Cauvery delta zone of Tamilnadu
• The proposed GIAHS sites are generally assessed based on the following five: Food and livelihood security; Agro-biodiversity; Local and Traditional Knowledge systems; Cultures, Value systems, and Social Organisations; Landscapes and Seascapes Features
• Additional Information: There are 52 GIAHS sites in 21 countries. Six GIAHS sites located in China, Philippines, Tanzania, United Arab Emirates, Iran and the Republic of Korea are also UNESCO World Heritage sites. Since its inception in 2002, the GIAHS program has built a strong local and international reputation in the fields of agricultural heritage and agricultural development. Some GIAHS sites in china have embraced new technologies by engaging with e-business companies like Alibaba to promote their agricultural heritage products.

QUESTION: 5

Ajnapatra, written during the time of Maratha empire deals with:

Solution:

• Ajnapatra is a royal edict on the principles of Maratha state written in Modi Marathi (a script) by Ramchandra Pant Amatya. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
• Ramchandra Pant Amatya wrote this famous treatise on political code of conduct in 1715 at the order of Sambhaji. It has nine chapters but they can be divided into mainly two parts. The first part deals with a Shivaji's struggle for independence, Aurangzeb's attack on Marathas and Rajaram's brave struggle to save the kingdom. The second part of the book is the principal aspect of the book. It deals with role and functions of the King, his character, his duties towards his subject and the education of the princess.

QUESTION: 6

Zigzag technology, sometimes seen in news, pertains to

Solution:

• In zigzag kilns, bricks are arranged to allow hot air to travel in a zigzag path. The length of the zigzag air path is about three times that of a straight line, and this improves the heat transfer from the flue gases to the bricks, making the entire operation more efficient. In addition, better mixing of air and fuel allows complete combustion, reducing coal consumption to about 20 percent. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• The zigzag design also ensures uniform distribution of heat, increasing the share of Class I bricks to about90 percent. It also reduces emissions considerably.
• The zigzag technology has two sub-types: natural and induced. The induced draft uses fans to regulate air, while the natural draft has a chimney. The operational cost of the induced draft includes the cost of diesel and the maintenance of a generator to run the fan, which comes up to about Rs 250,000 a season. This cost is eliminated in the natural model, but it requires an initial investment in building a chimney.
• While natural zigzag is usually the first choice for brick kiln owners as running costs are lower, they are choosing induced zigzag as conversion costs are lower. The government order also promotes induced draft technology.

QUESTION: 7

Municipal Corporations can be found in big cities like Delhi, Bangalore, etc. Municipal Corporations have three authorities, namely, the council, the standing committees, and the commissioner. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. A Municipal Corporation in a state is formed by an act of the state legislature.
2. The head of the council of a municipal corporation is appointed by the state government.
3. The municipal commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore and others. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India. There may be one common act for all the municipal corporations in a state or a separate act for each municipal corporation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A municipal corporation has three authorities, namely, the council, the standing committees, and the commissioner. The Council is the deliberative and legislative wing of the corporation. It consists of the Councilors directly elected by the people, as well as a few nominated persons having knowledge or experience of municipal administration. In brief, the composition of the Council including the reservation of seats for SCs, STs, and women is governed by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.
• The Council is headed by a Mayor. He is assisted by a Deputy Mayor. He is elected in a majority of the states for a one-year renewable term. He is basically an ornamental figure and a formal head of the corporation. His main function is to preside over the meetings of the Council. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• The standing committees are created to facilitate the working of the council, which is too large in size. They deal with public works, education, health, taxation, finance and so on. They take decisions in their fields.
• The municipal commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the council and its standing committees. Thus, he is the chief executive authority of the corporation. He is appointed by the state government. Hence statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 8

Consider the following statements:
1. Bodhisattvas, a central part of Mahayana Buddhism emerged during the reign of Ashoka.
2. Mahayana Buddhism believed that each being attains salvation on his own.
3. All known Bodhisattvas are male, as Mahayana Buddhism does not promote the worship of female deities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• The emergence of Bodhisattva is central to Mahayana sect of Buddhism, which emerged during the fourth council of Buddhism held in 1st century A.D at Kashmir during the reign of Kanishka.
• The worship of images of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas became an important part of this tradition. Bodhisattva was thought of in the schools of the Great Vehicle or Mahayana not as a being who was soon to become a Buddha, but as one who would bide his time until even the smallest insect had reached the highest goal. The old ideal (in Hinayana Buddhism) of the Arhant, the '"Worthy", who achieved Nirvana and would be reborn no more, began to be looked on as rather selfish. Instead of striving to become Arhants, men should aim at becoming Bodhisattvas, and by the spiritual merit which they gained assist all living things on the way to perfection. The idea of transference of merit is a special feature of the teaching of the Great Vehicle. According to the Lesser Vehicle or Hinayana Buddhism a man can only help another on the way by example and advice. Each being must be a lamp unto himself, and work out his own salvation. Thus, Bodhisattva is an ideal, an aspirant of Buddhahood (buddhatva) who works for the enlightenment of all sentient beings in contrast to that of one’s own emancipation of the Arhat (an ideal in non-Mahāyāna traditions). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Prominent Bodhisattvas:
Avalokiteśvara: Avalokiteśvara is, conceivably, the most popular of all Mahayana Bodhisattvas. He is seen as the most compassionate savior of the universe. He is compassion-incarnate who is concerned with every bit of sufferings of all beings in their everyday life.
Manjuśri: Manjuśri is the Bodhisattva of wisdom and enlightenment. He is associated with the role of interlocutor on the questions regarding ultimate truth.
Tara or Shayama Tara, also known as Jetsun Dölma in Tibetan Buddhism, is an important figure in Buddhism. She appears as a female bodhisattva in Mahayana Buddhism, and as a female Buddha in Vajrayana Buddhism.
Kṣitigarbha: Another important Bodhisattva in Indo-Tibetan Buddhism is Kṣitigarbha. Kṣitigarbha savesthe sentient beings during the period between the death of Sakyamuni Buddha and the future advent of Maitreya Buddha.
Maitreya: Maitreya is the future Buddha. The idea is that there were many previous Buddhas, and there will be many future Buddhas. If there will be future Buddhas, then the being who is to come next as the Buddha must be the one who has advanced on his Bodhisattva path. That being is Maitreya. Maitreya is the only Bodhisattva accepted by both Mahayana and non-Mahayana traditions.
Other prominent Bodhisattvas mentioned in the Buddhist Sanskrit literature are Samantabhadra, Amitabha, Vajrapani.

QUESTION: 9

Consider the following statements:
1. Stem cells are specialized cells having tissue-specific structures.
2. Stem cells can be found in embryos.
3. Stem cell therapy is used to treat can cers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Stem cells are special human cells that have the ability to develop into many different cell types, from muscle cells to brain cells. In some cases, they also have the ability to repair damaged tissues.
Stem cells differ from other kinds of cells in the body.

  • Self-renewal: They can divide and renew themselves for long periods.
  • Stem Cells are Unspecialised: It does not have any tissue-specific structure that allows it to performs specialized functions. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Potency: Specialised cells can be derived from stem cells through a process called differentiation. While differentiating, the cell usually goes through several stages, gaining more specialization at each step.

• Stem cells are divided into two main forms: embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.

  • The embryonic stem cells used in research today come from unused embryos resulting from an invitro fertilization procedure and that are donated to science. These embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, meaning that they can turn into more than one type of cell.
  • There are two types of adult stem cells.

✓ One type comes from fully developed tissues, like the brain, skin, and bone marrow. There are only small numbers of stem cells in these tissues, and they are more likely to generate only certain types of cells. For example, a stem cell-derived from the liver will only generate liver cells.
✓ The second type is induced pluripotent stem cells. These are adult stem cells that have been manipulated in a laboratory to take on the pluripotent characteristics of embryonic stem cells. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Stem cells are applied especially to treat cancers, which require high-dose chemotherapy within the scope of medical care. The patient’s own stem cells are extracted from bone marrow or peripheral blood prior to high-dose chemotherapy, stored temporarily and transplanted after the treatment in order to minimize the side effects of the aggressive chemotherapy and to support the regeneration of destroyed cells. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Besides cancer, Stem cell therapy offers great potential for the treatment of diseases such as neurodegenerative diseases, cardiac infarction, stroke, arthritis, or diabetes.

QUESTION: 10

With reference to the Kalingan temple architecture, what does "deula" mean?

Solution:

• Odishan Temple Architecture:

  • Architecture in Odisha found its supreme expression in the form of temples, some of which are among, finest in the country.
  • Of these, three are most famous the Lingaraja temple at Bhubaneswar (11th century), the Jagannath Temple at Puri (12th century) and the great Sun Temple at Konark (13th century).These three cities form the "Golden Triangle" of Odishan Temple Architecture.
  • These mark the culmination of a distinct style of architecture called the Kalinga style remarkable in its plan elevation and details of decoration.
  • While the main temple, called Vimana or Deula, is the sanctum enshrining the deity the porchor assembly hall called Jagamohana is the place for the congregation of devotees.
  • Rekha, Pidha & Khakhara are three types of Deula.
  • The Kalinga style reached its perfection during the Ganga period when two more structures wereadded to the front of the two-part temple in order to meet the needs of the elaborate rituals; these are the natamandira (dancing hall) and the bhogamandapa (hall of offerings).

• Types of Temples:

  • Rekha Deula: The sanctum is constructed on a square base, with a curvilinear long tower or shikhara. For e.g. Jagannath Puri, Parsurameshwara Temple
  • Pidha Deula: The sanctum is rectangular with a roof in the form of pidhas or a pyramid. For e.g. SunTemple, Konark's Jagamohana.
  • Khakhra Deula: The roof of the sanctum is semicylindrical in shape. For e.g. Vaital temple atBhubaneswar and Varahi temple at Chaurasi.

• 64 Yogini Temples:

  • There is another class of temples that are almost unique in their conception and execution in the wholecountry; these are the circular shaped, hypaethral or roofless structures dedicated to the sixtyfouryoginis belonging to the Tantric order.
  • Out of all the five shrines of yogini worship existing in the whole country, two are situated in Odisha, the Chausathi Yogini temples one at Hirapur near Bhubaneswar and the other atRanipur-Jharial in Titlagarh subdivision of Balangir district.
  • The other three temples are Chaunsath Yogini Temple in Khajuraho, Chaunsath Yogini Mandirin Bhedaghat, near Jabalpur, Chausath Yogini Temple, Morena, also known as Ekattarso Mahadeva Temple, all in Madhya Pradesh.
QUESTION: 11

The Arabian Sea is comparatively less prone to a tropical cyclonic storm than the Bay of Bengal because of which of the following reasons?
(1) Weaker Coriolis Force over the Arabian Sea than the Bay of Bengal.
(2) Lesser water surface temperature in the Arabian Sea than the Bay of Bengal.
(3) Role of tropical easterly to influence the track of tropical cyclone.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Typically, the Arabian Sea experiences a lesser number of cyclones than the Bay of Bengal. Still, in 2019 it saw a more significant amount of tropical cyclones than the Bay of Bengal. Five of the eight cyclones - 60 per cent of the total - that affected India in 2019 were in the Arabian Sea. The Arabian Sea is comparatively less prone to cyclonic storms than the Bay of Bengal because:
• The Arabian Sea has less sea surface temperature than the Bay of Bengal. This cold sea surface temperature is not favourable for the development and sustenance of cyclonic storms. So, statement (2) is correct.
• Coriolis Force is directly proportional to the latitude, as both the water bodies are on similar latitude Coriolis Force is almost the same. So, statement (1) is not correct.
• Track of Tropical cyclone is determined by tropical easterly wind; thus cyclones move from east to west direction; therefore cyclones originating in the Bay of Bengal hit the eastern coast of India while cyclones of the Arabian Sea move away from the west coast of India. Generally, 25% of the cyclones that develop over the Arabian Sea approach the west coast. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 12

With reference to the office of the Vice President of India, consider the following statements:
(1) It is modelled on the lines of the office of the American Vice President.
(2) Like its American counterpart, the Indian Vice President succeeds to the presidency when it falls vacant. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The office of the Indian Vice-President is modelled on the lines of the American Vice-President. So, Statement (1) is correct. But there is a difference. The American Vice-President succeeds to the presidency when it falls vacant, and remains President for the unexpired term of his predecessor. According to Article 65, the Indian Vice-President, does not assume the office of the President when it falls vacant for the unexpired term. He merely serves as an acting President until the new President assumes charge. So, Statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 13

With reference to the “Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981”, consider the following statements:
(1) It has a provision for establishing a Central Pollution Control Board.
(2) Any air pollutant released into the atmosphere by a ship or an aircraft is also covered under the purview of this Act.
(3) This Act does not include noise as an air pollutant.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Solution:

The Central Pollution Control Board of India is a statutory organisation established in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act. Though, the CPCB is also entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. However, it is established under the Water Act. So the statement (1) is not correct.
One of the significant drawbacks of the Act is that any air pollutant released into the atmosphere by a ship or aircraft does not come under the purview of the Act. So the statement (2) is not correct.
The Act was amended in 1987 to include noise as an air pollutant. So the statement (3) is not correct.

QUESTION: 14

Consider the following statements about Eklavya schools:
(1) They are model residential schools set up for Scheduled Tribes (STs) and Scheduled Castes (SCs).
(2) The scheme is being implemented by the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
(3) They have special facilities for preserving local art and culture besides providing training in sports and skill development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) started in the year 1997-98 to impart quality education to ST children in remote areas to enable them to avail of opportunities in high and professional education courses and get employment in various sectors. Hence they do not deal with the Scheduled Castes. Hence statement (1) is not correct.
It had been decided in the Budget 2018-19 that by the year 2022, every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons, will have an Eklavya Model Residential School. Also, Eklavya schools will be on par with Navodaya Vidyalaya and will have special facilities for preserving local art and culture besides providing training in sports and skill development. Hence statement (3) is correct.
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is implementing the scheme. There will be an autonomous society under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs - similar to Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti - to run the Eklavya Model Residential Schools. These schools are being set up by grants provided under Article 275(1) of the Constitution. Hence statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Fedor’ robot:
(1) It is designed by Japan which will assist astronauts on the International Space Station.
(2) It is the first-ever humanoid robot to go into space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Final Experimental Demonstration Object Research (Fedor), also known as Skybot F850, is a robot, first-ever sent up by Russia. Fedor copies human movements, a critical skill that allows it to remotely help astronauts or even people on Earth carry out tasks while they are strapped into an exoskeleton. Fedor is described as potentially useful on Earth for working in high radiation environments. Russia launched a crewless rocket carrying a life-size humanoid robot that will spend ten days learning to assist astronauts on the International Space Station. So, statement (1) is not correct.
Fedor is not the first robot to go into space. In 2011, NASA sent up Robonaut 2, a humanoid robot developed with General Motors and a similar aim of working in high-risk environments. It was flown back to Earth in 2018 after experiencing technical problems. In 2013, Japan sent up a small robot called Kirobo along with the ISS's first Japanese space commander. It was developed with Toyota, and it was able to hold conversations only in Japanese. So, statement (2) is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 16

Consider the following statements with reference to the Aravalli Mountain Range in India:
(1) It is the oldest fold mountain range in the Indian subcontinent.
(2) It is spread over two States only.
(3) Due to the rising threat to biodiversity, it has been declared as a Biodiversity Hotspot.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution:

The Aravallis date back to millions of years when a pre-Indian sub-continent collided with the mainland Eurasian Plate. Thus, it is the oldest fold mountain of Indian Subcontinent. So, statement (1) is correct.
The Aravalli Mountain Range in Northwestern India runs approximately 692 km in a south-west direction, starting near Delhi, passing through southern Haryana and Rajasthan, and ending in Gujarat. So, statement (2) is not correct.
The Supreme Court-appointed Central Empowered Committee revealed that 31 of 128 hills in the Aravalli region in Rajasthan had vanished in the last 50 years due to illegal quarrying. Although Aravalli is facing a biodiversity threat it is not declared as a Biodiversity Hotspot. So, statement (3) is not correct.
Biodiversity Hotspot: To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must meet two strict criteria:
• Contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants found nowhere else on Earth (known as "endemic" species).
• Have lost at least 70 percent of its primary native vegetation. Many of the biodiversity hotspots exceed the two criteria. For example, both the Sundaland Hotspot in Southeast Asia and the Tropical Andes Hotspot in South America have about 15,000 endemic plant species. The loss of vegetation in some hotspots has reached a startling 95 percent. Therefore, the answer is (c).

QUESTION: 17

With reference to the evolution of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
(1) It has been greatly in fluenced by the events that occurred both under the rule of the East India Company and the British Crown.
(2) It strikes a delicate balance between the flexibility of the British Constitution and the rigidity of the American Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Various features of the Indian Constitution and polity have their roots in the erstwhile British Rule. Certain events in the British Rule laid down the legal framework for the organisation and functioning of government and administration in British India. The various Acts under both the East India Company rule (Regulating Act 1773, Pitts India Act 1784 etc.) and under the British Crown (Government of India Act 1858, Indian Councils Act 1892 etc.) shaped the evolution of the Indian Constitution. So, statement (1) is correct.
The Indian Constitution is a blend of Rigidity and Flexibility. A Rigid Constitution is one that requires a special procedure for its amendment, for example, the American Constitution. A Flexible Constitution, on the other hand, is one that can be amended in the same manner as the ordinary laws are changed, for example, the British Constitution. While some provisions can be amended only by 2/3 of the members present and voting, some provisions of the Indian Constitution can also be amended by a simple majority, but this does not come under Article 368. So, statement (2) is correct Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 18

Consider the following statements regarding the significance of socio-religious reform movements in 19th century India:
(1) They emphasised the human intellect’s capacity to think and reason.
(2) They ended India’s cultural and intellectual isolation from the rest of the world.
(3) They had a broad social base supporting their reform agenda.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

Despite opposition, these movements managed to contribute towards the liberation of the individual from the conformity born out of fear and from uncritical submission to exploitation by the priests and other classes. The movements emphasised the human intellect’s capacity to think and reason. So statement (1) is correct.
Although traditional values and customs were a prominent target of attack from the reformers, yet the reformers aimed at modernisation (e.g. political ideas of French Revolution or liberal ideas of Locke and Bentham) rather than outright westernisation based on blind imitation of alien Western cultural values. To that extent, these movements ended India’s cultural and intellectual isolation from the rest of the world. So statement (2) is correct.
One of the significant limitations of the religious reform movements was that they had a narrow social base, namely the educated and urban middle classes. In contrast, the needs of the vast masses of peasantry and the urban poor were ignored. So statement (3) is not correct.

QUESTION: 19

With reference to the Rajasthani school of painting, consider the following statements:
(1) Themes of these paintings are deeply rooted in the Indian as well as the Persian traditions.
(2) The revival of Vaishnavism and the growth of Bhakti provided a direction to the development of these distinct Rajasthani schools.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Themes of these paintings are deeply rooted in the Indian traditions, taking inspiration from Indian epics, Puranas, love poems & Indian folk-lore but not Persian. The Rajasthani School, akin to many others, was significantly influenced by the advent of Ramananda, Tulsidas, Kabir, Raidasa etc. This is how the subjects of the Rajput paintings included the Sri Ram Charit Manas, Geet-Govinda, the divine love of Radha and Krishna, ancient tales, lives of saints, Baramasa (monthly festivities of the year) and Ragamala (Rag-Raginis) and religious texts such as the Ramayana, Mahabharata, Bhagvat Purana, Krishna Lila and Devi Mahatmyam. On the other hand, although the various Rajasthani schools were clearly inspired by Mughal tradition, which in turn was partly influenced by Persian in its origin, as far as the subject matter (or themes) of Rajasthani paintings were concerned, they were all Hindu (largely Vaishnava) in nature. There was no Persian influence there. So, statement (1) is not correct.
Two major factors contributed significantly to the development of Rajasthani Paintings. First, the commercial community of Rajputana was economically prosperous. Second, the revival of Vaishnavism and the growth of the Bhakti cult provided a direction to the development of a distinct school. So, statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 20

Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of a State in India:
(1) It is one of the leading producers of coconuts in India.
(2) Cotton is grown both as Rabi crop and Kharif crop.
(3) The State is suffering from groundwater depletion due to excessive use of tube well and well irrigation. 
Which of the following State best describes the characteristics mentioned above?

Solution:

Tropical climate of Tamil Nadu allows the cultivation of cotton twice a year, first sowing before the onset of retreating monsoon and second in Jan-Feb in the regions having irrigation. As Tamil Nadu remains dry during Aug-Sep, so the picking period is free of rains. Tamil Nadu has more than 50 percentage of net irrigated area under wells, and tube-wells irrigation and groundwater depletion is the major issue in Kaveri river Basin. Apart from TN, Punjab, Haryana, Western UP, Maharashtra are also suffering from groundwater depletion. Coconut is predominantly a tropical crop. It requires warm (25° to 30°C) and relatively moist (125 to 130 cm) climate. It is mostly grown under rainfed condition in Kerala (26. 6%) and parts of coastal Tamil Nadu (20%), Karnataka (12%) and Andhra Pradesh. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 21

Consider the following statements with respect to Avian Botulism.
1. Botulinum is a natural toxin produced by a protozoa known as Clostridium botulin.
2. The microorganism causing Botulism is commonly found in the soil, river, and sea water.
3. Botulinum aff ects both humans and animals.
4. Avian Botulism multiplies and becomes the severest in aerobic and acidic conditions.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Statement 1: Botulinum is a natural toxin produced by a bacteria known as Clostridium botulin. It produces the toxin when it starts reproducing.
S2: The bacteria is commonly found in the soil, river, and sea water. There are around eight types —A, B, C1, C2, D, E, F, and G — of botulinum toxin and they are distinguishable when diagnosed. Butall types of toxins attack the neurons, which leads to muscle paralysis, states a study.
S3: Botulinum affects both humans and animals but the type of the toxin varies — botulinum C in birds and A, B and E in humans. The toxin has been recognised as a major cause of mortality in wild birds since the 1900s.The avian botulism that caused the mass die-off at Sambhar was caused by the climate, according to the IVRI report. Water levels were fluctuating throughout the year. Locals reported that due to a good monsoon this year, the water level reached the lake bed after a gap of 20 years.
S4: The good monsoon provided a favorable environment for the bacteria to spread. The bacteria needs anaerobic (absence of oxygen) conditions and does not grow in acidic conditions. The temperature of the water was about 25 degree Celsius. Its pH ranged between 7.4- 9.84.It also requires a nutrient-rich substrate, like areas with large amounts of decaying plant oranimal materials. The monsoon brought with it a large population of crustaceans (like shrimps, crabs, and prawns), invertebrates (snails) and plankton (like algae).These living organisms are capable of hosting the bacteria for a long period of time. According to reports, the bacteria is also found in the gills and digestive tracts of healthy fish. It reproduces through spores and these spores remain dormant for years. They are resistant to temperature changes and drying. Under favourable conditions, the spores are activated.
Learning: The IVRI report noted that after the monsoon, when the water levels receded, there might have been an increase in salinity levels which could have led to the death of these living organisms. At this point in time, the spores could have been activated. According to another theory, ‘a bird-to-bird cycle’ could also have led to the tragedy. In such an event, maggots feeding on dead birds can concentrate the toxin. Birds feeding on dead birds can get affected. This was observed in Sambhar too as researchers found only insectivorous and omnivorous birds affected and not herbivores. The IVRI report discounted external factors like water pollution and eutrophication (a body of water becoming overly enriched with minerals and nutrients, in turn inducing excessive growth of algae) as no farming was being carried out in the vicinity and the runoff from the same was not possible.

QUESTION: 22

The expression “office of profit” has been defined in

Solution:

The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. It is for the courts to explain the significance and meaning of this concept. Over the years, courts have decided this issue in the context of specific factual situations. But, articles 102 (1) and 191(1) which give effect to the concept of office of profit prescribe restrictions at the central and state level on lawmakers accepting government positions. The Supreme Court in Pradyut Bordoloi vs Swapan Roy (2001) outlined the four broad principles for determining whether an office attracts the constitutional disqualification.
1. First, whether the government exercises control over appointment, removal and performance of the functions of the office.
2. Second, whether the office has any remuneration attached to it.
3. Third, whether the body in which the office is held has government powers (releasing money, allotment of land, granting licenses etc.).
4. Fourth, whether the office enables the holder to influence by way of patronage.
Learning: If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”. A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature. Basic disqualification criteria for an MP are laid down in Article 102 of the Constitution, and for an MLA in Article 191. They can be disqualified for:
a) Holding an office of profit under government of India or state government;
b) Being of unsound mind;
c) Being an undischarged insolvent;
d) Not being an Indian citizen or for acquiring citizenship of another country.

QUESTION: 23

“Contract for the Web”, prepared by Sir Tim Berners-Lee, was recently in news. Consider the following about it.
1. It is a legal document, endorsed by the United Nations.
2. The goal of the contract is to create a standard policy for a Web that benefits all.
3. ‘Protecting people’s privacy and personal data to build online trust’ is a key principle of the document.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Sir Tim Berners-Lee, inventor of the World Wide Web, has announced a “Contract for the Web” — aimed at saving the future of his invention. What is the Contract for the Web? The idea is to create a global plan of action for all stakeholders to together commit to building a “better” Web. The goal is to create a standard policy for a Web that benefits all. The Contract consists of nine principles — three each for governments, private companies, and individuals and civil society to endorse. It has been created by representatives from over 80 organisations, including governments, companies, civil society activists, and academics. The ‘Contract for the Web’ is not a legal document, or a United Nations document — though the organisation is in talks with the UN. It cannot currently bend governments or companies — even those that are on board — to its will.
S2 and S3: Principles in the Contract: 1. Governments will “Ensure everyone can connect to the Internet”, “Keep all of the Internet available, all of the time”, and “Respect and protect people’s fundamental online privacy and data rights”. 2. Companies will “Make the Internet affordable and accessible to everyone”, “Respect and protect people’s privacy and personal data to build online trust”, and “Develop technologies that support the best in humanity and challenge the worst”.3. Citizens will “Be creators and collaborators on the Web”, “Build strong communities that respect civil discourse and human dignity”, and “Fight for the Web” so that it “remains open and a global public resource for people everywhere, now and in the future”.

QUESTION: 24

According to the Environment Protection Act, 1986, the central government can prohibit or restrict the location of industries for carrying on certain operations or processes on the basis of considerations like the
1. Biological diversity of an area
2. Maximum allowable limits of concentration of pollutants for an area
3. Environmentally compatible land use
4. Proximity to protected areas
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

The conditions mentioned above are used to carve out ESZs. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Eco-sensitive Zones”, however: The section 3(2)(v) of the Act, says that Central Government can restrict areas in which any industries, operations or processes shall not be carried out or shall be carried out subject to certain safeguards Besides the section 5 (1) of this act says that central government can prohibit or restrict the location of industries and carrying on certain operations or processes on the basis of considerations like the biological diversity of an area, maximum allowable limits of concentration of pollutants for an area, environmentally compatible land use, and proximity to protected areas. The above two clauses have been effectively used by the government to declare Eco-Sensitive Zones or Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFA). The same criteria have been used by the government to declare No Development Zones.

QUESTION: 25

The Economic Survey 2019-20 introduces the idea of “trust as a public good that gets enhanced with greater use”. Consider the following about it.
1. It conceptualizes trust as a public good with the characteristics of non-exclud ability and nonrival consumption .
2. It states that lack of trust represents an externality where decision makers are not responsible for some of the consequences of their actions.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Excerpts from the Survey: “Trust can be conceptualized as a public good with the characteristics of non-excludability i.e., the citizens can enjoy its benefits at no explicit financial cost. Trust also has the characteristics of non rival consumption i.e., the marginal cost of supplying this public good to an extra citizen is zero. It is also non-rejectable i.e., collective supply for all citizens means that it cannot be rejected. Unlike other public goods, trust grows with repeated use and therefore takes time to build. Lack of trust represents an externality where decision makers are not responsible for some of the consequences of their actions. Given the importance of trust in an economy, one might reasonably expect economic theory to address it, especially in the literature on transaction cost economics or incomplete contracts. However, this is not the case. Nobel laureate Oliver Williamson who specializes in transaction cost economics plainly states that there is no such thing as trust within economic activity: ‘It is redundant at best and can be misleading to use the term “trust” to describe commercial exchange for which cost-effective safeguards have been devised in support of more efficient exchange. Calculative trust is a contradiction in terms as per Williamson.

QUESTION: 26

Consider the following hills/ranges and their locations.
1. Servarayans: Eastern Ghats
2. Agasthyamalai Hills: Western Ghats
3. Anaimalai Hills: Garhjat Range
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
 

Solution:

Statement 1: The Servarayans form part of the southern ranges of the Eastern Ghats System. It also represents the highest peak in southern part of the Eastern Ghats, with the Solaikaradu peak.
Statement 2: Cardamom hills conjoin the Anaimalai Hills to the northwest, the Palni Hills to the northeast and the Agasthyamalai Hills to the south as far as the Aryankavu. The crest of the hills forms the boundary between Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Anamudi in Eravikulam National Park, is the highest peak in Western Ghats and also the highest point in India south of the Himalayas
Statement 3: They form a southern portion of the Western Ghats. Anamala / Anaimalai Hills are south of where the Western Ghats are broken by the Palakkad Gap, which in turn is south of the Nilgiri Hills. They border the state of Kerala on the Southwest and the Cardamom Hills to the southeast.

QUESTION: 27

Vertical equity in taxation implies

Solution:

Learning: Taxation is based on the idea of Fairness. Though fairness (i.e., the first criteria of a good tax system) is not always easy to define, economists suggested inclusion of two elements in the tax system to make it fair namely, horizontal equity and vertical equity. Individuals in identical or similar situations paying identical or similar taxes is known as horizontal equity. When ‘better off people pay more taxes it is known as vertical equity. When we combine both equities, we each closer to the Indian taxation system.Q.28 BAMP 2026 is the collective vision of the government of India and the automotive industry on where the various segments of the automotive industry and auto component industry need to be by 2026 in terms of size and contribution to the overall Indian economy. The AMP 2026 is aimed at bringing the Indian Automotive Industry among the top three of the world in engineering, manufacture and exports of vehicles & components; growing in value to over12% of India GDP and generating an additional 65 million jobs.
Learning: The objective of the Automotive Mission Plan 2026 includes:
1. To propel the Indian Automotive industry to become the engine of the “Make in India” programme.
2. To make the Indian Automotive Industry a significant contributor to the “Skill India” programme.
3. Promote safe, efficient and comfortable mobility for every person in the country, with an eye on environmental protection and affordability through both public and personal transport options.
4. To seek increase of net exports of the Indian Automotive industry several fold.
5. Promote comprehensive and stable policy dispensation for all regulations impacting the industry.

QUESTION: 28

The vision (targets) of the Automotive Mission Plan 2026 includes
1. Growing the sector in value to 5% of India’s GDP by 2026
2. Bringing the Indian Automotive Industry among the top three of the world in engineering, manufacture and exports of vehicles & components

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

AMP 2026 is the collective vision of the government of India and the automotive industry on where the various segments of the automotive industry and auto component industry need to be by 2026 in terms of size and contribution to the overall Indian economy.
The AMP 2026 is aimed at bringing the Indian Automotive Industry among the top three of the world in engineering, manufacture and exports of vehicles & components; growing in value to over 12% of India GDP and generating an additional 65 million jobs. 
Learning: The objective of the Automotive Mission Plan 2026 includes:
1. To propel the Indian Automotive industry to become the engine of the "Make in India" programme.
2. To make the Indian Automotive Industry a significant contributor to the "Skill India" programme.
3. Promote safe, efficient and comfortable mobility for every person in the country, with an eye on environmental protection and affordability through both public and personal transport options.
4. To seek increase of net exports of the Indian Automotive industry several fold.
5. Promote comprehensive and stable policy dispensation for all regulations impacting the industry.

QUESTION: 29

In Ancient Sanskrit sources, the usage of the words "Yona", "Yauna" or "Yonaka" appears repeatedly, and particularly in relation to the

Solution:

These terms appears repeatedly, and particularly in relation to the Greek kingdoms which neighboured or sometimes occupied the Punjab region over a period of several centuries from the 4th century BCE to the first century CE. Examples are the Seleucid Empire, the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom and the Indo-Greek Kingdom. The Yavanas are mentioned in detail in Sangam literature epics such as Pattinappalai, describing their brisk trade with the Early Cholas in the Sangam period.

QUESTION: 30

National Health Profile, 2019 highlights substantial health information under major indicators. These indicators include
1. Demographic indicators, such as population
2. Socio-economic indicators, such as education and employment
3. Health status indicators, such as incidence and prevalence of common communicable and noncommunicable diseases
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

National Health Profile, 2019 has been released by the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI). This is the 14th edition. What is NHP? Prepared by the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI), covers comprehensive Information on demographic, socio-economic health status, health finance indicators, health infrastructure and health of human resources in the country.
Objective: To create a versatile database of health information and making it available to all stakeholders in the healthcare sector. The NHP highlights substantial health information under major indicators:
1. Demographic indicators (population and vital statistics).
2. Socio-economic indicators (education, employment, housing and amenities, drinking water and sanitation).
3. Health status indicators (incidence and prevalence of common communicable and non-communicable diseases and RCH), etc.
4. The health finance indicators provide an overview of health insurance and expenditure on health, both public and Out of Pocket Expenditure (OOP), etc.
5. Human resources provides an overview of availability of manpower working in the health sector.
6. Health infrastructure section provides details of medical and dental colleges, AYUSH institutes, nursing courses and paramedical courses, etc.
Learning: Key findings:
• Life expectancy in India has increased from 49.7 years in 1970-75 to 68.7 years in 2012-16. Life expectancy for females is 70.2 years and 67.4 years for males.
• Diabetes and hypertension rate are high among Indians while dengue and chikungunya are a cause of great concern to public health.
• Highest population density of 11,320 people per square kilometre was reported by the National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT) whereas Arunachal Pradesh reported the lowest population density of 17.
• High incidence in the young and economically active population. There has been consistent decrease in the birth rate, death rate and natural growth rate in India since 1991 to 2017.

QUESTION: 31

The terms Toomba, Tarab and Tabli are associated with which type of musical instruments?

Solution:

• Toomba, Tarab and Tabli are different parts of a string instrument.

  • Toomba is the resonator of most stringed instruments. It is either made of wood or from a speciallygrown gourd.
  • Tabli is a plate of wood over the Toomba. The resonator is attached to the fingerboard-the Danda atthe top end of which are inserted the pegs-the Khoontis, for tuning the instrument.
  • Tarab - On the Tabli there is a bridge made of ivory or bone. The main strings pass over the bridge,some instruments also have a number of sympathetic strings below the main strings. They are calledthe Tarab. When these strings vibrate, they add resonance to the sound.

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 32

In the context of environment and ecology, the term 'Trophic Cascade' refers to?

Solution:

• A trophic cascade is an ecological phenomenon triggered by the addition or removal of top predators and involving reciprocal changes in the relative population of Predator and prey through a food chain which often results in drastic changes in ecosystem structure and nutrient cycling. Hence option (d) is correct.
• American zoologist Robert Paine coined the term trophic cascade in 1982 to describe the reciprocal changes in food webs caused by experimental manipulation of top predators.
• Dieback refers to the progressive death of a plant, usually from the tip of any portion of the plant. It is a condition in which a tree or shrub begins to die from the tip of its leaves or roots backward, owing to disease or an unfavorable environment. Hence option (b) is not correct.
• Edge effects refer to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary of two habitats. Hence option (a) is not correct.

QUESTION: 33

With reference to the 'Electronics Development Fund', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is set up as a 'Fund of Funds' to enable the creation of an ecosystem of innovation, research, and development.
2. It is managed by an autonomous body of the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• As part of the “Digital India” agenda of the Government, it is envisaged to develop the Electronics System Design and Manufacturing (ESDM) sector to achieve “Net Zero Imports” by 2020.
• Electronic Development Fund (EDF) was set up to enable creating a vibrant ecosystem of innovation, research and development.
• EDF was set up as a “Fund of Funds” to participate in professionally managed “Daughter Funds” which in turn will provide risk capital to companies developing new technologies in the area of electronics, nano-electronics and Information Technology (IT). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The EDF also helps attract venture funds, angel funds and seed funds towards R&D and innovation in the specified areas. It helps create a battery of Daughter funds and Fund Managers who will be seeking good start-ups (potential winners) and selecting them based on professional considerations.
• CANBANK Venture Capital Funds Ltd. is the Fund Manager for EDF. The role of the Fund Manager of EDF is to consider requests from applicant Venture Funds, Angel Funds and Seed Funds and make recommendations to the Department of Electronics and IT, Government of India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 34

With reference to the coral reefs , consider the following statements:
1. Barrier reefs grow parallel to the coastline but are separated by deep lagoons.
2. Fringing reefs are the most common type of reefs found in the oceans.
3. Atolls are rings of coral that usually form around the peninsular coasts of the continents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• The most common type of reef is the fringing reef. This type of reef grows seaward directly from the shore. They form borders along the shoreline and surrounding islands.
• When a fringing reef continues to grow upward from a volcanic island that has sunk entirely below sea level, an atoll is formed. Atolls are usually circular or oval in shape, with an open lagoon in the center.
• Barrier reefs are similar to fringing reefs in that they also border a shoreline; however, instead of growing directly out from the shore, they are separated from land by an expanse of water. This creates a lagoon of open, often deep water between the reef and the shore.
• Atolls are rings of coral that create protected lagoons and are usually located in the middle of the sea. They are a more or less circular or continuous barrier reef that extends all the way around a lagoon without a central island. They are usually formed from fringing reefs around volcanic islands. Over time, the island erodes away and sinks below sea level.

QUESTION: 35

Consider the following statements regarding the executive powers of Governor:
1. Governor acts as the Chancellor of Universities in the state.
2. He appoints the Chief Electoral Officer.
3. He can remove a member of the state public service commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• The Governor of the state possesses certain executive powers and functions like

  • S/he acts as the chancellor of universities in the state. S/he also appoints the vice-chancellors of universities in the state. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • S/He appoints Tribal Welfare minister in the states of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha. The state of Bihar was excluded from this provision by the 94th Amendment Act of 2006.
  • Under Article 317 of the Constitution, the President, in the case of the Union Commission or a Joint Commission, and the Governor in the case of a State Commission, may suspend (but cannot remove) from office the Chairman or any other member of the Commission in respect of whom a reference has been made to the Supreme Court until the President has passed orders on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court on such reference. The chairman and the members of a state public service commission can be removed only by the President. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• The Chief Electoral Officer assists the Election Commission at the state level. He is appointed by the Chief Election Commissioner in consultation with the state government. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 36

Which of the following commissions was / were set up to deal with famine issue in British India?
1. Campbell commission
2. Sadler commission
3. Stratchey commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• In 1866 a great famine struck many parts of India but its impact was felt most in Orissa. The government appointed George Campbell Commission to investigate the causes of famine and to recommend measures to prevent recurrences in future.
• The recommendations of Campbell Commission were not given much attention and consequently a serious famine reoccurred in many parts of country including Punjab, UP and Madras in 1876. Its maximum impact was felt in the Madras Presidency. The government appointed another commission under Stratchey in 1880.
• The Stratchey Commission recommended:

  • A famine code should be formulated.
  • Irrigation facilities should be developed.
  • Collection of land revenue should be suspended immediately during famines and land revenue shouldbe remitted.
  • Data should be collected about the conditions of Indian peasantry and agriculture.
  • A famine fund should be set up. In accordance with the recommendation of Strachey Commission afamine fund with amount Rs 1 crore was set up and famine code was also formulated in 1883.

• Sadler Commission (1917) was set up to study and report on problems of Calcutta University but its recommendations were applicable more or less to other universities also. It reviewed the entire field from school education to university education. It held the view that, for the improvement of university education, improvement of secondary education was a necessary precondition.

QUESTION: 37

Consider the following pairs of Industries in India and their category:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

• Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. They produce in small quantity and also employ a small labour force. These are generally not polluting industries. The important factor in their location is accessibility. Diamonds and computer chips are some examples of footloose industries. These industries can be located at a wide variety of places, as these are neither weight-losing nor raw-material-specific. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Sunrise industry is a colloquial term for a burgeoning sector or business in its infancy stage showing promise of a rapid boom. Sunrise industries are typically characterized by high growth rates, numerous start-ups, and an abundance of venture capital funding. At present Manufacturers of high-tech appliances compatible with the Internet of Things (IoT), 5G appliances, artificial intelligence related industries etc. are seen as a sunrise industry. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• White goods are large home appliances such as stoves, refrigerators, freezers, washing machines, tumble driers, dishwashers, and air conditioners. They are large electrical goods for the house which were traditionally available only in white. Even though you can purchase them today in a wide range of different colors, they continue being called white goods. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 38

What is White-fi communication technology?

Solution:

• White space, in a communications context, refers to underutilized portions of the radio frequency (RF) spectrum. The switchover to digital television left large portions of the spectrum unused, in particular the frequencies allocated for analog television and those used as buffers to prevent interference between channels.
• So White-Fi is the use of frequencies made available by the absence of analog-to-air TV signals to create Wi-Fi networks. The technology is specified in the IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) 802.11af standards. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• White space Wi-Fi will require new hardware but offers improvements in range, speed and penetration of obstacles that could lead to better quality service at a lower cost.
• White-Fi requires fewer network devices to cover an area. It is important for businesses that provide large Wi-Fi networks.

QUESTION: 39

Consider the following statements about Harappan City Planning:
1. Only very large towns of Harappa and Mohenjodaro had a citadel.
2. They had a well-connected street system.
3. The drainage systems were not unique to the larger cities but were found in smaller settlements as well.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The civilization of the Indus is known to the archaeologist as the Harappa Culture, from the modern name of the site of one of its two great cities, on the left bank of the Ravi, in Punjab. Mohenjo Daro, the second city, is on the right bank of the Indus, some 250 miles from its mouth.
  • The most interesting urban feature of Harappan civilization is its town-planning. It is marked by considerable uniformity, though one can notice some regional variations as well. The uniformity is noticed in the layout of the towns, streets, structures, brick size, drains, etc.
  • Almost all the major sites (Harappa, Mohenjodaro, Kalibangan, and others), are divided into two parts–acitadel (contains large structures which might have functioned as administrative or ritual centers) on the higher mound on the western side and a lower town on the eastern side of the settlement where residential buildings are built. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • While most Harappan settlements have a small high western part and a larger lower eastern section, there are variations. At sites such as Dholavira and Lothal (Gujarat), the entire settlement was fortified, and sections within the town were also separated by walls. The Citadel within Lothal was not walled off, but was built at a height.
  • Strict uniformity throughout the area of the Harappa culture in such features as weights and measures, the size of bricks, and even the layout of the great cities suggest rather a single centralized state than a number of free communities.
  • The streets intersect each other at right angles in a criss-cross pattern. It divides the city into several residential blocks. The main street is connected by narrow lanes. The doors of the houses opened in these lanes and not the main streets. Thus, it has a well-connected street system. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The houses of common people, however, differed in size from a single-room house in Harappa to bigger structures. The houses were largely built of burnt bricks. The bigger houses had many rooms surrounding a square courtyard. The courtyard was probably the centre of activities such as cooking and weaving, particularly during hot and dry weather. What is also interesting is an apparent concern for privacy: there are no windows in the walls along the ground level. Besides, the main entrance does not give a direct view of the interior of the courtyard. These houses were provided with private wells, kitchens and bathing platforms. The difference in the size of the houses suggests that the rich lived in the larger houses whereas the one-room buildings or barracks might have been intended for the poorer section of the society.
  • About drainage system: Every house was connected to the street drains. The main channels were made of bricks set in mortar and were covered with loose bricks that could be removed for cleaning. In some cases, limestone was used for the covers. House drains first emptied into a sump or cesspit into which solid matter settled while waste-water flowed out into the street drains. Very long drainage channels were provided at intervals with sumps for cleaning. Also, the drainage systems were not unique to the larger cities but were found in smaller settlements as well. At Lothal for example, while houses were built of mud bricks, drains were made of burnt bricks. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The bathrooms were provided with drains, which flowed to sewers under the main streets, leading to soak-pits. The sewers were covered throughout their length by large brick slabs. The drains ran parallel to the streets and were straight and intersecting. The unique sewerage system of the Indus people must have been maintained by some municipal organization and is one of the most impressive of their achievements. No other ancient civilization until that of the Romans had so efficient a system of drains.
QUESTION: 40

It is a form of drawing that is drawn by using rice flour and is a part of everyday life in southern states of India. It also features in the Sangam literature and has also been used in mathematical research, with its hexagons, dotted grids, hidden motifs and loops.
Which of the following art forms is best described by the above passage?

Solution:

• Kolam is a form of drawing that is drawn by using rice flour, chalk, chalk powder or rock powder, often using naturally or synthetically colored powders, in Sri Lanka, the Indian states of Tamil Nadu,Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and some parts of Goa, Maharashtra. Kolams are regionally known by different names in India, Raangolee in Maharashtra, Aripan in Mithila, Hase and Raongoli in Kannada in Karnataka, Muggulu in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. More complex Kolams are drawn and colors are often added during holiday occasions and special events. The mathematical properties of Kolam are being used in the computer science field. Kolam patterns are studied and algorithms are developed for regenerating kolam designs with different patterns has been done.
• Mithila painting in northern Bihar’s Mithila region: The themes in Mithila painting (also known as Madhubani Painting) ranges from Hindu deities like Krishna, Rama, Lakshmi, etc to the natural and secular themes like the Sun, the Moon; paintings based on scenes from the royal courts and social events, like weddings. The painting was traditionally done by womenfolk on freshly plastered mud walls and floors of huts, but now they are also done on cloth, handmade paper, and canvas. If any empty space is left after painting the main theme, it is filled up with the motifs of flowers, animals and birds or geometric designs.
• Lippan art is a clay art form from the state of Gujarat, India. It is mostly done by the village ladies from Kutch to decorate their homes. Traditionally lippan is made by adding mud and cow dung and done on the walls.
• Warli paintings in Maharashtra: Warli tribals decorate their house walls with paintings depicting their lives: planting saplings, carrying grain, dancing, traveling to market and other routine activities of their daily lives. They do not depict mythological characters or images of deities. The unique feature of these paintings is that mainly white color is used to paint. This color is prepared by mixing rice paste and water with the addition of gum for adhesiveness. The background is prepared by using mud and cow dung (if done on the walls of the hut). The figures reflect the naturalism.

QUESTION: 41

Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding the Estimates Committee?
1. The estimates committee examines the reports and accounts of public undertakings.
2. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this Committee.
3. The CAG acts as a guide and philosopher of this committee.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Statement 2 is correct: All the thirty members of the Estimates Committee are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. The term of office is one year. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
• The functions of the committee include-
1. To report what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency and administrative reform consistent with the policy underlying the estimates, can be affected.
2. To suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
3. To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
4. To suggest the forth in which the estimates are to be presented to Parliament.
• Statement 1 and 3 are not correct: The Committee shall not exercise its functions in relation to such public undertakings as are allotted to the Committee on Public Undertakings. It is the Committee on Public Undertakings which examines the reports and accounts of public undertakings. The CAG acts as a guide, philosopher and friend of the Committee on Public Undertakings.

QUESTION: 42

With reference to the various properties of light and the phenomena and applications based on such properties, consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Solution:

• When two light waves from different coherent sources meet together, then the distribution of energy due to one wave is disturbed by the other. This modification in the distribution of light energy due to the superposition of two light waves is called 'Interference of light'. The interference of light is a special phenomenon reflecting the wave nature of light.
• When two light waves come close to one another, their effects add together. If the crests, or highest parts of the waves, line up perfectly, then the crest of the combined wave will be the sum of the heights of the two original crests. It is called constructive interference. However, if two waves are not perfectly aligned, then when the crest of one wave comes along, it will be dragged down by the trough of the other wave. The resulting, combined wave will have crests that are shorter than the crests of either original wave, and troughs that are shallower than either of the incoming waves. This is known as destructive interference.
• Most of us observe some type of optical interference almost every day.

  • One of the best examples of interference is demonstrated by the light reflected from a film of oil floating on water. Another example is the thin film of a soap bubble, which reflects a spectrum of beautiful colors when illuminated by natural or artificial light sources. The dynamic interplay of colors often observed on soap bubbles derives from the simultaneous reflection of light from both the inside and outside surfaces of the bubble. The two surfaces are very close together (separated by only a few micrometers) and light reflected from the inner surface interferes both constructively and destructively with light reflected from the outer surface. The effect is observed because light reflected from the inner surface of the bubble must travel farther than light reflected from the outer surface, and variations in the soap film thickness produce corresponding differences in the distances light waves must travel to reach our eyes.
  • A hologram is a physical recording of an interference pattern that uses diffraction to reproduce a three-dimensional light field, resulting in an image that retains the depth, parallax, and other properties of the original scene. Holography is the science and practice of making holograms. Holography is based on the principle of interference. A hologram captures the interference pattern between two or more beams of coherent light (i.e. laser light). One beam is shone directly on the recording medium and acts as a reference to the light scattered from the illuminated scene. The hologram captures light as it interests the whole area of the film, hence being described as a ‘window with memory’. By contrast, a photograph captures a single small area ‘aperture’ of perspective, the photographic image is created by focusing this light onto film or a digital sensor.

• Upon passage through the prism, the white light is separated into its component colors - red, orange, yellow, green, blue and violet. The separation of visible light into its different colors is known as dispersion. Interference is not involved in this phenomenon.
• Mirage is a type of optical illusion. The following example illustrates it. A traveler has lost his way in the desert. Enduring thirst and hunger, he suddenly saw an oasis, so the overjoyed man quickly ran towards it. To his great disappointment, it was just an illusion produced by a mirage. Such an episode was often pictured in movies, yet the optical magic that the nature plays with us - mirage - really exists in reality. Its formation is a result of the refraction and the total internal reflection of light in the air.
• Hence all the pairs are correctly matched.

QUESTION: 43

Which of the following officials are appointed by the President by a 'warrant under his hand and seal'?
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
2. Chief Information Officer
3. Judges of the Supreme Court
4. Central Vigilance Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code below:

Solution:

A warrant under his hand and seal means the appointment letter bears the signature of the President himself/herself and this function is not delegated to any other authority.
• The Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the Judges of the Supreme Court and the Attorney General of India and the Central Vigilance Commissioner of India are appointed by the President by a warrant under his hand and seal, whereas the appointment of other officers can be delegated by the President to other authorities.
• The Central Information Commissioner is appointed by the President and falls under the Ministry of Personnel, but his/her appointment letter will bear the signature of the Minister of that particular Ministry. Hence only option 2 is not correct.
• Other officers appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal are:

  • State Governors.
  • Judges of the state high courts.
  • All members of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
  • All members of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
QUESTION: 44

In the context of global cyber security, Agent Smith, recently in the news, refers to

Solution:

• Agent Smith is a mobile malware which has infected approximately 25 million smartphones across the world out of which 15 million devices are estimated to be from India. It accesses the smartphone's resources to show fraudulent ads for financial gains, however, it could be easily used for much more intrusive and harmful purposes like theft of banking credentials and secretly listening to conversations.T he malware which is disguised as a Google-related application exploits the known vulnerabilities of Android and replaces apps installed with their malicious versions without the knowledge of the user. This activity resembles some previous malware campaigns such as Gooligan, Hummingbird, and CopyCat. There has also been a noticeable number of infected smartphones in the UK, Australia, and the US.
• Malware is the shortened form of malicious software. Malware is an umbrella term used to refer to a variety of forms of hostile or intrusive software including Ransom wares, Computer Viruses, Worms, Trojan Horses, Spyware, Adware, Scareware etc. This is any program or file that is harmful to a computer user. Malware can be deployed even remotely, and tracking the source of malware is hard. It can take the form of executable code, scripts, active content, and other software malicious programs can perform a variety of functions, including stealing, encrypting or deleting sensitive data, altering or hijacking core computing functions and monitoring users’ computer activity without their permission.
• Adware: The least dangerous and most lucrative Malware. Adware displays ads on your computer.
• Spyware: Spyware is software that spies on you, tracking your internet activities in order to send advertising (Adware) back to your system.
• Virus: A virus is a contagious program or code that attaches itself to another piece of software, and then reproduces itself when that software is run. Most often this is spread by sharing software or files between computers.
• Spam: Spamming is a method of flooding the Internet with copies of the same message. Worm: A program that replicates itself and destroys data and files on the computer. Worms work to “eat” the system operating files and data files until the drive is empty.
• Trojan: A Trojan horse or Trojan is a type of malware that is often disguised as legitimate software .Trojans are written with the purpose of discovering your financial information, taking over your computer’s system resources, and in larger systems creating a “denial-of-service attack” which is making a machine or network resource unavailable to those attempting to reach it.
• Backdoors: Backdoors are much the same as Trojans or worms, except that they open a “backdoor” on a computer, providing a network connection for hackers or other Malware to enter or for viruses or SPAM to be sent. Rootkit: This one is likened to the burglar hiding in the attic, waiting to take from you while you are not home. It is the hardest of all Malware to detect and therefore to remove;
• Keyloggers: Records everything you type on your PC in order to glean your log-in names, passwords, and other sensitive information, and send it on to the source of the key logging program.
• Rogue security software: This one deceives or misleads users.
• Ransomware: If you see this screen that warns you that you have been locked out of your computer until you pay for your cybercrimes. Your system is severely infected with a form of Malware called Ransomware. Even if you pay to unlock the system, the system is unlocked, but you are not free of itlocking you out again.

QUESTION: 45

In the context of the economy, what do you understand by Shadow banking?

Solution:

• The term 'Shadow Banking' refers to the practice of banking like activities performed by non-bankingf inance companies, which are not subject to strict regulation. However, these institutions function as intermediaries between the investors and the borrowers, typically providing credit to riskier businesses and individuals and generating liquidity in the system.
• Although these entities do not accept traditional demand deposits offered by banks, they do provide services similar to what commercial banks offer.
• The 2008 financial crisis has shown that shadow banking can be a source of systemic risk to the banking system. The risks can be transmitted directly and through the interconnectedness of partially-regulated entities with the banking system. The liquidity crisis of Infrastructure Leasing & Financial Services (IL&FS) is one such example.
• Basel III norms require central banks to tighten supervision on shadow banks across the globe through steps such as defining minimum capital. Accordingly RBI has been increasing surveillance on shadow banking.
• The Usha Thorat committee (2011) proposed regulations on NBFCs, such as increasing tier I capital and risk weight on certain assets.

QUESTION: 46

In the context of empowerment of the backward castes during British India, which of the event happened earliest?

Solution:

• Harijan Sevak Sangh (HSS) - 1932

  • It is an all India Non-Governmental Organization founded by Mahatma Gandhi on September 30,1932, following a large public meeting held in Bombay under the Presidentship of Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya. The meeting was prompted by the epic fast of Gandhiji in Yervada Jail near Poona in protest against the nefarious design of Communal Award, which threatened to separate the so called untouchables from the mainstream of Hindu Society. It was meant to lend a conducive environment for the upliftment of the oppressed classes or 'Harijans'. Since its inception, the Sangh has been tirelessly working for the achievement of its laudable aims by executing different development projects through its Branches all over India

• Adoption of anti-Untouchability resolution by Indian National Congress for the first time – 1917

  • Indian National Congress (INC) adopted for the first time, an anti-untouchability resolution in Calcutta on December 26-29, 1917. The resolution asked people to abolish such avails, which caused humiliation to the Untouchables.

• Formation of Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana (SNDP) Yogam - 1903

  • Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana (SNDP) Yogam was registered on 15th May 1903 under Travancore Regulation 1 of 1063 (Indian Company Act IV 1882). Sree Narayana Guru was the Patron and lifetime President of the Yogam.
  • The main aim of the SNDP Yogam is to establish Temple, Sanyasi Mutts, Educational Institutions, etc. to promote the development of Ezhava and Thiyaas of Kerala culturally, spiritually and educationally. In addition, it also aims at the propagation of the preaching of Sree Narayana Guru.
  • Hence, the option (c) is the correct answer.• Mahad Satyagraha led by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar – 1927
  • It was a satyagraha led by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar on 20 March 1927 to allow untouchables to use water in a public tank in Mahad, Maharashtra, India. The day (20 March) is observed as Social Empowerment day in India.
QUESTION: 47

Consider the following statements regarding Cost-Push Inflation:
1. It is inflation triggered by supply-side constraints.
2. It can only occur when demand is relatively elastic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• Cost-push inflation occurs when overall prices increase due to increases in the cost of production. Higher costs of production can decrease the aggregate supply (total production) in the economy. If the demand remains unchanged, the prices of commodities increase causing a rise in the overall price level which then is passed on to consumers creating cost-push inflation.
• On the other hand, Demand-pull inflation exists when aggregate demand for a good or service outstrips aggregate supply. It is the most common cause of inflation.
• Apart from the rise in prices of inputs, there could be other factors leading to supply-side inflation such as natural disasters or depletion of natural resources, monopoly, government regulation or taxation, change in exchange rates, etc. This is inflation triggered due to supply-side constraints. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
For cost-push inflation to take place, demand for the affected product must remain constant during the time the production cost changes are occurring. Cost-push inflation can only occur when demand is relatively inelastic. Inelastic demand is when people still buy the goods or services even if the price goes up i.e. demand remains constant even if price increases.• When demand is elastic, people won't pay for the higher prices. They simply buy fewer goods or they will either switch to a slightly different product. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 48

Hyperspectral imaging is an imaging technique in which electrom agnetic radiations of different frequencies can be captured. Which of the following is/are well known applications of hyperspectral imaging?
1. Identification of tree species within a forest
2. Mineral exploration
3. Detection of bats by converting very high- frequency signals into low frequency signals
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Multispectral imagery is produced by sensors that measure reflected energy within several specific sections (also called bands) of the electromagnetic spectrum. Multispectral sensors usually have between 3 and 10 different band measurements in each pixel of the images they produce. Examples of bands in these sensors typically include visible green, visible red, near-infrared, etc. Landsat, Quickbird, and Spot satellites are well-known satellite sensors that use multispectral sensors.
• Hyperspectral sensors measure energy in narrower and more numerous bands than multispectral sensors. Hyperspectral images can contain as many as 200 (or more), contiguous spectral bands. The numerous narrow bands of hyperspectral sensors provide a continuous spectral measurement across the entire electromagnetic spectrum and therefore are more sensitive to subtle variations in reflected energy. Images produced from hyperspectral sensors contain much more data than images from multispectral sensors and have a greater potential to detect differences among land and water features.
• Hyperspectral imaging has been widely used in mineral exploration and mapping, vegetation classification (identification of trees in forests) and environment analysis, etc. Hence options 1 and 2 are correct.
• Bat detectors use sound frequency converters to convert the ultrasound frequencies into audible frequencies. They do not use hyperspectral imaging. Hence option 3 is not correct.

QUESTION: 49

With reference to space debris, generally used to describe the collection of unwanted objects in the earth‟s orbit, which of the following statements is /are not correct?
1. There is no binding global convention regarding space debris mitigation in place.
2. Remove Debris mission is the first Indian attempt to clean up space debris commissioned by ISRO.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Answer(B)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct

There is no binding global convention regarding space debris mitigation in place.

 

Statement 2 is incorrect

ClearSpace-1 will be the first space mission to remove an item of debris from orbit, planned for launch in 2025. The mission is being procured as a service contract with a startup-led commercial consortium, to help establish a new market for in-orbit servicing, as well as debris removal.

QUESTION: 50

Which of the following pairs is /are correctly matched?
Places in News Country
1. Hanau : China
2. Balkh : Afghanistan
3. Ras al-ain : Iran
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Hanau is a town in the Main-Kinzig-Kreis, in Hesse, Germany. It is located 25 km east of Frankfurt am Main and is part of the Frankfurt Rhine-Main Metropolitan Region. Its station is a major railway junction and it has a port on the river Main, making it an important transport centre. Recently, the Hanau shootings occurred on 19 February 2020, when nine people were killed and five others wounded in a terrorist shooting spree.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: Balkh is a town in the Balkh Province of Afghanistan, about 20 km northwest of the provincial capital, Mazar-e Sharif, and south of the Amu Darya river and the Uzbekistan border. It is frequently seen in news in the context of Taliban. The ancient city of Balkh was known to the Ancient Greeks as Bactra, giving its name to Bactria.
• Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Ras al-Ayn, also spelled Ras al-Ain, is a city in al-Hasakah Governorate in northeastern Syria, on the border with Turkey. Recently, Kurdish fighters belonging to the Syrian Democratic Forces (SDF) have withdrawn from the besieged Syrian border town of Ras al-Ain in the first pullback under a ceasefire deal with Turkey brokered by the United States.

QUESTION: 51

The Representation of the People Act, 1950 contains provisions related to:
(1) Allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and the Legislatures of the States
(2) Preparation of the electoral rolls for elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures
(3) Local Authorities for elections to the State Legislative Councils
(4) Qualifications and disqualifications for the membership of the State Legislatures
Which of the provisions given above are correct?

Solution:

The Representation of the People Act 1950 (RPA 1950) provides for the following:
• Qualification of voters.
• Preparation of electoral rolls for the Parliamentary, Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council constituencies.
• Delimitation of constituencies.
• Allocation of seats in the Parliament and the State Legislatures.
Local authorities for purpose of elections to the State Legislative Councils (Schedule 4). So, statements (1), (2) and (3) are correct. Provisions with respect to qualification and disqualification are mentioned in the Representation of People’s Act 1951. The Act is of special significance to the smooth functioning of Indian democracy, as it checks the entry of persons with criminal background into the representative bodies. So, statement (4) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 52

Consider the following statements regarding the Poverty Line in India:
(1) It is a purely calorie consumption-based poverty estimation.
(2) It is higher for a person living in the rural areas vis-a-vis the urban areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The conventional approach to measuring poverty is to specify a minimum expenditure (or income) required to purchase a basket of goods and services necessary to satisfy basic human needs. This minimum expenditure is called the poverty line. The basket of products and services essential to meet basic human needs is the poverty line basket or PLB. The proportion of the population below the poverty line is called the poverty ratio or headcount ratio (HCR). The Tendulkar poverty line remains the official poverty line and is the basis of the current official poverty estimates in 1993-94, 2004-05 and 2011-12. It based its poverty calculations on the consumption of the following items: cereal, pulses, milk, edible oil, non-vegetarian items, vegetables, fresh fruits, dry fruits, sugar, salt & spices, other food, intoxicants, fuel, clothing, footwear, education, medical (non-institutional and institutional), entertainment, personal & toilet goods, other goods, other services and durables. Thus, it includes other parameters apart from calorie based consumption. So, statement (1) is not correct. For the year 2011–12, the poverty line for a person was fixed at Rs 816 per month for rural areas and Rs 1000 for urban areas. Despite less calorie requirement, the higher amount for urban areas has been set because of the high prices of many essential products in urban centres. In this way, in the year 2011-12, a family of five members living in rural areas and earning less than about Rs 4,080 per month will be below the poverty line. A similar family in the urban areas would need a minimum of Rs 5,000 per month to meet their basic requirements. So, statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 53

The Portfolio Decarbonization Coalition (PDC), sometimes in the news, is related to which of the following? 

Solution:

The Portfolio Decarbonization Coalition (PDC) is a multi-stakeholder initiative, launched in September 2014 at the New York Summit by UNEP. It will drive GHG emissions reductions on the ground by mobilizing a critical mass of institutional investors committed to gradually decarbonizing their portfolios. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following countries are involved in the South China Sea dispute?
(1) China
(2) Vietnam
(3) Malaysia
(4) Indonesia 
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

China laid claim to the South China Sea (SCS) back in 1947. It demarcated its claims with a U-shaped line made up of eleven dashes on a map, covering most of the area. Later, the Communist Party, which took over in 1949, removed the Gulf of Tonkin portion in 1953, by erasing two of the dashes from the original eleven dashes to make it a nine-dash line. The ‘nine-dash line’ stretches hundreds of kilometres south and east of its southerly Hainan Island, covering the strategic Paracel and Spratly islands. China asserts its claims over the Paracel and Spratly island groups by citing 2,000 years of history when these two island chains were regarded as its integral parts. This historical claim by China has been rejected by Vietnam- instead; Vietnam justifies its own claims, on the basis of written records, which, in its view, establishes its administration over the area since the 17th century. The dispute around the South China Sea primarily engages the following countries directly- China, Vietnam, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, and Taiwan. The extra-regional countries who are also affected by the dispute, and who have legitimate interests in the region, include the United States, Japan, India, and Australia. So, Statements (1), (2) and (3) are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 55

Consider the following statements in the context of the Scientific Social Responsibility (SSR) Policy:
(1) India is the first country to draft a Scientific Social Responsibility (SSR) Policy.
(2) It’s a tripartite agreement of Students, Scientists and Farmers to enhance the application of science in agriculture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

India is going to be possibly the first country in the world to implement a Scientific Social Responsibility (SSR) Policy on the lines of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) to encourage science and technology (S&T) institutions and individual scientists in the country to proactively engage in science outreach activities to connect science with the society. The Department of Science and Technology (DST) has released a draft of its proposed Scientific Social Responsibility (SSR) policy. So, statement (1) is correct.
The policy aims to harness the latent potential of the scientific community for strengthening linkages between science and society, and for making the S & T ecosystem vibrant. It is aimed at developing a mechanism for ensuring access to scientific knowledge, transferring benefits of science to meet societal needs, promoting collaborations to identify problems and develop solutions. It strengthens science and society linkages to make S&T ecosystem vibrant through facilitating inclusive and sustainable development by transferring the benefits of scientific work to meet existing and emerging societal needs along with infusing scientific temperament into day-today social existence and interaction. So, statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 56

Consider the following statements regarding the Coastal plains of India:
(1) The Eastern coast of India does not provide many sites for a natural harbour.
(2) The Western coastal plains are characterized by shallow lagoons, inlets of sea and salt marshes.
(3) The Indian Peninsula divides the entire coastline into west and east with Rameswaram as the dividing point.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

The Indian Peninsula divides the entire coastline into west and east with Kanyakumari as the dividing point. So, statement (3) is not correct.
It is marked by deltas of rivers like the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauvery and marked by the absence of estuaries; such emergent nature of coast is less favourable for a natural harbour. So, the statement (1) is correct.
The West Coast in the northern part (Konkan, Karnataka coast) is dotted with a large number of coves, creeks (a narrow, sheltered waterway such as an inlet in a shoreline or channel in a marsh) and a few estuaries. The Kerala coast (Malabar Coast) has some lakes, lagoons and backwaters, the largest being the Vembanad Lake. Salt marshes can be seen along the Gujarat coast. So, statement (2) is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 57

Which of the following decides the scope of the functions to be performed by the Gram Sabhas in a State?

Solution:

The Constitution, under the Article 243A mentions that Gram Sabhas exercise such powers and performs such functions at the village level in a State as the Legislature of the State concerned may, by law, provide. For instance, they approve of the plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development before such plans, programmes and projects are taken up for implementation by the Panchayat at the village level (Panchayat at the village level is otherwise known as Gram Panchayat). Therefore, the correct answer is (c)

QUESTION: 58

Consider the following statements with reference to the Revolt of 1857:
(1) Apart from the colonial administration, the money lenders, as well as the rich, became the objects of attacks by the rebels.
(2) Bahadur Shah agreed to be the nominal leader of the Rebellion out of compulsion and not of his own will.
(3) The Rani of Jhansi was compelled by popular pressure to assume the leadership of the uprising. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

When ordinary people began joining the Revolt, the targets of attack widened. In major towns like Lucknow, Kanpur and Bareilly, moneylenders and the rich also became the objects of rebel wrath. Peasants not only saw them as oppressors but also as allies of the British. In most places, their houses were looted and destroyed. The mutiny in the sepoy ranks quickly became a Rebellion. So statement (1) is correct.
One of the first acts of the sepoys of Meerut, as we saw, was to rush to Delhi and appeal to the old Mughal emperor to accept the leadership of the Revolt. This acceptance of leadership took its time in coming. Bahadur Shah’s first reaction was one of horror and rejection. It was only when some sepoys had moved into the Mughal court within the Red Fort, in defiance of standard court etiquette, that the old emperor, realising he had very few options, agreed to be the nominal leader of the Rebellion. So statement (2) is correct.
Not all leaders of the 1857 Revolt led the various local uprisings from day one. Instead, there was a popular groundswell that forced many of them to accept the leadership. In Kanpur, the sepoys and the people of the town gave Nana Sahib, the successor to Peshwa Baji Rao II, no choice save to join the revolt as their leader. In Jhansi, the rani was forced by popular pressure around her to assume the leadership of the uprising. So was Kunwar Singh, a local zamindar in Arrah in Bihar. So statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 59

With reference to Jainism, the Nirgranthas are 

Solution:

At the age of thirty, when Mahavira’s parents were dead, he left his home for a life of asceticism. At first, he followed the practices of an ascetic group called the Nirgranthas, which had been founded some 200 years earlier by a certain Parsva. Etymologically ‘Nir‘ means ‘without’, ‘Granth‘ means ‘knot, ties, attachment’. The term Nirgrantha was later used for the members of the order which Mahavira founded, and Parshva was remembered as the twenty-third of the twenty-four great teachers of Tirthankaras of the Jaina faith. The word Tirthankara means ford-maker. So, the option (a) is not correct, and option (d) is correct. In the thirteenth year of his asceticism, Vardhamana found full enlightenment and Nirvana; he became a “Worthy/Conqueror/Victor“ (Arihant). So, the options (b) and (c), both are not correct.

QUESTION: 60

Consider the following rivers of India:
(1) Sind
(2) Son
(3) Ken
(4) Betwa
(5) Banas 
Which of the rivers given above are the tributaries of Yamuna?

Solution:

Recently, the Supreme Court-appointed Committee questioned the basis on which wildlife clearance was granted to the Ken-Betwa river linking project. Ken- Betwa river linking project is India’s first inter-state river interlinking project between Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. The project, proposed across Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, envisages a transfer of surplus water from river Ken’s basin to river Betwa’s basin to provide water in areas in the upper Betwa basin that are facing water shortage. Both the rivers are tributaries of Yamuna river. Gambhir, Chambal, Sind, Betwa and Ken join the Yamuna as right bank tributaries between Agra and Allahabad. The Son is the right bank tributary of Ganga River. The Son River rises in the Amarkantak Plateau. It joins the river Ganga near Danapur in the Patna district of Bihar. Banas river originates in Khamnor hill of the Aravalli range in the state of Rajasthan and flows entirely in Rajasthan before joining river Chambal as its left bank tributary. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 61

Which of the following statements correctly describe the writ of Mandamus?

Solution:

Option (a) talks about Certiorari. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the lower court to itself or to squash the order of the lower court in a case. It is issued on the grounds of the excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law.
• Option (b) talks about Prohibition. The writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. It can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
• Option (c) talks about Quo warranto. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of a claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office.
• Option (d) talks about Mandamus. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform the official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 62

With reference to ‘WAYU’ (Wind Augmentation Purifying Unit) consider the following statements:
(1) The device can filter out particulate matter and certain poisonous gases as well.
(2) It was developed by the Council of Scientific Research (CSIR) and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The device can purify the air in an area of 500m2. The device works on two principles, mainly wind generation for dilution of air pollutants and active pollutants removal. The device has filters for particulate matter removal and activated carbon (charcoal) and UV lamps for poisonous gases removal such as VOCs and carbon monoxide. So, the statement (1) is correct.
WAYU (Wind Augmentation Purifying Unit) is developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR-NEERI) as a part of Technology Development Project being funded by the Department of Science and Technology. So, statement (2) is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 63

Consider the following statements regarding the Theory of Comparative Advantage:
(1) It promotes specialisation in the sphere of international trade.
(2) It explains why protectionism has been traditionally unsuccessful.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution:

The law of comparative advantage is popularly attributed to English political economist David Ricardo. David Ricardo famously showed how England and Portugal both benefit by specializing and trading according to their comparative advantages. In this case, Portugal was able to make wine at a low cost, while England was able to manufacture cloth cheaply. Ricardo predicted that each country would eventually recognize these facts and stop attempting to make the product that was more costly to generate. Indeed, as time went on, England stopped producing wine, and Portugal stopped manufacturing cloth. Both countries saw that it was to their advantage to stop their efforts at producing these items at home and, instead, to trade with each other. So, statement (1) is correct.
The theory of comparative advantage helps to explain why protectionism has been traditionally unsuccessful. If a country removes itself from an international trade agreement, or if a government imposes tariffs, it may produce an immediate local benefit in the form of new jobs and industry. However, this is often not a long-term solution to a trade problem. Eventually, that country will grow to be at a disadvantage relative to its neighbours: countries that were already better able to produce these items at a lower opportunity cost. So, statement (2) is correct.
Therefore, the answer is (d).

QUESTION: 64

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Asia–Europe Meeting (ASEM)? 

Solution:

The Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM) is an intergovernmental process established in 1996 to foster dialogue and cooperation between Asia and Europe. So, Option (a) is correct.
Presently it comprises 53 Partners: 30 European and 21 Asian countries, the European Union and the ASEAN Secretariat. ASEM addresses political, economic, financial, social, cultural, and educational issues of common interest in a spirit of mutual respect and equal partnership. So, option (d) is correct. The initial ASEM Partnership in 1996 consisted of 15 EU Member States and 7 ASEAN Member States plus China, Japan, Korea and the European Commission. The ASEM Summit is a biennial meeting between the Heads of State and Government, the President of the European Council, the President of the European Commission, and the Secretary- General of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). As an informal process of dialogue and cooperation, based on equal partnership and enhancing mutual understanding. So option (b) is correct.
Key characteristics of the ASEM Process include:InformalityMulti-dimensionality: It covers the full spectrum of relations between the two regions and devotes equal weight to political, economic and socio-cultural dimensions. So, Option (c) is not correct.• Emphasis on equal partnership • The dual focus on high-level and people-to-people Therefore, the answer is (c).

QUESTION: 65

Which of the following statements, regarding 'Excipients', sometimes in the news, is correct? 

Solution:

The Indian pharmaceutical industry has been heavily dependent on imported APIs. Almost all drugs are made up of two core components: the APIs i.e, activated pharmaceutical ingredients, which are the central ingredients providing the therapeutic effect; and the excipients, substances other than the drug that helps deliver the medication. Excipients are chemically inactive substances, while APIs are the active ingredients. So, statement (a) is not correct, and statement (b) is correct. There is no such term for patients receiving drugs in the past. So, statement (c) is not correct. Sometimes, two or more drugs are combined in a fixed ratio into a single dosage form, which is termed as fixed-dose combinations (FDCs). So, statement (d) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 66

Consider the following statements regarding the tribal population in India:
(1) Madhya Pradesh has the highest population of Scheduled Tribes (ST) among all States and Union Territories in India.
(2) The Government of India has listed 75 tribes as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
(3) The highest numbers of PVTGs are found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

Madhya Pradesh has the most significant tribal population. It has more than 1.6 crore Schedule Tribe population who are 21% of the State's population according to the 2011 census. It is followed by Maharashtra 1.05 crore, Odisha 0.95 crore. So, statement (1) is correct. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is implementing the scheme of “Development of PVTGs” which covers these 75 PVTGs for development of social infrastructure like education, housing, roads etc. So, statement (2) is correct. Among the 75 listed Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India, the highest numbers are found in the State of Odisha. So, statement (3) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 67

Consider the following statements with reference to the Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and Overseas Citizen of India (OCIs):
(1) While an NRI can acquire agricultural or plantation properties, an OCI cannot do the same.
(2) An NRI has a preference over an OCI on inter-country adoption of Indian children.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The advantages that OCIs have over NRIs are:
• They can enter India multiple times, get a lifelong multipurpose visa to visit India, and are exempt from registering with Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO).
• If an individual is registered as an OCI for five years, he/she is eligible to apply for Indian citizenship.
• At all Indian international airports, OCI cardholders are provided with special immigration counters.
• OCI cardholders can open special bank accounts in India, buy the non-farm property and exercise ownership rights and can also apply for a Permanent Account Number (PAN) card.
•  The holder also doesn’t require a student or employment visa to acquire employment or academic opportunities in India. OCI’s are treated on par with NRI’s when it comes to
• All facilities in economic, financial and educational fields
• With respect to the admission of children in educational institutions under general category quota, matters of inter-country adoption of Indian children. Hence, statement (2) is not correct.
But some limitations exist on OCI holders:
• OCI cardholders do not get voting rights, cannot hold a government job and purchase agricultural, plantation properties or farmland. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
• They cannot travel to restricted areas without government permission.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following causes led to the Deccan Riots?
(1) Crash in cotton prices due to the beginning of the American Civil War.
(2) Colonial government’s decision to raise the land revenue by 50%.
(3) The growing tension between the moneylenders and the peasants
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

The ryots of the Deccan region of western India suffered heavy taxation under the Ryotwari system. Here again, the peasants found themselves trapped in a vicious network with the moneylender as the exploiter and the main beneficiary. The conditions had worsened due to a crash in cotton prices after the end of the American Civil War in 1864 because the cotton supply from the Southern states in the US had resumed in the international market. So statement (1) is not correct.
The Government’s decision to raise the land revenue by 50% in 1867 and a succession of bad harvests was one of the chief reasons for the riots. So statement (2) is correct.
n 1874, the growing tension between the moneylenders and the peasants resulted in a social boycott movement organised by the ryots against the “outsider” moneylenders. Soon the social boycott was transformed into agrarian riots with systematic attacks on the moneylenders’ houses and shops. The debt bonds and deeds were seized and publicly burnt. So statement (3) is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 69

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhakti Movement:
(1) Ramanuja accepted special privileges for the higher castes.
(2) Ramanuj a pleaded for opening the gates of the temples to all Shudras .
(3) Madhava was a Vaishnavite saint.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The wave of Bhakti movement started from south India, by Alvaras - the devotees of Lord Vishnu and Nayanars-devotees of Shiva. They travelled to various places singing hymns in Tamil in praise of their gods. Later, many temples were built that became the sacred places for pilgrimage. Ramanuja was a Tamil Brahman who spent a considerable part of his life teaching at the famous temple at Shrirangam (Thiruchirapalli), eventually being regarded as the founder of the Shri Vaishnava Movement. He disagreed with Shankara’s theory that knowledge was the primary means of liberation from rebirth. According to him, it was only one of the means and was not nearly as effective or reliable a pure devotion. Ramanuja, while accepting special privileges for the higher castes, was nevertheless opposed to excluding certain categories of Shudras from worship in the temple. He pleaded for the throwing open of temples to all Shudras, though without much success. So, the statements (1) and (2) are correct.
Madhava, a thirteenth-century theologian, made further attempts to synthesize the ideas of Bhakti with brahmanical theology. He was also a Vaishnava, and his concept of Vishnu was that the deity granted his grace to free the souls only of the pure, which implies selection. So, the statement (3) is also correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 70

Recently Mahabaleshwar broke the record of Mawsynram after receiving the highest rainfall during monsoon season. In this context, consider the following statements:
(1) Mahabaleshwar receives rainfall from both the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal branch of South West Monsoon.
(2) Mahabaleshwar is located on the windward side of the Sahyadris.
(3) Physiography of Mahabaleshwar is favourable for convectional rainfall.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra received 7,175. 4 mm rain as against Mawsynram's 6,218. 4 mm, Cherrapunji received around 6,082. 7 mm rainfall as per the India Meteorological Department (IMD). The Bay of Bengal branch causes rainfall in the eastern part of India. On reaching the foothills of the Himalayas, the Bay branch is deflected westward by the Himalayan barrier, and it advances up the Gangetic plain. The two branches (the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea) merge mostly around Delhi to form a single current. Mahabaleshwar is located on the western margin of Western Ghats. So, statement (1) is not correct.
Mahabaleshwar stands perpendicular to Arabian Sea Branch of SW monsoon. These rain-bearing winds are obstructed by the Western Ghats. Thus, the windward side of the Sahyadris receives hefty rainfall ranging between 250 cm and 400 cm. The rains at Mahabaleshwar, Kozhikode, Mangalore are higher as they are on the windward side of Western Ghats while Pune and Bangalore receive lesser rains. So, statement (2) is correct.
Physiographic features like Deep valleys and higher mountain hills create favourable condition for Orographic rainfall at Mahabaleshwar. So, statement (3) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 71

As per the 2019 World Nuclear Industry Status Report, the nation with the highest number of operational nuclear reactors is

Solution:

The 2019 World Nuclear Industry Status Report provides an overview of the age, operation, production and construction of nuclear power plants around the world. The report states that 417 reactor units were operational in 2019 with another 28 in long-term outage. The United States accounted for the highest number of operational units at 97 and another two are currently under construction. American reactors have a mean age of 38.9 years and they account for 19.3% of the country's electricity generation. With 58 reactors, France comes second on the nuclear power list and its units account for 71.7% of all electricity generation. Despite its recent focus on renewables, China has made rapid progress in power plant construction and it had the world's third-highest total in 2019 at 47. Russia and South Korea came fourth and fifth on the list with 36 and 23 operational units respectively. Ukraine and Japan are still operating nuclear power plants despite serious accidents at Chernobyl in 1986 and Fukushima in 2011.Ukraine still has 15 operational reactors compared to Japan's nine. Japan is notable on the list as having the highest number of reactors in long-term outage, however, with 24.

QUESTION: 72

Which of the following are Rabi crops?
1. Soybean
2. Linseed
3. Pea
4. Mustard
Choose the correct answer using the codes below: 

Solution:

The crops that are sown in the rainy season are called kharif crops. (also known as the summer or monsoon crop) in India. Kharif crops are usually sown with the beginning of the first rains in July, during the south-west monsoon season. The crops that are sown in the winter season are called Rabi crops. (also known as the “wintercrop”) in Pakistan and India. The Rabi means, when the crop is harvested. Crops that are grown in the winter season, from November to April are called Rabi Crops. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, linseed, peas, gram and mustard. Paddy, maize, soyabean, groundnut, cotton,etc., are kharif crops.

QUESTION: 73

Which of these African nations is closest to Red Sea?

Solution:

Red sea forms the coast of Sudan. (Map based question)

QUESTION: 74

Uighurs, recently seen in news, are a minority community concentrated in

Solution:

Uighurs are a Muslim minority community concentrated in the country’s northwestern Xinjiang province. They claim closer ethnic ties to Turkey and other central Asian countries than to China, by brute — and brutal — force. Why is China targeting the Uighurs? Xinjiang is technically an autonomous region within China — its largest region, rich in minerals, and sharing borders with eight countries, including India, Pakistan, Russia and Afghanistan. Over the past few decades, as economic prosperity has come to Xinjiang, it has brought with it in large numbers the majority Han Chinese, who have cornered the better jobs, and left the Uighurs feeling their livelihoods and identity were under threat. This led to sporadic violence, in 2009 culminating in a riot that killed 200 people, mostly Han Chinese, in the region’s capital Urumqi. And many other violent incidents have taken place sincethen. Beijing also says Uighur groups want to establish an independent state and, because of the Uighurs’ cultural ties to their neighbours, leaders fear that elements in places like Pakistan may back a separatist movement in Xinjiang. Therefore, the Chinese policy seems to have been one of treating the entire community as suspect, and launching a systematic project to chip away at every marker of a distinct Uighur identity.

QUESTION: 75

Consider the following statements.
1. Supplementary demands for grants find mention in the Constitution of India.
2. Supplementary demands for grants need to be placed for approval only in Lok Sabha.
3. The demands for supplementary grants are made after the expenditure has actually been incurred and after the financial year to which it relates, has expired.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Statement 1 and 2: Supplementary grants are the additional grant required to meet the required expenditure of the government. They are to be presented in both the houses. Supplementary, additional or excess grants and Votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants are mentioned in the Constitution of India 1949.Article 115: Supplementary, additional or excess grants. Article 116: Votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants.
Statement 3: When grants, authorised by the Parliament, fall short of the required expenditure, an estimate is presented before the Parliament for Supplementary or Additional grants. These grants are presented and passed by the Parliament before the end of the financial year. The Demand for Excess Grants (not supplementary grants) is made after the actual expenditure is incurred and is presented to the Parliament after the end of the financial year in which the expenses were made.
Learning: When actual expenditure incurred exceeds the approved grants of the Parliament, the Ministry of Finance and Ministry of Railways presents a Demand for Excess Grant. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India bring such excesses to the notice of the Parliament. The Public Accounts Committee examines these excesses and gives recommendations to the Parliament.

QUESTION: 76

Consider the following statements.
1. ​Unlike in command economies where prices are determined by the government, in a market economy, price of a good is determined by the interaction of the forces of supply and demand.
2. In a market economy, decisions about what and how much to produce is not centrally made, whereas in a command economy, such decisions may be made centrally.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Market economies and command economies occupy two polar extremes in the organization of economic activity. The primary differences lie in the division of labor, or factors of production, and the mechanisms that determine prices. The activity in a market economy is unplanned; it is not organized by any central authority but is determined by the supply and demand of goods and services. The United States, England, and Japan are all examples of market economies. Alternatively, a command economy is organized by a centralized government which owns most, if not all, businesses and whose officials direct all the factors of production. China, North Korea, and the former Soviet Union are all examples of command economies. In reality, all economies blend some combination of market and command economies. Consumer preferences and resource scarcity determine which goods are produced and in what quantity; the prices in a market economy act as signals to producers and consumers who use these price signals to help make decisions. Governments play a minor role in the direction for economic activity. Since decision-making is centralized in a command economy, the government controls all of the supply and sets all of the demand. Prices cannot arise naturally like in a market economy, so prices in the economy must be set by government officials. In a command economy, macroeconomic and political considerations determine resource allocation, whereas, in a market economy, the profits and losses of individuals and firms determine resource allocation. Command economies are concerned with providing basic necessities and opportunities to all members.

QUESTION: 77

Consider the following statements.
1. Transparency International publishes the Index of Politically Connected (IPC) firms.
2. Democracy Watch and Transparency International jointly publish Corruption Perception Index.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Statement 1: The incentive for corporates to become politically connected has been recognized by economists for quite some time. It can take the form of lighter taxation, preferential treatment/procurement, relaxed regulatory oversight etc. The Index of Politically connected companies (IPC) was analysed by a Mumbai-based firm Ambit Capital. As the Economic survey 2019-20 shows in Chapter 4, prior to 2011, cronyism paid a firm and its shareholders. The index of “connected” firms - as defined and constructed by Ambit Capital consistently outperformed the BSE 500 index. This rise in IPC is driven by the presumption that connected companies will gain from the decisions of the new government. Some analysts say this is a misplaced expectation.
Statement 2: The corruption perception index, which Transparency International tracks across countries, shows India at its lowest point in recent years in 2011. Since 2013, India has improved significantly on this index. The phenomenon of trust deficit that developed in India during this period is also reflected in many other measures.

QUESTION: 78

Who among the following translated Patanjali’s work on Sanskrit grammar into Arabic?

Solution:

Muslim astronomer, mathematician, ethnographist, anthropologist, historian, and geographer. Al-Biruni lived during a period of unusual political turmoil in the eastern Islamic world. He served more than six different princes. Al-Biruni spent years in the company of Brahmana priests and scholars, learning Sanskrit, and studying religious and philosophical texts. Al-Biruni’s expertise in several languages allowed him to compare languages and translate texts.He translated several Sanskrit works, including Patanjali’s work on grammar, into Arabic. For his Brahmana friends, he translated the works of Euclid (a Greek mathematician) into Sanskrit.

QUESTION: 79

As per Arthashastra, good governance is based on which of the following branches of knowledge?
1. Jnana (knowledge through enquiry)
2. Varta (economic policy)
3. Dandaneeti (law and enforcement)
4. Anvikshiki (philosophical and ethical framework)
5. Trayi (cultural context)
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Arthashastra explicitly presents its intellectual framework right in the beginning by stating that good governance is based on the following branches of knowledge: Varta (economic policy), Dandaneeti (law and enforcement), Anvikshiki (philosophical and ethical framework) and Trayi (cultural context).The importance of Anvikshiki in Kautilya’s writings is often ignored but is critical to understanding his worldview. Interestingly this mirrors Adam Smith who did not just advocate the “invisible hand” but equally the importance of “mutual sympathy” (i.e. trust).The same idea is reflected in the writings of Friedrich Hayek, who advocated not only economic freedom but also a set of general rules and social norms that applies evenly to everyone.

QUESTION: 80

Consider the following statements.
1. Glucose is on the World Health Organization's List of Essential Medicines.
2. Glucose is stored in plants as starch and in animals as glycogen.
3. Bacteria can derive energy from Glucose.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Statement 1 and 3: Glucose is a ubiquitous fuel in biology. It is used as an energy source in most organisms, from bacteria to humans, through either aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, or fermentation. Glucose is the human body's key source of energy, through aerobic respiration, providing about 3.75 kilocalories (16 kilojoules) of food energy per gram. Glucose is on the World Health Organization's List of Essential Medicines, the most important medications needed in a basic health system.
Statement 2: Glucose is a simple sugar with the molecular formula C6H12O6, which means that it is a molecule that is made of six carbon atoms, twelve hydrogen atoms, and six oxygen atoms .Glucose circulates in the blood of animals as blood sugar. It is made during photosynthesis from water and carbon dioxide, using energy from sunlight. It is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. Glucose is stored as a polymer, in plants as starch and in animals as glycogen.

QUESTION: 81

With respect to Socioeconomic High-resolution Rural-Urban Geographic Dataset on Indi a (SHRUG ), consider the following statements.
1. It contains variables that describe the demographic, socioeconomic, firm and political infrastructure of every district in India for the last few decades.
2. ​It is published by the World Bank (WB) based on the reports of UNICEF and United Nations Development Program (UNDP).

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Economic Survey 2019-20 presents entrepreneurship data relating to the physical and social infrastructure of a district which was partly accumulated from the Socioeconomic High resolution Rural-Urban Geographic Dataset on India (SHRUG) which comprises of a set of variables that describe the extent of socio-economic development in India. Among other things, SHRUG contains variables that describe the demographic, socioeconomic, firm and political infrastructure of every district between 1990–2018 that it cumulates from a variety of data sources. These sources comprise data from the Census of India relating to the years 1991, 2001 and 2011, Socio-Economic Caste Census of 2012, and Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) public data to construct a variety of indices that describe the social and physical infrastructure of every district in India.

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements.
1. ‘Sensex’ is a market-weighted stock market index of 30 well-established and financially sound companies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
2. The number of Sensex firms in services sector has reduced while those in manufacturing sector has increased in the last three decades.
3. DOLLEX-30, launched by BSE, is a dollar-linked version of the SENSEX.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

The BSE SENSEX (also known as the S&P Bombay Stock Exchange or Sensitive Index or simply the SENSEX) is a free-float market-weighted stock market index of 30 well established and financially sound companies listed on Bombay Stock Exchange. A capitalization-weighted (or "cap-weighted") index, also called a market-value-weighted index is a stock market index whose components are weighted according to the total market value of their outstanding shares. Every day an individual stock's price changes and thereby changes a stock index's value. The 30 component companies which are some of the largest and most actively traded stocks, are representative of various industrial sectors of the Indian economy. Published since 1 January 1986, the S&P BSE SENSEX is regarded as the pulse of the domestic stock markets in India. The base value of the SENSEX was taken as 100 on 1 April 1979 and its base year as 1978–79. In 2001 BSE launched DOLLEX-30, a dollar-linked version of the SENSEX.

Statement 2: India has followed an idiosyncratic growth pattern, wherein the prime mover of the economy has shifted from agriculture to services. Almost 60 per cent of Indian GDP is attributable to the services sector. As shown by Figure 6, the number of Sensex firms in manufacturing has reduced while those in services has increased between 1988 and 2019. Thus, over the years, thes hare of services sector in the total number of companies on the Sensex has changed from being negligible in the 1980s to the dominant status today.

QUESTION: 83

Which of the following is correct with regard to the role and functions of National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)?
1. It imparts basic and operational level training to State Response Forces like Police and Home guards.
2. It is responsible for organizing Public Awareness Campaigns about disaster management.
3. It is the statutorily sanctioned force for guarding sensitive international borders during a disaster.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Others include: Specialized response during disasters. Proactive deployment during impending disaster situations. Acquire and continually upgrade its own training and skills. Liaison, Reconnaissance, Rehearsals and Mock Drills. Impart basic and operational level training to State Response Forces (Police, Civil Defence and Home Guards).Community Capacity Building Programme. Organize Public Awareness Campaigns.

QUESTION: 84

In the Gupta administration, Uparikas were responsible for

Solution:

Learning: Provinces in the Gupta Empire were known as Bhuktis and provincial governors as Uparikas. They were mostly chosen from among the princes. Other officials: A high official called was mentioned in the Gupta inscriptions known as Sandivigraha, most probably minister for foreign affairs. The king was assisted in his administration by a council consisting of a chief minister, a Senapati orcommanderin- chief of the army and other important officials. The king maintained a close contact with the provincial administration through a class of officialscalled Kumaramatyas and Ayuktas.

QUESTION: 85

Starlink network project concerns

Solution:

Currently, about 4 billion people, more than half the world’s population, do not have access to reliable Internet networks. And that is because the traditional ways to deliver the Internet— fibre-optic cables or wireless networks — cannot take it everywhere on Earth. In many remote areas, or places with difficult terrain, it is not feasible or viable to set up cables or mobile towers. SpaceX, the world’s leading private company in space technology, has launched 60 satellites in to the low earth orbit, under the Starlink network project. The Starlink network is one of several ongoing efforts to start beaming data signals from space. Under the project, the company intends to evolve into a constellation of nearly 12,000 satellites. The aim is to provide low-cost and reliable space-based Internet services to the world. The project announced in 2015, has now 122 satellites in the orbit. The project ensures that reliable and uninterrupted Internet services are universally available in every part of the globe.

QUESTION: 86

Carbohydrate is a bio-molecule consisting of various elements. Which of the following is NOT a major constituent of carbohydrates?

Solution:

Option C: Carbohydrates are made of carbon (C), hydrogen (H) and oxygen (O)atoms, usually with a hydrogen–oxygen atom ratio of 2:1 (as in water); in other words, with the empirical formula Cm(H2O)n. There may be little or no Nitrogen.
Learning: Carbohydrates perform numerous roles in living organisms. Polysaccharides serve for the storage of energy (e.g. starch and glycogen) and as structural components (e.g. cellulose in plants and chitin in arthropods).For e.g. the 5-carbon monosaccharide ribose is an important component of coenzymes (e.g.ATP, FAD and NAD) and the backbone of the genetic molecule known as RNA. The related deoxyribose is a component of DNA. Saccharides and their derivatives include many other important biomolecules that play keyroles in the immune system, fertilization, preventing pathogenesis, blood clotting, and development. Carbohydrates are found in a wide variety of foods. The important sources are cereals, potatoes, sugarcane, etc. Starch and sugar are the important carbohydrates in our diet.

QUESTION: 87

Natura 2000 is

Solution:

Natura 2000 is a network of core breeding and resting sites for rare and threatened species, and some rare natural habitat types which are protected in their own right. It stretches across all 28 EU countries, both on land and at sea. The aim of the network is to ensure the long-term survival of Europe's most valuable and threatened species and habitats, listed under both the Birds Directive and the Habitats Directive. Natura 2000 is not a system of strict nature reserves from which all human activities would be excluded. While it includes strictly protected nature reserves, most of the land remains privately owned. The approach to conservation and sustainable use of the Natura 2000 areas is much wider, largely centered on people working with nature rather than against it.

QUESTION: 88

The 2019 Brown to Green Report was published by the Climate Transparency partnership, an international research collaboration. The report is the most comprehensive review of the climate performance of

Solution:

The report maps their achievements and drawbacks in their efforts to reduce emissions, adapt to climate impacts and green the financial system. Key findings of the report:
1. Carbon emissions from the world's 20 biggest economies, including India, are rising.
2. None of the G20 countries have plans that will help them achieve the target. Many of the current2030 climate targets under the Paris Agreement (Nationally Determined Contributions or NDCs) are too weak, with about half of the G20 countries projected to meet or overachieve their inadequate NDCs.
3. Energy-related carbon dioxide emissions in G20 countries shot up by 1.8 per cent in 2018 due to rising energy demand.
4. Energy supply is not getting cleaner: despite a more than five per cent rise in G20 total renewable energy supply in 2018, the share of fossil fuels in the G20 energy mix remains at 82 percent.
5. While renewables now account for 25.5 per cent of power generation, this is not sufficient to outweigh the growth of emissions from fossil fuel sources.
6. Low-carbon fuels need to increase roughly 10 times by 2050 to keep global warming below 1.5degrees Celsius.
7. G20 emissions in the building sector grew more than in any other sector in 2018 (4.1 per cent).Retrofitting existing buildings challenges all G20 and especially OECD countries. New buildings have to be near zero-energy by 2020-25 to keep global warming below 1.5 degrees.

QUESTION: 89

Consider the following statements about the formation of the state government after elections.
1. The Governor can only summon the new House for the first sitting only after a new government is sworn in and the Cabinet has suggested a suitable date.
2. After a party formation is sworn in, the Constitution mandates that it needs to pass a floor test to ascertain confidence in the legislature.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Background: The Governor would be expected to go as per an order of preference set out in the Sarkaria Commission recommendations, which have also been ratified by the Supreme Court. By the order of preference, the Governor can invite:1 . A pre-poll alliance of parties. 2. Invite the single largest party which stakes a claim to form government.3. Invite a post-poll alliance of parties, with all the partner in the coalition joining the government. 4. Invite a post-poll alliances of parties, with some becoming part of the government and some supporting from outside.
Justification: S1: The Governor can only summon the new House for the first sitting only after a new government is sworn in and the Cabinet has suggested a suitable date. The process of swearing-in of the newly elected members and appointment of the new Speaker can be held thereafter.
S2: Once any formation is sworn in, it will need to pass the floor test, which will reveal whether the executive enjoys the confidence of the legislature as mandated by the Constitution. In the floor test, the person sworn in as the CM has to prove that s/he enjoys the confidence of the House. If the confidence motion fails, the Chief Minister has to resign. If more than one person stake claim to form the government and the majority is not clear, the Governor has the powers to call a special session to assess who has the majority.

QUESTION: 90

What is/are the relative advantages of signalling communication beams from low earth orbits (LEO) compared to geostationary orbits (GEO)?
1. Signals from LEO have a lower latency than GEO.
2. Owing to their lower height, LEO signals cover a relatively larger area than the GEOs.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Signals from geostationary orbit can cover a very large part of the Earth. Signals from one satellite can cover roughly a third of the planet — and three to four satellites would be enough to cover the entire Earth. Also, because they appear to be stationary, it is easier to link to them. Then what’s the issue? There is a time lag — called latency — between a user seeking data, and the server sending that data. And because data transfers cannot happen faster than the speed of light (in reality, they take place at significantly lower speeds), the longer the distance that needs to be covered the greater is the time lag, or latency. A transmission from a satellite in geostationary orbit has a latency of about 600 milliseconds. A satellite in the lower orbit, 200-2,000 km from the Earth’s surface, can bring the lag down to 20-30 milliseconds, roughly the time it takes for terrestrial systems to transfer data. Concerns over LEOs: Owing to their lower height, their signals cover a relatively small area. As a result, many more satellites are needed in order to reach signals to every part of the planet. Other issues include: Increased space debris, increased risk of collisions, and the concern of astronomers that these constellations of space Internet satellites will make it difficult to observe other space objects, and to detect their signals.

QUESTION: 91

With reference to history of India during the 17th-18th century, consider the following statements regarding Mysore Kingdom:
1. The army in the Mysore Kingdom was organised on a European model through the system of risalas.
2. The land revenue system entailed direct imposition of taxes on the peasants and their collection through salaried officials.
3. A “state commercial corporation” was commissioned to set up factories for engaging in trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• In south India the emergence of Mysore as a significant power in the mid-eighteenth century was most spectacular. Originally a viceroyalty under the Vijaynagara empire in the sixteenth century, Mysore was gradually transformed into an autonomous principality by the Wodeyar dynasty. Its centralised military power began to increase from the late seventeenth century under Chikkadevaraja Wodeyar, but it reached its real period of glory under Haidar Ali.
• Haidar modernised his army with French experts, who trained an efficient infantry and artillery and infused European discipline into the Mysore army. It was organised on a European model through the system of risalas, with a clear chain of command going up to the ruler. Each risala had a fixed number of soldiers, with provision for weaponry and modes of transport and a commander appointed directly by Haidar himself. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• His power was further consolidated by the subjugation of the local warrior chiefs or hereditary overlords like deshmukhs and palegars (poligars), who had until then complete mastery over the countryside through their control over agricultural surpluses and local temples. Haidar, and later his son Tipu Sultan, introduced the system of imposing land taxes directly on the peasants and collecting them through salariedofficials and in cash, thus enhancing enormously the resource base of the state. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Mysore empire during the reign of Tipu Sultan commissioned a “state commercial corporation” to setup factories. As Mysore traded in sandalwood, silk, spices, rice and sulphur, some 30 trading outpostswere established across Tipu’s dominions and overseas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 92

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights. Which of the following are other important changes that the 44th Amendment introduced?
1. It made the advice tendered by the central council of ministers binding on the President.
2. It broadened the ground on which National Emergency could be proclaimed under Article 352.
3. It restricted the scope of the Constitution on the suspension of the right to freedom of speech during the National Emergency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

44th Amendment is an act that was introduced into the constitution by 45th Amendment Bill in the year1978. In 1976, with the introduction of the 42nd Amendment Act, there were various provisions that were amended against the will of the citizens hence, to reverse those changes and safeguard the interests of the nation, 44th Amendment Act was called into action.
The important changes introduced by the 44th Amendment Act are:

  • Any changes in the basic structure of the constitution can be made only if they are approved by the people of India by a majority of votes at a referendum in which at least fifty-one per cent of the electorate participated. Article 368 is being amended to ensure this.
  • The 44th Amendment Act 1978 reversed the provision made by 42nd amendment act that allowed the government to amend the constitution on its wish by Article 368. 44th Amendment Act nullified this unjustified power to the government.
  • Right to Property was removed from the list of fundamental rights (Article 31) and was made a legal right under Article 300A.
  • Proclamation of Emergency can be issued only when the security of India or any part of its territory is threatened by war or external aggression or by armed rebellion. Internal disturbance not amounting to armed rebellion would not be a ground for the issue of a Proclamation. Hence option 2 is not correct.
  • An emergency can be proclaimed only on the basis of written advice tendered to the President by the Cabinet.
  • The right to liberty is further strengthened by the provision that law for preventive detention cannot authorise, in any case, detention for a longer period than two months, unless an Advisory Board has reported that there is sufficient cause for such detention.
  • Right of the media to report freely and without censorship the proceedings in Parliament and the State Legislatures.
  • The 44th Amendment Act restricted the scope of Article 358 (provides for the effect of the NationalEmergency on the Fundamental Rights) by stating that the six fundamental rights under Article 19cannot be suspended if the National Emergency has been proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion. Hence statement 3 is correct.

It was the 42nd Amendment Act which made the advice of the central council of ministers binding on the President. The 44th Amendment only empowered the President to send back any such advice once. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

QUESTION: 93

The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for Autonomous District Councils in the state of Assam. In any such council, the power of direction, with respect to different acts of Parliament or the state legislature, lies with

Solution:

• The Constitution, under Sixth Schedule, contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• The acts of Parliament or the state legislature do not apply to autonomous districts and autonomous regions or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
• Under this Schedule, the President and the Governors of the said states have been assigned with certain special powers. Therefore, the power of direction, with respect to different acts of Parliament or the state legislature, lies either with the President or Governor. In the case of Assam, it lies with the Governor, both in respect of acts of Parliament or state legislature. In the case of Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, it lies with the President in respect of acts of Parliament and Governor in respect of acts of state legislature. Hence the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following pairs:

Which of above give pairs is/ are correctly matched?

Solution:

• Kambala: Kambala is a traditional buffalo race in paddy fields filled with slush and mud which generally takes place in coastal Karnataka (Udupi and Dakshina Kannada) from November to March. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched. Traditionally, it is sponsored by local Tuluva landlords and households in the coastal districts. Tuluva people are an ethnic group native to Southern India. They are native speakers of the Tulu language. During the race, the racers try to bring the buffaloes under control by holding their reins tight and whipping them. In its traditional form, Kambala was non competitive and buffalo pairs raced one after another in paddy fields. It was also observed as a thanksgiving to gods for protecting the animals from diseases.
• Sammakka Saralamma Jatara or Medaram Jatara is a tribal festival of honouring the goddesses celebrated in the state of Telangana, India. The Jatra begins at Medaram in Tadvai Mandal in Mulugudistrict. It commemorates the fight of a mother and daughter, Sammakka and Saralamma, with the reigning rulers of Kakatiya dynasty against an unjust law. It is the being called the largest tribal religious congregation in the world. This Jatara has been declared as State Festival during1998. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Lasoong festival is the most popular festival of Sikkim. It is usually celebrated at the end of the tenth Tibetan lunar month (usually December). It is the most important festival among the Bhutias in India and is marked by the traditional Chaan dancing and merry-making. Losoong is celebrated across the monasteries in Bhutan, Nepal and India. In Sikkim, during the festival of Losoong, often dance forms depict narrativized tales from the life of Padmasambhava (or Guru Ugyen). Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

QUESTION: 95

NABARD is an apex development financial institution in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to NABARD?
1. It is the custodian of Rural Innovation Fund.
2. It provides direct loans to food processing units in designated food parks.
3. It is responsible for regulating and supervising the functions of Cooperative banks and RRBs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) came into existence in July 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC).
• It is aimed at promoting sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural development through participative financial and non-financial interventions, innovations, technology and institutional development for securing prosperity.
• Over the years NABARD's initiatives have touched millions of rural lives across the country. The SHG Bank Linkage Project, Kisan Credit Card schemes were designed by NABARD. It provides refinance support to building rural infrastructure, prepares district level credit plans and guides and motivates banking industry in achieving these targets, trains handicraft artisans etc.
• It also provides direct finance in the form of

  • Loans for food parks and food processing units designated food parks. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Loans to warehouses and cold chain infrastructure
  • Credit facilities to marketing federations etc.

• NABARD set up the Rural Innovation Fund to support innovative, risk friendly, unconventional experiments in farm, non-farm and micro finance sectors that would have the potential to promote livelihood opportunities. Under RIF, NABARD provides support in the form of loan/grant/incubation fund support. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• More than 50% of the rural credit is disbursed by the Co-operative Banks and Regional Rural Banks. NABARD is responsible for regulating and supervising the functions of Co-operative banks and RRBs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• In this direction, Institutional Development Department of NABARD has been taking several initiatives in association with Government of India and RBI to improve the health of Co-operative banks and Regional Rural Banks.

QUESTION: 96

India’s ranking in the ‘Logistics Performance Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following declares that ranking?

Solution:

• The Logistics Performance Index (LPI) is an interactive benchmarking tool created by the World Bank to help countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance on trade logistics and what they can do to improve their performance.
• It ranks countries on six dimensions of trade - including customs performance, infrastructure quality, and timeliness of shipments.
• India ranked 44 in LPI 2018. Logistics costs in India are 13-15% of the product cost while the global average is 6%.
• At the national level, The Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) Index is an effort by the Ministry of Industry and Commerce to establish the baseline of performance in the logistics sector based on the perception of users and stakeholders at the State level.

QUESTION: 97

Consider the following statements regarding the Great Indian desert:
1. The underlying rock structure of the desert is an extension of the Peninsular plateau.
2. This region was under the sea during the Mesozoic area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, is a large arid region in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent that covers an area of 2 Lakh km² and forms a natural boundary between India and Pakistan.
• Statement 1 is correct: The underlying rock structure of the desert is an extension of the Peninsular plateau, yet, due to extreme arid conditions, its surface features have been carved by physical weathering and wind actions. Some of the well pronounced desert land features present here are mushroom rocks, shifting dunes and oasis (mostly in its southern part). The desert can be divided into two parts: the northern part is sloping towards Sindh and the southern towards the Rann of Kachchh
• Statement 2 is correct: It is believed that during the Mesozoic era (252 to 66 million years ago), this region was under the sea. This can be corroborated by the evidence available at wood fossils park at Aakal and marine deposits around Brahmsar, near Jaisalmer (The approximate age of the wood-fossils is estimated to be 180 million years).
• The Mesozoic is one of three geologic eras preceded by the Paleozoic and succeeded by the Cenozoic. It is also called the Age of Reptiles and the Age of Conifers.

QUESTION: 98

SUTRAPIC India programme is recent in news in context of:

Solution:

• The government has unveiled a program called SUTRA PIC to research on ‘indigenous’ cows.
• To be funded by multiple scientific ministries, the initiative, SUTRA PIC, is led by the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
• It has the Department of Biotechnology, the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, the Ministry for AYUSH (Ayurveda, Unani, Siddha, Homoeopathy) among others and the Indian Council of Medical Research as partners
• SUTRA PIC or Scientific Utilisation Through Research Augmentation-Prime Products from Indigenous Cows has five themes:

  • The uniqueness of Indigenous Cows
  • Prime-products from Indigenous Cows for Medicine and Health.
  • Prime-products from Indigenous Cows for Agricultural Applications,
  • Prime-products from Indigenous Cows for Food and Nutrition,
  • Prime-products from indigenous cows-based utility items.

• The proposals under this theme should aim to perform scientific research on:

  • Complete characterization of milk and milk products derived from Indian indigenous cows
  • Scientific research on nutritional and therapeutic properties of curd and ghee prepared from indigenous breeds of cows by traditional methods.
  • Development of standards for traditionally processed dairy products of Indian-origin cow,”
QUESTION: 99

The federal character of the Indian Constitution is a basic feature. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution support its federal character?
1. The Indian Constitution is a written constitution.
2. An independent judiciary
3. The uniformity ensured by a single Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Indian Constitution has a federal structure (a basic feature of the Indian Constitution) only because it is said that it has clear demarcation of boundaries between central & the state government similar to that of U.S. India having legislative and executive authority divided between the centre and the state.
• Chief essentials for a constitution to be federal are:

  • Dispersion of powers between the center and the unit states forming federation among a number of co-ordinate bodies, controlled by the constitution.
  • Rigidity – neither the center nor the state has the power to amend the provision of the constitution relating separation of powers.
  • A written constitution. Hence option 1 is correct
  • Domination of the constitution – neither of center or state has the power to nullify the constitution
  • An independent body and unprejudiced authority (E.g. Judiciary). Hence option 2 is correct.

• At the same time, our Constitution has been called as quasi-federal because of the following features. The few Non-federal features are:
• A Strong Centre.
• States are not indestructible
• Single Constitution. Hence option 3 is not correct.
• Flexibility of the Constitution
• No Equality of State Representation
• Emergency Provisions
• Single Citizenship
• Integrated Judiciary

QUESTION: 100

Consider the following statements with respect to Micro, Small and Medium Industries:
1. At present, no item is reserved for exclusive manufacturing in the MSME industry.
2. More than 30% of India's exports are produced by MSME industries .
3. According to Public Procurement Policy, it is compulsory for all CPSEs to procure a minimum of 25% annual purchases from MSMEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• The Government of India has enacted the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006 for the development of MSME enterprises.
• The MSME Development (Amendment) Bill, 2018, prescribes any business with a turnover of up to ₹5crore will be considered a 'micro enterprise'. The other slabs are ₹5-75 crore for 'small enterprise' and₹75-250 crore for 'medium enterprise.
• Since 1960s, to promote and facilitate MSME sector certain items have been reserved for exclusive manufacturing by MSMEs. However this policy was discontinued in 2015. Now there are no items reserved for exclusive production by MSMEs. The de-reservation was done to encourage greater investment, incorporate better technologies, standard and branch building and enhance competition in Indian and global markets for these products. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The MSME Sector today constitutes a very important segment of India's economy and it accounts for nearly 40 of the gross value of output in the manufacturing sector and about 50% of the total exports from the country. Direct exports from the MSME Sector accounts for 35% of the total exports. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Public Procurement Policy for MSEs Order, 2018 has been notified under section 11 of MSMED Act, 2006. The objective of Policy is promotion and development of Micro and Small Enterprises by supporting them in marketing of products produced and services rendered by them.
• Salient features:

  • Every Central Ministry /Department / PSUs shall set an annual target for 25% procurement from MSE Sector
  • A sub-target of 4% out of 25% target of annual procurement earmarked for procurement from MSEs owned by SC/ST entrepreneurs.

• Overall procurement goal of minimum 25% has become mandatory from 1st April 2015. Hence statement 3 is correct.