UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 7 (July 22, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 7 (July 22, 2021)


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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 7 (July 22, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 7 (July 22, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 7 (July 22, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 7 (July 22, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 7 (July 22, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

In the context of Indian polity, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution empowers only the state governors and not the President of India to exercise discretionary powers.
2. While the President has the power to appoint the judges of the Supreme Court, the governor of a state has no power to appoint the judges of a state high court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • The relationship between the Governor and his ministers is similar to that between the President and his ministers, with this important difference that while the Constitution does not empower the President to exercise any function 'in his discretion', it authorizes the Governor to exercise some functions 'on his discretion'. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The judges of the Supreme Court (including the Chief justice of India) are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a collegium. The judges of a state high court are also appointed by the President. The governor has no power to appoint the judges of a high court. He can only be consulted by the President of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION: 2

With reference to the ‘Secretariat of Parliament’, consider the following statements:
1. It is a constitutional body.
2. Each house of Parliament has a separate secretarial staff.
3. It makes payment of salary and other allowances to the Members of the House.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

(i) Article 98 of the Constitution provides for a Secretariat of Parliament. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Each House of Parliament shall have a separate secretarial staff. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Parliament may by law regulate the recruitment and the conditions of service of persons appointed to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament has framed, Lok Sabha Secretariat (Recruitment and Conditions of Service) Rules, 1955 (R&CS Rules)and Rajya Sabha Secretariat (Recruitment and Conditions of Service) Rules, 1957 (R&CS Rules).

(ii) Functions:

  • The Secretariat functions under the overall guidance and control of the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha. The main activities of the Secretariat inter alia include the following:
  • providing secretarial assistance and support to the effective functioning of the House.
  • payment of salary and other allowances to the Members of the House;
  • providing amenities as admissible to Members of the House;
  • servicing the various Parliamentary Committees;
  • preparing research and reference material and bringing out various publications;
  • recruitment of manpower in the Rajya Sabha/Lok Sabha Secretariat and attending to personnel matters; and
  • preparing and publishing a record of the day-to-day proceedings of the House and bringing out such other publications, as may be required concerning the functioning of the House and its Committees.

(iii) The LAFEAS (Legislative, Financial, Executive, and Administrative Services) of each house deals with the salaries of their respective members. Hence statement 2 is correct.

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following statements about 'Startups' in India under the Start-up India scheme:
1. They must be registered with the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
2. Only startups having paid-up share capital up to Rs 25 crore can apply for exemptions from angel tax.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

(i) The Startup India Scheme is an initiative of the Government of India in 2016. The primary objective of Startup India is the promotion of startups, generation of employment, and wealth creation. The Startup India has initiated several programs for building a robust startup ecosystem and transforming India into a country of job creators instead of job seekers. There is a requirement that the start-ups must be registered with the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. Hence statement 1 is correct.

(ii) Recently in 2019, the government notified new rules pertaining to angel tax which will exempt (angel tax is the tax levied on such investments made by external investors in startups or companies) registered start-ups of a specified size from the tax. The new rules:

  • Definition of start-up broadened: An eligible start-up would be one that is registered with thegovernment and has been incorporated for less than 10 years (from previous 7 years), and has aturnover that has not exceeded ₹100 crore over that period.
  • Start-ups can apply for an exemption if their paid-up share capital is up to Rs 25 crore,compared to Rs 10 crore earlier. Hence statement 2 correct.
  • Start-ups may raise tax free capital from investments made by✓ non-residents✓ Listed company having a net worth of INR 100 Crores or turnover of at least INR 250 Crores.

(iii) The notification imposes certain restrictions on investments by the start-ups.

  • The start-up have to attest to the fact that it has not invested in any land that is not being used in its ordinary course of business, any vehicle over the value of ₹10 lakh, any jewellery, among other things.
QUESTION: 4

Which of the following processes is responsible for the movement of local winds in Northern India, known as 'Loo'?

Solution:
  • Summer season local winds in Northern India, known as Loo, is a result of the advection process.
  • The Loo is a hot and dry summer wind that blows over the western Indo-Gangetic Plain region of North India. It is especially strong in the months of May and June. Due to its very high temperatures, exposure to it often leads to fatal heat strokes.
  • Advection is the transfer of heat or matter by the flow of a fluid, especially horizontally in the atmosphere or the sea.
QUESTION: 5

Consider the following passage regarding Lala Lajpat Rai:
1. He was one of the founders of the DAV Schools and Punjab National Bank.
2. While an ardent supporter of the two nation theory, he argued for a unity for Hindus and Muslims to overthrow the British rule.
3. He led a peaceful march against the Simon Commission.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Lala Lajpat Rai was a freedom fighter, part of the famous radical trio of ‘Lal, Bal, Pal’, is known as ‘Punjab Kesari’ or ‘The Lion of Punjab’. He was a lawyer, a prolific writer and also a leading freedom fighter who faced multiple stints in jail for his campaigns against the British Raj.
  • In college, he reportedly developed a deep friendship with Lala Hans Raj and Pandit Guru Dutt Vidyarthi, all three of whom were deeply inspired by the teachings of Arya Samaj, the Hindu reformist movement founded by Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The three were ardent proponents of robust swadeshi infrastructure to wean Indians off British systems, and while Rai went on to co-found the Punjab National Bank in 1894, Hans Raj and Vidyarthi co-founded the ubiquitous DAV schools. In the early 1920s, Rai also set up the National College in Lahore, whose students would include Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev.
  • Statement 2 is correct: He was also a supporter of the two-nation theory, saying that while Hindus and Muslims needed to unite to overthrow the British Raj, a separate nation for each would solve the greater purpose of peaceful coexistence. An article Rai wrote in The Tribune on 14 December 1923, titled “A clear partition of India into a Muslim India and non-Muslim India” evoked much controversy.
  • Statement 3 is correct: In 1928, Rai led a peaceful march to protest against the commission. However, British police officer James A. Scott ordered a lathi-charge and Rai was among the protesters injured seriously. He succumbed to his injuries on 17 November 1928. Bhagat Singh and other revolutionaries planned to kill the Superintendent of Police who ordered lathi-charge at the protestors as revenge for Lala Lajpat Rai’s death. However, Bhagat Singh and his associates ended up killing the Assistant Superintendent of Police by mistake.
QUESTION: 6

Which of the following statements is/are correct about star campaigners in the electoral process?
1. They are nominated by the parties to campaign only in specified constituencies.
2. The campaigner himself cannot contest in a particular election in which he is campaigning.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Who is a star campaigner: A star campaigner can be described as persons who are nominated by parties to campaign in a given set of constituencies. These persons are, in almost all cases, prominent and popular faces within the party. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Only registered political parties can have star campaigners. A recognized political party can have 40star campaigners and an unrecognized (but registered) political party can have 20. The list of star campaigners has to be communicated to the Chief Electoral Officer and Election Commission within a week from the date of notification of an election.
  • Benefits of having a star campaigner: The expenditure incurred on campaigning by such campaigners is exempt from being added to the election expenditure of a candidate. However, this only applies when a star campaigner limits herself to a general campaign for the political party she represents.
  • Even the candidates contesting in the particular election can be listed as a star campaigner. The recent general election, as well as the Delhi election, saw the incumbent Chief Minister, the Prime Minister and various other MLAs / MPs who were re-running for the election, in the list of star campaigners. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
QUESTION: 7

DASH Diet, sometimes mentioned in the news refers to a diet

Solution:

(i) The DASH diet stands for Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension, is a healthy eating plan intended to help lower blood pressure without medication. It emphasizes foods that are low in sodium and high in potassium, calcium, magnesium, protein, and fiber such as leafy greens, fruits, whole grains, nuts, fat-free or low-fat dairy, and lean meats. The eating plan recommends limiting foods high in saturated fat, such as red meat and whole-milk dairy, as well as sugary foods and sweetened beverages. It has been ranked as a top diet for 2020 by U.S. News and World Report. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

(ii) Other types of diet include:

  • The Paleo Diet: This is a natural way of eating, one that almost abandons all intake of sugar. The only sugar in a Paleo diet comes from fruit.
  • The Blood Type Diet: the premise of these diets attempts to match people with their common dietary needs based on their blood type. For example, individuals with type O blood are recommended to eat lots of food that are high in protein.
  • Raw Food Diet: This is a diet that places a premium on eating uncooked and unprocessed foods. The diet eliminates the intake of any foods that have been pasteurized or produced with any kind of synthetics or additives.
QUESTION: 8

Consider the following statements about Biodiversity management committees:
1. They are established under the Biological diversity act 2002.
2. Their function is to prepare, maintain and validate People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with the local people.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

(i) Biological Diversity Act 2002 mandates all local bodies to setup Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC).
As per the Act, the local bodies constitute the BMC in accordance with Section 41, within their area of jurisdiction for the purpose of promoting conservation, sustainable use and documentation of biological diversity including preservation of habitats, conservation of land races, folk varieties and cultivars, domesticated stocks and breeds of animals, micro-organisms and chronicling of knowledge relating to biological diversity.

(ii) The BMC consists of a Chairperson, and six persons nominated by local bodies, including 1/3rd women and 18% SC/ST.

(iii) The functions of BMCs are as under:

  • Prepare, maintain and validate People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with the local people. The BMC is to maintain a Register giving information about the details of biological resources and traditional knowledge available within the jurisdiction of BMC.
  • Advice on any matter referred to it by the State Biodiversity Board or Authority for granting approval, to maintain data about the local vaidhya (traditional healer) and practitioners using the biological resources.
  • Preserve and promote local biodiversity- breeds of birds, animals and plants.
  • Advice State & National Biodiversity Boards on matters related to local biodiversity.
  • Under the Nagoya Protocol of Convention on Biodiversity (CBD), they can collect fees for granting access to Biodiversity register to researchers and commercial companies.
QUESTION: 9

'This port is one of the most important ports of Sangam age. It is famous for pearls and was located on the banks of the Tamraparani river, formed a natural harbour. It was a principal center of trade and an important port of the early Pandyan Kingdom.

The above passage describes which of the following ports?

Solution:

(i) The three most important ports of Sangam age known as the "Golden Triangle" are Puhar, Muzirisand Korkai. These three acted as the most important trading ports of that time.

(ii) Korkai: Korkai is a small village in the Srivaikuntam taluk of Thoothukudi district in Tamil Nadu, India. It was called Pandya-Kavada in the Kapatapuram in Kalithogai. It is situated about 3 km north of the Thamirabarani River and about 6 km from the shore of Bay of Bengal. Korkai was the capital, principal center of trade and important port of the Early Pandyan Kingdom. At that time, it was located on the banks of the Tamiraparani River and at the sea coast, forming a natural harbour. It was famous for its pearls. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

(iii) Puhar: Puhar is a town in the Nagapattinam district in the southern Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It was once a flourishing ancient port city known as Kaveripattinam, which for a while served as the capital of the Early Chola kings. Puhar is located near the end point of the Kaveri river, aside from the sea coast. It is mentioned in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea. It was the great centre of trade and commerce (mainly centre of cotton cloth) and excavations show that it had a large dock.

(iv) Muziris or Muchiri: Muziris was an ancient harbour - possible seaport and urban centre - on the Malabar Coast (modern-day Indian state of Kerala) that dates from at least the 1st century BC. Akananuru, Periplus of Erythraean Sea, Purananuru and several other important literature of Sangam times, mention Muziris as an important port of Cheras. The Periplus speaks of cargo-laden ships landing here from Arabia and Egypt, and gives long lists of imports and exports. A 2nd-century document known as the Vienna Papyrus records an agreement concerning the transportation of goods between two merchants—one based in Alexandria, the other in Muchiri.

QUESTION: 10

Which among the following are the causes of the Maratha defeat and victory of Ahmad Shah Abdali in the third battle of Panipat?
1. Ahmad Shah's forces outnumbered the forces under the command of the Marathas.
2. Near famine conditions prevailed in the Maratha camp at Panipat.
3. Absence of support to the Marathas by the other powers of northern India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

(i) The third battle of Panipat took place on 14 January, 1761 between the Marathas under Sadashiv RaoBhau and the Afghans under Ahmad Shah Abdali. The Afghan victory was complete and the Maratha casualties were very heavy, estimated at 75,000. A number of factors were responsible for the defeat of the Marathas and victory of Ahmad Shah Abdali:

  • Abdali's forces outnumbered the forces under the command of Bhauji. Abdali's army has been estimated at 60,000 while the Maratha combatants did not exceed 45,000.
  • Near famine conditions prevailed in the Maratha camp at Panipat. The road to Delhi was cut off. There was no food for men and no fodder for the horses. On the other hand, the Afghans kept their supply lines open with the Doab and the Delhi region. In fact, famine conditions in the Maratha camp compelled Bhau to precipitate the action of attack.
  • While all the Muslim powers of Northern India rallied to the side of Abdali, the Marathas had to fight alone. The overbearing attitude of the Marathas and their policy of indiscriminate plunder had estranged not only the Muslim powers but the Hindu powers like the Jats and the Rajputs. Even the Sikhs, the deadly enemies of the Afghans, did not help the Marathas.

(ii) The other factors were the existence of mutual jealousies among the Maratha chiefs, the strict discipline of the better equipped Abdali's army and the overconfidence of Sadashiv Rao Bhau.

QUESTION: 11

Consider the following statements about the nature of the ocean currents:
1. There is no west wind drift current in the Indian ocean.
2. The eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current is due to the difference in the salinity of the water.
3. Mozambique current and West Australian currents are warm currents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current is related to the Convergence of the two equatorial currents. Convergence raises the level of ocean in the western parts by few centimeters which creates an equatorial counter current. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • The West Australian Current is a cool surface current of the Southern Indian Ocean. It starts as the Southern Indian Ocean Current, a part of the larger Antarctic Circumpolar Current (also known as the West Wind Drift). As the current approaches Western Australia, it turns north, parallel to the western coast of Australia, and becomes the West Australian Current. Hence statements 1 and 3 are not correct.
  • One branch of the southern Indian equatorial current moves southward through Mozambique Channel known as Mozambique current. It is a warm current.
  • Like Pacific and Atlantic Oceans eastward flowing current, known as west wind drift, is also generated in the Indian Ocean. This current is produced due to eastward blowing westerlies along 40°N latitude known as ‘roaring forties’.
QUESTION: 12

In the context of the developments in the field of biochemistry, the term interferon, sometimes seen in the news, refers to

Solution:

(i) Interferons are proteins that are produced by the body’s cells as a defensive response to viruses. They are important modulators of the immune response. Interferon was named for its ability to interfere with viral proliferation.

(ii) Interferons can also combat bacterial and parasitic infections, inhibit cell division, and promote or impede the differentiation of cells. They are produced by all vertebrate animals and possibly by some invertebrates as well.

(iii) Interferons are categorized as cytokines, small proteins that are involved in intercellular signaling. Interferon is secreted by cells in response to stimulation by a virus or other foreign substance, but it does not directly inhibit the virus’s multiplication. Rather, it stimulates the infected cells and those nearby to produce proteins that prevent the virus from replicating within them.

(iv) Interferons were discovered in 1957 by British bacteriologist Alick Isaacs and Swiss microbiologist Jean Lindenmann. Research conducted in the 1970s revealed that these substances could not only prevent viral infection but also suppress the growth of cancers in some laboratory animals.

(v) Interferons came into use

  • to treat hairy cell leukemia
  • combat Kaposi sarcoma, which frequently appears in AIDS patients
  • treating viral infections such Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C
QUESTION: 13

Consider the following statements with reference to the presiding officers of the houses of the Parliament:
1. The presiding officers summon their respective houses from time to time.
2. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha are the Leaders of their respective houses.
3. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the ex-officio chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Speaker is the 'Head of the Lok Sabha', and its representative. Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the ‘Leader of the House’ means the prime minister, if he is a member of the Lok Sabha or a minister who is a member of the Lok Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as the Leader of the House. There is also a ‘Leader of the House’ in the Rajya Sabha. He is a minister and a member of the Rajya Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to function as such. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (and not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha) acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group which acts as a link between the Parliament of India and the various parliaments of the world. He also acts as the ex-officio chairman of the conference of presiding officers of legislative bodies in the country. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • Summoning: The President of India from time to time summons each House of Parliament to meet. But, the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months. In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
QUESTION: 14

In India, Uniform Recall Period (URP) and Mixed Recall Period (MRP) are associated with

Solution:
  • According to the World Bank, “poverty is pronounced deprivation in wellbeing. In India, Planning Commission used to estimates the number and proportion of people living below the poverty line at national and State levels, separately for rural and urban areas. (Poverty estimation in India is now carried out by NITII Aayog’s task force)
  • Poverty estimates based on a large sample survey of household consumption expenditure carried out by the National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO) after an interval of approximately five years. The Commission has been estimating the poverty line and poverty ratio since 1997 on the basis of the methodology spelt out in Lakdawala Committee Report.
  • In India there are two methods of poverty estimation namely Uniform Recall Period (URP) and Mixed Recall Period (MRP). Up until 1993-94, the poverty line was based on URP data. In URP, consumer expenditure data for all the items are collected for a 30-day recall period.
  • Since 1999-2000, however, data are being collected according to MRP. In MRP, consumer expenditure data for five non-food items, namely clothing, footwear, durable goods, education, and institutional medical expenses, are collected for a 365-day recall period and the consumption data for the remaining items are collected for a 30-day recall period.
  • The methodology of estimating poverty and the identification of BPL households have been a matter of debate. Two committees under the chairmanship of Prof. Suresh D. Tendulkar and Dr. N.C. Saxena have submitted their reports on methodology for estimation of poverty and methodology for conducting BPL census in rural areas, respectively. Further, an Expert Group under the chairmanship of Prof. S.R. Hasim has been set up to recommend methodology for identification of BPL families in urban areas.
QUESTION: 15

Which of the following statement is correct about Operation Clean Art?

Solution:
  • Operation Clean Art was the first pan India operation to crackdown on the smuggling of mongoose hair in the country.
  • It was conceived by WCCB (Wildlife Crime Control Bureau) with the singular aim of ensuring that the mongoose hair brush trade should be closed down across the country.
  • These animals were poached by “hunting communities” across the country.
  • The mongoose is listed in Schedule II Part 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act and any smuggling or possession of its body part is a non-bailable offence.
  • Brushes made of mongoose hair are preferred because they are superior and hold colour better.
  • The IUCN Status in its Red List is least concerned.
  • There are six species of mongoose found in India- Indian grey mongoose, Small Indian mongoose, Ruddy mongoose, Crab-eating Mongoose, Stripe-necked mongoose and Brown mongoose.

About WCCB

  • WCCB is the statutory multi-disciplinary body under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
  • It was established in June 2007 by amending the Wildlife (Protection) Act (WLPA), 1972, a special Act to protect the wildlife and fauna in the country.
QUESTION: 16

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Banks Board Bureau (BBB)?
1. It is an autonomous body established based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor committee.
2. Functions of the board include helping banks in terms of developing business strategies and capital raising plans.
3. It is responsible for the selection and appointment of the board of directors of both public and private sector banks.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

(i) With a view to improve the Governance of Public Sector Banks (PSBs), the Government set up an autonomous Banks Board Bureau having three ex-officio members and three expert members in addition to Chairman. All the Members and Chairman are part-time. The Chairman of Bank Board Bureau is appointed by the Central government.

(ii) The Banks Board Bureau has its genesis in the recommendations of The Committee to Review Governance of Boards of Banks in India (also known as P.J.Nayak Committee), May 2014. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

(iii) As part of its mandate, and guided by a spirit of collaboration, the bureau is engaging with various stakeholders. The objective of such engagement being to help prepare the banks in the public sector universe to take on the competition have the ability to appropriately manage and price risk across business cycles, develop resilience to generate internal capital and have the capacity to generate external capital warding of the moral hazard in counting on the scarce budgetary resources of taxpayers. The Bureau is also engaging with the Public Sector Banks (PSBs) to help build capacity to attract, retain and nurture both talent and technology - the two key differentiators of business competencies in the days to come.

(iv) Functions of the Banks Board Bureau:

  • To be responsible for the selection and appointment of the Board of Directors in Public Sector Banks(PSBs) and FIs (Whole-time Directors and Non-Executive Chairman); Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • To advise the Government on matters relating to appointments, confirmation or extension of tenure and termination of services of the Board of Directors of the above-mentioned levels;
  • o To advise the Government on the desired structure at the Board level, and, for senior management personnel, for each PSB and FI;
  • To help banks to develop a robust leadership succession plan for critical positions that would arise in the future through appropriate HR processes including performance management systems.
  • To build a data bank containing data relating to the performance of PSBs/FIs and its officers;
  • To advise the Government on the formulation and enforcement of a code of conduct and ethics for managerial personnel in PSBs/FIs;
  • To advise the Government on evolving suitable training and development programs for management personnel in PSBs/FIs; and To help banks in terms of developing business strategies and capital raising plans etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION: 17

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI)?
1. It is a regulatory body established by the government by executive order.
2. The rules formulated by the body for advertisement norms are binding in nature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

(i) The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) established in 1985 is a voluntary self-regulatory council, registered as a not-for-profit Company under section 25 of the Indian Companies. Act with the objective of ensuring that all advertising should be legal, decent, honest and truthful along with a sense of social responsibility to the consumer and to the rules of fair competition. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

(ii) The ASCI is not a Government body, nor does it formulate rules for the public or for the relevant industries. It has adopted a Code for Self-Regulation in Advertising. It is a commitment to honest advertising and to fair competition in the market-place. It stands for the protection of the legitimate interests of consumers and all concerned with advertising – advertisers, media, advertising agencies and others who help in the creation or placement of advertisements. Hence statement 2 is not correct

(iii) ASCI was formed with the support of all four sectors connected with Advertising, viz. Advertisers, Advertising Agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press) and others like PR Agencies, Market Research Companies etc. ASCI seeks to ensure that advertisements conform to its Code for Self-Regulation.

(iv) Objectives of ASCI: The main objects to be pursued by the Company on its incorporation are:

(v) To monitor administer and promote standards of advertising practices in India with a view to

(vi) Ensuring the truthfulness and honesty of representations and claims made through advertising and safeguarding against misleading advertising.

  • Ensuring that Advertising is not offensive to generally accepted norms and standards of public decency.
  • Safeguarding against the indiscriminate use of advertising for the promotion of products or services, which are generally regarded as hazardous to society or to individuals or which are unacceptable to society as a whole.
  • Ensuring that advertisements observe fairness in competition and the canons of generally accepted competitive behaviour.
  • To codify adopt and from time to time modify the code of advertising practices in India and implement, administer and promote and publicize such a code.
  • To provide facilities and machinery in the form of one or more Consumer Complaints Council shaving such composition and with such powers as may be prescribed from time to time to examine complaints against advertisements in terms of the Code of Advertising practices and report thereon.
  • To give wide publicity to the Code and seek adherence to it of as many as possible of those engaged in advertising.
  • To print and publish pamphlets, leaflets, circulars or other literature or material that may be considered desirable for the promotion of or carrying out of the objects of the Company and disseminate it through any medium of communication.
QUESTION: 18

Consider the following statements with reference to the procedure related to voting on demands for grant in the Parliament:
1. The voting is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.
2. The expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India is neither subject to voting nor can be discussed.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution:

(i) The budget goes through the following six stages in the Parliament:

  • Presentation of budget.
  • General discussion.
  • Scrutiny by departmental committees.
  • Voting on demands for grants.
  • Passing of appropriation bill.
  • Passing of finance bill.

(ii) Voting on Demands for Grants is the fourth stage in the enactment of the budget.

  • The Lok Sabha takes up the voting of demands for grants. The demands are presented ministry-wise. A demand becomes a grant after it has been duly voted.
  • The voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha, that is, the Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands. Second, the voting is confined to the votable part of the budget—the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is not submitted to the vote (it can only be discussed). Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is not correct.
QUESTION: 19

Which of the following statement is/are correct with reference to Rahnumai MazDayasan Sabha?
1. The sabha was against the social reforms in the field of women empowerment.
2. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji and others.
3. Rast-Goftar was an important newspaper that propagated the message of this association.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Statement 2 is correct: Rahnumai Maz Dayasan sabha or religious reform association was founded by Dadabhai Nauroji, Nauroji Furdoonji, and S S Bengalee in 1851. The objective of this association was the regeneration of the social condition of the Parsi community and restoration of the Zoroastrian religion to its pristine Purity.
  • Statement 1 is not correct. The sabha had focused on the improvement of the condition of Parsi women and propagated for removal of the purdah system, raising the age of marriage among women and the education of women.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The newspaper Rast-Goftar (Truthteller), a Gujarati fortnightly, was an important newspaper that propagated the message of this association. It was founded by Dadabhai Nauroji in 1851to clarify Zoroastrian concepts and promote Parsi social reforms.
QUESTION: 20

Which of the following reflects Constitutionalism in the Indian polity?

Solution:

(i) Constitutionalism has a variety of meanings. Most generally, it is "a complex of ideas, attitudes, and patterns of behavior elaborating the principle that the authority of government derives from and is limited by a body of fundamental law". Constitutionalism’ means limited government or limitation on government. It is the antithesis of arbitrary powers. Constitutionalism recognizes the need for a government with powers but at the same time insists that limitation be placed on those powers. The antithesis of constitutionalism is despotism. A government that goes beyond its limits loses its authority and legitimacy.

(ii) Constitutionalism could be seen as constituting the following elements:

  • government according to the constitution;
  • separation of power;
  • sovereignty of the people and democratic government;
  • constitutional review;
  • independent judiciary;
  • limited government subject to a bill of individual rights;
  • controlling the police;
  • civilian control of the military; and
  • no state power, or very limited and strictly circumscribed state power, to suspend the operation of some parts of, or the entire, constitution.

(iii) These nine elements of constitutionalism can be divided into two groups, one concerns power construction and power lodging; and the other deals with rights protection. These two groups of institutional arrangements work together to ensure the supremacy of the constitution, the existence of limited yet strong government, and the protection of basic freedomFundamental rights: These are sets of rights guaranteed to the citizens that place a certain restriction on the exercise of powers of the government. The Supreme court in its I.R Coelho judgment (2007) stated that "The principle of constitutionalism is now a legal principle which requires control over the exercise of Governmental power to ensure that it does not destroy the democratic principles upon which it is based. These democratic principles include the protection of fundamental rights."

QUESTION: 21

Which of the following best describes the term ‘Management Effectiveness Evaluation’, often mentioned in the news? 

Solution:

Management effectiveness evaluation is defined as the assessment of how well protected areas are being managed – primarily the extent to which management is protecting values and achieving goals and objectives. The term management effectiveness reflects three main ‘themes’ in protected area management:

  • Design issues relating to both individual sites and protected area systems;
  • Adequacy and appropriateness of management systems and processes;
  • Delivery of protected area objectives including conservation of values.

IUCN-WCPA has developed a management effectiveness evaluation framework which provides a consistent basis for designing evaluation systems for protected areas.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 22

Consider the following statements:
(1) Laffer curve always suggests that higher the tax rate levied by the government, higher would be the tax revenue generated.
(2) Phillips curve depicts the inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment.
(3) Kuznets curve suggests that as an economy grows, income inequality increases first and then it starts falling.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Laffer curve was developed by economist Arthur Laffer. It depicts the relationship between tax rate and tax revenue generated by the government. It looks like an inverted U curve which means an increase in the tax rate increases the tax revenue until it reaches its maximum beyond which any tax rate hike would dissuade taxpayers to work less. So, statement (1) is not correct.

Phillips curve expresses the negative relationship between inflation and unemployment. For instance, an increase in the money supply would increase the aggregate demand in the economy, which would cause the output to rise at higher prices and unemployment to fall in the economy. So statement (2) is correct.

Kuznets curve defines the relationship between output and income inequality. It looks like an inverted U curve, which means that initially, economic development causes higher inequality but, later, economy witnesses trickle-down effects of higher growth reaching down to lower and middle-income strata of the society. Consequently, it enables them to access affordable healthcare and quality education and thus reduces income inequality in the economy. So statement (3) is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 23

Consider the following:
1. The river is dotted with islands, sand bars and braided channels.
2. It hosts the only known population in India of the endangered Indus river dolphin.
3. The site includes endangered species such as mahseer and hog deer.

Which of the following rivers has above-given characteristics?

Solution:

The Ramsar Convention has declared 10 more wetlands in India as sites of international importance. Beas conservation reserve Punjab is one of the Ramsar sites. The Beas Conservation Reserve (Punjab) is a 185-kilometre stretch of the Beas River majorly in Punjab. The River is dotted with islands, sand bars and braided channels, creating a complex environment supporting substantial biodiversity. The Reserve hosts the only known population in India of the endangered Indus river dolphin. Further threatened species include the endangered mahseer and hog deer as well as the vulnerable smooth-coated otter. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 24

With reference to Prompt Corrective Action (PCA), consider the following statements:
1. Department of Financial Services imposes Prompt Corrective Action on weak and troubled banks.
2. It triggers if a bank has breached the thresholds for capital adequacy, non-performing assets, capital to risk-weighted assets, return on assets and leverage ratio.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The PCA norms trigger if a bank's net NPA crosses 6 per cent or if CRAR (capital to risk-weighted assets) is below the regulatory requirement of 10.88 per cent as of March 2019. PCA is a framework under which banks with weak financial metrics are put under watch by the RBI. The RBI introduced the PCA framework in 2002 as a structured early-intervention mechanism for banks that become undercapitalised due to poor asset quality, or vulnerable due to loss of profitability. It aims to check the problem of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) in the Indian banking sector.

The framework was reviewed in 2017 based on the recommendations of Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 16 (5th April 2020) the working group of the Financial Stability and Development Council on Resolution Regimes for Financial Institutions in India and the Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission. PCA is intended to help alert the regulator as well as investors and depositors if a bank is heading for trouble. The idea is to head off problems before they attain crisis proportions. Essentially PCA helps RBI monitor key performance indicators of banks, and takes corrective measures, to restore the financial health of a bank.

The Department of Financial Services covers the functioning of Banks, Financial Institutions, Insurance Companies and the National Pension System. The Department is headed by the Finance Secretary who is assisted by other functionaries. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 25

Who among the following are elected by the Members of Lok Sabha?
(1) Speaker
(2) Deputy Speaker
(3) A panel of Chairpersons of Lok Sabha
(4) Pro Tem Speaker

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. Hence Statements (1) and (2) are correct.

Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates from amongst the members a panel of not more than ten chairpersons. Any of them can preside over the house in the absence of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker. However, a member of the panel of chairpersons cannot preside over the House, when the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant. During such time, the Speaker’s duties are to be performed by such member of the House as the President may appoint for the purpose. Hence Statement (3) is not correct.

As provided by the Constitution, the Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately before the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem. Hence Statement (4) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 26

Consider the following statements:
1. Frogs and toads are carnivores.
2. All mammals are viviparous.
3. The most harmless sharks tend to be the largest, and they eat plankton.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Frogs and toads are carnivores. So, statement 1 is correct.

The unique feature of Monotremes, a sub-division of mammal, is that monotremes lay eggs rather than giving birth to young ones. There are only five living species of monotreme. They are- the duck-billed platypus and four of spiny anteaters. These are found in Australia and guinea. So, statement 2 is not correct.

The most harmless sharks tend to be the largest and they eat plankton. For example, the basking shark, the whale shark and the megamouth sharks. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 27

Which of the following statements is not correct about national accounting?

Solution:

Net factor income earned from abroad is the income earned by Nationals working overseas minus income paid to outsiders working in Indian Territory. Since GNP is the income earned by Nationals anywhere in the world; therefore GNP at factor cost- GDP at factor cost is equal to Net factor income earned from abroad. So statement (a) is correct.

GDP can be either less than or more than or equal to GNP depending on the value of Net factor income earned from abroad. So statement (b) is not correct.

In economics, leakage is a diversion of funds from some iterative process. For example, in the Keynesian depiction of the circular flow of income and expenditure, leakages are the non-consumption uses of income, including saving, taxes, and imports. So statement (c) is correct.

GDP at factor cost = GDP at market prices – taxes + subsidies. Hence, GDP at factor cost includes no tax and excludes no subsidies. So, statement (d) is correct. Therefore, the answer is (b).

QUESTION: 28

Arrange the below-mentioned industries in decreasing order of their water use:
1. Pulp and paper industry
2. Engineering
3. Thermal power plants
4. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

QUESTION: 29

Which of the following best describes Captive Coal Mining?

Solution:

The government recently lifted end-use restrictions for coal mines to end the captive mining regime, one of the last vestiges of the licence-quota raj, and opened the gates wider for private entry when the blocks are auctioned for commercial coal mining. Captive Coal Mining means the coal which taken out by a Company for its use & it won't be able to sell it in the market. Mostly Steel Producing Companies & Electricity Generation Companies used to have this Captive Coal Mining. The Coal which is extracted is used only by the Company and their Subsidiaries. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 30

Consider the following statements:
(1) The adjournment of a session does not affect the Bills or any other business pending before the House.
(2) The prorogation does not affect the Bills except the pending notices which lapse on prorogation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

A ‘session’ of the Parliament is the period spanning between the first sitting of a House and its prorogation (or dissolution in the case of the Lok Sabha). Each session consists of many meetings. A sitting of Parliament can be terminated by Adjournment or Adjournment sine die or prorogation or dissolution (only for Lok Sabha). An Adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time and not a session. The presiding officer of the House does it. It does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. Hence, Statement (1) is correct.

On the other hand, the prorogation is done by the President after the presiding officer declares the House adjourned sine die when the business of a session is completed. The President can also prorogue the House while in session. The Prorogation also does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session. Hence, Statement (2) is also correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 31

Consider the following pairs:
Species Occurrence
1. Forest owlet Dry Deciduous forest
2. White-Bellied heron Southern Montane forest
3. Bengal Florican Grasslands

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Owlet prefers subtropical and tropical dry deciduous forest, but has also been seen in the moist deciduous forest or dense jungle. Unlike other owls, forest owl is diurnal and crepuscular. They mainly feed on small prey animals that live in understorey vegetation within the owlet’s habitat, such as lizards and also amphibians, small birds, rodents and large invertebrates like grasshoppers. So, statement 1 is correct.

The white-bellied heron is found in the wetlands of tropical and subtropical forests in the foothills of the eastern Himalayas of India and Myanmar. It also occurs in Bhutan's sub-tropical areas and was once found in Nepal. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Bengal floricans live in open tall grassland habitats with scattered bushes. The most important grass species are satintails (Imperata, in particular, Cogongrass I. cylindrica), sugarcane. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 32

Consider the following statements in the context of the fiscal health of the Indian economy:
(1) Budget estimates kept the fiscal deficit target for 2019-20 at 3.8% of GDP.
(2) FRBM Act permits a maximum deviation of 0.5% for fiscal deficit target in the given year.
(3) Fiscal slippage might disrupt the capital flows and affect sovereign credit rating adversely.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Budget estimates (given in Budget 2019-20) kept fiscal deficit target for 2019-20 at 3.3% of the GDP. It is a revised estimate (given in Budget 2020-21) that kept fiscal deficit target for 2019-20 at 3. 8% of GDP to boost the slowing Indian economy. So statement (1) is not correct.

Section 4(2) of FRBM act 2003 allows for escape clause to revive the economy through some structural reforms. It permits a maximum deviation of 0. 5% from fiscal deficit target for the given year. So statement (2) is correct.

High fiscal deficit exposes the risk of default on Sovereign bonds and thus increases yields on government securities. For the same reason, fiscal slippage also dissuades the foreign portfolio investors and thus may cause capital outflows.

So statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 33

Which of the following are the consequences of coastal sand mining?
1. Enlargement of river mouths
2. Reduction in sea level
3. Air and water pollution
4. Increased salinity of groundwater

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Depletion of sand in the streambed and along coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. So, statement 1 is correct.

Sand mining does not lead to a change in sea level, but its effect is compounded by the effect of sea-level rise. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Sand mining generates extra vehicle traffic, which negatively impairs the environment. Where access roads cross riparian areas, the local environment may be impacted. So, statement 3 is correct.

Sand mining transforms the riverbeds into large and deep pits; as a result, the groundwater table drops, leaving the drinking water wells on the embankments of these rivers dry. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 34

With reference to Mantle Plume, consider the following statements:
1. It is an upwelling of abnormally hot rock within the Earth's mantle.
2. It primarily occurs on Tectonic plate boundaries only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

A mantle plume is an upwelling of abnormally hot rock within the Earth's mantle. As the heads of mantle plumes can partly melt when they reach shallow depths, they are thought to be the cause of volcanic centres known as hotspots and probably also to have caused flood basalts. So, statement 1 is correct.

It is a secondary way that Earth loses heat, much less important in this regard than is heat loss at plate margins. Some of the volcanic regions lie far from tectonic plate boundaries, while others represent unusually large-volume volcanism near plate boundaries. So, statement 2 is not correct.

The figure shows the example of Plume location. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 35

This method became prominent in the United States as a rationing tactic during World War II, which was adopted primarily to conserve rubber for the war effort. Today, it is primarily used to reduce the cost of the individual traveller.

Which of the following best suits to the description given above?

Solution:

Carpooling/ car-sharing/ride-sharing/lift-sharing is the sharing of car journeys so that more than one person travels in a car, and prevents the need for others to have to drive to a location themselves. Carpooling first became prominent in the United States as a rationing tactic during World War II. Ridesharing began during World War II through “car clubs” or “car-sharing clubs”. The US Office of Civilian Defense asked neighbourhood councils to encourage four workers to share a ride in one car to conserve rubber for the war effort. It also created a ride-sharing program called the Car Sharing Club Exchange and Self-Dispatching System. Carpooling returned in the mid-1970s due to the 1973 oil crisis and the 1979 energy crisis. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 36

Consider the following statements regarding the National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project (NATRiP):
1. It is the largest and one of the most significant initiatives in the automotive sector so far, funded by Government of India.
2. One of the prime objectives of the project is to reduce the casualties in road accidents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project (NATRiP), is a fully Government of India funded project with a total project cost of Rs. 3727.30 crore. This is the largest and one of the most significant initiatives in the automotive sector so far. So, statement 1 is correct.

The project aims at creating core global competencies in the automotive sector in India by facilitating the seamless integration of Indian Automotive industry with the world, through setting up state-of-the-art, four greenfields automotive testing, homologation and R&D infrastructure facilities and up-gradation of two existing facilities with new technology and equipment. It also aims to make Indian vehicles comply with the global standard of safety (in line with UN Brasilia resolution) to reduce the high number of casualties and road accidents (i.e. 1.46 and 5.01 lakhs respectively in the year 2015). So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 37

Consider the following statements:
1. It had a giant water reservoir and a unique water harnessing system.
2. In its layout, the city was divided into three parts.
3. It has inscriptions comprising ten large-sized signs like an advertisement board.

Identify the important site of Indus Valley Civilisation with the help of the above-mentioned statements.

Solution:

Dholavira in Gujarat: It was a tripartite city, with a giant water reservoir, unique water harnessing system, stadium, dams and embankments, inscriptions comprising ten large-sized signs like an advertisement board. It is located on the Tropic of Cancer. Lothal in Gujarat was an important site for naval trade, had a dockyard, the practice of burial of cremated remains, rice husk, fire altars, painted jar, modern-day chess, a terracotta figure of horse and ship, instruments for measuring 45, 90 and 180-degree angles.

Surkotda: in Gujarat- It is known for the first actual remains of the horse bones during Harappa era. Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 16 (5th April 2020) Mohenjo-daro: on the river Indus, is known for the following material finds – the citadel, the great bath, the great granary, post-cremation burial, a sculpture of bearded priest, the famous bronze statue of the Dancing Girl and Pashupati seal. Hence, the correct answer is option (a).

QUESTION: 38

Consider the following pairs:
Festivals. Communities
1. Mim kut Abors
2. Lai Haraoba Meitei
3. Wangala Garo

Q. Which of the pairs mentioned above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

MimKut is a festival of Mizoram. It is usually celebrated during the months of August and September, after the harvest of maize. MimKut is celebrated with great fanfare by drinking rice-beer, singing, dancing, and feasting. Samples of the year's harvests are consecrated to the departed souls of the community. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

Lai Haraoba is a festival associated with Meetei People, celebrated to please the Umang Lai, the traditional deities. Lai Haraoba means "merrymaking of the Gods" in Meetei. So, statement 2 is correct.

Wangala is a harvest festival celebrated by the Garo tribe, who live in Meghalaya, Nagaland and Assam. In this post-harvest festival, they give thanks to MisiSaljong, the sun god, for blessing the people with a rich harvest. So, statement 3 is also correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option (c)

QUESTION: 39

Which of the following statements in the context of public goods is/are correct?
(1) Profit-seeking firms often avoid producing public goods due to the free-rider problem.
(2) The marginal cost of supplying the public good to an extra person is non-zero.
(3) All goods provided by the Government are public goods.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Free rider problem exists in public goods consumption because they are non-excludable. For instance, National defence provides external security to every Indian irrespective of whether they have paid for it in the form of taxes. So every person attempts to evade his obligation to pay for the provisioning of such goods. This causes market failure and calls for the government to step in for the provisioning of Public good. So statement (1) is correct.

Public goods are non-excludable and non-rival in nature. Consider any public good, say, national defence or street light on the public road. Making any person accessing either of them would not lead to an increase in the cost of provisioning. So, the marginal cost of supplying public goods to an extra person is zero. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Though it is correct to say that government steps in to provide public goods due to market failure but not all goods provided by the government are public goods. For instance, toll tax is levied upon commuters to ply their vehicles on the road. So, this service is exclusionary in nature. So, statement (3) is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 40

Consider the following statements regarding National Data and Analytics Platform:
(1) It is an initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and IT for ensuring good governance.
(2) It seeks to make government data accessible publicly to stakeholders in a user-friendly manner.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Government think tank NITI Aayog will develop a national data and analytics platform. It will make publicly available government data accessible to stakeholders in a user-friendly manner. NDAP will strive to ensure that the data is assured, consistent, coherent and credible. The NDAP will host multiple datasets, present them coherently and provide visualisation and analytics tools.

It will be built with the help of stakeholders and government bodies who work with big data. The NDAP will be hosting various central and state government datasets. The first version of the NDAP is proposed to be released in 2021. So, statement (1) is not correct and statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 41

With reference to microfinance institutions (MFIs) in India, consider the following statements.
1. A MFI cannot be registered as a non-profit entity.
2. Loans given by MFIs primarily cater to the marginal sections of the society, with an overwhelming majority being women.
3. MFIs presently are the largest provider of micro credit (small loans) in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Statement 1: Microfinance institutions (MFIs) came into being in the 90s as banks’ reluctance to lend to those without credit history provided an opportunity to those willing to take risk and organise rural communities. The microfinance sector, especially given its transformation since 2000, provides a good illustration of how social goals can be achieved at scale using business models that are different from that of PSBs.

Most microfinance institutions (MFIs) started as not-for-profit institutions. Bandhan bank was an MFI that turned into a bank. India has some 223 MFIs, including societies and NGO-run entities, and 168 of them are registered with Sa-Dhan, the association of community development finance institutions. There are 47 non bank finance company-micro finance institutions (NBFC-MFIs) registered with Microfinance Institutions Network (MFIN), an industry body, covering 90% of the portfolio While the top 10 find it easier to get equity or bank loan, the smaller ones are always at a disadvantage.

Statement 2: The United Nation’s declaration of Microfinance year in 2005 highlighted the role of MFIs in poverty alleviation. Some MFIs have transformed themselves into banks as well. As of 2016, 97 per cent of the borrowers were women with SC/ST and minorities accounting for around 30 per cent and 29 per cent of the borrowers. This shows that the loans given by these MFIs primarily cater to the marginal sections of the society.

Statement 3: As of June, banks are the largest provider of micro credit with a loan outstanding of Rs38,486 crore, taking their share in micro-credit business to 36%, according to MFIN. Bandhan, the MFI-turned bank, with its Rs 21,400-crore loan portfolio, is a major contributor to this. The bank-led micro loan includes Rs 10,131 crore of indirect lending through business correspondent partnerships in FY17.

Learning: Post 2000, while their objective remained poverty alleviation via inclusive growth and financial inclusion, MFIs moved from purely pursuing social goals to the double bottom-line approach of achieving social and financial returns. The emphasis on social impact at the “bottom of the pyramid” combined with good financial returns of some of the leading MFIs, brought many mainstream commercial entities into the sector. For instance, some banks partnered with MFIs by lending to MFIs for on-lending the money to this segment and thereby fulfil their priority lending obligations. At a pan-India level, micro credit reaches to not more than 20% of the total households through a variety of channels, including banks and NBFC-MFIs. They have catered to some four crorehouseholds by way of 6.3 crore microcredit loans in a country of over 130 crore people.

QUESTION: 42

The Lingayatas argued against
1. Sanskrit shruti tradition
2. Caste system
3. Idol worship
4. The neglect of temple rituals by Bhakti saints

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Virashaiva movement initiated by Basavanna and his companions like Allama Prabhuand Akkamahadevi began in Karnataka in the mid-twelfth century. The Virashaivas argued strongly for the equality of all human beings and against Brahmanical ideas about caste and the treatment of women. They always wear about the body a small stone emblem (linga or ishtalinga) signifying the presence of Lord Shiva in the heart of each believer. Indeed, their alternate name, Lingayata, meaning “lingabearer,” derives from this characteristic practice.

They also distinguish themselves from Brahminical Hindus by their rejection or renunciation of the caste system, their emphasis on the rights of women, their rejection or diminution of the Sanskritshruti tradition, and their avoidance of elaborate temple rituals. They were also against all forms of ritual and idol worship. At the heart of Virashaiva tradition lie the vachanas—Kannada-language devotional poems. These are attributed to a remarkable gathering of spiritual adepts—called sharanas or “worthy spiritualabodes”—from the 12th and 13th centuries in northern Karnataka.

QUESTION: 43

Consider the following statements.
1. “Electricity” and “electricity generated from hydro projects” fall under state subject in the Constitution.
2. Water being a State subject, the implementation of state hydro power projects is governed by the State policies.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Electricity and electricity generated from hydro projects fall under concurrent subjects. Water being State subject, the actual implementation of SHP projects is governed by the State policies. The decision of setting up SHP projects or its allotment is taken by the State Government. Expressions of interests/ proposals/bids from private developers are invited by the State Government. States have their own policies and procedure for developing the sector and allotment of projects. The Techno-Economic Clearances (TEC)/ approvals for the SHP projects are provided by the concerned State Government.

Learning: The Ministry of power, being the nodal Ministry for the development of small hydrosector in the country provides broad framework by way of incentivizing the sector development through various measures. These include assistance for the assessment of SHP potential including micro siting, developing testing and standardization and training facilities, support for survey and investigation, Detailed Project Report (DPR) preparation, capital subsidy for projects, support for renovation and modernization etc. Small hydel projects normally do not encounter the problems associated with large hydel projects of deforestation and resettlement. The projects have potential to meet power requirements of remote and isolated areas. These factors make small hydel as one of the most attractive renewable source of grid quality power generation. 24 States of the country have policies in place towards private sector participation to set up SHP projects.

QUESTION: 44

Which of these are the synthetic modifications of Penicillin?
1. Erythromycin
2. Amoxycillin
3. Chloramphenicol

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

The range of bacteria or other microorganisms that are affected by a certain antibiotic is expressed as its spectrum of action. Antibiotics which kill or inhibit a wide range of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria are said to be broad spectrum antibiotics. Those effective mainly against Gram-positive or Gram-negative bacteria are narrow spectrum antibiotics. If effective against a single organism or disease, they are referred to as limited spectrum antibiotics.

Penicillin G has a narrow spectrum. Ampicillin and Amoxycillin are synthetic modifications of penicillins. These have broad spectrum. Antibiotics have either cidal (killing) effect or a static (inhibitory) effect on microbes. A few examples of the two types of antibiotics are as follows: Bactericidal are Penicillin, Aminoglycosides, Ofloxacin. Bacteriostatic are Erythromycin, Tetracycline and Chloramphenicol.

QUESTION: 45

What is/are the differences between ‘Blue Wafer’ and ‘Black Wafer’ Solar photo-voltaic (PV) cells?
1. Blue Wafer is domestically produced whereas Black Wafer is imported.
2. Black Wafer is generally more energy efficient than Blue Wafer.
3. The government’s solar energy procurement policy prefers Blue Wafer over Black Wafer.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

In a major decision that is likely to give further boost to domestic manufacturing of solar cells in India, MNRE has issued a clarification in respect of domestically manufactured solar PV cell today. It may be noted that a number of flagship programmes of MNRE such as KUSUM, have provisions for mandatory use of domestically manufactured solar PV cells. However it was seen that some manufacturers have been importing semi –processed solar PV cells (generally called blue wafer) and making final Solar PV cells with little value addition in India.

The Ministry has clarified that if diffused silicon wafer (generally called ‘Blue Wafer’) is imported and the same is used as raw material for the manufacture of solar PV cells in India, such solar PV cells shall not qualify as domestically manufactured solar PV cells, for the purpose of MNRE’s Schemes / Programmes. A solar PV cell shall be considered to be domestically manufactured only if the same has been manufactured in India, using undiffused silicon wafer (generally called ‘Black Wafer’).It is expected that this decision will help in establishing a strong solar manufacturing base in India.

QUESTION: 46

Atal Jyoti Yojana (AJAY) is primarily concerned with

Solution:

Excerpts from the PIB release: Atal Jyoti Yojana (AJAY) Phase-II - applications covered: Solar Street Lights. Project is proposed to be implemented by EESL. Hon’ble MPs of concerning parliamentary constituencies will provide consent letter along with location of lights. Respective DM will issue sanction for allocation of funds from MPLAD funds. Financial support: 75% of the cost by MNRE and balance 25% through MPLAD.

Targets: A total of 3,04,500 Solar Street Lights (SSLs) will be installed in the following states/Regions States of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha and Assam, which were covered in Phase-I of the Scheme as there is additional demand in these States. Hilly States/UTs of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. North Eastern States including Sikkim. Islands of Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep. Parliamentary constituencies covering 48 aspirational districts of States as well.

QUESTION: 47

Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following seas?
1. Red Sea
2. Mediterranean Sea
3. Black Sea

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:
QUESTION: 48

The Green Energy Corridor Project aims at synchronizing electricity produced from renewable sources with

Solution:

The Green Energy Corridor Project aims at synchronizing electricity produced from renewable sources, such as solar and wind, with conventional power stations in the grid. For evacuation of large-scale renewable energy, Intra State Transmission System (InSTS) project was sanctioned by the Ministry in 2015-16. It is being implemented by eight renewable-rich states of Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.

The project is being implemented in these states by the respective State Transmission Utilities (STUs).The project includes approximately 9400 ckm transmission lines and substations of a total capacity of 19000 MVA to be completed by March 2020. The purpose is to evacuate 20,000MW of large-scale renewable power and improvement of the grid in the implementing states. The total project cost is Rs. 10141 crores. The funding mechanism consists of 40%Government of India Grant (total Rs. 4056.67 crores), 20% state equity and 40% loan from KfW, Germany (500 million EUR).The Central grant is disbursed in two installments to the STUs: a) 70% advance on the award of contract, and b) balance 30% after successful commissioning and three months of performance testing.

Institutional Arrangements & Implementation Strategy: The project is being implemented by respective State Transmission Utilities (STUs) allocating the work through a competitive bidding process. The Ministry monitors the project every month. A Project Appraisal Committee under the chairmanship of concerned Joint Secretary and with members from CEA & PGCIL monitors the project & recommends on the disbursal of the central grant to the STUs.

QUESTION: 49

Which of these can be considered deciding battles after which the East India Company became a political power in India?

Solution:

The Battle of Buxar was fought between British East India Company and the combined forces of Nawabs and the Mughal Emperor leading to the victory of the British. It led to the signing of the Allahabad Treaty in 1765. With the defeat of Mir Kasim, the rule of Nawabs came to an end. Diwani rights or fiscal rights were secured which meant that the British would administer and manage revenues of large areas which included the present-day West Bengal, Jharkhand, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh, as well as of Bangladesh. Battle of Plassey is judged to be one of the pivotal battles in the control of Indian subcontinent by the colonial powers.

The British, after the war, wielded enormous influence over the Nawab and consequently acquired significant concessions for previous losses and revenue from trade. The British further used this revenue to increase their military might and push the other European colonial powers such as the Dutch and the French out of South Asia, thus expanding the British Empire.

QUESTION: 50

‘Animism’ is

Solution:

It is the attribution of living soul to plants, inanimate objects, and natural phenomena. So, broadly defined, animism is the belief that everything has a spirit: trees, birds, rainstorms, rocks. It is practiced by a large number of tribes in India presently, and the practice dates back to the Harappan civilization. Since the “great” religions of the world have all evolved in historic times, It may be assumed that animistic emphases dominated the globe in the prehistoric era.

In societies lacking any doctrinal establishment, a closed system of beliefs was less likely to flourish than an open one. It is also the belief in a supernatural power that organizes and animates the material universe. Some scholarly opinions on this: “Tylor thought the idea of the human soul must have been the elementary religious idea and the model for all other supernatural beings.

Later scholars, responding to evidence of simpler beliefs that yet entailed a properly religious awe toward the sacred, began to debate the probability of a “pre-animistic stage” of theological evolution. Corresponding to this turn in religious studies was a shift in anthropology toward a concern with “primitive thought” and, in particular, the explanation of religion as intellectual error. French sociologist Émile Durkheim, in his The Elementary Forms of the Religious Life (1915), held that religion originated in totemism, conceiving that identification with a totem animal could result from an irrational projection of individuals’ expectations of security in the bosom of society.”

QUESTION: 51

Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) was launched some time ago. Consider the following about it.
1. It was setup with the primary aim of strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
2. The scheme extends to all States and UTs including non-Part IX (Constitution) areas where Panchayats do not exist.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

The Government in 2018 launched the restructured Centrally Sponsored Scheme(CSS) of Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) for implementation from 01.04.2018 to 31.03.2022with the primary aim of strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) with main thrust on convergence with Mission Antyodaya and emphasis on strengthening PRIs in the 117 Aspirational districts. The scheme has been approved with total budget outlay of Rs. 7255.50 crore out of which State share will be Rs. 2755.50 crore and the Central share will be Rs. 4500.00 crore. The scheme extends to all States and UTs including non-Part IX areas where Panchayats do not exist.

Learning: The scheme consists of Central and State Components. The Central component comprises (i) National level activities viz. National Plan for Technical Assistance (NPTA) including NPMU, collaboration with academic institutions/ institutions of excellence including NIRD&PR, Hyderabad for various activities of CB&T for PRIs(ii) Mission Mode Project (MMP) on e-Panchayat and(iii) Incentivization of Panchayats. The State component relates to activities to be undertaken by State Governments for CB&T and other activities for strengthening of Panchayats viz Capacity Building &Training etc.

The sharing pattern for the State component is in the ratio of 60:40 except NE and Hilly States where Central and State sharing is in the ratio of 90:10. For all UTs, Central share is 100%.The scheme has programmatic focus for phased saturation mode on ensuring basic orientation training for the Elected Representatives of Panchayats, within six months of their election and refresher trainings within 2 years. RGSA will have thrust for SHG-PRI convergence to ensure effective community mobilisation and greater public ownership of flagship programs of the Govt. Use of e-governance and technology driven solutions at Panchayat level will be increased to attain administrative efficiency, improved service delivery, and greater accountability.

QUESTION: 52

The Architectural Splendour of Hampi is located in which of these river basins?

Solution:

Hampi is located in the Krishna-Tungabhadra basin, which formed the nucleus of the Vijayanagara Empire, founded in 1336.The magnificent ruins at Hampi reveal a well-fortified city. No mortar or cementing agent was used in the construction of these walls and the technique followed was to wedge them together by interlocking. Hampi fell into ruin following the defeat of Vijayanagara in 1565 by the Deccani Sultans – the rulers of Golconda, Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, Berar and Bidar.

QUESTION: 53

Consider the following statements about the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996.
1. Dispute resolution as per traditional laws, customs and religious beliefs of tribal areas come under the jurisdiction of the concerned Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
2. All posts of Chairpersons of PRIs in the areas covered under PESA are reserved for tribal community and only persons belonging to tribal community can contest for these posts.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

PESA is a legislation which extends the provisions of Panchayats to the Fifth Schedule Areas. These areas have preponderance of tribal population. This Act is called "The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996”.

Total ten States are covered under PESA. These States are: Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana. All posts of Chairpersons of PRIs in the areas covered under PESA are reserved for tribal community and only persons belonging to tribal community can contest for these posts.

What are the important powers provided to Gram Sabha under PESA?

Following three types of powers have been given to a Gram Sabha under PESA:
(i) Developmental:
consultation before land acquisition, prevent land alienation, power to enforce prohibition, prior approval of all developmental projects and control over tribal sub-plan, power to issue utilization certificate for developmental expenditure, selection of beneficiaries of poverty alleviation and other schemes of individual benefits, control over institutions and functionaries of social sectors.
(ii) Dispute resolution as per traditional laws and customs: collective resolution of disputes on the basis of customs, traditional laws and religious beliefs of tribal areas.
(iii) Ownership and management of natural resources: maintaining ownership of local tribal community over water resources, common lands, minor forest produce, minor minerals, etc. as well as effective implementation and monitoring of related laws.

QUESTION: 54

It is the largest coastal lagoon in India and the largest wintering ground for migratory birds on the Indian sub-continent. A wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, it is

Solution:

In 1981, Chilika Lake was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention due to its rich biodiversity as shown by the facts that: Over a million migratory waterfowl and shorebirds winter here. Several rare and endangered species are found in the region.

As an estuarine lagoon, it supports a unique assemblage of marine, brackish and freshwater species. The lake supports fisheries that are the lifeline of the community. The lake is of great value in preserving genetic diversity.

QUESTION: 55

The Good Governance Index is a uniform tool across States to assess the Status of Governance and impact of various interventions taken up by the State Government and UTs. The GGI takes into consideration ten sectors, these include, inter alia:
1. Agriculture and Allied Sectors
2. Commerce & Industries
3. Human Resource Development
4. Public Health
5. Environment

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

The objectives of GGI are to provide quantifiable data to compare the state of governance in all states and UTs, enable states and UTs to formulate and implement suitable strategies for improving governance and shift to result oriented approaches and administration. Various principles have been kept in mind while selecting the indicators, i.e. it should be easy to understand & calculate, citizen-centric & result driven, leading to improved results and applicable to all states and UTs, among others.

Various consultation meetings were held with the stakeholders, including consultations with sector experts, ministries, states & UTs.

The GGI takes into consideration ten sectors:
1). Agriculture and Allied Sectors,
2). Commerce &Industries,
3). Human Resource Development,
4). Public Health,
5). Public Infrastructure & Utilities,
6). Economic Governance,
7). Social Welfare & Development,
8). Judicial & Public Security,
9). Environment and
10). Citizen-Centric Governance.

These ten Governance Sectors are measured on total 50 indicators. Difference indicators are given different weightage under one Governance Sector to calculate the value. E.g. Under Agriculture & Allied Sector, there are 6 indicators with different weightage, namely: Growth rate of agriculture and allied sector (0.4), growth rate of food grains production (0.1),growth rate of horticulture produce (0.1), growth rate of milk production (0.1), growth rate of meat production (0.1) and crop insurance (0.2).

The states and UTs are divided into three groups:
a). Big States,
b). North-East & Hill States and
c). UTs. The states and UTs are ranked on all indicators separately, at the same time composite ranking is also calculated for these states and UTs under their respective groups based upon these indicators.

QUESTION: 56

The principle of “separation (or distribution) of powers” was given by

Solution:

This principle, being followed in most democracies, was in vogue even during the colonial era. With the help of George Barlow, Cornwallis prepared a comprehensive code, covering the whole field of administration’, judicial, police, commercial and fiscal in British India. This Code was based upon the principle of Montesquieu, “the Separation of Powers”, which was popular in the West in 18th century.

The term "tripartite system" is commonly ascribed to French Enlightenment political philosopher Baron de Montesquieu, although he did not use such a term but referred to "distribution" of powers. In The Spirit of the Laws (1748), Montesquieu described the various forms of distribution of political power among a legislature, an executive, and a judiciary. Montesquieu's approach was to present and defend a form of government whose powers were not excessively centralized in a single monarch or similar ruler (a form known then as "aristocracy").In order to curb undue exercise of authority Cornwallis made all officials answerable to the courts.

QUESTION: 57

Consider the following statements about the “SAARC Framework Agreement for Energy Cooperation (Electricity)”.
1. The Agreement allows authorized entities of SAARC member states, including private or public power producers, to buy and sell electricity within the region.
2. Under the Agreement, SAARC member states will provide non-discriminatory access to the regional transmission grids in their respective countries.
3. The Agreement states that the Permanent Court of Arbitration, Hague, is the final authority to settle disputes related to energy exchange and trade among member nations.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

“SAARC Framework Agreement for Energy Cooperation (Electricity)” was signed by all Member States of SAARC including India on 27.11.2014 in 18th SAARC Summit held in Nepal on26th-27th November, 2014. The objectives of the Framework Agreement are as mentioned below:

The Agreement allows: Authorized entities of SAARC member states, including private or public power producers, power utilities, trading companies, transmission utilities, distribution companies or other institutions established under the law, to buy and sell electricity within the region; Buying and selling entities to negotiate the terms and conditions, payment security mechanism and tenure of the electricity trade, subject to regulation by the laws of the concerned member states; and Member states to consider exempting export and import duties, and other fees for cross border trade and exchange of electricity between buying and selling entities.

Under the Agreement, SAARC member states will provide non-discriminatory access to the regional transmission grids in their respective countries. Negotiations—through bilateral, trilateral, or regional agreements—will be conducted among member states in installing cross-border transmission lines and cross-border interconnections for cross-border electricity trade. The Agreement envisaged forming a system operations and settlement mechanism, a regulatory mechanism, and a dispute settlement mechanism. The SAARC Arbitration Council is the final authority to settle disputes related to energy exchange and trade among member nations.

QUESTION: 58

The state of Telangana shares a border with
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Odisha
3. Karnataka
4. Chhattisgarh

Select the correct answer using the codes below.
 

Solution:

B is the correct option.Telangana is bordered by the states of Maharashtra to the north, Chhattisgarh to the east, Karnataka to the west, and Andhra Pradesh to the east and south.

QUESTION: 59

The applications areas for India’s National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) include
1. Weather Prediction
2. Aerospace Engineering
3. Finance
4. Seismic Analysis
5. Disaster Management

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

The Mission would be implemented and steered jointly by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY) at an estimated cost of Rs.4500 crore over a period of seven years.

Objective: To make India one of the world leaders in Supercomputing and to enhance India’s capability in solving grand challenge problems of national and global relevance ; To empower our scientists and researchers with state-of-the-art supercomputing facilities and enable them to carry out cutting-edge research in their respective domains; To minimize redundancies and duplication of efforts, and optimize investments in supercomputing; To attain global competitiveness and ensure self-reliance in the strategic area of supercomputing technology

Application areas: Climate Modelling; Weather Prediction; Aerospace Engineering including CFD, CSM, CEM; Computational Biology; Molecular Dynamics; Atomic Energy Simulations; National Security/Defence Applications; Seismic Analysis; Disaster Simulations and Management Computational Chemistry; Computational Material Science and Nanomaterials; Discoveries beyond Earth (Astrophysics); Large Complex Systems Simulations and Cyber Physical Systems; Big Data Analytics; Finance; Information repositories/ Government Information Systems

Learning: The Mission envisages empowering our national academic and R&D institutions spread over the country by installing a vast supercomputing grid comprising of more than 70 high performance computing facilities. These supercomputers will also be networked on the National Supercomputing grid over the National Knowledge Network (NKN).The NKN is another programme of the government which connects academic institutions and R&D labs over a high speed network. Academic and R&D institutions as well as key user departments/ministries would participate by using these facilities and develop applications of national relevance. The Mission also includes development of highly professional High Performance Computing (HPC) aware human resource for meeting challenges of development of these applications. The Mission implementation would bring supercomputing within the reach of the large Scientific & Technology community in the country and enable the country with a capacity of solving multi-disciplinary grand challenge problems.

QUESTION: 60

Consider the following statements.
1. The Index of Economic Freedom is published by UNESCAP.
2. Global Economic Freedom Index is brought out by the Max Planck Institute.
3. In both these global indices of economic freedom, India ranks in the bottom half.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

In the global indices of economic freedom, India ranks in the bottom half. The Index of Economic Freedom, which is brought out by the Heritage Foundation, and the Global Economic Freedom Index, which is brought out by the Fraser Institute, measure economic freedom as the freedom of choice enjoyed by individuals in acquiring and using economic goods and resources.

In the Index of Economic Freedom, India was categorized as ‘mostly unfree’ with a score of 55.2 in 2019 ranking the Indian economy129th among 186 countries, i.e., in the bottom 30 percent of countries. In the component pertaining to “investment freedom”, which measures the ease of flow of investment capital both internally and across the country’s borders, India scores a low40.0 on a scale of 0-100(repressed) against the world average of 58.5. In the Index of Global Economic Freedom too, India ranks 79th among 162 countries with 108th rank in business regulation.

QUESTION: 61

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Call money market?
1. Under the call money market, funds are transacted on an overnight basis.
2. RBI decides the interest rates in the call money markets.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • The money market is a market for short-term financial assets that are close substitutes of money. The most important feature of a money market instrument is that it is liquid and can be turned into money quickly at low cost and provides an avenue for equilibrating the short-term surplus funds of lenders and the requirements of borrowers.
  • The call/notice money market forms an important segment of the Indian Money Market. Under the call money market, funds are transacted on an overnight basis and under notice money market, funds are transacted for a period between 2 days and 14 days. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Participants in call/notice money market currently include scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs), co-operative banks (other than Land Development Banks) and Primary Dealers (PDs), both as borrowers and lenders. Non-bank institutions (other than PDs) are not permitted in the call/notice money market. Eligible participants are free to decide on interest rates in the call/notice money market. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Liabilities of a scheduled commercial bank include Paid-up capital and reserves, Deposits (demand and time), Borrowings and other liabilities. Assets of a commercial bank include cash in hand and with RBI, money at short and call notice, Investments, loans, advances, etc.
QUESTION: 62

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Solution:
  • Cooper Case, 1970: This case is related to the Ordinance making power of the President under Article123 of the Constitution. The President can make ordinance only when s/he is satisfied that the circumstances exist that render it necessary for him/her to take immediate action. However, the Supreme Court, in this case, held that the President's satisfaction can be questioned in a court on the ground of malafide. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • Kihota Hollohan Case, 1992: Under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Speaker decides the questions of the disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha, arising on the ground of defection. This is a judicial power enjoyed by the speaker of the Lok Sabha. But, in the light of some biased and discriminatory decisions given by the Speaker, the Supreme Court, in this case, held, that the Speaker/Chairman holds a pivotal position in the scheme of parliamentary democracy and are guardians of the rights and privileges of the House and ruled that the decision of the Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • Rupa Ashok Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra and Anr, (2002): In this case, the Supreme court held that so as to prevent abuse of process as well as to cure miscarriage of justice, it may reconsider its judgments. The court has devised a term ‘curative’ for this purpose. A curative petition is required to be certified by a senior advocate and then it is circulated to the three senior most judges and the judges who delivered the impugned judgment. There is no time limit for filing a curative petition and it is guaranteed under Article 137 of the Constitution of India. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
QUESTION: 63

Which of the following statements regarding the Telangana peasant struggle is/are correct?
1. During the movement, gram raj committees, units of local self governance were set up.
2. The struggle ended with the accession of Hyderabad state in India.
3. Communist Party of India played an important role in this struggle.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Telangana Peasant Struggle (1946-51) was launched in the territory of Nizam's Hyderabad against the intense exploitation and oppression of landlords, moneylenders, traders, and Nizam's officials. It may be mentioned that Nizam's crown lands and those of this aristocracy accounted for nearly one-third of the state on which more than 20 lakh poverty-stricken peasants worked for their living. The objectives of this armed struggle were land grabbing and redistribution, the abolition of compulsory levy to the government, and stopping eviction of tenants under any pretext. The struggle turned in violent with police retaliation against the gram raj committees that were set up by the peasant groups to work as defense squads and institutions for self-governance. Communist Party of India had played an important role in organizing the peasants during the struggle. This movement had the sympathies of Congress party, Arya Samaj and Prajamandal Movement.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: The struggle didn't end with the accession of Hyderabad State in India. The peasant of Telangana and adjoining area of Madras state continued their struggle under communist leadership and many officials and landlord were either fled away or murdered. This movement was withdrawn in October 1951 with the change in the tactics of the Communist Party of India.
QUESTION: 64

Consider the following statements regarding Foot and mouth diseases that affects cattle and other ruminants:
1. It is caused by a bacterium.
2. It can readily be transmitted to human beings.
3. The occurrences of this disease are confined to tropical countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) is a severe, highly contagious viral disease of cattle and swine. It also affects sheep, goats, deer, and other cloven-hooved ruminants. The virus causes a high fever for two or three days, followed by blisters inside the mouth and on the feet that may rupture and cause lameness. It can be spread by infected animals through aerosols, through contact with contaminated farming equipment, vehicles, clothing, or feed, and by domestic and wild predators. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Humans can be infected with the foot-and-mouth disease through contact with infected animals, but this is extremely rare. Some cases were caused by laboratory accidents. Because the virus that causes FMD is sensitive to stomach acid, it cannot spread to humans via consumption of infected meat, except in the mouth before the meat is swallowed. Symptoms of FMD in humans include malaise, fever, vomiting, red ulcerative lesions (surface-eroding damaged spots) of the oral tissues, and sometimes vesicular lesions(small blisters) of the skin. Thus the disease crosses the species barrier with difficulty and with little effect. Given the high incidence of the disease in animals, both in the past and in more recent outbreaks worldwide, its occurrence in man is rare so experience of the human infection is limited. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Foot and Mouth disease has affected many countries across the globe including Mexico, the United States, Japan, and the United Kingdom. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • Recently, National Animal Disease Control Programme for Foot and Mouth Disease was launched. It is a100% centrally funded programme, with a total outlay of Rs.12,652 crore from 2019 to 2024. It aims to control Foot and Mouth Disease and Brucellosis by 2025 with vaccination and eventual eradication by2030.
QUESTION: 65

Consider the following statements regarding the Revenue expenditure of Union Budget:
1. GST compensation to State Governments is included in revenue expenditure.
2. Interest payments constitute the largest component of the Centre’s revenue expenditure.
3. The grants to Central autonomous bodies are considered a part of the revenue expenditure.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • There is a constitutional requirement in India (Article 112) to present before the Parliament a statement of estimated receipts and expenditures of the government in respect of every financial year. This ‘Annual Financial Statement’ constitutes the main budget document. Further, the budget must distinguish expenditure on the revenue account from other expenditures. Therefore, the budget comprises of the (a) Revenue Budget and the (b) Capital Budget.
  • The Revenue Budget shows the current receipts of the government and the expenditure that can be met from these receipts.
  • Revenue receipts are receipts of the government which are non-redeemable, that is, they cannot be reclaimed from the government. They are divided into tax and non-tax revenues. Tax revenues consist of the proceeds of taxes and other duties levied by the central government. Tax revenues, an important component of revenue receipts, comprise of direct taxes – which fall directly on individuals (personal income tax) and firms (corporation tax), and indirect taxes. The corporation tax contributed the largest share in revenue receipts.
  • Revenue Expenditure is expenditure incurred for purposes other than the creation of physical or financial assets of the central government. It relates to those expenses incurred for the normal functioning of the government departments and various services, interest payments on debt incurred by the government, and grants given to state governments and other parties.
  • The major components of the revenue expenditure of the Government include Interest payments, Subsidies, Salaries, Pension, Defence revenue expenditures, expenditure on Central Police Organizations and the revenue transfers made to the State/UT Governments in the form of Finance Commission grants, Centrally Sponsored Schemes, and Other Transfers.
  • In the other transfers category is included the transfer to State Governments for compensating revenue losses on account of implementation of GST, the grants to Central autonomous bodies are also a substantial part of the Central sector schemes are also in the nature of revenue expenditure. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.
  • Interest payments constitute the largest component of the Centre’s revenue expenditure. The total interest payments outgo in 2021-22 and 2022-23 as a per cent of revenue receipts is expected to be 35.6 per cent in both. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION: 66

Consider the following statements with respect to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
1. The Bureau consists of members from the Central government, State governments, and the Private sector.
2. It functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
3. BIS certification mark is compulsory for milk powder and packaged mineral water.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the national Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • It is established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986. The organisation was formerly known as the Indian Standards Institution (ISI). The BIS Act, 1986 has now been revised as BIS Act, 2016 and establishes BIS as the National Standards Body.
  • The Bureau is a Body Corporate consisting of 25 members representing both Central and State governments, Members of Parliament, industry, scientific and research institutions, consumer organizations and professional bodies; with Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution as its President and with Minister of State for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution as its Vice-President. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The BIS Act 2016, Rules and Regulations framed there under authorizes BIS to undertake conformity assessment of products, services, systems and processes. Under the product certification scheme I,BIS grants licence to use the standard mark or grants certificate of conformity as per conformity assessment schemes given in BIS (Conformity Assessment) Regulations, 2018.
  • The Product Certification Schemes of BIS aims at providing Third Party assurance of quality, safety and reliability of products to the customer. Although, the scheme itself is voluntary in nature, the Government of India, on considerations of public health and safety, security, infrastructure requirements and mass consumption has enforced compulsory certification on various products through Orders issued from time to time under various Acts. Products such as packaged mineral water, milk powder, Portland cement, cereal based foods, stoves etc. are under compulsory certification scheme. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 67

Which of the following is the correct sequence in decreasing order of weights of the given currencies in the SDR Basket?
1. U.S. dollar
2. Euro
3. Japanese yen
4. Chinese yuan

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:
  • The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an interest-bearing international reserve asset created by the IMF in1969 to supplement other reserve assets of member countries.
  • The SDR is based on a basket of international currencies comprising the U.S. dollar, Japanese yen, euro and pound sterling. In October the IMG decided to include the Chinese renminbi (RMB) as the fifth currency in the SDR Basket.
  • It also decided that the weights of each currency would be 41.73 percent for the U.S. dollar, 30.93percent for the Euro, 10.92 percent for the Chinese yuan, 8.33 percent for the Japanese yen, and 8.09 percent for the Pound sterling.
QUESTION: 68

The Government of India has recently announced that India will participate in the next PISA (The Programme for International Student Assessment) test to be conducted in 2021. PISA, a global evaluation system, is an initiative of:

Solution:
  • The Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA) is the OECD’s (Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development) Programme for International Student Assessment.
  • The aim of the test is to give a comprehensive analysis of how education systems are working in the country in terms of preparing its students for higher education and subsequent employment.
  • PISA assesses students between the ages of 15 years and 3 months and 16 years and 2 months, and who are enrolled in an educational institution at grade 7 or higher.
  • PISA measures student performance in mathematics, reading, and science and even innovative subjects like collaborative problem-solving and money literacy. Unlike conventional tests and exams, the PISA test does not assess students on their memory, rather their application capabilities.
  • The PISA test is held every three years and the next test will be held in 2021. It was first conducted in2000.
  • India will participate in the next PISA test to be conducted in 2021. India has participated in the PISA test only once before, in 2009 in which it ranked 72nd out of 73 countries. The Government blamed “out of context” questions for the poor results in 2009 and decided it won’t participate further.
QUESTION: 69

Consider the following pairs:

Q. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:
  • Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Painted Grey Ware Pottery is usually associated with the Early Rig Vedic Period and the Early Iron Age. It is prominent in the Ghaghra-Hakra Valley and Gangetic plains. Its time period is usually from 1200 BCE to 600 BCE. It represents the fall of Indus culture and the rise of Kuru-Panchal culture.
  • Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) is associated with the rise of Mahajanapadas and Buddhism in India. Magadha was the center of NBPW. It developed beginning around 700 BC, in the late Vedic period, and peaked from c. 500–300 BC, coinciding with the emergence of 16 great states or mahajanapadas in Northern India, and the subsequent rise of the Mauryan Empire. Delhi, Hastinapura, Sravasti, Ujjain, Patliputra were the centers of NBPW pottery.
  • Pair 3 is correctly matched: Ochre Painted Ware, Black & Red Ware, Ochre-Red Ware, all types ofpottery are associated with the Neolithic-Chalcolithic period. The variety of pottery varies from different areas. The Banas culture, Malwa culture, etc. also patronized this type of pottery. These types of pottery peaked usually before the 1200 BCE.
QUESTION: 70

In the context of securities market, what do you understand by the term 'Rights Issue'?

Solution:
  • Cash-strapped companies can turn to rights issues to raise money when they really need it. In these rights offerings, companies grant shareholders the right, but not the obligation, to buy new shares at a discount to the current trading price.
  • A rights issue is an invitation to existing shareholders to purchase additional new shares in the company. This type of issue gives existing shareholders securities called rights. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
  • With the rights, the shareholder can purchase new shares at a discount to the market price on a stated future date. The company is giving shareholders a chance to increase their exposure to the stock at a discount price.
QUESTION: 71

With reference to 'Niche' and 'Habitat' in ecology, consider the following statements:
1. While habitat is an area where a species lives, niche is the sum of all activities and relationships of a species.
2. Two or more species can not only share the same habitat but also have the same niche in an ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is correct: In nature, many species occupy the same habitat but they perform different functions. The functional characteristics of a species in its habitat is referred to as “niche” in that common habitat. Habitat of a species is like its ‘address’ (i.e. where it lives) whereas niche can be thought of as its “profession” (i.e. activities and responses specific to the species). The term niche means the sum of all the activities and relationships of a species by which it uses the resources in its habitat for its survival and reproduction.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: A niche is unique for a species while many species share the habitat. No two species in a habitat can have the same niche. This is because if two species occupy the same niche they will compete with one another until one is displaced. For example, a large number of different species of insects may be pests of the same plant but they can co-exist as they feed on different parts of the same plant.
  • Another example is the vegetation of the forest. The forest can support a large number of plant species as they occupy different niches: the tall trees, the short trees, shrubs, bushes and grasses are all part of the forest but because of varying heights they differ in their requirements for sunlight and nutrients and so can survive together.
QUESTION: 72

"He was the prominent figure of the Indian Socio-Religious reform movement. He was one of the editors of the Anglo-Marathi weekly Indupraksh supporting the Indian freedom struggle and criticizing the colonial economic policies. He was closely associated with the Prarthna Samaj.”

Which of the following personality is being described in the above passage?

Solution:
  • Mahadev Govind Ranade was a great social reformer, scholar and author. He studied at a famous Elphinstone college in Bombay. He was a judge in Bombay high court and became a member of the Bombay legislative council. He was a great supporter of women's education and widow remarriage and advocated against practices such as child marriages.
  • He was associated with Prarthna Samaj, a socio-religious reform organization. He founded Vaktruttvottejak Sabha and Poona Sarvajnik Sabha. He had also founded the Indian National Social conference whose Ist session was held in Madras in 1887 along the sideline of the Indian national congress session.
  • He edited Anglo-Marathi weekly Indu Prakash with Dr. R. G. Bhandarkar. Along with him, he also established the Maharashtra Girls Education Society. He was critical of British economic policies in India. In 1897, he was appointed as a member of a committee that was entrusted with tallying national and local expenditure along with necessary recommendations to stabilize the financial condition, for which he was awarded Companion of the Order of the Indian Empire’ (CIE) decoration by the British government.
  • He wrote many books and his famous work was " Rise of Maratha Power".
QUESTION: 73

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the SPICe+ web form?
1. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. It is aimed at doubling India’s spice exports by 2024.3.
3. It will facilitate easy incorporation of businesses in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
  • Statement 1 is not correct: It is an initiative under the Ministry of corporate affairs.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: It is aimed at improving India’s performance in ease of doing business in India.
  • Statement 3 is correct: SPICe+ is an integrated Web form offering 10 services by 3 Central Govt Ministries & Departments. (Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Ministry of Labour & Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance) and One State Government (Maharashtra), thereby saving as many procedures, time and cost for Starting a Business in India.
  • It is applicable for all new company incorporations w.e.f. 15th February 2020. Under this there is mandatory registration of EPFO and ESIC, which may increase the compliance burden for startups and micro-enterprise.
QUESTION: 74

India is a member of which of the following Global banks?
1. New Development Bank
2. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
3. African Development Bank
4. Bank for International settlement

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

(i) African Development Bank: The overarching objective of the African Development Bank (AfDB)Group is to spur sustainable economic development and social progress in its regional member countries(RMCs), thus contributing to poverty reduction. India became a member of the African Development Fund in 1982 and of the African Development Bank in 1983. India also has a bilateral trust fund, the India Africa Economic Cooperation Fund (INAFEC) and collaboration on project preparation. In May2017, the Bank held its 52nd Annual Meetings in Jaipur.

(ii) Bank for International Settlement (BIS): Established in 1930, the BIS is owned by 62 central banks, representing countries from around the world that together account for about 95% of world GDP. Its head office is in Basel, Switzerland and it has two representative offices: in Hong Kong SAR and in Mexico City. Its objective is to serve central banks in their pursuit of monetary and financial stability, to foster international cooperation in those areas and to act as a bank for central banks. India is represented by Reserve bank of India, India's central bank.

(iii) New Development Bank: During the sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014), the leaders signed the Agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB) also known as BRICS bank. In the Fortaleza Declaration, the leaders stressed that the NDB will strengthen cooperation among BRICS and will supplement the efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global development, thus contributing to collective commitments for achieving the goal of strong, sustainable and balanced growth. The headquarters of the Bank is located in Shanghai.

  • The authorized capital for NDB is $100 billion while the initial subscribed capital is $50 billion. Initial subscribed capital was equally distributed among the founding members {$10 billion each}.The voting power of each member is equal to the number of its subscribed shares in capital stock. Hence, all the BRICS member have equal voting powers
  • India is one of the founding members of New Development Bank.

(iv) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is an international financial institution that aims to support the building of infrastructure in the Asia-Pacific region. The bank has 37 member states (all "Founding Members") and was proposed as an initiative by the government of China. India is one of the founding members.

QUESTION: 75

Consider the following pairs:
Bird Sanctuary State
1. Nalsarovar : Rajasthan
2. Vaduvoor : Tamil Nadu
3. Ranganthitu : Kerala

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:
  • Migrant birds visit Nalsarovar every year from November to February in Gujarat. The lake - Nalsarovar - and the wetlands around it were declared a bird sanctuary in 1969. Spread over 120 sq.kms, the lake and the extensive reed beds and marshes are an ideal habitat for aquatic plants and animals. The lake attracts a large variety of birds like plovers, sandpipers and stints. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
  • The Vaduvoor Bird sanctuary is located in the Vaduvoor Lake 25 km from Thanjavur and 30 km from Thiruvarur, Tamil Nadu. It was created in the year 1999, the sanctuary attracts more than 40 species of water birds like the White Ibis, Painted stork, Grey Pelican, Pintails, Cormorants, Teals, Herons, Spoonbills, Darters, Coots, Open bill Storks, Pheasant-tailed Jacana, etc. The Sanctuary is a favorite spot for the migratory birds and during the months of November and December, more than 20000 winged visitors reach this area. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary, also known as Pakshi Kashi of Karnataka, is a bird sanctuary in the Mandya District of the state of Karnataka in India. It is the largest bird sanctuary in the state, only 40acres in area, and comprises six islets on the banks of the Kaveri river. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
QUESTION: 76

Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Sector Regulatory Appointments Search Committee (FSRASC):
1. It has been created based on the recommendations of the Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission.
2. It is headed by the Finance Minister.
3. It makes the recommendation for the post of RBI Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC), was set up in 2011 for rewriting the financial sector laws to bring them in harmony with the current requirements.
  • The Commission, inter alia, recommended a non-sectoral, principle-based legislative architecture for the financial sector, by restructuring existing regulatory agencies and creating new agencies, wherever needed, for better governance and accountability.
  • Based on the recommendations of FSLRC, a Financial Sector Regulatory Appointment Search Committee (FSRASC) has been approved by Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) for recommending names for appointment of Chairperson and Members of Financial Sector Regulatory Bodies including those of Governor and Deputy Governors of Reserve Bank of India. The FSRASC has been reconstituted on 9th June 2017. This would bring about uniformity in the selection of board members of financial sector regulators. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Financial Sector Regulatory Appointment Search Committee (FSRASC) is headed by Cabinet Secretary. The panel includes Additional Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister, who is a permanent government nominee, and three other experts, among others. As per the process, the panel will invite applications from eligible candidates and based on interactions with them will select the candidate. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • The appointment would be made by the central government on the recommendation of the FSRASC. It is noted that the FSRASC is free to identify and recommend any other person also, on the basis of merit, who has not applied for the post. The committee can also recommend relaxation in the eligibility and qualifications/experience criteria, in respect of outstanding candidates.
  • The successor of the RBI Governor will be found by a high-level panel headed by the Cabinet Secretary (FSRASC). Once the panel finalizes the name, it will be sent to the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • FSRASC also recommends names for other posts such as Deputy Governor of RBI, Chairman and Board members of SEBI, Chairman and Board members of Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
QUESTION: 77

Consider the following statements regarding Surcharge:
1. Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to impose a surcharge.
2. The whole proceeds of any such surcharge shall form part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. A surcharge cannot ordinarily be imposed over and above the GST.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

(i) A surcharge is discussed under Article 270 and 271 of the Constitution. A surcharge is stated to be “an increase” in any of the duties and taxes referred to in Articles 269 and 270. In simple words, a surcharge is a tax on tax.

(ii) Article 271 states that " Notwithstanding anything in articles 269 and 270, Parliament may at any time increase any of the duties or taxes referred to in those articles by a surcharge for purposes of the Union and the whole proceeds of any such surcharge shall form part of the Consolidated Fund of India." Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

(iii) From a reading of the relevant provisions of the Constitution, there seem to be four major features of a surcharge:

  • Parliament can impose a surcharge for ‘the purposes of the Union’. The exact import of this phrase is not clear, but it is logical that the Union can impose a surcharge only on its tax base.
  • Pursuant to Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, a surcharge cannot ordinarily be imposed over and above the GST. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Unlike a cess, in the case of a surcharge, there is no need to stipulate the purpose at the time of levy and it is the discretion of the Union to utilize the proceeds of the surcharges for whichever purpose it deems fit.
  • Owing to an exception under Article 270, the proceeds from surcharges need not be shared with State Governments.
QUESTION: 78

Consider the following statements:
1. The early Rigvedic period teachings were orally transmitted.
2. With the advent of Aranyakas sacrificial rites became more popular.
3. Purusha Sukta hymn in Rigveda reflects the existence of social divisions in the Vedic Age.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

(i) The term "veda" represents "vid" which means knowledge. Also the term "veda" represents collection of authoritative text and knowledge. In the early Rigvedic period, oral transmission was the only form of transmission. It was based on the memory of rishis and sages. It was transmitted through word of mouth. There are four basic Vedas: Rigveda, Samaveda, Yajurveda, Atharvaveda. Hence statement 1 is correct.

(ii) The Vedic literature may be divided into two parts: 'Sruti' and 'Smriti' literature.

(iii) The "Sruti" literature which means "that which is heard" and refers to the body of most authoritative, ancient religious texts comprising the central canon of Hinduism. It consists of:

  • The Samhitas which form the first part of each of the Vedas. A Samhita is a collection of mantras.
  • With the passage of time, the newer generations found the mantras of the Samhitas difficult to understand. The result was the Brahmanas. They contain ritualistic formulae and explain the social and religious meaning of rituals.
  • The Aranyakas form the third part of the Vedas. With the advent of the Aranyakas, the emphasis on the sacrificial rites seems to be diluting. There is a shift towards the philosophic and spiritual interpretation of the rituals. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Upanishads are the concluding portions of the Vedas or are at the end of the Vedas. Most of the Upanishads are in forms of dialogues between a master and a disciple. In Upanishads, a seeker raises a topic and the enlightened guru satisfies the query aptly and convincingly.

(iv) The Aranyaka and Upanishad sections of the Vedic literature envisage a progressive outlook. The Upanishads represent the early stage in the origin and development of the religions- metaphysical concepts which were used later by the religious leaders and reformers of ancient and medieval India. Some of them followed the traditional lines while others proceeded along the paths of unorthodoxy.

(v) Smriti, literally "that which is remembered" is a body of Hindu texts usually attributed to an author, traditionally written down, in contrast to Śrutis (the Vedic literature) considered authorless, that were transmitted verbally across the generations and fixed. Smriti is a derivative secondary work and is considered less authoritative than Sruti in Hinduism, except in the Mimamsa school of Hindu philosophy. The Smriti literature is a corpus of diverse varied texts. This corpus includes six Vedāngas (the auxiliary sciences in the Vedas), the epics (the Mahābhārata and Rāmāyana), the Dharmasūtras and Dharmaśāstras (or Smritiśāstras), the Arthasaśāstras, the Purānas, the Kāvyaor poetical literature, extensive Bhasyas (reviews and commentaries on Shrutis and non-Shruti texts), and numerous Nibandhas (digests) covering politics, ethics (Nitisastras), culture, arts, and society.

(vi) Purusha sukta is hymn tenth mandala of the Rigveda, dedicated to the Purusha, the "Cosmic Being".It describes the sacrifice of Purusha. All the elements of the universe, including the four social categories, were supposed to have emanated from his body: The Brahmana was his mouth, of his arms was made the Kshatriya. His thighs became the Vaishya, of his feet the Shudra was born. Thus, it reflects the social divisions existing during vedic period. Hence statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements regarding Congress Socialist Party:
1. It was formed as a response to India's participation in the Second World War.
2. It merged with the Congress after the latter declared the establishment of a socialistic pattern of society as its goal in the Avadhi Session of 1955.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

(i) Statement 1 is not correct: The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was formed in October 1934 under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and Minoo Masani. From the beginning, all the Congress socialists were agreed upon the following basic propositions:

  • The primary struggle in India was the national struggle for freedom and that nationalism was a necessary stage on the way to socialism.
  • Socialists must work inside the National Congress because it was the primary body leading the national struggle.
  • They must give the Congress and the national movement a socialist direction.
  • To achieve this objective they must organize the workers and peasants in their class organizations, wage struggles for their economic demands and make them the social base of the national struggle.

(ii) The Quit India resolution was passed on August 8, 1942. Due to the arrests, an action plan of the movement could not be formulated. The relatively young leadership of the Congress Socialist Party was active, but it had to work underground. In such a situation, Jai Prakash Narayan wrote two long letters from unknown places to provide guidance and encouragement to the revolutionaries and to explain the character and method of the movement.

(iii) Congress Socialist Party (CSP), with its own constitution, membership, discipline and ideology, it remained within the Congress Party till March 1948. Their disassociation as a protest against the Congress’s move towards the right and its growing authoritarian tendencies was announced at a meeting in Nashik on March 28, 1948. In September 1952, the CSP merged with the Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party (KMPP) to form a new party - Praja Socialist Party (PSP). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 80

With reference to All India State People's Conference (AISPC), consider the following statements:
1. It was conducted by princely states to contain the effect of congress.
2. It supported the British government during the Quit India movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • The advancement of the national movement and an increase in political awareness about democracy, a responsible government, and civil liberties were responsible for organizing Praja Mandals or state people conference in different princely states such as Mysore, Hyderabad, Baroda, and Kathiawar. This process came to a head in December 1927 with the convening of All India state's People Conference.
  • The policy of Indian National Congress towards the Indian states had been first enunciated in 1920Nagpur session where the residents of princely states were allowed to become the member of congress but with a condition that they wouldn't initiate any political activity in the states in the name of Congress. In1927, Congress reiterated its stand in consonance with the 1920 Nagpur session resolution. In 1929, Nehru in the Lahore session of Congress declared that Indian states cannot live apart from the rest of India. In the Haripura session of 1938, Congress again reiterated its policy that movement in states shouldn't be launched in its name. However, in 1939, the Tripuri session, Congress changed its policy towards state people conference. In 1939 Ludhiana's session of AISPC Jawaharlal Nehru was elected as its president.
  • During the Quit India movement, state people conferences formally joined the freedom struggle and supported congress. In addition to the demand for responsible government in princely states, they asked the British to quit India and States to be an integral part of India.
  • Hence both the statements are not correct.
QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements regarding the recently approved Mineral Laws (Amendment) Ordinance 2020:
(1) It allows any Indian-registered company even without any experience in mining to bid and develop coal blocks.
(2) It will result in awarding of a composite license issued as prospecting cum mining license for mining of coal and lignite

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution:

The Mineral Laws (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated on January 10, 2020. The Ordinance amends the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act) and the Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015 (CMSP Act). The ordinance allows any India-registered company to bid and develop coal blocks. So, statement (1) is correct.

Removal of restriction on end-use of coal: Currently, companies acquiring Schedule II and Schedule III coal mines through auctions can use the coal produced only for specified end-uses such as power generation and steel production. The Ordinance removes this restriction on the use of coal mined by such companies.

Eligibility for auction of coal and lignite blocks: The Ordinance clarifies that the companies need not possess any prior coal mining experience in India in order to participate in the auction of coal and lignite blocks.

Composite license for prospecting and mining: Currently, separate licenses are provided for prospecting and mining of coal and lignite, called prospecting license, and mining lease, respectively. But now there will be a composite license issued as prospecting cum mining license for mining of coal and lignite. So, statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the answer is (d).

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements with reference to World Economic Social Outlook Report 2020:
(1) It is released by the World Economic Forum.
(2) It states that the global unemployment rate has declined steadily over the past decade.
(3) It highlights that more than 60 per cent of the global workforce currently works in the informal economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

World economic social outlook report 2020 is released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). The global unemployment rate has remained relatively stable over much of the past decade, according to the UN’s International Labour Organisation (ILO). So, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

More than 470 million people worldwide are currently unemployed or underemployed, the United Nations (UN) said. This year, the number of people registered as unemployed is expected to rise to 190; 5 million up from 188 million in 2019. The ILO report highlighted that more than 60 per cent of the global workforce currently work in the informal economy, often toiling for substandard wages and lacking basic social protections. And in 2019, more than 630 million people, a fifth of the global working population lived in so-called working poverty, meaning they made less than USD 3.20 per day in purchasing power. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 83

Consider the following statements regarding the recently concluded National Organic Food Festival:
(1) It was hosted by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries and the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
(2) Its theme for the current year was ‘organic food for sustainable agriculture’.
(3) It emphasized empowering women entrepreneurs and facilitating business linkages through business to business (B2B) meetings.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

The Ministry of Food Processing Industries and the Ministry of Women and Child Development hosted the first National Organic Food Festival in New Delhi. Women entrepreneurs and Self-help groups displayed their organic products across a range of items such as fruits & vegetables, dry fruits, cereals, etc. So, statement (1) is correct. The theme for National organic food festival was ‘Unleashing India’s organic market potential’ and not ‘organic food for sustainable agriculture’. So, statement (2) is not correct.

This festival sought to empower women entrepreneurs and facilitate business linkages through B2G and B2B meetings. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 84

Consider the following statements regarding the Ease of Living Index:
(1) It focuses on necessary facilities provided to citizens.
(2) It assesses the ease of living standards of only metropolitan cities in the country.
(3) It has three features which include the quality of life, economic ability and sustainability.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution:

The Mumbai civic body has urged residents to participate in the survey by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The residents of Kalyan and Dombivli in Maharashtra can rate the city they live in under the Ease of Living Index 2019. The survey is based on various parameters such as power supply, drinking water, transport, health services and solid waste management. So, statement (1) is correct.

The Ease of Living Index was initiated by the government in 2018. It assesses the ease of living standards of 111 cities in the country. So, statement (2) is not correct.

Besides collecting data on a range of performance of the city’s administration, the exercise also includes citizen’s feedback on the services. The Ease of Living Index has three features which include the quality of life, economic ability and sustainability. Residents can give inputs in the citizens’ perception survey. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 85

Consider the following statements:
1. The higher concentration of dust particles is in equatorial regions as compared to temperate regions because of low pressure.
2. Water vapours act like a blanket around the earth and do not allow it to become too hot or too cold.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and Polar Regions where there is the presence of water droplets. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Water vapours also decrease from the equator towards the poles. It also absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat. It thus acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither to become too cold nor too hot. So, statement 2 is correct. Hence, the correct option is (b).

QUESTION: 86

Which of the following are the reasons for local sea-level change?
1. Construction of dams and reservoirs
2. An isostatic rebound of land surface
3. Over extraction of groundwater

Select the correct answer using the code given below: Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS

Solution:

A rise in global sea level occurs due to the warming of the ocean and the addition of freshwater into the ocean basins from melting ice on land. Local sea level, known as relative sea-level change, is affected by global sea-level fluctuations, changes in land elevation, winds, and ocean circulation. Sea level rises due to land subsidence. For example, Land subsidence due to the construction of dams and reservoirs which reduces the sediment load carried by the river over the long run there can be a compaction of the sediments deposited over delta, but new sediments are not added. So, statement 1 is correct.

Sea level may perceive to be falling due to Isostatic rebound of the land surface. For example, relative sea-level fall has been observed along the Southeastern Alaskan coast and of the coast of Scandinavia due to glacial retreat. So, statement 2 is correct.

Isostasy: The equilibrium that exists between parts of the earth's crust, which behaves as if it consists of blocks floating on the underlying mantle, rising if the material (such as an ice cap) is removed and sinking if the material is deposited.

QUESTION: 87

Consider the following pairs:
Sea Bordering Country
1. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan
2. Black Sea : Greece
3. Red Sea : Syria
4. Mediterranean Sea : Morocco

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Solution:

The Caspian Sea is the world's largest inland body of water, variously classed as the world's largest lake or a full-fledged sea. It is an endorheic basin (a basin without outflows) located between Europe and Asia, to the east of the Caucasus Mountains and to the west of the broad steppe of Central Asia. It is bounded by Kazakhstan to the northeast, Russia to the northwest, Azerbaijan to the west, Iran to the south, and Turkmenistan to the southeast. So, statement 1 is correct.

The Black Sea is a body of water and marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean between Eastern Europe, the Caucasus, and Western Asia. It is supplied by a number of major rivers, such as the Danube, Dnieper, Southern Bug, Dniester, Don, and the Rioni. The watersheds of many countries drain into the Black Sea beyond the six that immediately border it. The Black Sea is bordered by Ukraine, Romania, Bulgaria, Turkey, Georgia, and Russia. So, statement 2 is not correct.

The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. The connection to the ocean is in the south through the Bab el Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden. To the north lie the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez (leading to the Suez Canal). So, statement 3 is not correct.

The Mediterranean Sea is a sea connected to the Atlantic Ocean, surrounded by the Mediterranean Basin and almost completely enclosed by land: on the north by Southern Europe and Anatolia, on the south by North Africa and on the east by the Levant. Its connection to the Atlantic via the Strait of Gibraltar—the narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and separates Spain in Europe from Morocco in Africa—is only 14 km wide. In oceanography, it is sometimes called the Eurafrican. So, statement 4 is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option (d).

QUESTION: 88

If you travel by road from Gandhinagar to Aizawl, what is the minimum number of states within India through which you travel, including the origin and destination?

Solution:

Gandhinagar is a city in the western Indian state of Gujarat and Aizwal is the capital of Mizoram in the Northeastern part of India. Therefore to reach to the destination one has to start from Gujarat, travelling to Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal then Assam and finally to Mizoram. In the above-stated journey, one has to cover a minimum of 7 Indian States. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 89

Which of the following Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution are not available to foreign nationals?
(1) Freedom of speech and expression.
(2) Freedom to practice and propagate religion.
(3) Right to elementary education.
(4) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Protection of freedom of speech under Article 19 of the Constitution is available to only citizens and not to foreigners. Hence, Statement (1) is correct.
As given in the table below, Statements (2) and (3) are not correct.
Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment is available to only citizens.

Hence, Statement (4) is correct.

Therefore the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of Hydrothermal carbonization (HTC) recently in the news? 
1. It is carried out mainly to produce a solid product similar to coal. 
2. It can convert wet biomass into Hydrochar when heated at a temperature range of 200–300°C. 
3. It has been applied to solve practical problems like sewage sludge and municipal solid waste. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

Hydrothermal carbonization (HTC) is a thermochemical conversion technique which is attractive due to its ability to transform wet biomass into energy and chemicals without pre-drying. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The solid product, known as hydrochar- when char is made by hydrothermal carbonization (a process where biomass is heated at a temperature range of 200–300°C in the presence of water), and is comprised of two phases: liquid and solid (i.e., slurry). So, statement 2 is correct.

It has received attention because of its ability to prepare precursors of activated carbon in wastewater pollution remediation, soil remediation applications, solid fuels, and other carbonaceous materials. Besides the generally lignocellulose biomass used as sustainable feedstock, HTC has been applied to a wide range of derived waste, including sewage sludge, algae, and municipal solid waste to solve practical problems and generate desirable carbonaceous products. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 91

Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 was enacted to control the production, supply and distribution of, and trade and commerce in, certain goods considered as essential commodities. Consider the following statements.
1. The powers to regulate stock limits and restrict movement of goods lies only with the Central government.
2. Seeds and fertilizers are out of the ambit of the ECA.
3. Food and civil supply authorities in States can execute the provisions of the Act.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

The Act itself does not lay out Rules and Regulations but allows the States to issue Control Orders related to dealer licensing, regulate stock limits, restrict movement of goods and requirements of compulsory purchases under the system of levy. The Act also provides for action to confiscate the stock seized; to suspend/cancel licences, if any and impose punishments like imprisonment. The Act also gives the power to fix price limits, and selling the particular commodities above the limit will attract penalties.

Most of the powers under the Act have been delegated by the Central Government to the State Governments with the direction that they shall exercise these powers. Food and civil supply authorities in States execute the provisions of the Act. The major commodity groups included in the Act are
(i) Petroleum and its products, including petrol, diesel, kerosene, Naphtha, solvents etc
(ii) Food stuff, including edible oil and seeds, vanaspati, pulses, sugarcane and its products like, khandsari and sugar, rice paddy
(iii) Raw Jute and jute textiles
(iv) Drugs- prices of essential drugs are still controlled by the DPCO
(v) Fertilisers- the Fertiliser Control Order prescribes restrictions on transfer and stock of fertilizers apart from prices
(vi) Onion and Potato
(vii) Seeds of food crops, fruits and vegetables, cattle fodder, Jute seeds and Cotton seeds.

QUESTION: 92

In the constitution, you can find the list of all the States and Union territories in the

Solution:

Here is briefly what each schedule consists of: First Schedule: List of States & Union Territories; Second Schedule: Salary of President, Governors, Chief Judges, Judges of High Court and Supreme court, Comptroller and Auditor General; Third Schedule: Forms of Oaths and affirmations; Fourth Schedule: Allocate seats for each state of India in Rajya Sabha; Fifth Schedule: Administration and control of scheduled areas and tribes; Sixth Schedule: Provisions for administration of Tribal Area in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram & Arunachal Pradesh; Seventh Schedule: Gives allocation of powers and functions between Union & States; Eighth Schedule: List of 22 languages of India recognized by Constitution. Other 4 deal with anti-defection, land acquisition saving laws and local self-government.

QUESTION: 93

The 9th CE “Tripartite Struggle” for control of northern India took place between

Solution:

The Tripartite Struggle for control of northern India took place in the ninth century. The struggle was between the Pratihara Empire, the Pala Empire and the Rashtrakuta Empire. Towards the end of the successor of Nagabhata II (of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty), he successfully attacked Kanauj and established control there. This was short-lived as he was soon after defeated by the Rastrakuta ruler, Govinda III.

However, the Rastrakutas also formed a matrimonial relationship with the Gangas and defeated the kingdom of Vengi. By the end of the 9th Century, the power of the Rastrakutas started to decline along with the Palas. This was seen as an ideal opportunity by the feudal king Taila II who defeated the Rastrakuta ruler and declared his kingdom there. This came to be known the Later Chalukya dynasty. Their kingdom included the states of Karnataka, Konkan, and the northern Godavari. By the end of the tripartite struggle, the Pratiharas emerged victorious and established themselves as the rulers of central India.

QUESTION: 94

India’s first trade agreement was signed with which of the following groups?

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

Under rule 377 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha
1. Members are allowed to raise matters which are not points of order or which cannot be raised under any other rule.
2. Notice for raising a matter under rule 377 is to be given in writing by the concerned MP.
3. No matter under 377 can be raised unless the Speaker has given her/his consent to such matter.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Matters, which are not points of order or which cannot be raised under the rules relating to Questions, Short Notice Questions, Calling Attention, Motions etc. can be raised under rule 377. Notice for raising a matter under rule 377 is to be given in writing addressed to the Secretary-General specifying clearly and precisely the text of the matter to be raised. Standard printed forms for giving notices are available in Parliamentary Notice Office. The text of the statement proposed to be made should not ordinarily exceed 150 words*. Notices not accompanied with full text of the matter proposed to be raised are not admissible. No matter can be raised unless the Speaker has given her/his consent thereto and only the approved text would go on record.

QUESTION: 96

Based on the 2019 S&P Global Market Intelligence report
1. India has only one bank in the global top 100 banks.
2. USA has the largest number of banks in global top 100 banks.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

India’s banks are disproportionately small compared to the size of its economy. In 2019, when Indian economy is the fifth largest in the world, our highest ranked bank—State Bank of India— is ranked a lowly 55th in the world and is the only bank to be ranked in the Global top100.India has only one bank in the global top 100 and gets grouped on this characteristic with countries that are a fraction of its size: Finland (about 1/11th), Denmark (1/8th), Norway (1/7th), Austria (about 1/7th), and Belgium (about 1/6th). Countries like Sweden and Singapore, which are respectively about 1/6th and 1/8th the economic size of India, have thrice the number of global banks as India does.

QUESTION: 97

With reference to British India, Dastak was

Solution:

Warren Hastings abolished the system of dastaks. Eliminating these free passes, he intended to regulate the internal trade. He reduced the number of custom houses and enforced a uniform tariff for Indian and non-Indian goods. Private trade by the Company’s servants continued but within enforceable limits. He also introduced a uniform system of pre-paid postage system. A bank was started in Calcutta.

QUESTION: 98

Which of the following entities may be a part of shadow banking in India?
1. Non-Banking Housing Finance Companies (HFCs)
2. Retail Non-Banking Financial Companies (Retail-NBFCs)
3. Liquid Debt Mutual Funds (LDMFs)

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

From the Economic survey: To quote (Ghosh et al., 2012), “Shadow banking comprises a set of activities, markets, contracts and institutions that operate partially (or fully) outside the traditional commercial banking sector and are either lightly regulated or not regulated at all. A shadow banking system can be composed of a single entity that intermediates between end suppliers and end-users of funds, or it could involve multiple entities forming a chain”. Shadow banks do not have explicit access to central bank liquidity.

The shadow banking system is highly levered with risky and illiquid assets while its liabilities disposed to “bank runs”. The survey focuses on three important segments of the shadow banking system in India, namely, Non-Banking Housing Finance Companies (HFCs), Retail Non-Banking Financial Companies (Retail-NBFCs) and Liquid Debt Mutual Funds (LDMFs).The NBFC sector is lightly regulated as compared to the traditional banking system consisting of public and private sector banks and other financial institutions.

However, the regulation in NBFC sector has evolved over time with prudential norms discouraging deposit-taking by NBFC (Reserve Bank of India (RBI), 1998) and encouraging the entry of non-deposit-taking NBFCs (RBI, 2006).The combination of these two effects has led to a steady decline in the share of deposits and increase in wholesale funding in the funding sources of the NBFCs. The wholesale funding sources of the NBFCs comprise mainly of banks (primarily via term loans and rest through non-convertible debentures and commercial paper) and debt mutual funds (via non-convertible debentures and commercial paper)

QUESTION: 99

Uttaramerur Inscription is a famous Tamil inscription dating to the Tenth Century A.D. It deals with

Solution:

The inscription gives several qualifications for the candidate: It says, “In these thirty wards, those that live in each ward shall assemble and shall choose for “pottickets”(Kudav Olai) anyone possessing the following qualifications: He must own more than a quarter veli of tax-paying land; He must live in a house built on his own site; His age must be below 70 and above 35;He must know the Mantra brahmana, i.e., he must know it by teaching others; Among those possessing the foregoing qualifications: Only such as are well conversant with business and are virtuous shall be taken and, One who possesses honest earnings, whose mind is pure and who has not been on any of the committees for the last three years shall also be chosen.

QUESTION: 100

Which of the following acts is/are proposed to be subsumed by the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2019?
1. Factories Act, 1948
2. Indian Trade Unions Act, 1926
3. Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

S1: Factories Act, 1948 regulates occupational safety and health in factories and docks. Gives prosecutor powers to a ‘chief inspector’ – Raises cost of such entitlements and may nudge capital away from labour.

Learning: The Code seeks to regulate health and safety conditions of workers in establishments with 10 or more workers, and in all mines and docks. It subsumes and replaces 13 labour laws relating to safety, health and working conditions. These laws include: Factories Act, 1948; Mines Act, 1952; Dock Workers Act, 1986; Contract Labour Act, 1970; and Inter-State Migrant Workers Act, 1979Establishments covered by the Code are required to register with registering officers, appointed by the central or state governments. Welfare facilities, working conditions and work hours for different types of establishments and workers will be prescribed by the central or state governments through rules. The Code sets up occupational safety boards at the national and state level to advise the central and state governments on the standards, rules, and regulations to be framed under the Code. The Code creates special provisions for certain classes of establishments such as factories, mines, dock workers, and constructions workers. These include separate provisions on licenses, safety regulations, and duties of employers.