UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 8 (April 01, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 8 (April 01, 2021)


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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 8 (April 01, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 8 (April 01, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 8 (April 01, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 8 (April 01, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 8 (April 01, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Consider the following Hills
1. Abor
2. Dafla
3. Miri
4. Mishmi
With reference to the Hills mentioned above, in terms of the order from west to east, which one of the following is the correct?

Solution:

Purvanchal or Eastern Hills

  • Eastern Hills or The Purvanchal are the southward extension of Himalayas running along the north-eastern edge of India.
  • At the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas take a sudden southward bend and form a series of comparatively low hills which are collectively called as the Purvanchal.
  • Purvanchal hills are convex to the west.
  • They run along the India-Myanmar Border extending from Arunachal Pradesh in the north to Mizoram in the south.

QUESTION: 2

With reference to Nehru-Liaquat pact, consider the following statements:
1. It was a bilateral treaty between India and Bangladesh.
2. It was signed in 1950.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:

The Nehru-Liaquat Pact
Statement 1 is incorrect

  • The Liaquat–Nehru Pact was a bilateral treaty between India and Pakistan, where refugees were allowed to return to dispose of their property, abducted women and looted property were to be returned, forced conversions were unrecognized, and minority rights were confirmed.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru and Liaquat Ali Khan were the Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan.

Statement 2 is correct

  • Officially the agreement was signed on April 8, 1950.
  • The need for such a pact was felt by minorities in both countries following Partition, which was accompanied by massive communal rioting.
  • In 1950, as per some estimates, over a million Hindus and Muslims migrated from and to East Pakistan amid communal tension and riots such as the 1950 East Pakistan riots and the Noakhali riots.
QUESTION: 3

With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:
1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the Hinayana sect of Buddhism.
2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his way to enlightenment.
3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his salvation to help all sentient beings on their path to it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect

  • It is central to the Mahayana sect of Buddhism.
  • In non-Mahayana Buddhism, it usually refers either to Maitreya, the Buddha of the Future or to the historical Buddha Gautama prior to his enlightenment.

Statement 2 is correct

  • A bodhisattva is literally a living being (sattva) who aspires to enlightenment (bodhi) and carries out altruistic practices. The bodhisattva ideal is central to the Mahayana Buddhist tradition as the individual who seeks enlightenment both for him- or herself and for others. 

Statement 3 is correct

  • Compassion, an empathetic sharing of the sufferings of others, is the bodhisattva’s greatest characteristic.
  • It is held that the bodhisattva makes four vows expressing a determination to work for the happiness of others: “However innumerable sentient beings are, I vow to save them; However inexhaustible the passions are, I vow to master them; however limitless the teachings are, I vow to study them; however infinite the Buddha-truth is, I vow to attain it.”
QUESTION: 4

With reference to rights and privileges, consider the following statements:
1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
2. Right to freedom of speech and expression.
3. Cultural and educational rights.
Which of the above rights is/are conferred only on the citizens of India?

Solution:

All statements are right.
Under the Indian constitution, certain fundamental rights are available only to the citizens, namely: 

  • Right against discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15);
  • Right to equality of opportunity in matter of public employment (Article 16);
  • Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19);
  • Cultural and educational rights (Article 29 and 30); and right to vote and become members of the union and state legislatures.
QUESTION: 5

Consider the following statements:
1. The North Atlantic Treaty was signed in 1969.
2. The European Economic Community was a precursor of the European Union.
3. The Belt and Road Initiative was adopted by Pakistan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect
The North Atlantic Treaty Organization, also called the North Atlantic Alliance, is an intergovernmental military alliance between 30 North American and European countries. The organization implements the North Atlantic Treaty that was signed on 4 April 1949.
Statement 2 is correct
The European Economic Community was a regional organisation that aimed to bring about economic integration among its member states. It was created by the Treaty of Rome of 1957. Upon the formation of the European Union in 1993, the EEC was incorporated and renamed the European Community.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), formerly known as One Belt One Road or OBOR for short, is a global infrastructure development strategy adopted by the Chinese government in 2013 to invest in nearly 70 countries and international organizations.It is considered a centerpiece of Chinese Communist Party general secretary Xi Jinping's foreign policy.

QUESTION: 6

Consider the following statements:
1. Carbon Dioxide is the largest greenhouse gas in the atmosphere in terms of volume.
2. Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) have less global warming potential than methane.
Which of the above-given statements are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect
Water vapour is the largest greenhouse gas in the atmosphere.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Fluorinated gases (ex: HFCs) have the highest Global Warming Potential compared to all other greenhouse gases. It means they are the most potent and longest-lasting type of greenhouse gases.

QUESTION: 7

Which are Senna Spectabilis, sometimes seen in the news?

Solution:

Invasive alien plants, they found in the forest area of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, including the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.

QUESTION: 8

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
Asiatic Lion, Gir Forest Asiatic Lion is also known as the Indian Lion and can be only found in and around Gir Forest National Park of Gujarat. These are listed as endangered species. These are one of the five big cats found in India, the others being Indian Leopards and Bengal Tigers.
Statement 2 is Incorrect
Lion-Tailed Macaque, Western Ghats It is the rarest and the most threatened and endangered primate species found only in the Western Ghats of Southern India.
Statement 3 is correct
Sangai Deer, Loktak Lake It is also known as Brow Antlered Deer exclusively found in Keibul Lamjao National Park of Manipur. This park is a marshy wetland located in the southern parts of Loktak lake.
Statement 4 is Incorrect
Namdapha Flying Squirrel, Arunachal Pradesh The Namdapha flying squirrel is an arboreal, nocturnal flying squirrel endemic to Arunachal Pradesh in northeast India, where it is known from a single specimen collected in Namdapha National Park in 1981.

QUESTION: 9

Among the following, who excavated the Mohenjodaro ruins for the first time?

Solution:

✓ Excavation
➢ The civilization was first discovered during an excavation campaign under Sir John Hubert Marshall in 1921–22 at Harappa following the discovery of seals by J Fleet.
➢ Harappan ruins were discovered by Marshall, Rai Bahadur Daya Ram Sahni and Madho Sarup Vats.
➢ Mohenjodaro ruins were excavated for the first time by R.D. Banerjee, E. J. H. MacKay and Marshall.
➢ This is also called Harappan Civilization after the first city to be excavated, Harappa (Punjab, Pakistan).
➢ Pre-Harappan civilization has been found at Mehrgarh, Pakistan which shows the first evidence of cotton cultivation.

QUESTION: 10

What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?
1. Both were built in the same period.
2. Both belong to the same religious denomination.
3. Both have rock-cut monuments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect
As per ASI Website, “While there is some evidence of architectural activity going back to the period of Mahendravarman-I (AD 600-30), the father of Mamalla, most of the monuments are attributed to the period of Narasimhavarman-I Mamalla (AD 630-68) – the Pallava ruler. On the other hand Ajanta caves were excavated in different periods (circa. 2nd century B.C. to 6th century A.D.) according to the necessity. So, clearly 1 is wrong.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Mahabalipuram contains rock-cut rathas, sculptured scenes on open rocks like Arjuna’s penance, the caves of Govardhanadhari and Mahishasuramardini, the Jala-Sayana Perumal temple (the sleeping Mahavishnu or Chakrin at the rear part of the Shore temple complex). So, it is more linked to the Vaishnavites. On the other hand, Ajanta is linked more to the Buddhist religious denomination.
Statement 3 is correct
Both have rock-cut monuments, because cave cut Chaityas, Viharas and Stupas can be clearly seen at Ajanta. Also, the mural paintings that are made at Ajanta involve some rock-cutting as per ASI.
Mahabalipuram is famous for rock monuments as described above.

QUESTION: 11

With reference to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act of 2019, consider the following statements:
1. It inserts December 31, 2007, as the cut-off date for nonmuslim communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Nepal.
2. It increases the mandatory requirement of 5 years stays in India to twelve years to be eligible for citizenship.
3. All cases against illegal non-muslim migrants, before any authority, shall stand abated.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect
It inserts December 31, 2014, as the cut-off date for non-muslim communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Bangladesh.
Statement 2 is incorrect
It decreases the mandatory requirement of 12 years stay in India to five years to be eligible for citizenship.
Statement 3 is correct
All cases against illegal non-muslim migrants, before any authority, shall stand abated.
Key Features of the act

  • Citizenship on the basis of religion: The Bill amends the Citizenship Act, 1955, and for the first time, will grant citizenship on the basis of religion to non-Muslim communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan, who entered India on or before December 31, 2014.
  • Non - Muslim Communities Included: Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian. This implies that migrants, who identify themselves with any group or community other than those mentioned here, from the above mentioned countries won't be eligible for citizenship.
  • Exceptions: The provisions on citizenship for illegal migrants will not apply to two categories - states protected by the ‘Inner Line’, and areas covered under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.
QUESTION: 12

Consider the following statements:
1. ‘Index of Economic Freedom’ is created by The Heritage Foundation and The Wall Street Journal.
2. India’s performance in the report is 120 out of 180 countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
‘Index of Economic Freedom’ is created by The Heritage Foundation and The Wall Street Journal.
Statement 2 is correct
India’s performance in the report is 120 out of 180 countries ‘Index of Economic Freedom’ report On March 23, 2020 the Heritage Foundation published its 26th annual edition of Economic Freedom Index 2020 to measure the level of economic freedom in 186 countries. India (56.5) ranks in 120th position & Singapore (89.4) tops the index for the 1st time.
Key Highlights

  • Hong Kong (89.1) for the 1st time secured 2nd rank since the 1st publication in 1995
  • India secures 28th rank among 42 countries in the AsiaPacific region & also has made improvement in its score by 1.3 points from 2019.
  • New Zealand (84.1) secured the 3 rank, North Korea(4.2) is positioned in 180th rank, Venezuela (25.2) in 179th rank & Cuba (26.9) in 178th rank.
  • Due to lack of reliable statistics Iraq, Libya, Liechtenstein, Somalia, Syria, Yemen is not ranked.
QUESTION: 13

Consider the following factors:
1. Increasing GST on vehicles
2. Tax reduction
3. Easy fiscal policy
4. Reducing interest rates
5. Banks recapitalization
6. Increasing corporate tax

Which of the above factors spur consumption in an economy?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect
Increasing GST on vehicles will lead to decrease money in the consumer pocket that intern affect other products otherwise the consumer would have spent that extra GST amount to buy other products. So, these move surely cant spur demand in the economy.
Statement 2 is correct
Tax reduction helps the consumer to buy more products the money which saved because of the tax reduction will spur the economy.
Statement 3 is correct
Easy fiscal policy is boon to banks, banks can lend more money to people intern people spend more to buy goods. This increases consumption in the economy.
Statement 4 is correct
Reducing interest rates will increase the demand for money, so more number of people will take loans from the bank at a cheaper rate. More money in the consumer's hand will increase the demand for goods and services.
Statement 5 is correct
Banks recapitalization will pump money into banks, now, banks can give loans freely to their customers. It will also increase the demand for goods and services.
Statement 6 is incorrect
Increasing corporate tax will affect the companies profit so balance these companies may reduce their workforce, unemployment increase in the economy, people will be having less money in their hands.

QUESTION: 14

Consider the following statements about the rise in sea levels:
1. Sea level rise can be halted by immediately reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
2. According to IPCC sea level is projected to rise 1 to 4 feet by the year 2100.
Which of the above-given statements are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect
Ocean waters will continue to warm and sea level will continue to rise for many centuries at rates equal to or higher than those of the current century because the oceans take a very long time to respond to warmer conditions at the Earth’s surface.
Statement 2 is correct
According to the Fourth (2017) National Climate Assessment (NCA) of the United States it is very likely sea level will rise between 30 and 130 cm (1.0–4.3 feet) in 2100 compared to the year 2000.

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following statements concerning a terrorist organization, recently seen in the news.
1. Al-shabad is an Islamist terrorist group operating in China.
2. Al-shabad is linked to the al-Qaida terrorist group.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is Incorrect
Al-shabad is an Islamist terrorist group operating in Somalia, Kenya, Tanzania, Mozambique and Yemen.
Statement 2 is correct
It is linked to the al-Qaida terrorist group.

QUESTION: 16

Among the following states, which state does share the boundary with the West Bengal state?

Solution:

The neighbouring states are Jharkhand, Odisha, Sikkim, Bihar and Assam. The state shares its international boundaries with Bhutan, Nepal, and Bangladesh.

QUESTION: 17

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is are correct?

Solution:

✓ Political organizations and the evolution of monarchy during the Vedic period.

QUESTION: 18

Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga dynasty?

Solution:

Malavikagnimitra is a Sanskrit play by Kalidasa. It is based on some events of the reign of Pushyamitra Shunga. The play tells the story of the love of Agnimitra, the Shunga Emperor at Vidisha, for the beautiful hand-maiden of his chief queen.

QUESTION: 19

With reference to the right to protest, consider the following statements:
1. Right to assemble peaceably and with arms is a fundamental right.
2. This right is protected against only state action and not private individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Statement 1 is Incorrect
Right to assemble peaceably and without arms is a fundamental right.
Statement 2 is correct
This right is protected against only state action and not private individuals.

QUESTION: 20

With reference to the ‘Ease of Doing Business’, consider the following statements:
1. It is released by the World Trade Organization.
2. India ranked 63rd in the report of 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is Incorrect
The World Bank recently released its Ease of Doing Business Report, 2020. The indicator measures the performance of countries across 10 different dimensions in the 12 months ending May 1, 2019
Performance of India:
Statement 1 is correct

India went up 14 rungs in the 2020 survey to score a 63, making it one of world’s top 10 most improved countries for the third consecutive time.
However, India failed to achieve the government’s target of being at 50th place. It was 77th last year.
This is the third year in a row that India has made it to the top 10 in Doing Business, which is a success which very few countries have done over the 20 years of the project.

QUESTION: 21

Which of the following is the second-largest carbon pool on Earth?

Solution:

A large amount of carbon is stored in soils mostly as Soil Organic Carbon (SOC). The amount of carbon stored in soils worldwide is approximately three times greater than the carbon present in the atmosphere. After Oceans, soils are the second-largest carbon sink.

QUESTION: 22

Recently in much of the countries faced protests/internal disturbance, in this contest, consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
Unemployment, Corruption Fuel South Iraq’s Protests Corruption, mismanagement and high unemployment. For weeks, Iraq has been shaken by violent anti-government protests. Although Iraq is one of the world's top five oil producers, its people rarely benefit from the country's energy riches.
Statement 2 is correct
Protesters are demanding that the 81-year-old leader withdraws from the election. A sea of protesters filled multiple streets in the capital, Algiers, and other cities across the North African country in what's considered one of the largest displays of public discontent since the 1954-1962 war of independence from France.
Statement 3 is correct
In HONG KONG against the extradition bill sparked months of demonstrations. The bill was allowing  Hong Kong residents to be sent to mainland China for trial. Later the bill was withdrawn.

QUESTION: 23

Consider the following statements:
1. The photosphere is the outer layer of the Sun.
2. The Sun’s atmosphere is hotter than its surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
The photosphere is the bright outer layer of the Sun that emits most of the radiation, particularly visible light.
Statement 2 is correct
NASA's EUNIS sounding rocket examined light from the sun in the area shown by the white line (imposed over an image of the sun from NASA's Solar Dynamics Observatory) then separated the light into various wavelengths to identify the temperature of material observed on the sun. The spectra provided evidence to explain why the sun's atmosphere is so much hotter than its surface.

QUESTION: 24

Consider the following statements:
1. The axial tilt of the Earth causes seasonal changes in it.
2. On June 21, the Sun is directly overhead the tropic of cancer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
The axial tilt of the Earth of 23.5 degrees as it moves around the Sun causes seasonal changes. When in June the Northern Hemisphere tilts towards the Sun and Six months later, in December, the situation is reversed as the Earth travels halfway around the Sun and its Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun
Statement 2 is correct
On June 21, the Sun is directly overhead the Tropic of Cancer(23.5 degrees North) and it is mid-summer in the Northern Hemisphere. Midsummer in the Southern Hemisphere occurs on 23rd December when the Sun is directly overhead the Tropic of Capricorn(23.5 degrees South).

QUESTION: 25

Who among the following ruler completed the construction of Quwwat-ul-Islam and Qutb-Minar at Delhi?

Solution:

Qutb-ud-din aibak was the ruler and founder of the Slave Dynasty or Mamluk dynasty.

  • So-called because the rulers of this dynasty were either themselves originally slaved or were descendants of rulers who had been slaves before becoming Sultans.
  • He as a ruler, he made no fresh conquests and instead embarked on a policy of consolidation.
  • He started construction of Quwwat-ul-Islam and Qutb-Minar at Delhi but it was completed by his successor.
  • He was also called Lakha Bukhsha(Giver of Lakhs)

Shams-ud-din Iltutmish was the successor of Qutb-ud-din aibak

  • He completed Quwwat-ul-Islam and Qutb-Minar at Delhi.
  • He saved the infant Turkish kingdom from the wrath of the Mongal warrior Changez Khan by clever diplomacy.
  • He restored the sagging fortunes of the Sultanate by reconquering most of northern India

Nasir-ud-din Mahmud was a ruler of slave dynasty

  • He was not a prominent ruler in this dynasty.
  • He did not initiate any construction
  • He owed his accession to Balban(Next great ruler in this dynasty).

Jalal-ud-din Khalji wad founder of Khalji dynasty next kingdom formed after the demise of slave dynasty.

  • He just founded the Khalji dynasty.
  • After foundation, he was assassinated by his nephew Al-ud-din Khalji.
QUESTION: 26

With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:
1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 2 is incorrect

  • Because apart from cymbals, drums known as pung are also used.

Manipuri Sankirtana

  • It is a form of performing art involving ritual singing, drumming and dancing performed in the temples and domestic spaces in Manipur. It is practised at the centre of a temple, where performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through songs and dance.
  • It is practiced primarily by the Vaishnava community in Manipur and by the Vaishnava Manipuri population settled in the neighbouring States of Tripura and Assam.
QUESTION: 27

With reference to the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019, consider the following statements:
1. This report formed on the basis of the Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee’s report.
2. The Right to Privacy is a fundamental right for Indian citizens under the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct

  • This report formed on the basis of the Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee’s report.

Statement 2 is correct

  • The Right to Privacy is a fundamental right for Indian citizens under the Constitution of India

Other key provisions of the bill

  • The Bill includes exemptions for processing data without an individual’s consent for “reasonable purposes”, including security of the state, detection of any unlawful activity or fraud, whistleblowing, medical emergencies, credit scoring, operation of search engines and processing of publicly available data.
  • The Bill calls for the creation of an independent regulator Data Protection Authority, which will oversee assessments and audits and definition making.
  • Each company will have a Data Protection Officer (DPO) who will liaison with the DPA for auditing, grievance redressal, recording maintenance and more.
  • The Bill proposes “Purpose limitation” and “Collection limitation” clause, which limit the collection of data to what is needed for “clear, specific, and lawful” purposes.
  • It also grants individuals the right to data portability and the ability to access and transfer one’s own data. It also grants individuals the right to data portability, and the ability to access and transfer one’s own data.
  • Finally, it legislates on the right to be forgotten. With historical roots in European Union law, General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), this right allows an individual to remove consent for data collection and disclosure.
  • The Bill stated the penalties as Rs 5 crore or 2 per cent of worldwide turnover for minor violations and Rs 15 crore or 4 per cent of total worldwide turnover for more serious violations.
QUESTION: 28

Which of the following best describes the term" Exercise ‘Apharan” sometimes seen in the news?

Solution:

It is a large scale anti Hijacking Exercise conducted by the Indian Navy
Highlights

  • Multiple agencies participated in the exercise. It included 12 ships and helicopters of Cochin Port trust, Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard. This is the first time an anti-hijacking exercise is being conducted at a large scale in India and in the port of Cochin.
  • During the exercise, insertion of Marine Commandos (MarCos) into the hijacked vessel through boarding operations and slithering into the deck from a Sea King helicopter were demonstrated.
QUESTION: 29

Regarding the advantages of enhancing Soil Organic Matter (SOM) Content in the soil, consider the following statements:
1. Soil Organic Matter enhances the water retention capacity of the soil.
2. Soil Organic Matter enhances soil resilience.
3. Soil Organic Matter reduces soil erosion.
4. Soil Organic Matter controls soil salinity. 
Which of the above-given statements are correct?

Solution:

A large amount of carbon is stored in soils, mostly as part of Soil Organic Matter (SOM). SOM makes up around 2-10% of soil’s mass and has an important role in the physical, chemical and biological properties of soil.
SOM contributes to soil structure, moisture retention, nutrient retention, degradation of pollutants (bio-remediation), carbon sequestration and soil resilience. Soil Organic Matter can not control soil salinity.

QUESTION: 30

Very recently, people of Bougainville voted overwhelmingly for independence form which of the following country?

Solution:

The autonomous region of Bougainville has voted overwhelmingly in favour of becoming independent from Papua New Guinea, paving the way for the group of islands to become the world’s newest nation.

QUESTION: 31

Consider the following:
1. These rocks are solidified from molten magma.
2. They usually occur in distinct beds or strata.
3. These rocks are generally fossiliferous.
Which of the above is/are the feature/features of  Igneous rocks?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
These rocks are solidified from molten magma.
Statement 2 is incorrect
They usually do not occur in distinct beds or strata.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Igneous rocks are generally not fossiliferous
Other information about Igneous rocks

  • They are generally hard and water percolates in them with great difficulty along the joints.
  • Igneous rocks are granular and crystalline. The size of crystals, however, differ from one rock to another.
  • Igneous rocks are mostly associated with volcanic activity.
  • Most igneous rocks consist of silicate minerals
QUESTION: 32

Which of the following state was annexed last under Dalhousie’s Doctrine of Lapse during 1848-56?

Solution:

Jhansi annexed in 1853

  • It was ruled by the Maratha Newalkar dynasty under British suzerainty.
  • Jhansi ruler Rani Lakshmibai had not bowed her head to Dalhousie’s Doctrine of Lapse and fought for her Kingdom’s independence until her last breath.
  • General Hugh Rose who fought the war against Rani Lakshmibai on behalf of British forces during 1857 revolt, hailed her for her bravery and valour.

Dalhousie’s doctrine of Lapse application in order:

QUESTION: 33

With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect
Sautrantika and Sammitya were the sects of Buddhism.
Statement 1 is correct

  • While, like all Buddhists, the Sarvastivadins consider everything empirical to be impermanent, they maintain that the dharma factors are eternally existing realities.
  • The dharmas are thought to function momentarily, producing the empirical phenomena of the world, which is illusory, but to exist outside the empirical world.
QUESTION: 34

With reference to the RTI act, consider the following statements:
1. The Right to Information Act (RTI Act) was enacted in 2005.
2. Our constitution implicitly guarantees the right to information.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
The Right to Information Act was enacted in 2005. Good governance, transparency and accountability are the three principles on which it rests.
Statement 2 is correct
Our constitution implicitly guarantees the right to citizens to information.

QUESTION: 35

World migration Report” is released by which of the following organization?

Solution:

It is released by the UN-affiliated International Organization for Migration(IOM)
Important related to India in that report is given below:
Most hail from India, Mexico and China India continues to be the largest country of origin of international migrants, with 17.5 million living abroad, followed by Mexico (11.8 million) and China (10.7 million).
Other findings indicate that the number of migrant workers declined slightly in high -income countries - from 112.3 million to 111.2 million - but increased elsewhere.
Upper middle-income countries saw the biggest increase, from 17.5 million to 30.5 million.

QUESTION: 36

Which of the following practice does not contribute to enhancing the Soil Organic Carbon (SOC) Content?

Solution:

Maintenance of soil structure in any soil type strongly influences SOM residence time, so disturbance (tillage) can lead to substantial losses of SOM. Frequent disturbance to the soil exposes protected organic matter and increases the rate of decomposition.

QUESTION: 37

What is 21 / borisov, sometimes seen in the news?

Solution:

NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope has taken the best observations yet of 2I / Borisov, the first comet we've ever spotted visiting the solar system from interstellar space.

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following reason/s leads to anti-microbial resistance in humans and animals?        
1. Easy access to medicines.
2. Self medications.
3. Simultaneous use of more than a single antibiotic.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

These bacteria can be transmitted from animals to humans via direct contact between animals and humans, or through the food chain and the environment. Antimicrobial-resistant infections in humans can cause longer illnesses, increased frequency of hospitalization, and treatment failures that can result in death. All of the above cause antimicrobial-resistant infections in humans.

QUESTION: 39

With reference to the Treaty of Salbhai, consider the following statements:
1. The treaty was signed in 1782
2. It signed between the British and Marathas
3. It gave British 30 years of peace with the Marathas.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

The treaty of Salbhai (1782)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

  • Signed between the British and the Maratha represented by Mahadji Scindia.
  • Restored the status quo

Statement 3 is incorrect.

  • Gave British 20 years of peace with the Marathas, the strongest contemporary Indian power. The British strongest contemporary Indian power. The British utilized this period to consolidate their rule over Bengal. Enabled the British to take on Mysore and the Marathas promised to help them in recovering their territories from Haidar Ali.
  • The biggest gain for the British: They had succeeded once again in dividing the Indian power.
QUESTION: 40

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Only 1 is correctly matched.

  • Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra is celebrated by the Gharwali and Kumaoni people in Uttarakhand.
  • Wari-Warkari is a Maharashtrian festival celebrated by the Warkari sect.
QUESTION: 41

“Silver Line Project” is going to be launched in which of the following state?

Solution:

Kerala:
The Ministry of Railways has granted in-principle approval for the ‘Silver Line’ project.

QUESTION: 42

Recently on which Archipelago International Court of Justice (ICJ) rejected the United Kingdom’s claim of sovereignty?

Solution:

Chagos Archipelago

  • International Court of Justice (ICJ) has asked the United Kingdom to return the Chagos Archipelago back to Mauritius.

QUESTION: 43

What is RISAT-2BR1, some time seen in the news?

Solution:

RISAT-2BR1
RISAT-2BR1 is an Indian radar imaging earth observation satellite. The satellite will provide services in the field of Agriculture, Forestry and Disaster Management.

QUESTION: 44

Which of the following categories of lands are covered under the National Mission for Green India for enhancing tree cover?
1. Marginal agricultural lands.
2. Shifting cultivation areas.
3. Urban and peri-urban areas.
4. Abandoned mining areas.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Under the Mission, eco-restoration and afforestation of scrub, shifting cultivation areas, degraded mangroves, ravines and abandoned
mining areas is taken up. Also improvement in forest and tree cover in urban and peri-urban lands is included in the Mission.

QUESTION: 45

What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the `Nuclear Suppliers Group'?
1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the NonProliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a multilateral export control regime and a group of nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons. The only grouping India is now left out of is the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
In June 2017, India became a member of the 35-member Missile Technology Control Regime and by December last, New Delhi had also gained the membership of the Wassenaar Arrangement that has 42 members.
India on 19 Jan 2018 joined the 42-member Australia Group, an elite export control regime against spread of chemical and biological weapons.
The Nuclear Suppliers Group or NSG has 48 member countries that control trade in sophisticated civil nuclear technology. China was among the countries that objected to India’s admission to the bloc, ratcheting up tension between the two countries.
The group goes by consensus approach on the admission of new members.
Membership of the NSG means:
Statement 1 is correct

  • Access to technology for a range of uses from medicine to building nuclear power plants for India from the NSG which is essentially a traders’ cartel. India has its own indigenously developed technology but to get its hands on state of the art technology that countries within the NSG possess, it has to become part of the group.
  • With India committed to reducing dependence on fossil fuels and ensuring that 40% of its energy is sourced from renewable and clean sources, there is a pressing need to scale up nuclear power production. This can only happen if India gains access to the NSG. Even if India today can buy power plants from the global market thanks to the one time NSG waiver in 2008, there are still many types of technologies India can be denied as it is outside the NSG.

Statement 2 is incorrect

  • It automatically not becomes a member of "The Treaty on the NonProliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".
  • India could sign the nuclear non-proliferation treaty and gain access to all this know-how but that would mean giving up its entire nuclear arsenal. Given that it is situated in an unstable and unpredictable neighbourhood India is unlikely to sign the NPT or accede to the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) that puts curbs on any further nuclear tests.
QUESTION: 46

Which of the Climate Engineering technique has shown the highest maturity in terms of the readiness for immediate implementation?

Solution:

BECSS is the combination of the usage of bio-energy with Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS). CCS is the process of capturing waste carbon dioxide (CO2) from large point sources, such as fossil fuel power plants, transporting it to a storage site, and depositing it in geologic formations for very long periods. IPCC has indicated BECCS as a key technology for reaching low carbon dioxide atmospheric concentration targets. Also of all the technologies, BECCS has the greatest maturity and there are no major practical barriers to its introduction into today’s energy system.

QUESTION: 47

With reference to a Virtual Autopsy, consider the following statements:
1. It uses radiation for autopsy.
2. It is faster than the traditional surgical procedure.
3. It is a less time-consuming procedure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:
  • In a virtual autopsy, doctors use radiation to examine the innards to reach a conclusion about the cause of death.
  • The traditional postmortem often makes members of the dead person’s family uncomfortable.
  • Virtopsy can be employed as an alternative to standard autopsies for broad and systemic examination of the whole body as it is less timeconsuming.
  • It aids better diagnosis and renders respect to religious sentiments.
  • Virtopsy is also faster than a traditional one — 30 minutes against 2½ hours.
  • India has taken up this project for “dignified management of dead body”.
QUESTION: 48

Consider the following statements about Solar Radiation Management (SRM):
1. Solar Radiation Management techniques do not reduce greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere.
2. Solar Radiation Management techniques can induce cooling rapidly.
3. Solar Radiation Management techniques also address the problem of Ocean Acidification.
Which of the above-given statements are correct?

Solution:

Solar radiation management techniques seek to reduce the amount of solar energy absorbed. This can be achieved by increasing the reflectivity (albedo) of the atmosphere or the Earth's surface. These methods would not reduce greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere, and thus would not address problems such as the ocean acidification caused by CO2.

QUESTION: 49

What is the name of India’s first nuclear reactor ? 

Solution:

Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) celebrated the Golden Jubilee of APSARA, the first nuclear research reactor not only in India but also in the whole of Asia. On 4th August, 1956, the APSARA reactor attained criticality at 1545 hours.

QUESTION: 50

With reference to Operation Clean art on the smuggling of mongoose hair, consider the following statements:
1. The mongoose is listed in schedule-2 of the wildlife protection act.
2. Any smuggling or possession of its body part is a non-bailable offence.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Operation Clean Art It was the first pan India operation to crackdown on the smuggling of mongoose hair in the country. It was conceived by Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) with the singular aim of ensuring that the mongoose hair brush trade should be closed down across the country.
Statement 1 is correct
Mongoose is listed in Schedule II Part 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 and any smuggling or possession of its body part is a non-bailable offence.
Statement 2 is correct

QUESTION: 51

Consider the following statements with respect to the Ministry of Jal Shakti:
1. Aim of the ministry is to treat the issue of water management holistically and ensure better coordination of efforts.
2. It is formed by merging of the Ministry of Water Resource, River Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
Aim of the ministry is treating the issue of water management holistically and ensure better coordination of efforts.
Statement 2 is incorrect
It is formed by merging of the Ministry of Water Resource, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation and Ministry of Drinking water and sanitation.

QUESTION: 52

Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British Rule?
1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Alexander Read
3. Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Lord Cornwallis 

  • He introduced the Permanent Settlement system.

Alexander Read and Thomas Munro

  • The Ryotwari system was devised by Capt. Alexander Read and Thomas Munro at the end of the 18th century. It was later introduced by Thomas Munro when he was governor (1820–27) of Madras.
QUESTION: 53

Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?
1. Arasavalli
2. Amarakantak
3. Omkareshwar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Arasavalli is correct
Arasavalli Sun Temple is a 7th-century AD Sun Temple at Arasavalli in Andhra Pradesh. Arasavalli is an outgrowth of Srikakulam municipality in Srikakulam district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It is located in Srikakulam mandal of Srikakulam revenue division.
Amarakantak is incorrect
Amarkantak is a pilgrim town and a Nagar Panchayat in Anuppur, Madhya Pradesh, India. The Amarkantak region is a unique natural heritage area and is the meeting point of the Vindhya and the Satpura Ranges, with the Maikal Hills being the fulcrum.
Omkareshwar is incorrect
Omkareshwar is a temple dedicated to God Shiva.Omkareshwar is a Hindu temple dedicated to God Shiva. It is one of the 12 revered Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva. It is on an island called Mandhata or Shivapuri in the Narmada river; the shape of the island is said to be like the Hindu ॐ symbol.

QUESTION: 54

With reference to the Climate Change Performance Index,2020, consider the following statements:
1. India for the first time ranks among the top ten in this year’s CCPI.
2. It is published annually by Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute and Climate Action Network (CAN).
3. The first and second ranks were achieved by Sweden and Denmark.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
India for the first time ranks among the top ten in this year’s CCPI. The current levels of per capita emissions and energy use are still comparatively low and, along with ambitious 2030 targets, result in high ratings for the GHG Emissions and Energy Use categories.
Statement 2 is Correct
It is published annually by Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute and Climate Action Network (CAN).
Statement 3 is incorrect

  • The CCPI 2020 results illustrate the main regional differences in climate protection and performance within the 57 evaluated countries and the EU. Still, no country performs well enough in all index categories to achieve an overall very high rating in the index. Therefore, once again the first three ranks remain empty.

In this year’s index, Sweden leads the ranking on rank 4, followed by Denmark (5) and Morocco (6).

QUESTION: 55

The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

Solution:

This Act provided for a ban on strikes unless a notice of one month was given. There was a widespread protest against this law.

QUESTION: 56

Which among the following Indian classical dance form was developed by Siddhendra Yogi from Bhamakalapam dance drama ?

Solution:

Siddhendra Yogi from Bhamakalapam dance drama developed the classical dance of Kuchpudi.

QUESTION: 57

Consider the following crops:
1. Maize
2. Paddy
3. Groundnut
4. Banana
5. Sugarcane
Which of the above is/ are water-intensive crops?

Solution:

Major water-intensive crops are paddy, banana and sugarcane.
Status of Water Stress in India
Ground Water

India has the dubious distinction of being the world’s largest user of groundwater by far, even as the water table has been falling by an average of 0.4 m nationally.
Reports from Bihar suggest that the water table there has fallen by several feet of late. Well, over half of the districts in the state are facing or expected to be facing severe groundwater over-exploitation.
Steps Taken by the Government
▪ MGNREGA for water conservation:
o Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is one of the biggest government-funded employment schemes in the world.
o The huge workforce employed under the MGNREGA has enabled the government to introduce water conservation as a project under the Act.
o The government aims to improve groundwater harvesting and build water conservation and storage mechanisms through MGNREGA.
▪ Jal Kranti Abhiyan:
o The government is making active efforts to revolutionise villages and cities through block-level water conservation schemes. For example; the Jal Gram Scheme under the Jal Kranti Abhiyan is aimed at developing two model villages in water-starved areas to lead the other villages towards water conservation and preservation.
▪ National Water Mission:
o The Government of India has launched the National Water Mission with the objective of conservation of water, minimizing wastage and ensuring more equitable distribution both across and within states through integrated water resources development and management.
o One of the objectives of the Mission is to increase the water use efficiency by 20%.
▪ National Rural Drinking Water Programme:
o It seeks to provide every rural person with adequate safe water for drinking, cooking and other basic domestic needs on a sustainable basis.
NITI Aayog Composite Water Management Index:
• With the objective of achieving effective utilization of water, NITI Aayog has developed the Composite Water Management Index.
• The index revolves around issues ranging from water scarcity and related morass like deaths due to lack of access to safe water, its projected increase in demand over the years and finding ways for its effective conservation.
Jal Shakti Ministry and Jal Jeevan Mission:
• The efforts like the formation of Jal Shakti Ministry (to tackle water issues holistically) and the goal to provide piped water to all rural households by 2024, under the Jal Jeevan mission, are steps in the right direction.

QUESTION: 58

Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

Solution:

The Champaran peasant movement was launched in 1917-18. Its objective was to create awakening among the peasants against the European planters. These planters resorted to illegal and inhuman methods of indigo cultivation at a cost which by no canons of justice could be called an adequate remuneration for the labour done by the peasants

QUESTION: 59

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapse on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect
It is the pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session. So, 1 is incorrect.
Cases when a bill lapse:

  • A bill originated in the Lok Sabha but pending in the Lok Sabha – lapses.
  • A bill originated and passed by the Rajya Sabha but pending in Lok Sabha – lapses.
  • A bill originated and passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha – lapses.
  • A bill originated in the Rajya Sabha and returned to that House by the Lok Sabha with amendments and still pending in the Rajaya Sabha on the date of the dissolution of Lok Sabhalapses.

Cases when a bill does not lapse:

  • A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
  • If the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
  • A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.
  • A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Rajya Sabha does not lapse.
  • Some pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurances do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
QUESTION: 60

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

Solution:

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories.
In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held in Brazil. The conference’s outcome document entitled The Future We Want was a call to action for governments, business and the UN alike to support countries interested in transition to a green economy.

QUESTION: 61

Consider the following industries:
1. Electricity
2. Agriculture
3. Refinery products
4. Coal
5. Cement
6. Fertilizers
Which of the above are among the part of the eight core industries in the Index of Industrial Production?

Solution:

The eight core industries are Electricity, Steel, Refinery products, Crude oil, Coal, Cement, natural gas, Fertilizers.
Core Sector Industries:

  • The eight core sector industries include coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertiliser, steel, cement and electricity
  • The eight core industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
  • The eight Core Industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers.

QUESTION: 62

Global Gender Gap Index” is released by which of the following?

Solution:

World Economic Forum

  • Global Gender Gap Report, released annually by the World Economic Forum, tries to benchmark progress on gender parity. The Global Gender Gap Report 2020 has revealed that the world will not be able to attain gender parity for 99.5 years.
QUESTION: 63

Consider the following statements:
1. The Energy Conservation Act 2001 provides the legal mandate for the enforcement of energy saving norms on industries.
2. Perform Achieve Trade (PAT) scheme is applicable for those industries notified as ‘Designated Consumer’ under the Energy Conservation Act 2001.
3. Textiles industry does not fall under the category of Designated Consumer.
Which of the above-given statements are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
The Energy Conservation Act, 2001, provides the legal framework, institutional arrangement and a regulatory mechanism at the Central and State level to embark upon the energy efficiency drive in the country. The major features of this Act include setting up of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, evolving minimum energy consumption and performance standards and labelling criteria for notified equipment and appliances; identifying designated consumers for compliance with its provisions, creating a cadre of professionally qualified energy managers and auditors, specifying Energy Conservation Building Codes, setting up a Central Energy Conservation Fund and promoting Energy Service Companies (ESCOs). The Act spells out the penalty for failure to comply with its provisions.
Statement 2 is correct
India's flagship scheme for energy efficiency is to Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT). Under PAT, obligated industries are required to achieve targets either by implementing energy-efficient technologies or by purchasing energy efficiency certificates (ESCerts). PAT scheme is applicable for those industries notified as ‘Designated Consumer’ under the Energy Conservation Act 2001.
Statement 3 is Incorrect
Industries notified as Designated Consumer are: thermal power, aluminium, cement, fertilizer, iron and steel, pulp and paper, textiles, railways and Chlor-alkali.

QUESTION: 64

With reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect belongs to

Solution:

Sthanakvasi is a sect of svetambara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana/Moksha. The sect is essentially a reformation of the one founded on teachings of Lonka, a fifteenth-century Jain reformer. Sthanakavasins accept thirty-two of the Jain Agamas, the svetambara canon. Svetambarins who are not Sthanakavasins are mostly part of the Murtipujaka sect.

QUESTION: 65

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
The Rohingya people are a stateless Indo-Aryan ethnic group who follow Islam and reside in Rakhine State, Myanmar.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The Uyghurs have been recognized as native to only one region, the Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region of the People's Republic of China.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Kurds are an Iranian ethnic group native to a mountainous region of Western Asia known as Kurdistan, which spans southeastern Turkey, northwestern Iran, northern Iraq, and northern Syria.

QUESTION: 66

Who among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 1948?

Solution:

The Hind Mazdoor sabha was founded in Howrah in west bengal on 29 December 1948, by socialists, Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists. It was founded by Basawon Singh, Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta general secretary. HMS absorbed the Royist Indian Federation of Labour and the Hind Mazdoor Panchayat, which was formed in 1948 by socialists leaving the increasingly communist dominated AITUC.

QUESTION: 67

Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
An appointment order is:

  • Essentially an executive action published in the State gazette notification
  • It is officially taken in the name of the Governor as all executive actions of a State government ought to be.
  • He is the highest officer of the state and Governor should ideally be the appointing authority of the CS.

Statement 2 is incorrect

  • There is no fixed tenure for the post of Chief Secretary. In this context, the Administrative Reforms Commission, in its report on State Administration in 1969, had recommended that a Chief Secretary should have a minimum tenure of three to four years.
QUESTION: 68

In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the `International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)'?

Solution:

India's Additional Protocol for nuclear safeguards has been brought into force after the country handed over the instrument of ratification to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
The protocol supports the sharing of more information between India and the IAEA about nuclear power plants and work with nuclear fuel materials. It covers a list of nuclear facilities that was agreed in 2008 under then-prime minister Manmohan Singh, but its implementation stalled in the last few years of his premiership.
Having taken power in late May, new prime minister Narendra Modi ratified the protocol on 24 June, and India's ambassador to the IAEA, Rajiva Misra, handed the document to IAEA director general Yukiya Amano on 25 July. From that day the additional protocol was in force.

QUESTION: 69

With reference to Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, consider the following statements:
1. They use hydrogen as a source of fuel and an oxidant to create electricity by an electrochemical process.
2. This fuel cell releases water as a byproduct.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Hydrogen + Oxygen = Electricity + Water Vapor A fuel cell is a device that converts chemical potential energy (energy stored in molecular bonds) into electrical energy. A PEM (Proton Exchange Membrane) cell uses hydrogen gas (H2) and oxygen gas (O2) as fuel. The products of the reaction in the cell are water, electricity, and heat. This is a big improvement over internal combustion engines, coal-burning power plants, and nuclear power plants, all of which produce harmful by-products.

QUESTION: 70

The Globally Important Agriculture Heritage System that is Koraput Traditional Agriculture system is practised in which state?

Solution:

Koraput region of the state of Orissa in India is known for its ecological wealth coexisting with poverty, generally referred to as the paradox of economic poverty in the midst of genetic prosperity. Koraput is a tribal district; more than 70% of the total population comprises of scheduled tribes. There are as many as 52 tribal groups in this district. The socioeconomic indicators in these areas are comparable to the worst in the world with the percentage of people below the poverty line ranging from 72% to 83%. The genetic repository of the region is of great significance in the global context. About 79 plant angiosperm species and one gymnosperm are endemic to the region. Despite the genetic richness and poverty in plenty, no significant effort has been undertaken in the region to overcome the prevailing dichotomy between resource richness and rural poverty. The system could well be designed to provide opportunity for developing efficient people centred, pro-nature, pro-poor and prowomen oriented programmes in the region that could bring in rural prosperity and ensuring a long term biohapinness for the people and the region. The unique features of the system assumes global importance and initiatives need to be in place for local people to be a part of the conservation and, sustainable and equitable use of the bioresources which they have been bestowed with.

QUESTION: 71

Which of the following best describe the term” Arrokoth” sometimes seen in the news?

Solution:

The International Astronomical Union and Minor Planets Center, the global body for naming Kuiper Belt objects, has finally given a name for the most distant world ever explored by a space mission. It is called Arrokoth.

QUESTION: 72

With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
The Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri is “the most iconic architectural accomplishment of Akbar’s reign. It incorporates almost all the essential features of Akbar’s architectural traditions: red sandstone, stone carvings, relief by inserting white marble, etc.” The construction of the Buland Darwaza was inspired by Timurid architecture. Along with Humayun’s Tomb, its monumentality reflects its Central Asian origins.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Asaf-ud-Daula’s rule saw a devastating famine, which created an economic crisis. The residents of Awadh were self-respecting people, so instead of handing out dole, the Nawab started a food-for-work programme. The famous Asafi Imambara, or Bara Imambara, of Lucknow was built to give employment and revenue to the public.
Instead of stones and marble, brick and lime were used. Stucco ornamentation (gajkari) was used to decorate the monuments, giving it a deep relief effect even on flat walls. Mother of pearl and shells deposited in lake beds were used in the stucco ornamentation to give a shine finer than marble. The local masons cleverly used the brick, with its small size and thickness, to form remarkably fine details on the wall and column surfaces.

QUESTION: 73

With reference to Gangetic Dolphin, consider the following statements:
1. They are the only surviving freshwater dolphin in India.
2. They are only found in the river systems of Ganga.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
Gangetic Dolphins are the only surviving freshwater dolphin in India. 
Statement 2 is incorrect
Gangetic Dolphins are found in the river systems of Ganga, Brahmaputra, Meghna and Karnaphuli- Sangu in Nepal, India and Bangladesh. The IUCN status of the Gangetic Dolphin is Endangered. Gangetic Dolphin is the National Aquatic Animal of India.

QUESTION: 74

Consider the following statements
1. India has the lowest per capita Income and Lower per capita Co2 emissions even lower than EU.
2. The USA has the highest per capita Co2 emissions and higher per capita incomeas compared to India.
Select the correct answer from the following codes

Solution:

Statements two are correct
Among USA, EU, China are considered, the USA has the highest per capita CO2 emissions and per capita income while India has the lowest of both among.

QUESTION: 75

Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

Solution:

The Subsidiary Alliance System was “Non-Intervention Policy” used by Lord Wellesley who was the Governor-General (1798-1805) to establish British Empire in India. According to this system, every ruler in India had to accept to pay a subsidy to the British for the maintenance of British army. In return, British would protect them from their enemies which gave British enormous expansion. Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley was nothing to do with Napoleon danger. Hence option b does not apply.

QUESTION: 76

Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

Solution:

Correct Answer :- C

Explanation : The 42nd Constitutional  Amendment Act of 1976 added new Directive Principles. Two of them require the State to:

Take steps for securing the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A).

Protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48A).

QUESTION: 77

Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN?

Solution:

About ASEAN:
Headquarters: Jakarta, Indonesia Founded: 8 August 1967
Members: Indonesia, Thailand, Vietnam, Singapore, Malaysia, Philippines, Myanmar (Burma), Cambodia, Laos, Brunei
FTA partners – Australia, New Zealand, India, Korea, Japan, and China.

QUESTION: 78

What is/are the consequence/consequences in the economy if the government adopt fiscal stimulus policy?
1. It leads to the high fiscal deficit in the economy.
2. It leads to depreciation of Indian Rupee against foreign currency.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

Economic survey 2016-17, Vol1. analyzed the impact of past fiscal stimulus and concluded that for India- A fiscal stimulus, led “growth” is a problem rather “Solution”, because:
Statement 1 is correct

  • Our Tax:GDP is low. Fiscal stimulus makes Government to spend money beyond its “means”. This translates into high fiscal deficit.
  • Leakages of the stimulus package leads to Inflation, and thereby reducing the efficacy of monetary policy in combating inflation.

Statement 2 is correct

  • Expansion of public Expenditure / high inflation, leads to depreciation of Indian Rupee against foreign currency, thereby further raising the import bill of crude oil.
QUESTION: 79

Consider the following statements:
1. The transport sector is the largest contributor to GHG emissions.
2. Co2 concentration is higher than any other GHG.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect

  • The energy sector is the largest contributor to GHG emissions and,

Statement 2 is correct

  • CO2 emissions from combustion of fuels have the largest share.
QUESTION: 80

Regarding Kamov ks-226, consider the following statements:
1. It is a light utility helicopter.
2. It has been developed by Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct

  • Kamov is a small utility helicopter.
  • This light multipurpose helicopter has a maximum takeoff weight of 3.6 tons. It can carry up to one-ton payload. It has a maximum speed 220 Km/hr.

Statement 2 is correct

  • It is manufactured by Russian Helicopters
  • The machine has excellent maneuverability and handling, easy maintenance
  • India and Russia have signed a deal to jointly produce 200 Kamov Ka226T helicopters, at the India Russia Summit in Goa. The helicopters are believed to boost the capabilities of the armed forces.
  • Kamov 226T will replace the ageing Cheetah and Chetak choppers
QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements:
1. Coronavirus can only infect humans.
2. Coronaviruses were first identified in the 1960s
3. Coronavirus is identified as the cause of an outbreak of COVID19 in Wuhan city.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect

  • Coronavirus can infect both humans and animals, infact the virus has infected from the animals to humans.

Statement 2 is correct

  • Coronaviruses were first identified in the 1960s
  • They get their name from their crown-like shape. Sometimes, but not often, a coronavirus can infect both animals and humans.

Statement 3 is correct

  • It is a virus (more specifically, a coronavirus) identified as the cause of an outbreak of respiratory illness first detected in Wuhan, China.
QUESTION: 82

With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

Solution:

According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma. According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor to the present Buddha, Gautama Buddha (also known as Śākyamuni Buddha).

QUESTION: 83

Which of the following threat is/are posed by invasive alien species?
1. They alter the functions of the ecosystem.
2. Their introduction decreases the native species population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
They alter the functions of the ecosystem.
Statement 2 is correct
Their introduction decreases the native species population
The negative impact of these species:

  • Biodiversity loss: Invasive alien species are a major driver of biodiversity loss. In fact, an analysis of the IUCN Red List shows that they are the second most common threat associated with species that have gone completely extinct, and are the most common threat associated with extinctions of amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.
  • Change in the ecosystem: Invasive alien species can also lead to changes in the structure and composition of ecosystems leading to significant detrimental impacts to ecosystem services, affecting economies and human wellbeing. For example, the water hyacinth Eichhornia crassipes, a native to South America is spreading across Africa, Asia, Oceania, and North America. It is a fast-growing floating aquatic plant forming dense mats on the water surface, limiting oxygen and preventing sunlight reaching the water column. Infestations have led to reduced fisheries, blocked navigation routes, increased cases of vector-borne diseases, reduced hydropower capacity and affecting access to water.
  • Loss of Habitat: Invasive species can have a number of negative impacts on the areas that they invade. Perhaps the most significant of these is the widespread loss of habitat.May kill a large number of endemic species or may lead to extinction: Burmese pythons, for example, are top predators in the Everglades. As such, they have decimated local mammal and bird populations. Capable of consuming deer and even alligators, these creatures eat virtually any animal they encounter in the Everglades. The Case of Bullfrogs introduced in Andaman and Nicobar is another example for it because these Bullfrogs are invasive in nature and ate native wildlife including fish and lizards. Even in the developmental stages, the large bullfrog tadpoles eat other native frog tadpoles, finds a study.
  • Lead to resource crunch: Invasives can also threaten native species by outcompeting them for resources. Asian carp introduced into the United States outcompete native fish for both food and space, leading to large declines in native fish populations.
  • Impact on Human health: Invasive species can also impact human health when these species may accumulate toxins in their tissues when other organisms prey on these species, the toxins are passed up the food chain and can also enter animals consumed by humans. Infectious disease agents may themselves be invasive species or may be introduced by invasive vectors (e.g. introduced mosquitoes carrying malaria). West Nile Virus is an example of this
  • Economic cost: In addition to these impacts, invasive species can also have enormous economic costs. For example threat to fisheries by Water Hyacinth.
QUESTION: 84

Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
1. Legislative function.
2. Executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

DPSP are positive obligations for the State. Limitations are set by the fundamental rights.

QUESTION: 85

What are Arapaima and alligatorgar, sometimes seen in the news?

Solution:

They are an aquatic invasive alien species, This two alien fish species found in Kerala's rivers after the 2018 floods.
Context
Recent Kerala flood released several alien species of fish into waterbodies, raising a threat to the endemic aquatic ecosystem and biodiversity.
About
The foreign fish breeds from farms, dams and also aquariums have washed away into rivers after the floods.
It is assumed that over 20 lakh invasive fishes were washed away into rivers and other water resources during the flood.
Presence of 11 alien species have been documented, including the alligator gar, gold fish, shark catfish also known as Malaysian vaala, red-bellied pacu and four alien invasive species namely the East African catfish, common carp, tilapia and sucker catfish.
Significance
Among others, invasive fishes feed also on local fish breeds. As some invasive fishes are capable of living in polluted water too, they can affect survival of local fish breeds in the water resources.

QUESTION: 86

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are, correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:
  • Fundamental duties are not correlative to legal duties and there is no legislative process to enforce them.
  • The Fundamental Duty is defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
  • These duties set out in Part IV–A of the Constitution, concern individuals and the nation.
  • These are statutory duties, not enforceable by law, but a court may take them into account while adjudicating on a matter
QUESTION: 87

With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (CACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct.''
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect

  • The concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented and at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010,

Statement 2 is correct

  • GACSA is a voluntary platform open to governments, international and regional organizations, institutions, civil society, farmers’ organizations and businesses who agree with its vision and its Framework Document.

Being a member does not create any binding obligations and members determine their particular voluntary actions according to their needs and priorities.
Statement 3 is incorrect

  • India is not the member of this organisation.
QUESTION: 88

What is StrandHogg, sometimes seen in the news?

Solution:

It is a malware, cibercriminals have found an under investigated vulnerability to breach Android devices. It is called StrandHogg, and it can allow them to listen to microphone, steal login credentials, take photos using camera, read SMS and even access photos.

QUESTION: 89

Regarding the herd immunity, which of the following statement is correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is Incorrect
Innate immunity: Everyone is born with innate (or natural) immunity, a type of general protection. For example, the skin acts as a barrier to block germs from entering the body. And the immune system recognizes when certain invaders are foreign and could be dangerous.
Statement 2 is Incorrect

  • Adaptive immunity: Adaptive (or active) immunity develops throughout our lives. We develop adaptive immunity when we're exposed to diseases or when we're immunized against them with vaccines.

Statement 3 is Incorrect
Passive immunity: Passive immunity is "borrowed" from another source and it lasts for a short time. For example, antibodies in a mother's breast milk give a baby temporary immunity to diseases the mother has been exposed to.
Statement 4 is correct
Herd Immunity: Herd immunity, or community immunity, is when a large part of the population of an area is immune to a specific disease. If enough people are resistant to the cause of a disease, such as a virus or bacteria, it has nowhere to go.

QUESTION: 90

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
Aleppo is a city in Syria, serving as the capital of the Aleppo Governorate, the most populous Syrian governorate.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Kirkuk is a city in Iraq, serving as the capital of the Kirkuk Governorate, located 238 kilometres north of Baghdad.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Mosul is a major city in northern Iraq situated on the west bank of the Tigris, opposite the ancient Assyrian city of Nineveh on the east bank. 
Statement 4 is correct
Mazar-e Sharif, city is in Afghanistan, 35 miles south of the border with Uzbekistan. Hence, b is the correct option.

QUESTION: 91

Which of the following European countries is known as the ‘Land of a thousand lakes’ ? 

Solution:

The forested landscape is dotted with patches of water – or, in some areas, vice versa – so numerous they have earned Finland the nickname “the land of the thousand lakes”. In fact, the moniker is an understatement, as there are a total of 188 000 lakes in Finland.

QUESTION: 92

With reference to stagflation, consider the following statements:
1. It is a condition of slow economic growth
2. In the stagflation, unemployment will be relatively high.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

What is Stagflation?
Stagflation is a condition of slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment, or economic stagnation, accompanied by rising prices, or inflation. It can also be defined as inflation and a decline in the gross domestic product (GDP).

QUESTION: 93

With reference to FASTags, consider the following statements
1. It is a sticker that uses radio frequency identification technology for making toll payments.
2. The tag has limited validity and vehicle specific.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution:

The correct option is Option A.

Using Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology, FASTag helps in making toll payments through a prepaid account linked to it. The FASTag is affixed on the windscreen of your vehicle. When you drive past a toll plaza, it automatically reads the FASTag and deducts payment from the bank account linked to it.

The minimum recharge amount for FASTag is Rs100 and maximum Rs1 lakh. Users will get SMS alerts for all their toll transactions at toll plazas. The tag has lifetime validity and is vehicle specific. Two-wheelers, auto-rickshaws and other small vehicles that do not have to pay tolls presently do not require the FASTag.

QUESTION: 94

Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect

  • It is an NGO, not a bureau under UNEP.
  • TRAFFIC is governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, a steering group composed of members of TRAFFIC’s partner organizations, WWF and IUCN.

Statement 2 is correct

  • It is working globally on Wildlife trade monitoring network.
  • It specializes in investigating and analysing wildlife trade trends, patterns, impacts and drivers to provide the leading knowledge base on trade in wild animals and plants.
QUESTION: 95

With reference to the Nationwide Artificial Insemination Programme(NAIP), consider the following statements:
1. It aims for improving the genetic merit of draught animals.
2. It aims to ear-tag animals with PashuAdhaar.
3. It aims to artificially inseminate bovine population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect

  • It aims for improving the genetic merit of milch animals.

Statement 2 is correct

  • It aims to ear-tag animals with PashuAdhaar.

Statement 3 is correct

  • It aims to artificially inseminate bovine population.

Aim of the programme
The aim of the program to inseminate over 1 crore bovines in 6 months & ear-tag them with ‘PashuAadhaar’ which is a unique identification provided to the animals so as to enable the Government to identify and track the animals uniquely with all details such as the breed, age, gender and owner details.
Key features:

  • The NAIP is a campaign mode genetic up-gradation program covering all breeds of bovines to enhance milk production using low-cost breeding technology for improving the genetic merit of milch animals with high-quality seed.
  • The gestation period for getting the benefits from the AI bovine is approximately 3 years.
  • Under this, every cow and buffalo under AI will be tagged and can be tracked through the Information Network on Animal Productivity and Health (INAPH) Database.
QUESTION: 96

With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by the World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct
The GCCA was established by the European Union (EU) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, in particular least developed countries (LDCs) and small island developing States (SIDS).
Statement 2 is correct
By fostering effective dialogue and cooperation on climate change, the Alliance helps to ensure that poor developing countries most vulnerable to climate change increase their capacities to adapt to the effects of climate change, in support of the achievement of the Millenium Development Goals (MDGs).
Statement 3 is incorrect
There is no mention of WRI and WBCSD at the official partners page of GCCA, even though a lot of other institutions are mentioned like FAO, UNDP etc.

QUESTION: 97

The Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?
1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

QUESTION: 98

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is are correct?

Solution:

Latest PIB release, the Ministry of Textiles provides financial assistance for registration of handloom products under the Geographical Indications (GI) of Goods Act, 1999.
Details of GI Registered Handloom Products Logos

QUESTION: 99

Who among the following group of people they live in the Kerala state and they are traditional pullers of boats from land to dockyard without using large machines?

Solution:

Khalasis of Malabar region people are famous for moving large objects especially boats from land to dockyard. the Khalasis ensures that the work proceeds steadily and smoothly. The simple tools they use are designed and put together by themselves according to the situation. They use common sense, experience and ancient wisdom passed down over the generations. Their techniques are not found in text books on Engineering. They work with enthusiasm chanting their traditional songs. The group work of Khalasis need unity of mind, spirit and body.

QUESTION: 100

Regarding the Prime Minister's Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund.”, which of the following statements is/are true?
1. The PM CARES FUND must be audited.
2. This fund was instituted in 1948
3. Contributions towards PMNRF are notified for the 100% deduction from taxable income under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is incorrect

  • The Fund is a public charitable trust with the Prime Minister as its Chairman. Other Members include Defence Minister, Home Minister and Finance Minister. So no need to audit.

Statement 2 is correct

  • This fund was instituted in 1948 by then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, to assist displaced persons from Pakistan. The fund is currently used primarily to tackle natural calamities like floods, cyclones and earthquakes. The fund is also used to help with medical treatment like kidney transplantation, cancer treatment and acid attack.

Statement 3 is correct

  • Contributions towards PMNRF are notified for 100% deduction from taxable income under section 80(G) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.