UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 9 (April 08, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 9 (April 08, 2021)


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QUESTION: 1

Depositories play a vital role in the stock market. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to depositories?
1. These are institutions which hold securities in dematerialised form.
2. Depositories are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.
3. At present, there are only two depositories in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Depository is a place where financial securities are held in dematerialised (DEMAT) i.e. in electronic form. It is responsible for maintenance of ownership records and the facilitation of trading in dematerialized securities. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A Depository Participant (DP) is described as an Agent (law) of the depository. They are the intermediaries between the depository and the investors. The relationship between the DPs and the depository is governed by an agreement made between the two under the Depositories Act, 1996.
• A depository eliminates the risk associated with holding physical securities. Earlier, the buyer would have to keep checking if the shares have been transferred safely to his account, and ensure that theft, damage or loss has not happened. After the depository system came about, such risks have been greatly reduced since the shares are held in and transferred in an electronic manner. They also reduce the paperwork involved in trading and fasten the transfer of shares. In 1998, DEMAT or electronic trading was made compulsory for institutional investors, which led to a spike in the overall trading volumes in the Indian market.
• At present, there are only two depositories in India. The Depository Act of 1996 paved the way for the establishment of the two depositories in India, namely National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL) which is promoted by the National Stock Exchange, Industrial Development Bank of India and Unit Trust of India among others. The other depository is the Central Depository Services Limited (CDSL) which is promoted by the Bombay Stock Exchange Bombay Stock Exchange, State Bank of India, Bank of India among others. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India is responsible for the registration, regulation, and inspection of the depository. A depository participant is also answerable to the SEBI. It can be operational only after registration with SEBI post recommendation by NSDL or CDSL. Hence statement2 is correct.

QUESTION: 2

Consider the following statements:
1. Constitution of India provides a provision for the nomination of Anglo-Indians to either House of the Parliament.
2. Anglo Indians have not been defined anywhere in the Constitution.
3. No Anglo-Indian has been nominated to any State Assembly to date.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• Recent Context: Parliament passed the Constitution (126th Amendment) Bill, extending reservation for SC/STs but doing away with the provision for the nomination of Anglo Indians to Lok Sabha and some state Assemblies. It was passed as the Constitution (104th Amendment) Act, 2020.
• The term Anglo-Indian first appeared in the Government of India Act, 1935. In the present context, Article 366(2) of the Constitution Of India states: “An Anglo-Indian means a person whose father or any of whose other male progenitors in the male line is or was of European descent but who is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was born within such territory of parents habitually resident therein and not established there for temporary purposes only…” Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The number of people who identified themselves as Anglo-Indian was 296, according to the 2011 Census. The All India Anglo-Indian Association, on the other hand, has objected to Law Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad’s claim that the community has just 296 members.
• Provision for nomination of two Anglo-Indians to Lok Sabha was made under Article 331 of the Constitution. It says: “Notwithstanding anything in Article 81, the President may, if he is of opinion that the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented in the House of the people, nominate not more than two members of that community to the House of the People.” Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Article 333 deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian community in Legislative Assemblies. It says: “Notwithstanding anything in Article 170, the Governor of a State may, if he is of opinion that the Anglo-Indian community needs representation in the Legislative Assembly of the State and is not adequately represented therein, nominate one member of that community to the Assembly.”
• Currently, some Assemblies have one Anglo-Indian member each: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand and West Bengal. The 104th Amendment does away with this as well. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• According to the 10th Schedule of the Constitution, Anglo-Indian members of Lok Sabha and state Assemblies can take the membership of any party within six months of their nomination. But, once they do so, they are bound by their party whip. The Anglo-Indian members enjoy the same powers as others, but they cannot vote in the Presidential election because they are nominated by the President.

QUESTION: 3

Which of the following adaptation mechanism is/are seen in the tropical rainforests?
1. The leaves have drip tips
2. Buttress and stilt roots
3. Growth of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• The special characteristics that enable plants and animals to be successful in a particular environment are called adaptations.
• Epiphytes are plants that live on the surface of other plants, especially the trunk and branches. They grow on trees to take advantage of the sunlight in the canopy. Most are orchids, bromeliads, ferns, and Philodendron relatives. Tiny plants called epiphytes, mostly mosses, liverworts and lichens, live on the surface of leaves.
• The leaves of many rainforest plants have drip tips for these enable raindrops to run off quickly. Plants need to shed water to avoid the growth of fungus and bacteria in the warm, wet tropical rainforest.
• Many large trees have massive ridges near the base that can rise 30 feet high before blending into the trunk. Buttress roots provide extra stability, especially since roots of tropical rainforest trees are not typically as deep as those of trees in temperate zones. Prop and stilt roots help give support and are characteristic of tropical palms growing in shallow, wet soils. Although the tree grows fairly slowly, the sea bove-ground roots can grow 28 inches a month.
• In drier, temperate deciduous forests a thick bark helps to limit moisture evaporation from the tree's trunk. Since this is not a concern in the high humidity of tropical rainforests, most trees have thin, smooth bark. The smoothness of the bark may also make it difficult for other plants to grow on their surface.
• Hence all the options are correct.

QUESTION: 4

A bill to amend the Article 368 of the constitution would require to be
1. passed by a majority of two-thirds of the members of each House of Parliament present and voting.
2. passed by a majority of the total membership of each House of the Parliament.
3. ratified by Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:
(i) An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
(ii) The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
(iii) The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than50 percent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
(iv) Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
(v) If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
(vi) After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
(vii) The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
(viii) After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.
• The amendment to the following provisions requires a special majority of the Parliament and also the consent of half of the state legislatures:
(i) Election of the President and its manner.
(ii) The extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
(iii) Supreme Court and high courts.
(iv) Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
(v) Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
(vi) Representation of states in Parliament.
(vii) Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

QUESTION: 5

Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Indian Constitution, the President with respect to any UnionTerritory may specify any caste as scheduled caste by public notification.
2. State Legislatures have the power to include/exclude any caste from the list of Scheduled castes.
3. Any bill to modify the list of schedule caste should be agreed by the Registrar General of India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• SCs & STs Identification: On the basis of the 1931 census that the British government had conducted, the Government of India 1935 Act was promulgated. The reservation for the “Depressed Classes” was incorporated into the act, which came into force in 1937. This “Depressed class” later came to known as the Scheduled Caste.
• Scheduled Tribe were the ‘tribes or communities’ who were isolated from the rest of the communities and wouldn’t abide by any religion. The British government in 1935 identified the 'Schedule of Tribes' which consisted of different types of indigenous tribal groups i.e. Denotified Tribes, Criminal Tribes, Forest Dwellers etc.
• By 1937 both the section were given positive affirmative action rights and political representation. After India got its independence, the Constitution continued affirmative action for the ‘depressed class’ which were now termed as 'Scheduled Caste' and 'Scheduled Tribe'.
• According to the Constitution of India, under Article 341(1) the President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Article 341(2) provides that the Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) of Article 341 any caste, race or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Accordingly, the President has notified the Scheduled Castes in the order called ‘Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950’ and the ‘Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes List (Modification) Order 1956’.
• Only proposals agreed by both the Registrar General of India and the National Commission for Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes are introduced as a Bill in Parliament. This procedure was adopted by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in 1999 and was amended in 2002. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• The order was called the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950. The complete list of castes and tribes was made on the order of 1950 which had certain norms and criteria for inclusion of other communities later. However, the Scheduled tribe list was put in updation due to partition as it was very difficult to identify tribals as they were geographically isolated. Thus, the list of Scheduled tribe was completely updated by 1958 with 744 enlisted tribes.
• Part 3 of the Presidential Order of 1950 states that “no person who professes a religion different from the Hindu (the Sikh or the Buddhist) religion shall be deemed to be a member of a Scheduled Caste.”

QUESTION: 6

With reference to ‘credit rationing’, which of the following statements is correct?

Solution:

• It is a situation where the banking institution denies credit to the borrowers who want funds and are willing to pay a higher interest rate is called a credit rationing. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
• This situation arises because of market imperfection or market failure as in spite of a demand for funds at a current rate the lender is not either willing to loan more funds or increase the interest rates.
• Credit rationing is often applied in the situations where there is a shortage of institutional credit available for the business sector, the big and financially strong institutes try to capture a larger portion of the institutional credit. As a result of this, the priority sector often the weaker, but essential industries are deprived of necessary funds, mainly because the bank credit is given to the non-priority sectors.
• In order to control this situation, the central bank resorts to credit rationing measures.
• Typically, three measures are adopted:
(i) Imposing an upper limit on the credit available to the big firms or industries. Beyond this upper limit, any further sanction of the loan is denied.
(ii) Charging a higher and progressive interest rate on the loan amount after a certain limit.
(iii) Offering credit to the weaker sectors at lower internal rates.

QUESTION: 7

Which of the following can be considered as the causes of the deflationary gap in an economy?
1. Fall in consumer spending
2. Fall in investment
3. Production is more than demand
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• When in an economy aggregate demand falls short of aggregate supply at full employment level, i.e. the production is more than the demand, the demand is said to be deficient demand and the gap is called deflationary gap. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Causes of the deflationary gap are:
(i) Fall in aggregate demand (AD) due to:✓ Fall in exports (global recession)✓ Fall in investment (due to a banking collapse and credit crunch)✓ Fall in consumer spending (e.g. higher interest rates, falling wages.). Hence options 1 and 2 are correct.
(ii) Economic growth well below the average trend rate of growth (AD increasing at a slower rate than productive capacity).
• Impact of deflationary gap:
(i) Rising Unemployment: We will get demand-deficient unemployment and possibly higher structural unemployment.
(ii) Low/negative rates of economic growth.
(iii) Negative impact on the government’s budget: With lower economic growth, the government will receive lower tax revenue and lower government spending.
(iv) Low rates of inflation/disinflation: Possibly deflation. With a deflationary gap, firms have excess capacity, this tends to put downward pressure on prices and wages.

QUESTION: 8

Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is released by:

Solution:

• The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool of countries’ climate protection performance. Germanwatch, the New Climate Institute and the Climate Action Network publish the Index annually. CCPI assigns scores to countries on four parameters, namely “GHG Emissions” (assigned 40 per cent of the overall score), “Renewable Energy” (20 per cent), “Energy Use” (20 per cent), and “Climate Policy” (20 per cent).
• Ranked ninth, India broke into the top ten countries for the first time this year. The report rates the country’s 2030 mitigation targets as high on ambition, and praises its 2030 energy targets as one of the very few compatible with limiting global mean temperature rise to less than 2 degrees Celsius (°C).
• Germanwatch is a non-profit, non-governmental organization based in Bonn, Germany. It seeks to influence public policy on trade, the environment, and relations between countries in the industrialized north and underdeveloped south.
• The Climate Action Network (CAN) is a worldwide network of over 1300 Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) in more than 120 countries, working to promote government and individual action to limit human-induced climate change to ecologically sustainable levels.
• New Climate Institute supports research and implementation of action against climate change around the globe. Its flagship projects include the Climate Action Tracker and ACT2015. The Agreement for Climate Transformation (ACT 2015) was a WRI-led consortium that developed a proposal for the design of an international climate agreement to catalyze climate action and move the world onto a low-carbon and climate-resilient pathway.

QUESTION: 9

In which of the following cases can a court issue the writ of Mandamus?
1. To prevent a tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction
2. To enforce a contractual obligation
3. To command a public official to perform his official duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Mandamus literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform the official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The writ of mandamus cannot be issued (a) against a private individual or body; (b) to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force; (c) when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory; (d) to enforce a contractual obligation; (e) against the president of India or the state governors; and (f) against the chief justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• Prohibition, literally, means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. Thus, unlike mandamus that directs activity, the prohibition directs inactivity. Hence option 1 is not correct.

QUESTION: 10

Pathalgadi movement, often seen in news refers to a movement to protest against:

Solution:

• ‘Pathalgadi’ literally means carving a stone - it is an ancient tradition in the tribal communities of Jharkhand. Adivasis usually erected engraved stones to mark the birth or death of a person.
• The state government of Jharkhand tried to amend the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908 and Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act, 1876 to facilitate easier land acquisition norms which however added to the problem for the tribal community. However, these amendments were withdrawn later on. These decisions gave rise to the Pathalgarhi incidents in the tribal belt demanding implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006 and provisions of the Panchayats (Extension of Scheduled Areas) Act(PESA), 1996.
• Pathalgadi, having its origin in a resistance movement by tribals during British rule, is a practice of raising huge stone plaques at village outskirts with warnings to outsiders not to enter and declaring the gram sabha, or village council, the only sovereign authority. Pathalgadi movement is associated with the Mundatribal community. They had started Pathalgadi by engraving these PESA provisions in all the villages of Jharkhand to increase awareness among the tribal people about their rights. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 11

Consider the following statements in the context of Pitt's India Act of 1784:
1. This act made a distinction between the commercial and political activities of the East India Company.
2. It combined the offices of the Governor-General of Bengal and Commander-in-Chief.
3. The authority to appoint Governor-General was still held with the Court of Directors, but only with the approval of the Crown.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution:

• The Pitt’s India Act, 1784 also called the East India Company Act, 1784 was passed by the British Parliament to correct the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773.
• This act made a distinction between the commercial and political activities of the East India Company. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• For political matters, the Board of Control was created and for commercial affairs, the Court of Directors was appointed resulting in dual control of British possessions in India.
• The Court of Directors retained the power to appoint its principal servants in India like governor-general, governors, etc., but only with the approval of the crown. Hence statement 3 is correct
• The Governor-General’s council’s strength was reduced to three members. One of the three would be the Commander-in-Chief of the British Crown’s army in India.
• The Presidencies of Madras and Bombay became subordinate to the Bengal Presidency. In effect, Calcutta became the capital of the British possessions in India.
• For the first time, the term ‘British possessions in India’ was used.
• Drawbacks:
(i) The Governor-General had to serve two masters i.e. East India Company and the British Crown
(ii) There were no clear boundaries between the responsibilities of the Board of Control and the Court of Directors of the company. The Governor-General had to take on the spot decisions exercising his discretion.
(iii) Governor-general has no clear right to use the army, as commander-in-chief was a government appointee for the same purpose.
• An amending act of 1786 corrected these anomalies:
(i) It gave veto power to the governor-general of Bengal.
(ii) It also combined the offices of the governor-general of Bengal and Commander-in-chief. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 12

Which of the following countries border the North Sea?
1. Norway
2. France
3. Ireland
4. Netherland
5. Belgium
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Recent context: Northern European Enclosure Dam (NEED) enclosing all of the North Sea. The protection efforts that are required, if mitigation efforts fail to limit sea-level rise.
• The North Sea - a part of the Atlantic Ocean - is bordered by Norway and Denmark, Scotland and England, (and in the southeast) by the Frisian Islands and Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and France.
• Above the Shetland Islands in the north, its waters merge with the Norwegian Sea.
• Waters flow east-to-west into the North Sea through the Skagerrak Strait, an outlet to the Atlantic Ocean from the Baltic Sea.
• Along the southern reaches of the North Sea, waters from the Atlantic Ocean flow through the English Channel and on into the North Sea through the Strait of Dover.
• The Kiel Canal in northern Germany is one of the world's busiest artificial waterways.

QUESTION: 13

Consider the following statements regarding the Tiger Census:
1. It is a quinquennial exercise carried out by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
2. According to the recent census, Karnataka has the maximum number of tigers.
3. Among the tiger reserves, the Buxa tiger reserve records the highest number of tigers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• The Prime Minister of India released the results of the fourth cycle of All India Tiger Estimation - 2018on the occasion of Global Tiger Day-2019 in June 2019.• India has achieved the target of doubling the tiger count four years ahead of the deadline of 2022. This is by far the biggest increase in Tiger count in terms of both numbers and percentage since the four-yearly census (and not quinquennial i.e. after every five years) using camera traps and the capture-mark-recapture method began in 2006. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The 2018 census is not focused on the counting of the tigers alone. Even in the census of 2014, the census had recorded the inaugural counting of the population of India’s leopard, which was 11,000 in numbers. Proceeding further with the same approach the 2018 census also estimated the number of various carnivores like leopards, ungulates and other animals of India’s forests.
• India’s five tiger landscapes are Shivalik Hills and Gangetic Plains, Central Indian Landscape and Eastern Ghats, the Western Ghats, North-East Hills and Brahmaputra Plains, and the Sundarbans.

Key highlights
• Around 40% of India’s estimated 2,226 tigers (2014 census) live outside the core areas of tiger habitats. These tigers are vulnerable to poaching and come into conflict with humans.
• Top Performers: Madhya Pradesh saw the highest number of tigers (526) followed by Karnataka (524) and Uttarakhand (442). Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Other Facts:
(i) There are 4 States (M.P., Karnataka, Uttarakhand & Maharashtra) with more than 300 Tigers.
(ii) Buxa, Dampa and Palamau Tiger Reserves do not have a single tiger now. Hence statement 3 is notcorrect.
(iii) No Tigers were found in Mizoram state.
(iv) Tiger Sanctuaries:✓ Madhya Pradesh's Pench Sanctuary and Kerala’s Periyar sanctuary emerged as the bestmanagedtiger reserves in the country.✓ Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu registered the “maximum improvement” since2014.✓ The Dampa and Rajaji reserves, in Mizoram and Uttarakhand respectively are at the bottom of the list in terms of Tiger count.✓ No tiger has been found in the Buxa (West Bengal), Palamau (Jharkhand)and Dampa (Mizoram) reserves.
• Importance of Fourth Tiger Census 2018:
(i) This 2018 tiger census uses more technology including a mobile app named “MSTrIPES” for the very first time to store information of the counting. Another primary focus of the tiger census 2018is to cover the northeast India that was not included in the previous census. For the very first time, three neighboring countries Bhutan, Nepal and Bangladesh are helping in counting the number of tigers all across India, especially in the region with mutual borders.

QUESTION: 14

He was a pioneer of social reform through journalism in Bombay. He started the newspaper Darpan. He is known as the father of Marathi journalism. He founded theBombay Native General Library. Which of the following personality is being described above?

Solution:

• Balshastri Jambhekar (1812-1846) was a pioneer of social reform through journalism in Bombay; he attacked brahminical orthodoxy and tried to reform popular Hinduism.
• He started the newspaper Darpan in 1832. He is known as the father of Marathi journalism. In 1840, he started Digdarshan which published articles on scientific subjects as well as history.
• Jambhekar founded the Bombay Native General Library and started the Native Improvement Society of which an offshoot was the Students Literary and Scientific Library.
• He was the first professor of Hindi at the Elphinston College, besides being a director of the Colaba Observatory.

QUESTION: 15

With reference to Flue-Gas Desulphurisation (FGD), often seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a process that can be used to remove sulfur and nitrous oxides from exhaust flue gases of thermal power plants.
2. Dry Sorbent Injection technique is one of the popular methods of flue-gas desulphurisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• Recent Context: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has pulled up 14 thermal power plants for not complying with a December 31, 2019 deadline to limit sulfur dioxide emissions. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF & CC) vide Notification dated 7.12.2015 has brought out new emission norms for thermal power stations. To meet the new emission norms, the installation of flue gas desulphurization (FGD) system has become essential in new as well as existing thermal power plants. NTPC also plans to install flue-gas desulphurization (FGD) units at all of its power stations. Central Electricity Authority, as an apex body in the power sector, has brought out a standard technical specification of the FGD system which can be used as a guiding document by the utilities for installation of the FGD system in their power plants.
• Flue gas (sometimes called exhaust gas or stack gas) is the gas that emanates from combustion plants and which contains the reaction products of fuel and combustion air and residual substances such as particulate matter (dust), sulfur oxides, nitrogen oxides, and carbon monoxide. The composition of flue gas depends upon the composition and properties of the fuel being combusted. For example, flue gas produced by the combustion of fossil fuels, such as coal and crude oil can contain a significant amount of sulfur derivatives.
• FGD is a system that reduces the SOx in flue gas through chemical treatment and converting the captured SOx into a by-product such as a Gypsum or Calcium Sulphate or Sulphuric Acid depending upon the type of mechanism used. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A flue gas desulfurization technique known as SNOx , uses catalytic reactions to clean flue gases of nitrogen oxides (NOx) and particulates, as well as sulfur dioxide.
• The major types of large-scale, power plant FGD systems include spray towers, spray dryers and dry sorbent injection systems. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• About Dry Sorbent Injection (DSI) system: It is a pollution control system for the reduction of Sox (SO2, SO3), HCl and heavy metals like mercury. It is a dry process in which a sorbent (a material used to absorb or adsorb liquids or gases) is injected into the coal-fired boiler where it interacts with various pollutants like SOx, HCl and the resultant dry waste is removed via either an electrostatic precipitator (ESP) or a fabric filter bag house.
(i) It offers various advantages in comparison to traditional acid gas scrubber technology such as: lower capital cost, wide range of favourable operation conditions, and much lesser time for completing installation and commissioning.
(ii) CPCB has asked coal-fired thermal plants to comply with the environmental norms by December 31,2019 and NTPC’s power plant in Dadri is the first in the India to opt for DSI System.

QUESTION: 16

Consider the following statements with reference to salt production in India:
1. Rajasthan state is the largest producer of salt in India.
2. In India, salt production and distribution are monitored by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• Recently, a survey was conducted by Nutrition International in collaboration with the All India Institute of Medical Sciences and the Indian Coalition for the Control of Iodine Deficiency Disorders (ICCIDD).
• The survey tested the iodine content in samples of cooking salt from households to estimate the coverage of iodized salt.
• Statement 1 is not correct: The study shows that 76.3% of Indian households consumed adequately iodized salt, which is salt with at least 15 parts per million of iodine. The five worst performers were Tamil Nadu (61.9%), Andhra Pradesh (63.9%), Rajasthan (65.5%), Odisha (65.8%) and Jharkhand (68.8%).
• Gujarat produces 71% of salt in the country, followed by Rajasthan at 17% and Tamil Nadu at11%. The rest of the country accounts for a mere 1% of the salt produced. As per the survey, Jammu and Kashmir (now Union Territory) is at the top with respect to iodized salt consumption at the household level (99.80%). Followed by northeastern States that are doing very well with respect to iodised salt consumption at the household level.
• India made fortification of salt with iodine mandatory for direct human consumption in 1992. This was relaxed in 2000 and then reimposed in 2005. In 2011, the SC, too, mandated universal iodization for the control of iodine deficiencies.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Salt Organization is responsible for monitoring production, distribution and supply of salt. The organization is a nodal agency for monitoring production, distribution, and quality of iodised salt under the National Iodine deficiency control programme of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The other functions of the organization include price surveillance, promotion of technological development, maintenance of standards and quality improvement of salt, planning, formulation and monitoring the execution of development and labor welfare schemes, custody and superintendence of departmental salt and other assets, promotion of exports, pre-shipment inspection and rehabilitation of salt works affected by the natural calamities.
• The Salt Commissioner’s organization with its headquarters at Jaipur is headed by the Salt Commissioner, who is assisted by two Assistant Salt Commissioners and other supporting staff. There are four regional offices functioning at Chennai, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, and Jaipur, besides field offices in all the salt producing states.

QUESTION: 17

With reference to the district judge, consider the following statements:
1. He/She has supervisory powers over all the subordinate courts in the district.
2. Appeals against his orders and judgments lie to the sessions judge.
3. He/she has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters. In other words, the district judge is also the sessions judge. When he deals with civil cases, he is known as the district judge and when he hears the criminal cases, he is called the sessions judge.
• The district judge exercises both judicial and administrative powers. He also has supervisory powers over all the subordinate courts in the district. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Appeals against his orders and judgments lie to the High Court. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The sessions judge has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment (death sentence). However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not. Hence statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 18

With reference to the two important genres of Indian music i.e. Hindustani music and Carnatic music, consider the following statements:
1. While the origin of Hindustani music is often associated with religion, the origin of Carnatic music was secular.
2. While Carnatic music is associated with several classical dance forms, Hindustani music is not related to any classical dance form.
3. The sarangi is a major accompaniment in Hindustani, while the violin reigns in Carnatic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• Carnatic music is a system of music associated with the southern part of the Indian subcontinent. Hindustani music is associated with North India and is deeply influenced by the Persian and Islamic music systems.
• Similarities between Hindustani and Carnatic music:
(i) Although there are stylistic differences, the basic elements of Swara, raga, and tala as the foundation of both Carnatic and Hindustani are the same.
(ii) Hindustani music originated in the Vedic period, while Carnatic music originated during the Bhakti movement. Thus both are having a great association with religion. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
(iii) Both the music evolved with Sanskrit language scripts in itself and through Vedic traditions.
• Key differences between the Hindustani and Carnatic systems are:
(i) Hindustani music is raga based while Carnatic is Kriti-based.
(ii) Hindustani music stresses pure notes versus the gamaka-based Carnatic ragas.
(iii) Raga essays (alapanas) are elaborated from note to note in Hindustani and from phrase to phrase in Carnatic.o Hindustani has a separate repertoire for instrumental and vocal while Carnatic instrumentalists till recently played the same Kriti-based compositions as the vocalists did.
(iv) The sarangi is a major accompaniment in Hindustani, while the violin reigns in Carnatic. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• While some classical dance is accompanied by Hindustani music, Other classical dances adopt a pure form of Carnatic music. For example, Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dance use pure Carnatic music for performance, while Kathak uses a pure form of Hindustani music. Hence it is wrong to say that a combination of Carnatic and Hindustani is used across all classical dance forms. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

QUESTION: 19

With reference to ocean currents, consider the following statements:
1. Oceans currents flow in an anticlockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere.
2. Counter equatorial current moves from east to west.
3. In the lower latitudes, warm ocean currents move along the eastern margins of the continents.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution:

• Ocean currents are large masses of surface water that circulate in regular patterns around the oceans. Those that flow from equatorial regions poleward have a higher surface temperature and are warm currents. Those that flow from polars regions equator ward have a lower temperature and are cold currents.
• The earth rotation deflects freely moving objects, including oceans currents to the right. In the northern hemisphere, this is a clockwise direction (e.g. The circulation of Gulf Stream Drift and canaries current).In the southern hemisphere, it is an anti-clock direction (e.g. The Brazilian current and the West Wind Drift). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Counter equatorial current:
(i) It is an eastward flowing current found in the Atlantic, Indian and Pacific Oceans. Hence statement2 is not correct.
(ii) It is found in between the North Equatorial and South Equatorial Currents at about 3-10 degrees northern latitudes.
(iii) This counter-current replaces the water removed from the eastern side of the ocean by the North Equatorial and South Equatorial Currents.
(iv) In the Indian Ocean, the current tends to reverse hemispheres seasonally due to the impact of reversing Asian monsoons.
(v) In the lower latitudes, the warm currents flow on the eastern shores and cold on the western shores. Hence statement 3 is correct.
(vi) The situation is reversed in the higher latitudes. The warm currents move along the western shores and the cold currents along the eastern shores.

QUESTION: 20

Biocontrol agents are natural enemies or competitors of crop pests. They are used to control plant diseases and pests. Which of the following are proven biocontrol agents?
1. Bacillus thuringiensis
2. Dragonflies
3. Baculoviruses
Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Solution:

• Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests. In modern society, these problems have been tackle increasingly by the use of chemicals – by use of insecticides and pesticides.
• These chemicals are toxic and extremely harmful, to human beings and animals alike, and have been polluting our environment (soil, groundwater), fruits, vegetables and crop plants.
• The beetle with red and black markings – the ladybird, and dragonflies are useful to get rid of aphids and mosquitoes, respectively. An example of microbial biocontrol agents that can be introduced in order to control butterfly caterpillars is the bacteria Bacillusthuringiensis (often written as Bt).
• A biological control being developed for use in the treatment of plant disease is the fungus Trichoderma. Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that are very common in the root ecosystems. They are effective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens.
• Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods. The majority of baculoviruses used as biological control agents are in the genus Nucleopolyhedro virus. These viruses are excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications. They have been shown to have no negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fish or even on non-target insects. This is especially desirable when beneficial insects are being conserved to aid in overall integrated pest management (IPM) programme, or when an ecologically sensitive area is being treated.
• Hence all the options are correct.

QUESTION: 21

Which of the following characteristics were common among Nath pan this, Siddhas and Yogis?
1. They advocated renunciation of the material world. 
2. They advocated practice of yogasanas, breathing exercises and meditation for salvation. 
3. They were popular particularly among upper castes and affluent classes. 
4. They insisted that the crux of bhakti lays in sharing other’s pain. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

Several religious groups that emerged during the period of the thirteenth to seventeenth-century criticised the ritual and other aspects of conventional religion and the social order, using simple, logical arguments. Among them were the Nath panthis, Siddhacharas and Yogis. All of them advocated renunciation of the world. So, statement 1 is correct.
To them, the path to salvation lay in meditation on the formless Ultimate Reality and the realisation of oneness with it. To achieve this, they advocated intense training of the mind and body through practices like yogasanas, breathing exercises and meditation. So, statement 2 is correct.
These groups became particularly popular among “low” castes. So, statement 3 is not correct. Bhakti saint-poets rejected all forms of ritualism, outward display of piety and social differences based on birth. Most of them even rejected the idea of renunciation and preferred to live with their families, earning their livelihood like any other person, while humbly serving fellow human beings in need. A new humanist idea emerged as they insisted that bhakti lay in sharing others’ pain. However, it was not the Nath panthis, Yogis and Siddhas who focussed on sharing pain. So, statement 4 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 22

Consider the following statements with reference to the State Legislatures: 
1. There exists no uniformity in organisation of State Legislatures in India. 
2. Creation/abolition of a State Legislative Council is not deemed as a constitutional amendment. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

The state legislature occupies a pre-eminent and central position in the political system of a state. Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the state legislature. Accordingly, states may have a bicameral or unicameral setting. Most of the states have a unicameral system, while others have a bicameral system. At present (2019), only six states have two Houses (bicameral). These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka. Hence there exists no uniformity in the organisation of state legislatures. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Constitution provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states. According to Article 168 the Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect by special majority. This Act of Parliament is not deemed as an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 and is passed as an ordinary piece of legislation (i.e., by simple majority). So, Statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 23

Which of the following are causes that accentuate hunger crises in India? 
1) Poverty 
2) Low sanitation 
3) Low women empowerment 
4) Dietary issues 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

India, as a country, is tagged with ‘serious’ level of hunger in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2019. Apart from poverty, one of the primary reasons for children being undernourished in the country is that often their mothers are undernourished, this is because of low women empowerment in India. The link between sanitation and under-nutrition is very strong. Districts with low levels of access to toilets have much higher rates of child undernourishment compared to districts with relatively high levels of access to toilets. Because of poor dietary habits and more intakes of carbohydrates, there is a prevalence of hidden hunger in India. So, all the options given are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 24

Consider the following pairs: 

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

Anabaena is a genus of filamentous cyanobacteria that exist as plankton. They are known for their nitrogen-fixing ability, and they form symbiotic relationships with certain plants, such as the mosquito fern. Anabena is capable of transforming atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium ions (inorganic compounds usable by plants). More than 90 per cent of all nitrogen fixation is affected by these organisms, which thus play an important role in the nitrogen cycle. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Nitrosomonas is a genus of Gram-negative, rod-shaped chemoautotrophic bacteria. This organism oxidizes ammonia into nitrite as a metabolic process. Nitrosomonas are useful in bioremediation. They are important in the nitrogen cycle by increasing the availability of nitrogen to plants while limiting carbon dioxide fixation. The genus is found in soil, freshwater, and on building surfaces. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Nitrobacter is a genus comprising rod-shaped, Gram-negative, and chemoautotrophic bacteria. Nitrobacter plays an important role in the nitrogen cycle by oxidizing nitrite into nitrate in soil and marine systems. Unlike plants, where electron transfer in photosynthesis provides the energy for carbon fixation, Nitrobacter uses energy from the oxidation of nitrite ions, NO2−, into nitrate ions, NO3−, to fulfil their energy needs. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 25

Consider the following statements regarding tigers in India: 
1) There has been a substantial increase in the tiger population in the last 5 years. 
2) Amrabad Tiger Reserve is the largest tiger reserve in the country. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

The Government of India had released the results of the fourth cycle of All India Tiger Estimation - 2018, on the occasion of International Tiger Day (29th July). The count of tigers in India has risen to 2967 in 2018, with an increase of nearly 33% since the last Tiger Census of 2014. This is because of the development of next-generation infrastructure and the increase in forest cover in the country. The 33% rise in tiger numbers is the highest ever recorded between 2014 and 2018 which stood at 21% between 2006 and 2010 and 30% between 2010 and 2014. The rise in tiger numbers was in conformity with the average annual growth rate of tigers since, 2006. Madhya Pradesh saw the highest number of tigers at 526, closely followed by Karnataka at 524 with Uttarakhand at the third position with 442 tigers. In 2010, India and 12 tiger range countries pledged to double the number of tigers by 2022 under the Global Tiger Recovery Program. So, statement 1 is correct.
Amrabad Tiger Reserve spreads over 2,800 sq.kms in the districts of Mahabubnagar and Nalgonda, Telangana. It is the largest tiger reserve in the country. Earlier, it was part of 'Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger reserve' but post bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh, the northern part of the reserve is vested with Telangana state and renamed as 'Amrabad Tiger Reserve'. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 26

From the locations given below, where would you find the remains of the famous ancient temple of Pandrethan? 

Solution:

The Karkota period of Kashmir is the most significant in terms of architecture. One of the most important temples is Pandrethan, built during the eighth and ninth centuries C.E. In keeping with the tradition of a water tank attached to the shrine, this temple is built on a plinth built in the middle of a tank. Although there was evidence of both Hindu and Buddhist followings in Kashmir, this temple is a Hindu one, possibly dedicated to Shiva. The architecture of this temple is in keeping with the age-old Kashmiri tradition of wooden buildings. Due to the snowy conditions in Kashmir, the roof is peaked and slants slowly outward. Therefore, the correct answer is (d)

QUESTION: 27

In the context of reservation of seats under the 73rd Amendment Act, consider the following statements: 
1. Not less than 1/3rd of the total number of seats are reserved for women. 
2. Not less than 1/3rd of the total number of seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes. 
3. Not less than 1/3rd of the total number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes shall be reserved for women among them. 
4. Not less than 1/3rd of the seats of chairpersons at each level is reserved for women. 
Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Solution:

As per Article 243D of the Indian Constitution, inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act: Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020) • Not less than one third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) shall be reserved for women. So, statement 1 is correct
• Seats shall be reserved out of the total seats for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, in every Panchayat in proportion to their population. So, statement 2 is not correct
• Not less than one-third of the total number of seats reserved for SC/ST’s shall be reserved for women belonging, to the SC/ST’s. So, statement 3 is correct.
• Offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats at the village or any other level shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes the Scheduled Tribes and women in such manner as the Legislature of a State may provide.
• The legislature of a State may make provision for reservation of seats in any Panchayat or offices of Chairpersons in the Panchayats at any level in favour of a backward class of citizens.
• Not less than one-third of the total number of offices of Chairpersons in the Panchayats at each level shall be reserved for women. So, statement 4 is correct Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 28

Consider the following statements regarding Tax Buoyancy: 
1) It is the responsiveness of tax revenue with a change in the tax rate. 
2) Tax buoyancy for the financial year 2020 was lowest in the last decade. 
3) In general, it is high for indirect taxes than direct taxes. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

Tax Buoyancy simply measures the actual or observed change in tax revenue relative to GDP. Therefore, Tax Buoyancy=Proportionate change in tax revenue/Proportionate change in GDP. So, statement 1 is not correct.
A tax is buoyant when revenues increase by more than, say, 1 % for a 1 % increase in GDP. Tax elasticity is the responsiveness of tax revenue to changes in the tax rate. For example, how tax revenue changes if the government reduces corporate income tax from 25 % to 22 % indicate tax elasticity. The direct tax to GDP ratio touched a 3-year low in FY20. The tax buoyancy fell to an 18-year low on account of corporation tax rate cuts and slowdown. The Budget assumes a tax buoyancy of 1.2 for 2020-21 compared to 0.5 (FY20 RE) and 0.8 (FY19) over the last two years. So, statement 2 is correct.
Tax buoyancy will be highest for direct taxes. As the economy grows fast, the additional income generated may go to the rich group. A part of that they have to pay to the government in the form of taxes. So if the GDP growth rate registers high growth, say nine percent, direct income tax collection will accelerate. Generally, direct taxes are more sensitive to GDP growth rate. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 29

Which of the following best describes the term “gene pool centres”? 

Solution:

Gene pool centres refers to areas on the Earth where important crop plants and domestic animals originated. They have an extraordinary range of the wild counterparts of cultivated plant species and useful tropical plants.
Major Gene Centres: 1) Mediterranean Gene Centre 2) South American Gene Centre 3) South West and Middle East 4) African Gene Centre 5) South American and Central American gene centre 6) Indian Gene centre i. Indus ii. South Asian: Includes Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Myanmar 7) Central Asian Gene centre 8) East Asia Gene centres Prelim Test Series (2020) – GS Test 17 (12th April 2020) Having recourse to genetic material is essential to adapt and improve agriculture in the face of threats, such as diseases or warming climate that can alter growing conditions. Thus, gene pool conservation is important for sustainable development.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 30

With reference to Escherichia coli (E coli), consider the following statements: 
1) It is commonly found in the gut of humans and cold-blooded animals. 
2) It spreads through the consumption of undercooked meat products and raw milk. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

Escherichia Coli is a bacterium that is commonly found in the gut of humans and other warm-blooded animals. While most strains are harmless, some species have been linked to intestinal disease as well as aggravating antibiotic resistance. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC) is a bacterium that can cause severe food borne diseases. Escherichia Coli infection is usually transmitted through the consumption of contaminated water or food, such as undercooked meat products and raw milk. So, statement 2 is correct.
Due to the infection, common symptoms include abdominal cramps and diarrhoea, which may be bloody. Fever and vomiting may also occur. Most patients recover within 10 days, although in a few cases the disease may become life-threatening. Recently, the government has commissioned a Rs. 9.3 crore study to assess the microbial diversity along the entire length of river Ganga and to check antibiotic resistance in it. The research project aims to indicate the type of “contamination” (sewage and industrial) in the river and “threat to human health (antibiotic resistance surge)”, and to identify the sources of Escherichia coli. The project will be undertaken by scientists at the Motilal Nehru Institute of Technology, Allahabad; the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI), Nagpur; Sardar Patel Institute of Science & Technology, Gorakhpur, as well as start-up companies, Phixgen and Xcelris Labs. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 31

Consider the following statements regarding cotton production in India: 
1) India’s cotton productivity is much lower than that of the other major cotton-producing countries. 
2) India is the world’s largest producer of organic cotton.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 

Solution:

India’s cotton production in 2019 is projected as the highest ever: 354 lakh bales. In 2019, India is expected to be the world’s largest cotton producer, surpassing China in output. However, India’s productivity (yield per unit area), is much lower than other major cotton-producing countries, meaning a much larger area is used for cotton production. Indeed, India’s productivity has been only a third of these countries for over four decades. India's cotton productivity level is now among the lowest in the world, according to the Cotton Association of India (CAI). Cotton productivity level in India has increased from around 300 kg/hectare in the year 2002-03 to near 500 kg/hectare currently. However, it is still among the lowest in the world. So, statement 1 is correct. While only one per cent of India’s cotton production is organic, it is the world’s largest producer, producing 56 per cent of the world’s organic cotton. Madhya Pradesh accounts for 43 per cent of India's and 24 per cent of the world’s organic cotton production. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the answer is (d).

QUESTION: 32

Consider the following statements with reference to Humayun’s Tomb: 
1. It is the first garden-tomb built in India. 
2. It is a memorial erected by Akbar in the memory of his father. 
Which of the above statements is/are not correct? 

Solution:

The first distinct example of proper Mughal architecture inspired by Persian architecture, is the tomb of Humayun, in Delhi, built by his widow, Bega Begum. This tomb is important for a proper study of the development of later Mughal architecture. Although Sikander Lodi's tomb is the first garden-tomb built in India, it is Humayun's tomb which strikes a new note. So, statement 1 is not correct. The tomb of Humayun was built by the orders of his first wife and chief consort, Empress Bega Begum (also known as Haji Begum). Construction began in 1565 and was completed in 1572; it cost 1.5 million rupees, paid entirely by the Empress. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 33

A child can acquire citizenship by birth in India in which of the following cases? 
(1) Child born in India and one parent is a citizen while the other parent is a citizen by registration. 
(2) Child born in India and one parent is a citizen while the other parent is an immigrant. 
(3) Child born in India and one parent is a citizen while the other parent is a naturalized citizen. 
(4) Children of foreign diplomats posted in India. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

The criterion, as per the Citizenship Act, 1955, to acquire citizenship by birth in India is: Any person born in India, on or after 26th January 1950 but prior to the commencement of the 1986 Act on 1st July 1987, is a citizen of India irrespective of the nationality of his parents. A person born in India on or after 1st July 1987 is considered as a citizen only if either of his parents was a citizen of India at the time of the birth. Furthermore, those born in India on or after 3rd December 2004 are considered citizens of India only if:
• Both their parents are citizens of India. So, statement 1 is correct, and statement 3 is correct.
• If one parent is a citizen of India and the other not an illegal migrant at the time of their birth, so, statement 2 is correct.
While the children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot acquire Indian citizenship by birth. So, statement 4 is not correct. The children of legal migrants are eligible for citizenship by birth. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 34

Consider the following statements with reference to Non-Resident Indians (NRIs): 
1) NRIs need to file tax returns in India if their taxable income exceeds Rs. 2.5 lakh. 
2) Currently, a person staying out of the country for 183 days in a year is classified as an NRI. 
3) The income of an NRI generated in India, will be taxed in India. 
Which of the statements given above are correct? 

Solution:

Under the Indian income-tax law, an individual, who qualifies as an NRI is required to file India tax returns if the taxable income exceeds the maximum amount not chargeable to income-tax; for FY20, it is Rs. 2.5 lakh. However, to determine the threshold limit for the obligation to file tax returns, the taxable income should be computed before giving effect to the deductions under Chapter VI-A (such as under Section 80C, 80D and so on). So, statement 1 is correct.
The Union Budget for 2020-21 had tightened the provisions on those seeking to escape tax by exploiting their non-resident status. While earlier it was possible to be classified as a non-resident by staying out of the country for 183 days or about six months in a year, this has now been, in effect, enhanced to 245 days. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Budget 2020-21 proposes that the income of an NRI generated in India will be taxed here. Indian earnings of NRIs such as rental income from property in the country are intended to be taxed by way of the new provision. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 35

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Glanders’: 
1) It is a contagious and fatal disease prevalent among equines. 
2) The World Health Organization declared India free from Glanders in 2019. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

Glanders is a contagious and fatal disease of equines, including horses, donkeys and mules. It is caused by infection due to the bacterium Burkholderia mallei (B. mallei). B. mallei have a zoonotic potential and have been considered as a potential biological warfare or bioterrorism agent as it can cause highly fatal disease in humans. So, statement 1 is correct.
There is no such declaration announced by W.H.O. It is a notifiable disease in India since 1899. Glanders is also endemic in Africa, Asia, the Middle East, and Central and South America. It has been eradicated from North America and Australia. Recently the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying has released the National Action Plan for Control and Eradication of Glanders, according to which the existing guidelines have now been updated to stop the outbreak of glanders in infected states and prevent the spread of the disease to non-infected states/zones in India. According to the new plan, the veterinary authority of a state where many adjoining districts have reported the disease shall take a decision about whether to permit a fair or not. Equine fairs, congregations, shows, or any equestrian events in which equines from the ‘unorganized sector’ take part, shall not be permitted within a 25-kilometre radius of an area declared afflicted with Glanders. So statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 36

Consider the following statements regarding the classification of planets: 
1. Gas giants are planets composed of heavier elements like oxygen, carbon, nitrogen and sulphur. 
2. All the planets of the solar system are classified as either Gas giants or Ice giants. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

The “gas giants” Jupiter and Saturn are mostly hydrogen and helium. These planets must have swallowed a portion of the solar nebula intact. The “ice giants” Uranus and Neptune are made primarily of heavier stuff, probably the next most abundant elements in the Sun – oxygen, carbon, nitrogen, and sulphur. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Apart from these four planets rest of the planets are known as terrestrial planets. This includes Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. Further, Pluto is classified as a dwarf planet. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 37

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? 

Solution:

Kuchipudi is performed by a group of actors going from village to village known as kusselvas. Kuchipudi derives its name from Andhra village Kusselavapuri. Thus, it has its origin from Andhra Pradesh. So, option (a) is correct.
Kathak is the traditional dance form of Uttar Pradesh. Kathak derived its name from the 'Kathika' means storytellers who recited verses from the epics, with gestures and music. So, option (b) is not correct.
Bharatanatyam , the origin of this dance, is solo dance performance of the temple dancers or the devadasis in Tamil Nadu and hence it is referred to as 'Dashiattam'. So, option (c) is correct.
Sattriya dance is the modern form of dance introduced by the Vaishnava saint Shankara deva in the 15th century A.D in Assam. The art form derives its name from the Vaishnava monasteries known as Sattras. It is inspired by the Bhakti Movement. So, option (d) is correct.
Therefore, the answer is (b).

QUESTION: 38

Which of the following are the core functions of the United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations? 
1. Stabilization of Polity 
2. Peace consolidation 
3. Support the organization of elections 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

United Nations Peacekeeping helps countries torn by conflict create conditions for lasting peace. UN peacekeepers provide security and the political and peace-building support to help countries make the difficult, early transition from conflict to peace. UN Peacekeeping is guided by three basic principles: Consent of the parties; Impartiality; and Non-use of force except in self-defence and defence of the mandate. Peacekeeping is flexible, and over the past two decades has been deployed in many configurations. There are currently 13 UN peacekeeping operations deployed on three continents. Today's multidimensional peacekeeping operations are called upon not only to maintain peace and security but also to facilitate the political process, protect civilians, assist in the disarmament, demobilization and reintegration of former combatants; support the organization of elections, protect and promote human rights and assist in restoring the rule of law. So, statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 39

Consider the following statements regarding 'Enhancing Coastal and Ocean Resource Efficiency (ENCORE) Project': 
(1) It aims to strengthen integrated coastal zone management in all coastal States and Union Territories of India. 
(2) It is being implemented in India with the support of the United Nations Environment Program (UNEP). 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

The Environment Ministry has put forward draft Environmental and Social Management Framework (ESMF). It is a part of a World Bank funded project called Enhancing Coastal and Ocean Resource Efficiency Program (ENCORE). So, statement 2 is not correct. ENCORE aims to strengthen integrated coastal zone management in all coastal States and Union Territories of India. It seeks to strengthen coastal resource efficiency and resilience, for adopting and implementing integrated coastal management approaches. So, statement 1 is correct. The draft ESMF lays out guidelines for coastal States to adopt when they approve and regulate projects in coastal zones. It also outlines how environmental and social aspects should be integrated into the planning, design, implementation of projects. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 40

Match the List I and List II

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

Three Buddhist dramas have been discovered from the fragments of manuscripts on palm-leaf, at Turfan. One of them named Sariputraprakarana is ascribed to Ashvaghosa, who was a contemporary of Kanishka. The drama has nine acts, and its theme is based on the events which led up to the conversion of the young Maudgalayana and Sariputra by the Buddha. The drama has a close relationship with the classical type as laid down in the Natyashastra. Ashvaghosha, (80 CE, Ayodhya—150CE Peshawar) was a philosopher and poet who was considered as India’s greatest poet before Kalidasa (5th century) and the father of Sanskrit drama; he popularized the style of Sanskrit poetry known as kavya. Kalidasa is the most popular among the Sanskrit playwrights. His three works Malavikagnimitra, Vikramorvashiya, Shakuntalam, are some of the finest examples of classical Sanskrit play. Abhijnana Sakuntalam is a beautiful tale of love and romance, the name literally meaning 'Of Sakuntala who is recognized by a token'. Abhijnanasakuntalam is the first Indian play ever to be translated into western languages. It is for the very first time translated in the English language by Sir William Jones in the year 1789. Bhavabhuti was an 8th-century scholar of India noted for his plays and poetry, written in Sanskrit. His plays are considered the equal of the works of Kalidasa. He is believed to have been the court poet of king Yashovarman of Kannauj. Kalhana, the 12th-century historian, places him in the entourage of the king, who was defeated by Lalitaditya Muktapida, king of Kashmir, in 736 AD. Mahaviracharita is a play by him based on the early life of Rama, the hero of the Ramayana. Ratnavali is a Sanskrit drama about a beautiful princess named Ratnavali, and a great king named Udayana. It is attributed to the Indian emperor Harsha (606–648). Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 41

Consider the following statements about certain constitutional provisions.
1. Provisions relating to persons with disability and old age are provided for both in Directive Principles of State Policy (Part V) and Fundamental Duties (Part IVA).
2. Provisions relating to prevention of substance abuse are provided for in Fundamental Rights (Part III).
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
 

Solution:

The only provisions relating to persons with disability and old age: A41. Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases: (Directive Principles of State Policy) - The State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want. The only provisions relating to prevention of substance abuse are in IV. Directive Principles of State Policy A47. Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health – The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavor to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health.

QUESTION: 42

Consider the following with regards to Uranium contamination of groundwater in India.
1. Uranium is a naturally occurring element in ocean water.
2. Indian Standard IS 10500: 2012 for Drinking Water specification has not specified the maximum acceptable limits for Uranium in drinking water.
3. A recent report tabled in Parliament states that the North-eastern region of India is witnessing the most Uranium contamination in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Statement 1: Uranium is weakly radioactive and remains so because of its long physical half-life (4.468 billion years for uranium-238).Uranium is a naturally occurring metal, which is widespread in nature. It is present in the ocean and certain types of soils and rocks, especially granite. The biological half-life (the average time it takes for the human body to eliminate half the mount in the body) for uranium is about 15 days. This is the highest-numbered element to be found naturally in significant quantities on earth. It is considered to be more plentiful than antimony, beryllium, cadmium, gold, mercury, silver, or tungsten. It is about as abundant as tin, arsenic or molybdenum.
Statement 2: A report on Uranium Contamination in ground water in Parliament was tabled recently. The Indian Standard IS 10500: 2012 for Drinking Water specification has specified the maximum acceptable limits for radioactive residues as alpha and beta emitters, values in excess of which render the water not suitable. These requirements take into account all radioactive elements including uranium. No individual radioactive elements have been specifically identified. As per Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS), maximum permissible limit of Uranium is 0.03 mg/l (as per WHO provisional guidelines) in all drinking water standards after following due process.
Statement 3: Affected states: A report brought out by Duke University, USA in association with Central Ground Water Board and State Ground Water departments states that Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Jammu & Kashmir have localised occurrence of Uranium concentration.
Learning: Main factors responsible for uranium contamination: Amount of uranium contained in an aquifer’s rocks. Water-rock interactions that cause the uranium to be extracted from those rocks. Oxidation conditions that enhance the extracted uranium’s solubility in water. The interaction of the extracted uranium with other chemicals in the groundwater, such as bicarbonate, which can further enhance its solubility. Human factors such as groundwater-table decline and nitrate pollution may be exacerbating the problem.

QUESTION: 43

Innate immunity employs which of the following barriers in humans?
1. Acid in the stomach
2. Eye tears
3. Mucus coating lining the respiratory tract
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Learning: Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, which is present at the time of birth. This is accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of the foreign agents into our body. Innate immunity consists of four types of barriers. These are —Physical barriers: Skin on our body is the main barrier which prevents entry of the microorganisms. Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts also help in trapping microbes entering our body. Physiological barriers: Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes–all prevent microbial growth. Cellular barriers: Certain types of leukocytes (WBC) of our body prevent microbial growth.

QUESTION: 44

Consider the following matches with regards to certain provisions of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) see in news repeatedly.
1. Section 188: A. Unlawful assembly
2. Sections 269 & 270: B. Malignant act that is likely to spread the infection of any disease dangerous to life
3. Section 141: C. Disobedience to order duly promulgated by
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Statement 1: The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 lays down punishment as per Section188 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, for flouting orders issued by various state governments to contain the spread of COVID-19.In the past, the Act has been routinely enforced across the country for dealing with outbreaks of diseases such as swine flu, dengue, and cholera. Its penal provisions are currently being invoked by states to contain the COVID-19 pandemic. Section 188 relates to Disobedience to order duly promulgated by public servant. It says violators can be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month or with fine which may extend to two hundred rupees, or with both; and if such disobedience causes or tends to cause danger to human life, health or safety, or causes or tends to cause a riot or affray, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
Statement 2: Sections 269 & 270 IPC invoked are being invoked against persons who malignantly do any act which is likely to spread the infection of any disease dangerous to life. Sections 269 (negligent act likely to spread infection of disease dangerous to life) and 270 (malignant act likely to spread infection of disease dangerous to life) come under Chapter XIV of the IPC. While Section 269 provides for a jail term of six months and/or fine, Section 270 provides for a jail term of two years and/or fine. In Section 270, the word ‘malignantly’ indicates a deliberate intention on the part of the accused.
Statement 3: The definition of 'unlawful assembly', according to Indian law, is laid down in Section141 of the Indian Penal Code. According to this section, an assembly of five or more persons becomes unlawful when its purpose is or becomes: To overawe by criminal force, or show of criminal force, the Central or any State Government or Parliament or the Legislature of any State, or any public servant in the exercise of the lawful power of such public servant; To resist the execution of any law, or of any legal process; To commit any mischief or criminal trespass, or other offence etc;

QUESTION: 45

Consider the following statements.
1. The Saka era was founded by King Gandharvasena of the Shatavahana dynasty.
2. The Saka era is used to indicate the year by Gazette of India and All India Radio News Broadcast.
Which of the above is/are correct?

Solution:

Learning: It is used by: Gazette of India, All India Radio News Broadcast, and Government of India. The Saka era is believed to have been founded by King Shalivahana of the Shatavahanadynasty. Works like the Muhurta-Martanda suggests that the beginning of Saka Era is calculated from the birth of Shalivahana, while the Kalpa Pradipa written in 1300 CE suggests that it marks the victory of Shalivahana over Vikramaditya. The use of this calendar era survived into the Gupta period and became part of Hindu tradition following the decline of Buddhism in India. It was in widespread use by the 6th to 7th centuries, e.g. in the works of Varahamihira and Brahmagupta, and by the 7th century also appears in epigraphy in Hindu Southeast Asia.

QUESTION: 46

Members of the PM- CARES fund include
1. Union Home Minister
2. Union Defence Minister
3. Union Finance Minister
4. Cabinet Secretary
5. Union Minister for Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

PM announced the PM-CARES fund to fight coronavirus outbreak.PM- CARES fund stands for Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund. The prime minister is the chairman of the new public charitable trust, its members include the defence minister, home minister and the finance minister. It is a public charitable trust. Contributions by corporates to this fund will be considered as social welfare spending under the companies law. It will be an emergency situation fund. This Fund will also cater to similar distressing situations, if they occur in the times ahead.

QUESTION: 47

These species included in Appendix I of UN Convention on Migratory Species were recently in news:
1. Great Indian Bustard
2. Asiatic Cheetah
3. Bengal Florican
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

S2: In the 2015 update of the IUCN Red List, the Asiatic cheetah is considered regionally extinct in Iraq, Central Asia, Afghanistan, Pakistan and India.
S1 and S3: The Great Indian Bustard, Asian Elephant and Bengal Florican have been included in Appendix I of UN Convention on Migratory Species. This was done at the ongoing 13th Conference of the Parties (COP) to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) in Gandhinagar (Gujarat).
About Asian Elephant: Found in India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Myanmar. IUCN status: Endangered. It is also listed in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) and Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
About Great Indian Bustard: It is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world. Its largest populations are found in the Indian state of Rajasthan. State bird of Rajasthan. It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. It is also listed in Appendix I of CITES and Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
About Bengal Florican: In India it is found in Uttar Pradesh, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. It has been listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. The bird is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of India, 1972 and Appendix I of CITES.

QUESTION: 48

Consider the following matches of rivers with their origin locations.
1. Brahmani : Mahabaleshwar
2. Mahi: Amarkantak
3. Pennar: Kolar
4. Godavari: Nashik
Which of the above is/are correct matches?

Solution:

The image below is a comprehensive source of information.

QUESTION: 49

The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment currently extends assistance to Non-Governmental Organizations working for the welfare of disadvantaged sections of the society. Which of the following types of organizations is/are eligible to get assistance?
1. Body registered under the Society's Registration Act, 1860.
2. Indian Red Cross Society or its branches
3. A for-profit body with at least two years of experience in social welfare
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

The ministry currently extends assistance to Non-Governmental Organizations working for the welfare of disadvantaged sections of the society like Scheduled Castes, Other Backward Classes, Minorities, the Aged, Drug Addicts, Street Children, Disabled under schemes separately designed to address these target groups.
Generally all these schemes support projects in the area of education, training, rehabilitation of the targeted groups. Recurring expenditure on components such as honorarium to staff, other recurring non-honorarium items such as rent, food expenses, contingencies, stipend to trainees/students, transport allowances and non recurring items such as furniture, equipments, construction of building etc are supported under these projects.
Who are eligible to apply for assistance?
• Body registered under the Society's Registration Act, 1860.
• Public Registered Trust.
• Charitable Company licensed under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1958.
• Indian Red Cross Society or its branches.
• Other public institutions having a legal status.
• Body should have been registered for at least two years at the time of applying for assistance, and should not be running for profit to any individual or body of individuals.
What basic conditions are required to be fulfilled by an eligible organization?
Ans: The basic conditions are required to be fulfilled by an eligible organization are:
• Should have been registered for two years
• A minimum of two years experience on the field of activity would normally be insisted on
• Financial soundness and capacity to bear at least 10% of the budgeted expenditure.
Can an NGO get assistance for various projects under different schemes?
Yes, provided the eligibility criterion and basic conditions are fulfilled. However, as a matter of policy, the Ministry seeks to broad base the voluntary action movement and at the same time ensure that there is wider sectoral as well as geographical coverage, by rationalizing its intervention on a circumstantial and regional needs basis.

QUESTION: 50

Consider the following with regards to
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s demand deposits to its total liability.
2. The enforcement of regulated levels of CAR is intended to protect depositors and promote stability and efficiency of financial systems.
3. As per RBI norms, Indian scheduled commercial banks are required to maintain the CAR percentage as stated in the Basel III Banking report.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
 

Solution:

What is Capital to Risk Weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR)? The CRAR, also known as the Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR), is the ratio of a bank’s capital to its risk. It is a measure of the amount of a bank’s core capital expressed as a percentage of its risk weighted asset. It is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.
Statement 1: All demand deposit is bank’s liability. Moreover, not all liabilities are classified as risky assets. So, S1 is an incorrect statement.
Why CRAR was enforced? The enforcement of regulated levels of this ratio is intended to protect depositors and promote stability and efficiency of financial systems around the world. It determines the bank’s capacity to meet the time liabilities and other risks such as credit risk, operational risk, etc.
Statement 3: The Basel III norms stipulated a capital to risk weighted assets of 8%.However, as per RBI norms, Indian scheduled commercial banks are required to maintain a CRAR of 9%.
Learning: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has given its approval for continuation of the process of recapitalization of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) by providing minimum regulatory capital to RRBs for another year beyond 2019-20, that is, up to 2020-21.The recapitalisation process of RRBs was approved by the cabinet in 2011 based on the recommendations of a committee set up under the Chairmanship of K C Chakrabarty. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) identifies those RRBs, which require recapitalisation assistance to maintain the mandatory CRAR of 9% based on the CRAR position of RRBs, as on 31st March of every year. This is for those RRBs which are unable to maintain minimum Capital to Risk weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of 9%, as per the regulatory norms prescribed by the Reserve Bank of India.

QUESTION: 51

Consider the following statements.
1. Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of Kerala.
2. Yakshagana is a temple art form that depicts mythological stories and Puranas.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of Karnataka .It is a temple art form that depicts mythological stories and Puranas. It is performed with massive headgears, elaborate facial make-up and vibrant costumes and ornaments. Usually recited in Kannada, it is also performed in Malayalam as well as Tulu (the dialect of south Karnataka). It is performed with percussion instruments like chenda, maddalam, jagatta or chengila (cymbals) and chakratala or elathalam (small cymbals).More than 900 Yakshagana scripts, including the ones printed in 1905 and 1907, have now been digitised and made available online for free, thanks to the voluntary community effort by some Yakshagana lovers who did it under the banner Yakshavahini, a registered trust.

QUESTION: 52

Consider the following with regards to Technology development related institutions in India.
1. Technology Development Board (TDB) is a statutory body that primarily aims to eliminate the import of technology in the near future and promotes development of indigenous technology.
2. TDB provides equity capital or loans to industrial concerns and financial assistance to research and development institutions.
3. Global Innovation & Technology Alliance (GITA) was established in order to stimulate private sector’s investment in R&D.
4. GITA is a joint venture between World Bank (WB) and TDB.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Statement 1 and 2: About Technology Development Board: It is a statutory body established by Technology Development Board Act, 1995.
Objective: To promote development and commercialization of indigenous technology and adaptation of imported technology for much wider application.
Roles and functions of the board: Encourage enterprises to take up technology-oriented products. Provide equity capital or loans to industrial concerns and financial assistance to research and development institutions.
Statement 3 and 4: About GITA: In order to stimulate private sector’s investment in R&D, TDB has established Global Innovation & Technology Alliance (GITA). It is a joint venture between Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and TDB with an equity contribution of 51:49 respectively. The GITA will assist Department of Science & Technology (DST) in implementing industrial research and development programme with different countries under bilateral and multilateral science and technology cooperation agreements.

QUESTION: 53

Consider the following with regards to Special Central Assistance (SCA) to Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan (SCSP) where 100% assistance is given as an additive to SCSP of the States/ UTs on the basis of certain criteria. These criteria include
1. Extent of protected forest area in the state
2. Relative backwardness of the states/UT
3. Geographical area of the state
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Special Central Assistance (SCA) to Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan (SCSP): It is a policy initiative for development of Scheduled Castes in which 100 % assistance is given as an additive to SCSP of the States/ UTs on the basis of certain criteria such as SC population of the States/UTs, relative backwardness of States/UTs, percentage of SC families in the States/ UTs covered by composite economic development programmes in the State Plan to enable them to cross the poverty line, etc. It is an umbrella strategy to ensure flow of targeted financial and physical benefits from all the general sectors of development for the benefit of Scheduled Castes. Under this Scheme, the States/UTs are required to formulate and implement Special Component Plan (SCP) for Scheduled Castes as part of their annual plans by earmarking resources.
Learning: Scheme of Assistance to Scheduled Castes Development Corporations (SCDCs): Share Capital contribution is released to the State Scheduled Castes Development Corporations (SCDCs) under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme in the ratio of 49:51 between Central Government and State Governments. There are in total 27 such State-level Corporations which are working for the economic development of Scheduled Castes, although some of these Corporations are also catering to the requirements of other weaker sections of the Society, e.g. Scheduled Tribes, OBCs, Minorities etc. The main functions of SCDCs include identification of eligible SC families and motivating them to undertake economic development schemes, sponsoring the schemes to financial institutions for credit support, providing financial assistance in the form of the margin money at a low rate of interest, providing subsidy out of the funds made available to the States under the Scheme of Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan of the States to reduce the repayment liability and providing necessary tie up with other poverty alleviation programmes. The SCDCs are playing an important role in providing credit and missing inputs by way of margin money loans and subsidy to the target group. The SCDCs finance the employment oriented schemes covering diverse areas of economic activities which inter-alia include (i) agriculture and allied activities including minor irrigation (ii) small scale industry (iii) transport and (iv) trade and service sector.

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following is NOT associated with the Paleozoic period?

Solution:

It is a geologic period and system of the Paleozoic, spanning 60 million years from the end of the Silurian, 419.2 million years ago, to the beginning of the Carboniferous, 358.9 Mya.
Key features:
• It is named after Devon, England, where rocks from this period were first studied.
• The first significant adaptive radiation of life on dry land occurred during the Devonian.
• Option A: Free-sporing vascular plants began to spread across dry land, forming extensive forests which covered the continents.
• Option B: By the end of the period the first seed-bearing plants appeared.
• Option C: The ancestors of all four-limbed vertebrates (tetrapods) began adapting to walking on land, as their strong pectoral and pelvic fins gradually evolved into legs.
• Option D: Fish reached substantial diversity during this time, leading the Devonian to often bedubbed the Age of Fishes. 
• Various terrestrial arthropods also became well-established.
• The first ammonites, species of molluscs, appeared.
• The palaeogeography was dominated by the supercontinent of Gondwana to the south, thecontinent of Siberia to the north, and the early formation of the small continent of Euramericain between.

QUESTION: 55

Consider the following with regards to Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS).
1. BEPS refers to the phenomenon where companies invest in a host country via shell companies situated in tax havens to reduce their tax liability.
2. The Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent BEPS is an outcome of the World Economic Forum BEPS Project.
3. India recently ratified the Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent BEPS.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Statement 1: Base erosion and profit shifting refers to the phenomenon where companies shift their profits to other tax jurisdictions, which usually have lower rates, thereby eroding the tax base in India. The companies need not invest via shell companies to be accused of BEPS.
Statement 2 and 3: India in July 2019 ratified the international agreement to curb base erosion and profits shifting (BEPS) – Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures. The Convention is an outcome of the OECD / G20 BEPS Project to tackle base erosion and profit shifting through tax planning strategies that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to artificially shift profits to low or no-tax locations where there is little or no economic activity, resulting in little or no overall corporate tax being paid.
Learning: Under BEPS Action 13, all large multinational enterprises (MNEs) are required to prepare a country-by-country (CbC) report with aggregate data on the global allocation of income, profit, taxes paid and economic activity among tax jurisdictions in which it operates. This CbC report is shared with tax administrations in these jurisdictions, for use in high level transfer pricing and BEPS risk assessments. The Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) Action 13 report (Transfer Pricing Documentation and Country-by-Country Reporting) provides a template for multinational enterprises (MNEs) to report annually and for each tax jurisdiction in which they do business the information set out therein. This report is called the Country-by-Country (CbC) Report.
What CBC contains?
• Aggregated country-by-country information relating to the global allocation of income, the taxes paid, and certain other indicators of a multi-national company.
• A list of all the constituent entities of the multi-national company operating in a particular jurisdiction and the nature of the main business activity of each constituent entity.

QUESTION: 56

Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under the

Solution:

Some bodies related to water management: Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under Section 3(3) of the ‘Environment (Protection) Act, 1986’ for the purpose of regulation and control of ground water development and management in the Country. CGWA grants ‘No Objection Certificates’ (NOC) for ground water abstraction in 23 States/UTs. National Water Informatics Centre has been established under National Hydrology Project. National Aquifer Mapping and Management program (NAQUIM) is implemented by Central Ground Water Board (CGWB). It envisages mapping of aquifers and development of Aquifer Management Plans to facilitate sustainable management of Ground Water Resources.

QUESTION: 57

Which of the following Policies, Acts, or Programmes have a bearing on the welfare and maintenance of Senior Citizens?
1. National Policy on Ageing, 2017 (NPOA)
2. Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act
3. Central Sector Scheme of “Integrated Programme for Older Persons”(IPOP)
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Background: Constant increase in life expectancy due to improvement in the health care facilities over the years is one of the main reasons for rapid increase in proportion of population of Senior Citizens. As per Census 2011, the total population of Senior Citizens (people aged 60 years and above) is10.38 crore, of which population of males and females are 5.11 crore and 5.27 crore respectively. The share of senior citizens in the total population as per Census 2011 is 8.57%. As per the May2006 Report of the “Technical Group on Population Projections” constituted by the National Commission on Population published by the Office of the Registrar General of India this share is expected to increase to 10.70 % in 2021 and to 12.40% in 2026.
Justification: S1: No such policy was released in 2017.The following Policies, Act, and Programmes which aim at welfare and maintenance of Senior Citizens, especially for indigent senior citizens, are being dealt with in the Ageing Division:-
1. National Policy on Older Persons (NPOP) –The existing National Policy on Older Persons (NPOP) was announced in January 1999 to reaffirm the commitment to ensure the well-being of the Older Persons. The Policy envisaged State support to ensure financial and food security, health care, shelter and other needs of Older Persons, equitable share in development, protection against abuse and exploitation, and availability of services to improve the quality of their lives. Keeping in view the changing demographic pattern, socio-economic needs of the Senior Citizens, social value system and advancement in the field of science and technology over the last decade, a new National Policy for Senior Citizens is under finalization to replace the NPOP, 1999.
2. Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 (MWPSC Act) – The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens (MWPSC) Act, 2007 was enacted in December 2007 to ensure need based maintenance for Parents and Senior Citizens and their welfare.
3. Central Sector Scheme of “Integrated Programme for Older Persons”(IPOP) - Under the Scheme, financial assistance is provided to Government/ Non-Governmental Organizations/Panchayati Raj Institutions/ local bodies etc. for running and maintenance of various projects for the welfare of indigent Senior Citizens under the Scheme of IPOP.

QUESTION: 58

Government fixes Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) of 23 mandated crops. These include
1. Oilseeds
2. Cotton
3. Raw Jute
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

As of now, CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals(paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).CACP submits its recommendations to the government in the form of Price Policy Reports every year, separately for five groups of commodities namely Kharif crops, Rabi crops, Sugarcane, Raw Jute and Copra. Before preparing aforesaid five pricing policy reports, the Commission draws a comprehensive questionnaire, and sends it to all the state governments and concerned National organizations and Ministries to seek their views.

QUESTION: 59

With reference to the Centre for Indian Knowledge Systems (CIKS), consider the following.
1. It looks into the root of ancient knowledge systems to gain a strong understanding of their workings and rationale.
2. It awards Geographical Indication (GI) tags to Indian heritage products.
3. It is responsible for regulating biopiracy in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

CIKS was registered as an independent trust in 1995. The activities of the centre are supported through grants from government agencies, private agencies, donations from individuals and the sale of educational and training material.
Statement 1: For e.g. CIKS is developing methods for organic vegetable cultivation using recipes found in Vrkshayurveda, for e.g. treating with milk and ghee will help latex yielding verities give a bumper harvest. The understanding and knowledge gained by CIKS is then leveraged to develop solutions that are practical and feasible in today's context. Its community seed bank project is aimed at identifying important traditional seed varieties and orienting the agricultural community towards conserving and cultivating them.
Learning: CIKS initiatives in biodiversity conservation have helped farmers in Tamil Nadu conserve over 180 indigenous seed varieties - hence protecting the dwindling genetic base and giving farmers a way to beat stress situations.

QUESTION: 60

Consider the following about ExoMars.
1. It is an initiative of SpaceX.
2. It aims to examine the change in Martian orbit patterns.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

About ExoMars: It is a joint endeavour between ESA and the Russian space agency, Roscosmos. The primary goal of the ExoMars programme is to address the question of whether life has ever existed on Mars. Launch of ExoMars rover delayed to 2022.The European-built Rosalind Franklin rover, named for the famed British chemist and X-raycrystallographer whose work contributed to DNA research, recently passed final pre-launch thermal and vacuum tests at an Airbus facility in Toulouse, France. Rosalind Franklin is the first European Mars rover.

QUESTION: 61

Pheromone Application Technology, often in the news, was recently used by cotton farmers in Telangana to tackle the deadly pink bollworm. In this context, pheromones are best described as

Solution:

• Pheromones are chemicals capable of acting like hormones outside the body of the secreting individual, to impact the behavior of the receiving individuals. There are alarm pheromones, food trail pheromones, sex pheromones, and many others that affect behavior or physiology.
• A pheromone trap is a type of insect trap that uses pheromones to lure insects. Sex pheromones and aggregating pheromones are the most common types used. Pheromone Application Technology (PAT) is where an adult male insect is lured through a female sex hormone-mimicking scent prepared in the lab and taken to fields to stop natural mating and thereby prevent the reproduction of the next generation of pests. The traps are small cone-shaped plastic bags containing pheromones and are placed at the corners of the crop fields. As insects communicate through smell, they get attracted only to get trapped in the bags. Once trapped, they can’t go out of the bag and get killed. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• It is an eco-friendly alternative to pesticides and gm crop-cotton. Pests can be controlled by using PAT with a mass trapping method. It is safe for the applicator. In India, pheromone chemicals are made available by CSIR. It is also cost-effective. Approximately, 3 to 5mg of pheromone is used per trap which remains effective for about a month. As one trap costs `30, a farmer can ensure effective pet control by spending around `1,000 per season
• Having implemented the technology successfully in Nalgonda, Adilabad, Gujarat and in some parts of Guntur and Srikakulam districts, the CSIR is now trying to spread it across Andhra Pradesh, by imparting to farmers. It has also helped Telangana’s cotton farmers tackle the deadly pink bollworm. Last year the trap was supplied to the farmers and the crop quality was consequentially superior.

QUESTION: 62

If you want to see Barasingha (swamp deer) in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best national park to visit?

Solution:

• Kanha is National Park as well as Tiger Reserve located in the Mandla and Balaghat districts of Madhya Pradesh. It is renowned world-wide for the conservation of some of the most iconic wildlife species and significant habitat types. The Park is respected globally for saving the Barasingha (swampdeer) from near extinction. This species is listed as vulnerable in IUCN red list because of its habitat loss. Kanha National Park very well support its habitat as the deer inhabit flooded tall grasses and swamp area.

QUESTION: 63

In the context of the economy, consider the following pairs:
Term Process
1. Merger : Two or more companies combine to form an entirely new company.
2. Amalgamation : Two or more companies are combined together to form an existing company absorbing the other target companies.
3. Acquisition : One company purchases most or all of another company’s shares to gain control of that company.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

• The definition of merger, amalgamation and acquisition are as follows:
(i) Merger: It is a process wherein two or more companies are combined together to form either a new company or an existing company absorbing the other target companies. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
(ii) Amalgamation: It is a process wherein two or more companies combine to form an entirely new company.
(iii) Acquisition: It is a process wherein one company purchases most or all of another company’s shares to gain control of that company. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

QUESTION: 64

Food cooks faster in a pressure cooker because

Solution:

• The principle used in the pressure cooker is that the boiling point of water increases with an increase in pressure. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Pressure cooker has a confined space sealed from all side (except valve which is used to release excess pressure). When heat is supplied to the cooker it first increases the temperature of the water. When the temperature of the water reaches 100 degrees Celsius (water's boiling point at atmospheric pressure) some of it starts converting to steam and starts filing the confined pressure cooker space.
• Since steam is gaseous, it takes more space than water and covers all the vacant space insider cooker. With further heating, it reaches a point where there is no more space for the gaseous steam in the cooker and due to confined volume/space in the cooker, it gets compressed.
• This compression increases the pressure inside the cooker to more than atmospheric pressure which in turn increases the boiling point of the remaining water (as the boiling point of water increases with increasing pressure).
• Now the water which could go only up to 100 degrees Celsius under atmospheric pressure, goes beyond100 degrees Celsius.
• Higher temperature of water means higher transfer of heat to food kept in it and hence the faster cooking.

QUESTION: 65

Consider the following statements regarding Ijaradari system:
1. It entailed a system under which through which the revenue-collecting right was auctioned out to the highest bidder.
2. It was introduced for the first time in India by Robert Clive.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• Statement 1 is correct: Ijaradari system was a form of land revenue system where the right of collecting revenue of a particular area was auctioned to the highest bidder.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Ijaradari system, which started from Shah Jahan’s time, grew more during the time of Aurangzeb. The practice of ijaradari spread all over India in the eighteenth century especially in the old Mughal provinces of Bengal, Awadh, and Hyderabad.
• After the battle of Plassey, the British secured the Diwani rights (rights to collect revenue). When Robert Clive obtained the Diwani of Bengal, there used to be annual settlements of the Land revenue.
• During British rule, the system of Ijaradari was introduced by Warren Hastings. Ijaredari system was introduced in 1773 by Warren Hastings in Bengal whereby he assumed that all land belongs to State. This was the first land tenure system implemented in India by British. Under this system, right of collecting revenue of a particular area was auctioned to the highest bidder. The Peasants, shopkeepers, and merchants had to pay their taxes to the Ijaredar who eventually was also the highest bidder to the company.

QUESTION: 66

Which of the following were the sources of revenue for the kingdoms of the south during the Sangam age?
1. Agricultural share from peasants
2. Custom duties from merchants
3. Spoils of war
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Sangam Age was the period of the history of ancient Tamil Nadu and Kerala and parts of Sri Lanka spanning from the 6th century BCE to 3rd century CE. It was named after the famous Sangam academies of poets and scholars centered in the city of Madurai Trade, local and long-distance constituted a very important source of royal revenue. The custom officials functioned in Puhar and transit duties were also collected from merchants who moved with their goods from place to place. For the safety of merchants and the prevention of smuggling, soldiers maintained a constant vigil on the roads. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Spoils of the war further added to royal income. But the real foundation of war and polity lay in regular income from agriculture. The share of agricultural produce was claimed and collected by the King. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The tip of the peninsula and adjacent regions were very fertile. The land produced paddy, ragi, and sugarcane. In addition to this Tamil region produced pepper, grains, fruit, and turmeric.
• Land, the immobile property, and its produce were both taxable, as the king was owed a share for being the administrator of the land. Landlords and Peasants paid the tax known as karai. Hence option 1is correct.

QUESTION: 67

In the context of economy, what do you understand by 'Washington Consensus'?

Solution:

• The Washington Consensus is a set of ten free market economic policy prescriptions considered to constitute the "standard" reform package promoted for crisis-wracked developing countries by Washington, D.C. - based institutions such as the International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank and United States Department of the Treasury. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• The prescriptions encompassed policies in such areas as macroeconomic stabilization, economic opening with respect to both trade and investment, and the expansion of market forces within the domestic economy.
• India was forced into adopting the path of the Washington Consensus when it turned to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) for support in 1991 because its foreign exchange reserves had become precariously low. India had to open its economy for more imports and more investments by foreigners.
• However, by the late 1990s it was becoming clear that the results of the Washington Consensus were far from optimal. Increasing criticism led to a change in approach that shifted the focus away from a view of development as simply economic growth and toward poverty reduction and the need for participation by both developing-country governments and civil society. That change of direction came to be known as the post-Washington Consensus.

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Indian Bank Association (IBA)?
1. The members of the association are drawn from public sector banks only.
2. It decides the wages of bank employees.
3. As of now, IBA is not considered as a public authority under section 2 of the RTI act.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• The Indian Banks' Association (IBA) was formed on September 26, 1946, with 22 members. As on April2018, the total Membership of the Association is 252. The members comprise of Public Sector Banks, Private Sector Banks, Foreign Banks having offices in India, Co-operative Banks, Regional Rural Banks, and All India Financial Institution. Over the years IBA has emerged as the Voice of Indian Banking Industry. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• VISION: To work proactively for the growth of a healthy, Professional and forward-looking, banking and financial services industry, in a manner consistent with the public good.
• Objectives of IBA include:
(i) To promote and develop in India sound and progressive banking principles, practices and conventions and to contribute to the developments of creative banking.
(ii) To initiate advance planning for the introduction of new systems or services in the banking industry.
(iii) To act as a clearinghouse for dissemination and exchange of statistical data, information, views, and opinions on the systems, procedures, and practices, and organization and methods of banks and on the structure, working and operations of the banking system.
(iv) To maintain continuous communications with the representatives of bank employees, to conduct talks, discussions, and negotiations with them and to arrive at Settlements. IBA, representing the management of banks, negotiates with authorized representatives of Workmen Unions and Officers Association on wage revisions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• IBA performs various activities, which are entrusted to them by the Government or the Reserve bank of India. The functions performed by the IBA are important public functions. Therefore, the Central Information Commission, taking into account that the IBA performs functions as State agency and its majority control vests in Government of India appointed Managing Directors of Public Sector Banks, adjudicate that IBA qualifies to be a public authority under the RTI Act, 2005.
• However, the above judgment of CIC has been challenged before the High Court of Delhi. The court noted that IBA is an association of banks with 241 members and only 9 members are public-sector banks. The court also noted that the IBA is not funded substantially by an appropriate Government and the appropriate Government does not exercise control over the affairs of the IBA. The court in, prima facie, view that the IBA is not a public authority. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

QUESTION: 69

Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairmen of all Parliamentary Committees in Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker.
2. The General Purpose Committee and the Rules Committee are headed by the Deputy speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• The Committees of the House of People function under the overall direction of the Speaker.
• All such Committees are constituted by her or by the House. The Chairmen of all Parliamentary Committees are nominated by her. Any procedural problems in the functioning of the Committees are referred to her for directions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Committees like the Business Advisory Committee, the General Purposes Committee and the Rules Committee work directly under Speaker's Chairmanship. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• By their nature, Parliamentary Committees are of two kinds: Standing Committees and Ad hoc Committees. Standing Committees are permanent and regular committees which are constituted from time to time in pursuance of the provisions of an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. The work of these Committees is of continuous nature.
• The Financial Committees, DRSCs and some other Committees come under the category of Standing Committees.
• Ad hoc Committees are appointed for a specific purpose and they cease to exist when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report. The principal Ad hoc Committees are the Select and Joint Committees on Bills. Railway Convention Committee, Joint Committee on Food Management in Parliament House Complex etc. also come under the category of ad hoc Committees.

QUESTION: 70

The power to make laws with reference to which of the following subjects lies only with the Parliament, and not with the State legislatures?
1. Prescribing residence as a condition for certain employments in a State
2. Empowering subordinate courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights.
3. Laws on Preventive Detention
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Article 35 lays down that the power to make laws, to give effect to certain specified fundamental rights shall vest only in the Parliament and not in the state legislatures. This provision ensures that there is uniformity throughout India with regard to the nature of those fundamental rights and punishment for their infringement. In this direction,
• Article 35 contains the following provisions:
(i) The Parliament shall have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) power to make laws with respect to the following matters:✓ Prescribing residence as a condition for certain employments or appointments in a state or union territory or local authority or other authority (Article 16).✓ Empowering courts other than the Supreme Court and the high courts to issue directions, orders and writs of all kinds for the enforcement of fundamental rights (Article 32).✓ Restricting or abrogating the application of Fundamental Rights to members of armed forces, police forces, etc. (Article 33).✓ Indemnifying any government servant or any other person for any act done during the operation of martial law in any area (Article 34).
(ii) Parliament shall have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) powers to make laws for prescribing punishment for those acts that are declared to be offences under the fundamental rights. These include the following:✓ Untouchability (Article 17).✓ Traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23).
(iii) Any law in force at the commencement of the Constitution with respect to any of the matters specified above is to continue in force until altered or repealed or amended by the Parliament.
• It should be noted that Article 35 extends the competence of the Parliament to make a law on the matters specified above, even though some of those matters may fall within the sphere of the state legislatures (i.e., State List).
• The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs and the security of India. Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community.

QUESTION: 71

With reference to the Indian Councils Act of 1861, consider the following statements:
1. It initiated the process of decentralization and thus reversed the centralizing tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773.
2. It made the beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians as non-official members of Viceroy’s council.
3. It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• After the great revolt of 1857, the British Government felt the necessity of seeking the cooperation of the Indians in the administration of their country. In pursuance of this policy of association, three acts were enacted by the British Parliament in 1861, 1892 and 1909. The Indian Councils Act of 1861 is an important landmark in the constitutional and political history of India.
• Features of the Act of 1861:
(i) It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council—the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
(ii) It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It thus reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833. This policy of legislative devolution resulted in the grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in1937. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
(iii) It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897 respectively.
(iv) It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in the council. It also gave recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859.Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s).
(v) It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months.
• It was the Charter Act of 1853 which introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. The covenanted civil service was thus thrown open to the Indians also. Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in1854. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

QUESTION: 72

With reference to the Uniform Code of Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices, consider the following statements:
1. It is a set of guidelines issued to doctors and health care personnel for ethical practices in prescribing medicines.
2. It is binding in nature and noncompliance attracts monetary penalties for doctors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• Both statement 1 and statement 2 are not correct: The Uniform Code of Pharmaceuticals Marketing Practices, 2014 ("UCPMP Code") is a voluntary code issued by the Department Of Pharmaceuticals relating to marketing practices for Indian Pharmaceutical Companies as well as medical devices industry. At present, the UCPMP Code is applicable to Pharmaceutical Companies, Medical Representatives, Agents of Pharmaceutical Companies such as Distributors, Wholesalers, Retailers, and Pharmaceutical Manufacturer's Associations. It is voluntary and not binding in nature.
(i) The UCPMP Code provides that no gifts, pecuniary advantages or benefits in kind may be supplied, offered or promised, to persons qualified to prescribe or supply drugs, by a pharmaceutical company or any of its agents.
(ii) Further, as regards travel facilities, the UCPMP Code prohibits extending travel facility inside the country or outside, including rail, air, ship, cruise tickets, paid vacations, etc., to Health Care Professionals and their family members for vacation or for attending conference, seminars, workshops, CME programme etc. as a delegate.
(iii) The UCPMP Code also provides that free samples of drugs shall not be supplied to any person who is not qualified to prescribe such product.
(iv) Additionally, the UCPMP Code's regulations regarding Hospitality and Cash or Monetary Grant are the same as the MCI Regulations. However, the UCPMP Code does not quantify any allowable limits or any penalty/ punishment based on the quantification of grants.
• Presently, the UCPMP Code suggests that the committee can propose one of the following decisions against the alleged company to the Head of the Association: (i) suspend or expel the company from the Association, (ii) reprimand the company and publish details of that reprimand, (iii) require the company to issue a corrective statement in the media (covering all media), or (iv) ask the company to recover items from the concerned persons, given in violation of the UCPMP Code, 2014.
 

QUESTION: 73

Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the protections in respect of conviction for offenses provided under Part III of the constitution?
1. A compulsory narco-analysis test does not violate the right to protection against self-incrimination.
2. These constitutional protections are available to both citizens as well as foreigners.
3. A civil liability or a tax can be imposed retrospectively.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Protection in Respect of Conviction for Offences, under Article 20, grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person, whether citizen or foreigner or legal person like a company or a corporation. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It contains three provisions in that direction:
(i) No ex-post-facto law: No person shall be (i) convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act, nor (ii) subjected to a penalty greater than that prescribed by the law in force at the time of the commission of the act.
(ii) No double jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
(iii) No self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
• An ex-post-facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively (retroactively), that is, upon acts already done or which increases the penalties for such acts. The enactment of such a law is prohibited by the first provision of Article 20. However, this limitation is imposed only on criminal laws and not on civil laws or tax laws. In other words, a civil liability or a tax can be imposed retrospectively. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court of law or a judicial tribunal. In other words, it is not available in proceedings before departmental or administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature.
• The protection against self-incrimination extends to both oral evidence and documentary evidence. However, it does not extend to (i) compulsory production of material objects, (ii) compulsion to give thumb impression, specimen signature, blood specimens, and (iii) compulsory exhibition of the body. Further, it extends only to criminal proceedings and not to civil proceedings or proceedings which are not of criminal nature.
• However, in Selvi vs State of Karnataka , the Supreme Court held that it violates the basic human right of an individual as the forcible administration of advanced techniques such as narco analysis, polygraph examination and the Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) test amounts to cruelty and is an intrusion of mental privacy. The bench ruled that involuntary administration of the impugned techniques violates the standard of substantive due process as given under article 21(3). Hence statement 1 is not correct.

QUESTION: 74

Fridays For Future movement is sometimes seen in news related to:

Solution:

• The Fridays for Future movement, also known as the Youth Strike for Climate Movement, started in August 2018 after Greta Thunberg (Swedish climate activist) sat outside the Swedish parliament every school day for three weeks to protest against inaction towards climate change and called for concrete government action.
• Then in September 2018, Thunberg called for a strike every Friday until the Swedish parliament revised its policies towards climate change.
• Gradually, students and adults from across the world started mobilising and demonstrating in front of parliaments and local city halls in their respective countries, making global, a local movement.
• About Greta Thunberg: She is a Swedish teenage climate activist and a fierce campaigner who began protesting outside Swedish parliament in August 2018.

QUESTION: 75

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Ecological Term
1. Ecophene
2. Ecotype
3. Ecospecies
Meaning
1. Changes in species owing to environmental adaptations without genetic changes
2. A genetically distinct geographic variety within a species.
3. Morphologically similar species producing viable offsprings.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

• Ecophenes are otherwise called ecads or morphologically-changed forms. When a species is transported to a new environment, it’s first response will be to develop abilities to survive there. These differences among ecophenes are not permanent. They are just temporary variations to survive the new conditions. The body of the organism assumes that it is going to be in these new conditions for a short while only. Therefore, ecophenes from different habitats, when brought together, become similar. For example, a species of grass called Euphorbia hirta has two different ecophenes; one that has adapted to grow in dry, hard soils and the other that grows in places that have been heavily trampled. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• If two ecophenes were to remain in their new habitat for too long, these morphological (physical) changes will start becoming permanent. In evolutionary ecology, an ecotype describes a genetically distinct geographic variety, population or race within a species, which is genotypically adapted to specific environmental conditions. For example, the grass Euphorbia hirta has two ecotypes as well. One that has permanently adapted to surviving in moist conditions and the other adapted to surviving in dry conditions. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Now, if two ecotypes have been separated from each other for a very long time. The adaptations become a permanent part of the genes. They are still the same species, but their difference physically and genetically are very distinct. In fact, two ecospecies cannot produce viable off-springs (which the ecophenes andecotones can). These ecospecies left alone for many, many generations, then develop sufficient changes in them to become a separate species. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

QUESTION: 76

The term 2020CD3 seen recently in news is related to

Solution:

• Astronomers have observed a small object orbiting Earth, which they have dubbed a “mini-moon” or the planet’s “second moon”. It is actually an asteroid, about the size of a car; its diameter is about 1.9-3.5m. And unlike our permanent Moon, the mini-moon is temporary; it will eventually break free of Earth’s orbit and go off on its own way. It is called 2020 CD3, the mini-moon was discovered by Kacper Wierzchos and Teddy Pruyne of the NASA-funded Catalina Sky Survey (CSS) in Arizona in February 2020.
• When an asteroid’s orbit crosses Earth’s orbit, it can sometimes be captured into the latter orbit. This is what happened with 2020 CD3. It is now orbiting at a distance farther from Earth. Such an asteroid is called a Temporarily Captured Object (TCO). The orbit of such objects is unstable. They have to contend with the gravitational influence of our permanent Moon as well as that of the Sun. Once caught in Earth’s orbit, such objects usually remain for a few years before they break free and go into an independent orbit around the Sun.
• According to the researchers, 2020 CD3 was captured into Earth’s orbit over three years ago. For CSS, it is only the second such discovery. It previously discovered 2006 RH120, which orbited Earth for sometime that year, before it escaped in 2007.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 77

The rulers of this ethnic stock were known as the Indo-Scythians. They ruled through governors or subordinate rulers known as kshatrapas. Their history is known largely through inscriptions and coins. King Moga was one such Indo-Scythian ruler.Which dynasty or ethnic stock has been described in the passage given above?

Solution:

• Scythians (referred to as Shakas in Indian sources) were a group of Iranian nomadic pastoral tribes. In the second century BC, central Asian nomadic tribes and tribes from the Chinese region invaded the region of present-day Kazakhstan whose inhabitants were Scythians. This promoted the Scythians to move towards Bactria and Parthia. After defeating the Parthian king, they moved towards India. Scythians who migrated to India are known as Indo-Scythians. The Sakas had an Indian kingdom larger than the Indo-Greeks.
• There were five branches of Shakas with their seats of power in different parts of India and Afghanistan.
(i) One branch settled in Afghanistan
(ii) The second branch settled in Punjab with Taxila as the capital
(iii) The third branch settled in Mathura
(iv) The fourth branch established its hold over western India (where they continued to rule until the fourth century A.D.). They were the predecessors of the Kardamakas (known as the Western Shakas).
(v) The fifth branch established its power in the upper Deccan
• The history of the Scytho-Parthian and Shaka rule in India is known largely through inscriptions and coins. An inscription found at Taxila mentions a Shaka king named Moga and his kshatrapa (governor) Patika. The Shakas (Indo-Scythians) and the Scytho-Parthians ruled through governors or subordinate rulers known as kshatrapas and mahakshatrapas who played an important role in the expansion of their empire.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 78

Consider the following statements regarding the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS):
1. The Scheme allows all resident individuals, corporates, partnership firms to remit a certain amount of money during a financial year.
2. The remittance facility under the Scheme is not available for trading in foreign exchange abroad.
3. Recently, the government removed the tax collected at source on LRS to improve ease of doing business.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

• Under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, persons resident in India are free to buy or sell foreign exchange for any current account transaction except for those transactions for which drawal of foreign exchange has been prohibited by Central Government, such as remittance out of lottery winnings, remittance for purchase of lottery tickets, banned/proscribed magazines, football pools, sweepstakes, etc.
• The Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allows resident individuals to remit a certain amount of money during a financial year to another country for investment and expenditure.
• Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) allows all resident individuals, including minors, to freely remit upto USD 2,50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both. The Scheme is not available to corporates, partnership firms, HUF, Trusts, etc. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Individuals can avail of foreign exchange facility within the LRS limit of USD 2,50,000 in a financial year for different purposes including Private visits to any country (except Nepal and Bhutan), Gift or donation, Going abroad for employment, Emigration, Maintenance of close relatives abroad, Expenses in connection with medical treatment abroad Studies abroad, etc.
• The remittance facility under the Scheme is not available for the following:
(i) Remittance for any purpose specifically prohibited under Schedule-I (like the purchase of lottery tickets/sweepstakes, proscribed magazines, etc.) or any item restricted under Schedule II of Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000.o Remittance from India for margins or margin calls to overseas exchanges / overseas counterparty.
(ii) Remittance for trading in foreign exchange abroad. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
(iii) Capital account remittances, directly or indirectly, to countries identified by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as “non- cooperative countries and territories”.
(iv) Remittances directly or indirectly to those individuals and entities identified as posing a significant risk of committing acts of terrorism as advised separately by the Reserve Bank to the banks.
• Finance Minister in Budget 2020, introduced new provisions to collect TCS (Tax collected at source) after an internal survey by the income tax department showed that a large number of those sending out money had not filed income tax returns. As per the Budget proposals, TCS will be collected on:
(i) Remittance under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) of RBI for an amount exceeding Rs 7Lakh in a financial year.
(ii) Sale of an overseas tour package through a tour operator.
• Authorized dealers (ADs) of foreign exchange (typically banks) will collect this amount. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

QUESTION: 79

"Diwali declaration", made during the tenure of Lord Irwin is related to:

Solution:

• The Irwin Declaration was a statement made by Lord Irwin, then Viceroy of India, on 31 October1929 regarding the status of India in the British empire. It was intended to placate leaders of the Indian nationalist movement who had become increasingly vocal in demanding dominion status for India, as clearly seen in Nehru Report. This is also known as Diwali declaration.
• The Declaration was a five-line statement in simple non-legal language. It attempted to clarify to its British and Indian audiences that the intention of the British government was to facilitate India attaining dominion status in the future. However, there was no mention of any timeline.
• The Declaration triggered political developments both in Britain and India. In Britain, there was a backlash while in India, nationalist leaders welcomed the Declaration and radically changed their mode of engagement with the British government.
• Hence, option (C) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 80

Which the following steps of the nitrogen cycle allows for the release of atmospheric nitrogen from the soil?

Solution:

• Nitrogen Fixation: Nitrogen fixation is the process by which gaseous nitrogen (N2) is converted to ammonia (NH3 or NH4+) via biological fixation or nitrate (NO3-) through high-energy physical processes.N2 is extremely stable and a great deal of energy is required to break the bonds that join the two N atoms.N2 can be converted directly into NO3- through processes that exert a tremendous amount of heat, pressure, and energy. Such processes include combustion, volcanic action, lightning discharges, and industrial means. However, a greater amount of biologically available nitrogen is naturally generated via the biological conversion of N2 to NH3/ NH4+. A small group of bacteria and cyano bacteria are capable of using the enzyme nitrogenase to break the bonds among the molecular nitrogen and combine it with hydrogen.
• Nitrogenase only functions in the absence of oxygen. The exclusion of oxygen is accomplished by many means. Some bacteria live beneath layers of oxygen-excluding slime on the roots of certain plants. The most important soil-dwelling bacteria, Rhizobium, live in oxygen-free zones in nodules on the roots of legumes and some other woody plants. Aquatic filamentous cyanobacteria utilize oxygen-excluding cells called heterocysts.
• Denitrification: Denitrification is the reduction of NO3- to gaseous N2 by anaerobic bacteria. This process only occurs where there is little to no oxygen, such as deep in the soil near the water table. Hence, areas such as wetlands provide a valuable place for reducing excess nitrogen levels via denitrification processes. Hence the correct answer is option (d).
• Nitrification: Nitrification is a two-step process in which NH3/ NH4+ is converted to NO3-. First, the soil bacteria Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus convert NH3 to NO2-, and then another soil bacterium, Nitrobacter, oxidizes NO2- to NO3-. These bacteria gain energy through these conversions, both of which require oxygen to occur.
• Assimilation: Assimilation is the process by which plants and animals incorporate the NO3- and ammonia formed through nitrogen fixation and nitrification. Plants take up these forms of nitrogen through their roots and incorporate them into plant proteins and nucleic acids. Animals are then able to utilize nitrogen from the plant tissues.
• Ammmonification: Assimilation produces large quantities of organic nitrogen, including proteins, aminoacids, and nucleic acids. Ammonification is the conversion of organic nitrogen into ammonia. The ammonia produced by this process is excreted into the environment and is then available for either nitrification or assimilation.
 

QUESTION: 81

Consider the following statements with reference to the Presiding Officers of the Parliament:
1. Unlike the Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Chairman is not a member of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Like the Speaker, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha can vote in the first instance when a resolution for his removal is under consideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

The Vice–President of India, is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Unlike the Speaker (who is a member of the Lok Sabha), the Chairman is not a member of the Rajya Sabha. But like the Speaker, he too can cast a vote in the case of an equality of votes (Casting vote). So, statement 1 is correct.
The Vice–President, cannot preside over a sitting of the Rajya Sabha as its Chairman when a resolution for its removal is under consideration. However, he can be present and speak in the House and can take part in its proceedings, without voting, even at such a time. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements regarding the indices measuring Economic Freedom: 
1. The Fraser Institute issues the Index of Economic Freedom. 
2. The Heritage Foundation issues Global Economic Freedom Index. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Solution:

Explanation: Index of Economic Freedom 2019 is brought out by the Heritage Foundation. It ranked the Indian economy 129th among 186 countries and was categorized as ‘mostly unfree’. India scored 40 on a scale of 0-100 against the world average of 58.5. So, statement 1 is not correct. Global Economic Freedom Index is brought out by the Fraser Institute. It ranked India 79th among 162 countries which shows a jump of 11 spots from the last years’ ranking. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

QUESTION: 83

With reference to the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE), consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

The National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) is one of the eight national missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). NMEEE aims to strengthen the market for energy efficiency by creating conducive regulatory and policy regime and has envisaged fostering innovative and sustainable business models to the energy efficiency sector. The Mission is implemented since 2011. Initiatives under NMEEE: NMEEE consist of four initiatives to enhance energy efficiency in energy-intensive industries which are as follows:
• Perform Achieve and Trade Scheme (PAT) - Implementing a market assisted compliance mechanism to accelerate the implementation of cost-effective improvements in energy efficiency in large energy-intensive industries. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency (MTEE) - Accelerating the shift to energy-efficient appliances in the specific application through innovative measures to make the products more affordable. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Energy Efficiency Financing Platform (EEFP) - Facilitating Financial Institutions to invest in Energy Efficiency Projects and Programmes. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Framework for Energy Efficient Economic Development (FEEED) - Developing fiscal instruments to leverage financing for Energy Efficiency through risk mitigation. The Mission seeks to upscale the efforts to unlock the market for energy efficiency which is estimated to be around Rs.74,000 Crore and help achieve total avoided capacity addition of 19,598 MW, fuel savings of around 23 million tons per year and greenhouse gas emission reductions of 98.55 million tons per year at its full implementation stage. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 84

Consider the following statements regarding a river basin in India: 
1) It is almost perennial and provides year-round water for irrigation and power generation. 
2) It is one of the most exploited river basins with 90-95% of its irrigation and hydropower potential already harnessed. 
3) It forms some of the most fertile deltas in India and is known to be the granary of the region. 
Which of the following river basins is best described in the statements given above? 

Solution:

Kaveri river Basin’s upper catchment area receives rainfall during summer by the south-west monsoon and the lower catchment area during the winter season by the retreating north-east monsoon. It is, therefore, almost a perennial river with comparatively fewer fluctuations inflow and is very useful for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation. Thus, the Cauvery is one of the best-regulated rivers, and 90 to 95 % of its irrigation and power production potential already stands harnessed. The fertile soil and large-scale irrigation facilities have made the Cauvery delta the granary of South India. Options (a) and (d) are not perennial river basins, they flow mostly during South-West monsoon season while hydropower and irrigation potential of Ganga river basin is still high. So, option (b) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

QUESTION: 85

Match the following List I and List II.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Bhaskar acharya was one of the leading mathematicians in the 12th century CE. His book Siddhantha Shiromani is divided into four sections: Sections dealing with
• Spheres – Goladhyaya
• Mathematics of planets- Grahaganita
• Arithmetic- Lilavati
• Algebra- Beej Ganita
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 86

Consider the following statements regarding the Motions tabled in the Parliament:
1. Censure Motion need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. 
2. No-Confidence Motion can be moved against the entire Council of Ministers only. 
3. Adjournment Motion can be introduced in either House of the Parliament. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. It can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of ministers. It is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers need not resign from the office. So, statement 1 is not correct.
No-Confidence Motion: Article 75 of the Constitution states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha can remove the ministry from office by passing a No-Confidence Motion. It need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. It can be moved against the entire Council of Ministers only. It is moved for ascertaining the confidence of Lok Sabha in the Council of Ministers. The motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. If it is passed by the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers must resign from office. So, statement 2 is correct.
Adjournment motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. As it interrupts the normal business of the House, it is regarded as an extraordinary device. It involves an element of censure against the government, and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. The discussion on this motion should last not less than two hours and thirty minutes. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 87

Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Deadweight Loss’, mentioned in the Economic Survey 2019-20? 

Solution:

The deadweight loss is a cost to the society created by market inefficiency when adequate output is not produced. In strict terms, it represents loss either in consumer surplus or producer surplus or both on account of adequate output not being produced in the economy. The imposition of taxes on a product is one such example because the producer passes a portion of the tax burden to consumers which reduces the amount of output to be produced. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

QUESTION: 88

Match List-I with List-II:

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

The activities of living organisms which may cause a marked effect on the survival of others are called biotic interactions. The interactions may be food, shelter or substratum. Similarly, it may be intra-specific or inter-specific. All the interactions are divided into three types. They are; Positive interactions, Negative interactions and Neutral interactions.
1. Mutualism: The interactions between two different species in which both the species are benefited from each other is called mutualism. Lichens are the joint form of algae and fungi. The algae prepare their own food and supply it to fungi while the fungi provide support to the algae.
2. Commensalism: It is a positive inter-specific interaction, in which a smaller member called 'commensal', is benefitted, while the larger member called 'host', is neither benefitted nor harmed. Epiphytes are small green plants found growing on other plants for space only. They absorb water and minerals from the atmosphere by their hygroscopic roots and prepare their own food. The plants are not harmed in any way. Examples: Orchids, lianas and Vanda hanging mosses are common epiphytes found on the tree of tropical rain forests.
3. Parasitism: It is a type of antagonistic inter-specific interaction in which smaller partner, called the parasite, derives food and shelter from in or on the body of larger partner, called host, which inhibits the survival of the host. The host can survive without the parasite, but the parasite cannot survive without the host. Parasitism can be rightly explained as weaker attacking the stronger. Example: lice on humans, ticks on dogs and copepods on fish.
4. Amensalism: It is an antagonistic inter-specific interaction in which one species is inhibited while other species is neither benefited nor harmed. In simple words, in amensalism, one organism does not allow other organisms to grow or live near it. It is also called antibiosis, and the affected species is called a mental and the affecting species is called an inhibitor. Such inhibition is achieved through the secretion of certain chemicals called allochemics or allelopathic substances.
Therefore, the correct match is (b).

QUESTION: 89

With reference to the Indian Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio (ISEER), consider the following statements: 
1) ISEER is a rating methodology of Bureau of Energy Efficiency for air conditioners only. 
2) According to the ISEER, both split and window air conditioners have the same standards. 
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution:

Indian Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio (ISEER) is an evolved rating methodology for air conditioners that factors in variance in higher temperature in India and rates air conditioners accordingly. ISEER measures the energy efficiency of air conditioners based on a weighted average of the performance at outside temperatures between 24 and 43 degree C based on Indian weather data. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) to progressively improve the efficiency of Room Air Conditioners (AC) and transform the market towards better energy efficiency standards has brought in Star labelling of ACs. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Indian Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio (ISEER) as per the new standards will range from (3.30 - 5.00) for split and (2.70 – 3.50) for window air conditioners, which will be applicable from 1st January 2021 onwards. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, the answer is (b).

QUESTION: 90

Which of the following factors make ratooning technique popular among the Indian farmers? 
1) It reduces the cost of production. 
2) It reduces the maturity time of the crop. 
3) It increases the yield with each successive crop. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution:

Ratooning is the agricultural practice of harvesting crop by cutting most of the above-ground portion but leaving the roots and the growing shoot apices intact, to allow the plants to recover and produce a fresh crop in the next season. This practice is widely used in the cultivation of crops such as rice, sugarcane, banana and pineapple. It has become more popular among the sugarcane growers because of the following advantages:
1. Saving in the cost of production through saving in cost of seeds, land preparation and labour cost etc.
2. The leftover in the field, especially in the form of fallen leaves, trash, etc., in due course of time, gets converted into organic matter.
3. Ratoon crops generally come to maturity at least one-month earlier because roots and shoots of the plant take lesser time to grow than the fresh seed crops.
So, statements 1 and 2 are the correct.
Disadvantages of ratooning:
1. Crop yields are generally lower than plant crop yields, and the yield reduces with the successive stages of the crop. With the ageing of roots and shoots plant becomes more susceptible to pest attack.
2. Nitrogenous fertilizer requirement is more as land is not properly prepared/mulched in farmland using ratooning.
So, statement 3 is not the correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

QUESTION: 91

Consider the following with regards to Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY).
1. It is being implemented for integrated development of Scheduled Tribes (ST) majority villages and districts.
2. The scheme is funded jointly by the Centre and the States.
3. Each village selected for the scheme is to be adopted by a Member of Parliament (MP).
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY): The Centrally Sponsored Pilot Scheme ‘Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana’ (PMAGY) is being implemented for integrated development of Scheduled Castes (SC) majority villages having SC Population concentration > 50%.Initially the scheme was launched in 1000 villages in 5 States viz. Assam, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu. The Scheme was further revised w.e.f. 22.01.2015 and extended to 1500SC majority villages in Punjab, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand, West Bengal and Odisha. The principal objective of the Scheme is integrated development of SC Majority Villages:
1. Primarily through convergent implementation of the relevant Central and State Schemes;
2. By providing these villages Central Assistance in form of gap-filling funds to the extent of Rs.20.00 lakh per village, to be increased by another 5 lakh if State make a matching contribution.
3. By providing gap-filling component to take up activities which do not get covered under the existing Central and State Government Schemes are to be taken up under the component of ‘gap filling’.
To ensure all round development of the selected villages, so that they can indeed become ‘Adarsh Grams’, the said Scheme has been recently revised to capture the Gaps in critical socio-economic ‘Monitorable Indicators’ as part of various sectors/domains. These domains include water and sanitation, education, health and nutrition, agricultural best practices etc. amongst others.

QUESTION: 92

Consider the following with regards to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
1. The conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson and other Members is determined by the President.
2. It was converted into a statutory body recently.
3. The constitution empowers the President to specify socially and educationally backward classes in various states and union territories.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Statement 1: 102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provides constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).It has the authority to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes. Previously NCBC was a statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Statement 2: The Commission consists of five members including a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and three other Members appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. The conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other Members is determined by President.
Statement 3: Article 338B provides authority to NCBC to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes. Article 342 A empowers President to specify socially and educationally backward classes in various states and union territories. He can do this in consultation with Governor of concerned State. However, law enacted by Parliament will be required if list of backward classes is to be amended.
Learning: The commission investigates and monitors all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially and educationally backward classes under the Constitution or under any other law to evaluate the working of such safeguards. It participates and advises on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes and to evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and any State. It presents to the President, annually and at such other times as the Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards. The President laid such reports before each House of Parliament.

QUESTION: 93

Cabinet recently approved the Modified Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMC 2.0) Scheme. The scheme aims to
1. Create Plug & Play infrastructure facility for attracting investment in the electronics sector.
2. Establish Common Facility Centre (CFC) where there are a significant number of Electronics
System Design & Manufacturing (ESDM) and upgrade the common technical infrastructure.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

The scheme provides for development of world class infrastructure along with common facilities and amenities through Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMCs).The Scheme would support setting up of both Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMCs) and Common Facility Centers (CFCs).
Where can these clusters be setup?
• An Electronics Manufacturing Cluster (EMC) would set up in geographical areas of certain minimum extent, preferably contiguous, where the focus is on development of basic infrastructure, amenities and other common facilities for the ESDM units.
• For Common Facility Centre (CFC), there should be a significant number of existing ESDM units located in the area and the focus is on upgrading common technical infrastructure and providing common facilities for the ESDM units in such EMCs, Industrial Areas/Parks/industrial corridors.
Benefits of the scheme:
• Availability of ready infrastructure and Plug & Play facility for attracting investment in electronics sector.
• New investment in electronics sector
• Jobs created by the manufacturing units;
• Revenue in the form of taxes paid by the manufacturing units

QUESTION: 94

The Madrid Plan (MIPAA) based on a United Nations General Assembly declaration in the beginning of the 21st CE is a/an international Plan of Action on

Solution:

The United Nations Second World Assembly on Ageing (Madrid, 8-12 April 2002) unanimously adopted the Madrid Political Declaration and International Plan of Action on Ageing, 2002. WHO’s contributions to the Assembly included the submission of a policy framework, 1 and the formulation of regional action plans for implementing the International Plan, notably by the United Nations Economic Commission for Europe, the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific, and the United Nations Economic Commission for Latin America and the Caribbean. Reports on the content of the policy framework and the outcomes of the Second World Assembly were submitted to the Fifty-fifth World Health Assembly. The Madrid International Plan of Action on Ageing reflects a global consensus on the social dimensions of ageing that has evolved during preceding decades through multilateral activity and work conducted at the United Nations. Pioneering efforts to address the challenges of ageing began in the 1940s, shortly after the inception of the United Nations.
Learning: The Vienna Plan was the first international instrument for action on development issues of ageing. It identified three priority areas: (a) the sustainability of development in a world where the population is increasing in age; (b) the maintenance of good health and well-being to an advanced age; and (c) the establishment of an appropriate and supportive environment for all age groups. The purpose of the Vienna Plan was to help Governments in formulating their policies on ageing, by guiding national and international efforts and strengthening capacities of Governments and civil society organizations to deal effectively with demographic ageing.

QUESTION: 95

Consider the following with regards to Limited Liability Partnership (LLP).
1. In a LLP, one partner is not responsible or liable for another partner’s misconduct or negligence.
2. LLP is considered a body corporate and a legal entity separate from its partners.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) is a partnership in which some or all partners have limited liability. It therefore exhibits elements of partnerships and corporations. In an LLP, one partner is not responsible or liable for another partner’s misconduct or negligence.
Salient features of an LLP:
• An LLP is a body corporate and legal entity separate from its partners. It has perpetual succession.
• Being the separate legislation (i.e. LLP Act, 2008), the provisions of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 are not applicable to an LLP and it is regulated by the contractual agreement between the partners.
• Every Limited Liability Partnership shall use the words “Limited Liability Partnership” or its acronym “LLP” as the last words of its name.
Learning: Ministry of Corporate Affairs introduces the “Companies Fresh Start Scheme, 2020”and revised the “LLP Settlement Scheme, 2020” to provide relief to law abiding companies and Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs) in the wake of COVID 19.
What do these schemes entail?
These schemes incentivise compliance and reduce compliance burden during the unprecedented public health situation caused by COVID-19.The schemes provide a one-time waiver of additional filing fees for delayed filings by the companies or LLPs with the Registrar of Companies during the currency of the Schemes, i.e. during the period starting from 1st April, 2020 and ending on 30th September, 2020.They also significantly reduce the related financial burden on them, especially for those with longstanding defaults, thereby giving them an opportunity to make a “fresh start”. Both the Schemes also contain provision for giving immunity from penal proceedings, including against imposition of penalties for late submissions. They also provide additional time for filing appeals before the concerned Regional Directors against imposition of penalties, if already imposed.

QUESTION: 96

Which of the following public agencies is/are implementing Skill Development Programmes?
1. National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation( NSFDC)
2. National Safai Karmacharis Finance and Development Corporation (NSKFDC)
3. National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation (NBCFDC)
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

India has adopted skill development as a national priority and assigned yearly targets to the Ministries which are being monitored regularly. Department of Social Justice and Empowerment is participating effectively in the implementation of the skill development programme and enabling action at the grass root level with the help of the three Finance Corporations which are promoting economic empowerment of the target groups.
These Corporations finance self employment oriented income generating schemes for their target groups and are basically ‘not for profit’ Companies. They are also implementing the Skill Development Programmes as per the targets assigned to them,
They are: i. National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation (NSFDC) ii. National Safai Karmacharis Finance and Development Corporation (NSKFDC) iii. National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation (NBCFDC).

QUESTION: 97

The main objectives of OceanSat-2 are to study
1. Surface winds and ocean surface strata
2. Monitoring of phytoplankton blooms in the ocean
3. Study of atmospheric aerosols and suspended sediments in the ocean water
Consider the following with regards to Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

Launched in 2009, it is designed to provide service continuity for operational users of the Ocean Colour Monitor (OCM) instrument on Oceansat-1.
The main objectives of OceanSat-2 are to study surface winds and ocean surface strata, observation of chlorophyll concentrations, monitoring of phytoplankton blooms, study of atmospheric aerosols and suspended sediments in the water.
The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) has reported that Oceansat Satellite data are used to prepare the Potential Fishing Zone (PFZ) advisories on the potential rich fishing areas and provide to the sea faring fishermen in all states.
How are these zones identified?
This methodology utilizes data on chlorophyll concentration (Chl) obtained from ISRO’s Oceansat-2 satellite and the sea surface temperature from National Oceanic Atmospheric Administration (NOAA / USA satellites).

QUESTION: 98

Consider the following statements.
1. The word ‘beggar’ or ‘beggary’ is not mentioned in any of the lists of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
2. “Relief of the disabled and unemployable” is a Concurrent subject in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
Consider the following with regards to Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

The word ‘beggar’ or ‘beggary’ is not mentioned in any of the lists of the Constitution. However, as per entry-9 of the State List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, “Relief of the disabled and unemployable” is a State subject. As per entry-15 of the Concurrent List, “Vagrancy” is a concurrent subject.
As per information available at present, 20 States and 2 UTs have either enacted their own Anti Beggary Legislation or adopted the legislation enacted by other States. Despite the fact that many States/UTs have enacted laws relating to beggary, however, the provisions of these legislations differ across the States and their status of implementation, including the measures taken for rehabilitation of beggars, are also not uniform.
The Ministry of SJE’s approach towards addressing the problem of beggary is rehabilitative rather than punitive. Accordingly, the Ministry is in the process formulating a Model Legislation on Destitution which could be suitably adopted/adapted by the States/UTs and also formulating a Scheme for Protection, Care and Rehabilitation of Destitutes.
The MOSJE has developed an online web-portal e-utthaan.gov.in for monitoring of Allocation for Welfare of Scheduled Castes. Similarly, Ministry of Tribal Affairs has developed the online webportalstcmis.gov.in for monitoring of Allocation for Welfare of Scheduled Tribes.

QUESTION: 99

Socio-economic Caste Census (SECC), 2011, is a study of socio economic status of both rural and urban households coordinated by the Department of Rural Development. SECC used explicit ‘inclusion’ and ‘exclusion’ criteria to rank households in the census. Which of these is/are such inclusion criteria?
1. Possession of a Kisan Credit Card
2. Manual scavenger families
3. Primitive tribal groups
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Solution:

SECC-2011 is a study of socio economic status of rural and urban households and allows ranking of households based on predefined parameters. SECC 2011 has three census components which were conducted by three separate authorities but under the overall coordination of Department of Rural Development in the Government of India. Census in Rural Area has been conducted by the Department of Rural Development (DoRD). Census in Urban areas is under the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA). Caste Census is under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs: Registrar General of India (RGI) and Census Commissioner of India. Ministry of Rural Development commenced the Socio-Economic Caste Census-2011 on 29th June, 2011 through a comprehensive door to door enumeration across the country.
Justification: Total Excluded Households (based on fulfilling any of the 14 parameters of exclusion –
i. Motorized 2/3/4 wheeler/fishing boat.
ii. Mechanized 3-4 wheeler agricultural equipment.
iii. Kisan credit card with credit limit of over Rs. 50,000/-.
iv. Household member government employee.
v. Households with non-agricultural enterprises registered with government.
vi. Any member of household earning more than Rs. 10,000 per month.
vii. Paying income tax.
viii. Paying professional tax.
ix. 3 or more rooms with pucca walls and roof.
x. Owns a refrigerator.
xi. Owns landline phone.
xii. Owns more than 2.5 acres of irrigated land with 1 irrigation equipment.
xiii. 5 acres or more of irrigated land for two or more crop season.
xiv. Owning at least 7.5 acres of land or more with at least one irrigation equipment.
Automatically included (based on fulfilling any of the 5 parameters of inclusion –
i. Households without shelter.
ii. Destitute, living on alms.
iii. Manual scavenger families.
iv. Primitive tribal groups.
v. Legally released bonded labour.
 

QUESTION: 100

Petroleum & Explosives Safety Organization is a regulatory authority with autonomous status under the

Solution:

It is a department under Department for the Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It is a regulatory authority with autonomous status. It was established during the British India in 1890s as Department of Explosives and later expanded to various other activities. As a statutory authority, PESO is entrusted with the responsibilities under the Explosives Act, 1884; Petroleum Act, 1934; Inflammable Substances Act, 1952, Environment (Protection Act), 1986.