UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1(GS) Mock Test - 2 (July 5, 2021)


100 Questions MCQ Test UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 Mock Test Series | UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1(GS) Mock Test - 2 (July 5, 2021)


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This mock test of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1(GS) Mock Test - 2 (July 5, 2021) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1(GS) Mock Test - 2 (July 5, 2021) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1(GS) Mock Test - 2 (July 5, 2021) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1(GS) Mock Test - 2 (July 5, 2021) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1(GS) Mock Test - 2 (July 5, 2021) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

eBkray portal has been launched for

Solution: The eBkray platform provides navigational links to all Public Sector Banks (PSB) e-auction sites, property search feature and presents single-window access to information on properties up for e-auction, comparison of similar properties, and also contains videos and photographs of the uploaded properties.

The e-auction platform has also now been linked to the Indian Banks Auctions Mortgaged Properties Information (IBAPI) portal and guidelines have been made available

QUESTION: 2

With reference to Suspension of MPs, consider the following statements:

1. Unlike the Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a member.

2. The power to revoke the suspension is with the House through a motion and not with the speaker.

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. Rules 374A of Lok Sabha Rules provides the Speaker the power to suspend any member of Parliament if the member is wilfully abusing Rules of Procedure. Similarly, Rule 256 of Rules of Procedures and Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha authorises the Chairman to suspend members. Statement 2 is correct. Though it is the power of the Speaker to suspend any member but the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in her. It is for the House, if it so desires to resolve on a motion to revoke the suspension.

QUESTION: 3

‘Bilateral Netting’ exercise appearing in news recently is related to

Solution: Netting entails offsetting the value of multiple positions or payments due to be exchanged between two or more parties. Netting between two parties is called Bilateral netting.

Netting can involve more than two parties, called multilateral netting, and generally involves a central exchange or clearinghouse.

Bilateral netting:

Bilateral netting is the process of consolidating all swap agreements between two parties into one single, or master, agreement. As a result, instead of each swap agreement leading to a stream of individual payments by either party, all of the swaps are netted together so that only one net payment stream is made to one party based on the flows of the combined swaps. Hence, option a is correct.

India-US in defence Agreements: - The signing of the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) in 2016 and the Helicopter Operations from Ships Other Than Aircraft Carriers (HOSTAC) earlier this year were important steps in this direction. The signing of the Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) will enable India to access advanced technologies from the US and enhance India's defence preparedness.

KB: Netting is very common in advanced economies where the settlement is based on net positions in bilateral or multilateral financial arrangements rather than by gross positions. A strong netting system generally gives rise to a thriving derivatives market, as it provides the most accurate picture of a company’s financial position, solvency and liquidity risk.

In the absence of bilateral netting, India’s central bank regulations require banks to measure credit exposure to a counterparty for OTC derivative contracts based on gross marked-to-market (MTM) exposure instead of net MTM exposure. This increases credit risk for financial market participants, especially in the event of insolvency of a counterparty, which could then raise systemic risk, according to the latest Economic Survey. The current system of higher obligations requires banks to divert more capital toward collateral requirements than what would be required if bilateral netting is permitted.

Multilateral Netting: Multilateral netting is a payment arrangement among multiple parties that transactions be summed, rather than settled individually. Multilateral netting can take place within a single organization or among two or more parties. The netting activity is centralized in one area, obviating the need for multiple invoicing and payment settlements among various parties. When multilateral netting is being used to settle invoices, all parties to the agreement send payments to a single netting center, and that netting center sends payments from that pool to those parties to which they are owed. Therefore, multilateral netting can be thought of as a way to pool funds to simplify the payment of invoices between parties to the arrangement.

QUESTION: 4

Which of the following is a likely outcome of a widening fiscal deficit in a country?

1. slowdown in economic growth rate.

2. decrease in capital expenditure.

Solution: Fiscal Deficit = Total expenditure of the government (capital and revenue expenditure) - Total income of the government (Revenue receipts + recovery of loans + other receipts)

A recurring high fiscal deficit means that the government has been spending beyond its means.

Likely outcomes of widening fiscal deficit:

(i) Slowdown in economy

(ii) Increase in revenue expenditure

(iii) Decrease in capital expenditure. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

(iv) Decrease in revenue collection - especially tax revenue

A government experiences a fiscal deficit when it spends more money than it takes in from taxes and other revenues excluding debt over some time period. This gap between income and spending is subsequently closed by government borrowing, increasing the national debt. An increase in the fiscal deficit, in theory, can boost a sluggish economy by giving more money to people who can then buy and invest more. Long term fiscal deficit in a country can be detrimental for economic growth and stability. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

QUESTION: 5

Which of the following is not possibly associated with the occurrence of El Nino Phenomena?

Solution: El Nino is the warm phase of the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) and is associated with a band of warm ocean water that develops in the central and east-central equatorial Pacific, including the area off the Pacific coast of South America.

Option a is correct. El Nino is accompanied by warmer waters in the Eastern Pacific ocean and comparatively cooler waters in western Pacific. This results in high air pressure in the western Pacific and low air pressure in the eastern Pacific.

Option b is correct. During El Nino, severe droughts occur in Australia, Indonesia, India and southern Africa. High air pressure in the western Pacific is the cause behind Australian droughts in El Nino conditions.

Option c is correct. Increased concentration of Carbon Dioxide in the atmosphere has caused global warming and impending climate change. IPCC in its multiple reports has found increased frequency and intensity of El Nino phenomena caused by Global warming.

Option d is incorrect. The warmer waters during El Nino, have a devastating effect on marine life existing off the coast of Peru and Ecuador. Fish catches off the coast of South America are lower than in the normal year as the upwelling stops, reducing the supply of fresh nutrients to marine life.

QUESTION: 6

From which among the following pairs of states, does both the Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Meridian pass through?

Solution: In India, the Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 states. Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.

Indian Standard Meridian (82.5' E meridian) passes through UP, MP, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. (5 states)

Hence, both the Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Meridian pass through Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh

QUESTION: 7

Consider the following statements:

1. As per Article 20 of Constitution, a person or an entity cannot be punished retrospectively in any civil and criminal cases.

2. As per Article 22 of the Constitution, a person arrested under preventive detention cannot be detained for more than two months unless there is a threat to internal security of any state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 20 provides protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person. It provides that no person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of act. A person cannot be punished for ex-post-facto laws. An ex-post- facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively. However, this protection is only made for criminal offences. This does not apply for any offence done under civil domain for ex: taxation laws.

Statement 2 is incorrect. 44th Amendment of the Constitution amended the provisions of Article 22. Article 22 after amendment provides that a person arrested under preventive detention cannot be detained for more than two months unless there is a threat to internal security of any state. The Original Constitution provided a time period of three months in place of two months. Presently, the provision of Original Constitution is under effect and not that of the 44th Amendment.

QUESTION: 8

Which of the following financial instruments cannot be classified as an asset for any commercial bank?

Solution: Option a is correct: The Savings Taxable bonds issued by the government for retail investors can emerge as an investment with a higher rate of interest. Popularly known as RBI Bonds, they suit anyone looking for highest safety of principal and a regular income.

Option b is correct: Treasury Bills are financial instruments issued by the Reserve bank of India (RBI) acting on the behalf of the central government. These bills are issued when there is a shortage of funds, or when the RBI wants to control the cash liquidity in the market.

Option c is correct: Loans and advances are the principal profit earning assets of the commercial banks. They composed mainly of customers’ overdrafts whereby in return for interest being paid on the amount actually drawn, banks agree to customers over-drawing their accounts, running into debt, up to stated amounts. These facilities are usually limited to relatively short periods of time 6 to 12 months, but they are renewable by agreement.

Options d is incorrect: Public Provident Fund (India) The Public Provident Fund is a savings-cum-tax- saving instrument in India, introduced by the National Savings Institute of the Ministry of Finance in 1968.

QUESTION: 9

Which of the following sites is a man-made and managed wetland, included in the list of Ramsar sites and also placed on Montreux Record?

Solution: Keoladeo National Park (KNP) is known for its rich biological diversity. It is a man-made and managed wetland and was notified as a bird sanctuary in 1956 and elevated to the status of a national park in 1982. It is one of the most important waterfowl refuges of the world, a Ramsar site and a World Heritage site. It was placed on the Montreux Record in 1990 due to "water shortage and an unbalanced grazing regime”.

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Medical Devices Promotion Council (NMDPC)?

1. It is an autonomous body of the department of science and technology under Union Government.

2. It is an initiative to support domestic manufacturing, reduce dependence on imports to meet local demand and boost exports.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. National Medical Devices Promotion Council (NMDPC) is set up under the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) in the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. The Council will be headed by Secretary, DIPP.

Statement 2 is correct. National Medical Devices Promotion Council (NMDPC) will support domestic manufacturing, reduce dependence on imports to meet local demand and boost exports. It aims to give a fillip to the medical device sector, which is a sunrise sector.

QUESTION: 11

What can be the impact of Biomagnification on the ecosystem?

1. Desertification in the semi-arid regions can occur.

2. Degradation of the coral reefs can take place.

3. Distorted reproduction cycles among aquatic animals can occur.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. Biomagnification has no role in the desertification process. Desertification is mainly caused due to overgrazing. Other factors that cause desertification include urbanization, climate change, overdrafting of groundwater, deforestation, natural disasters and tillage practices in agriculture that place soils more vulnerable to wind.

Statement 2 is correct. The coral reefs are destroyed by biomagnification of cyanide, which is used in leaching gold and in fishing. The reefs provide for spawning, feeding, and dwelling grounds for numerous sea creatures. When destroyed, the survival of aquatic creatures is highly compromised.

Statement 3 is correct. Biomagnification can also lead to the accumulation of various toxic chemicals and elements in the vital organs of the various aquatic creatures affecting their reproduction and development. For instance, seabird eggs are laid with thinner shells than normal, and can result in the birds crushing their eggs instead of incubating them. Selenium and heavy metals such as mercury also affect the reproduction of aquatic creatures such as fish as it destroys their reproductive organs.

QUESTION: 12

With reference to Stockholm convention and Minamata convention, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Both Stockholm convention and Minamata convention were a result of the Rio Earth Summit, 1992.

2. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism to both Stockholm convention and Minamata convention.

3. Stockholm convention aims to reduce the Persistent Organic Pollutants (PoPs) while Minamata convention aims to reduce mercury emissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is an international environmental treaty, signed in 2001 and effective from May 2004. The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an international treaty, signed in 2013 and entered into force on 16 August, 2017.

Statement 2 is correct. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) serves as a financial mechanism to five conventions: Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and Minamata Convention on Mercury.

Statement 3 is correct. Stockholm Convention aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants whereas Minamata Convention was designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds.

QUESTION: 13

Which of the following is not considered in the calculation of misery index?

Solution: Misery Index = unemployment rate + the inflation rate + the third is the lending rate - the annualised growth of GDP.

QUESTION: 14

Which among the following best explains the formation of wave cyclones?

Solution: Option a is correct. Wave cyclones are also called Extratropical or mid-latitude cyclones. These are formed along the fronts between different air masses. The circulation about the cyclone center tends to produce a wavelike deformation of the front, hence the name.

Option b is incorrect. Very high Sea Surface Temperature is associated with the formation of Tropical cyclones.

Option c and d are incorrect. Formation of Polar Stratospheric clouds and creation of thunderstorms have no association with the formation of wave cyclones. The cold front within the cyclones, however, can witness thunderstorms. But it is not the cause, rather the effect of cyclone formation.

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following pairs:

Famous Temple Location

Sonagiri temple Madhya Pradesh

Kulpakji temple Telangana

Shikharji temple Chhattisgarh

Which of the pairs mentioned above is/are correctly matched?

Solution: Sonagiri Temple is a Jain Temple located in the Datia district of Madhya Pradesh. It is dedicated to Chandraprabhu who is the eight Tirthankara. He is said to have become Siddha (soul at its purest form or a liberated soul)

Kulpakji Temple is also called Kolanupaka Temple is a Jain Temple in Yadadri district, Telangana. The principal deity is Rishabhnatha who is the first Tirthankara. The temple also houses idols of Lord Neminatha and Lord Mahavira.

Shikharji Temple is located in Giridih district, Jharkhand. It is the most important Jain pilgrimage site. According to ancient Jain Text Nirvana Kanda this is the place where 20 Tirthankar attained Moksha.

QUESTION: 16

With reference to the Temple Entry movements in South India in the 20th century, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

1. By a resolution in 1924, the Kakinada Congress committee formed the Untouchability abolition committee to support the Vaikom Satyagraha.

2. K. Kelappan led the ten-month long protests during the Guruvayur Satyagraha in 1931.

3. The movements failed to achieve anything concrete due to British repression also supported by the Native state’s rulers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: the demand for temple entry was first started in Vaikom, Kerala. This Vaikom Satyagraha gave inspiration to Tamils to fight against Caste Hindus. In South India Nadars were among the first people to fight for temple entry.

Statement 2 is correct: K Kelappan was the lead figure of congress in Kerala and popularly called Kerala Gandhi. He fought against untouchability and caste-based discrimination. He was also the leader of the Guruvayur Satyagraha in 1932

Statement 3 is incorrect: The movement got support from many nationalist leaders including gandhi and agitation against untouchability spread in other states of South India also.

 

QUESTION: 17

‘Akademik Lomonosov’ sometimes seen in the news is

Solution: Akademik Lomonosov is named after Mikhail Lomonosov, a Russian academician. It is a ship which carries floating nuclear units. It is necessary for supply of power in remote areas where other sources are not accessible. It will be used in areas of the Arctic where Russia is exploring oil and gas. According to an estimate it can generate enough power to feed a population of 200,000 in the Arctic region. It is a part of Russia's greater goals of Russia of securing rich deposits of energy in the Arctic. The US, France and China are also working on sea based nuclear power plants. Environmental groups have called it “Chernobyl on Ice”, or “Nuclear Titanic”.

QUESTION: 18

With reference to colistin, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is the last-resort antibiotic used to treat highly drug-resistant bacterial infections in humans.

2. It has been used in veterinary medicine for prevention and treatment of bacterial infection.

3. Its use in livestock has been permitted only for food producing animals.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. Colistin is the last-resort antibiotic used to treat highly drug-resistant bacterial infections.

Statement 2 is correct. Colistin has been used in veterinary medicine for treatment and prevention of bacterial infections and as antibiotic growth promoter for better feed conversion.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has issued an order prohibiting the manufacture, sale and distribution of colistin and its formulations for food-producing animals, poultry, aqua farming and animal feed supplements.

QUESTION: 19

With reference to 'Black-necked crane', a bird found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is found only in the state of Arunachal Pradesh in India.

2. It is classified as critically endangered in the IUCN red list.

3. Its breeding is mainly threatened by the damage to the eggs and chicks, caused by feral dogs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. Black-necked cranes are found in the states of Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim as well as the Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

Statement 2 is incorrect. It is classified as vulnerable in the IUCN red list.

Statement 3 is correct. The major threat to the successful breeding of black-necked cranes is the damage to the eggs and chicks, caused by feral dogs. These dogs are owned both by armed forces as well as by the local nomads. Another threat to the bird is the loss of habitat. The human pressure on the wetlands, the primary habitat of cranes, has increased tremendously over the last decade. The increased grazing pressure on the limited pastures near the wetlands is also leading to the degradation of the wetland habitat.

QUESTION: 20

Who among the following was/were the members of the legislative councils (Provincial/Central) during the British Rule in India?

1. Phreozeshah Mehta

2. Muhammed Ali Jinnah

3.Subhash Chandra Bose

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution: Pheroze Shah Mehta was a politician and lawyer. He was also one of the founding fathers of and President of Indian National Congress. He was nominated to the Imperial Legislative Council in 1893 and Bombay Legislative Council in 1887. He also started a weekly English newspaper “The Bombay Chronicle”. Along with KT Tailang he established Bombay Presidency Association in 1885

Muhammad Ali Jinnah was elected as a Muslim member for Bombay in the Central Legislative Assembly in September 1923.

Subhash Chandra Bose was an Indian Nationalist who has been a leader of the radical wing of the Congress. He resigned from Civil services and in 1921 worked under Chitranjan Das. Later he started his own newspaper Swaraj. In 1923 he became President of All India Youth Congress. He was also elected as President of Congress in 1938 and 1939. He also formed All India Forward Bloc, a faction within Congress.

QUESTION: 21

Which one of the following issues the 'Global Competitiveness Index' report periodically?

Solution: Option a is incorrect: The WTO was born out of negotiations, and everything the WTO does is the result of negotiations. The bulk of the WTO’s current work comes from the 1986-94 negotiations called the Uruguay Round and earlier negotiations under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). The WTO is currently the host to new negotiations, under the ‘Doha Development Agenda’ launched in 2001. Option b is correct: In 2019 India has moved down 10 places to rank 68th on an annual global competitiveness index, largely due to improvements witnessed by several other economies, while Singapore has replaced the US as the world's most competitive economy. India, which was ranked 58th in the annual Global Competitiveness Index compiled by Geneva-based World Economic Forum (WEF).

Option c is incorrect: World Bank Released the following index Global Economic Prospects, World Development Report and Ease of Doing Business and International Debt statistics

Option d is incorrect: International Monetary Fund (IMF) released Global financial stability report (SGRF) and World Economic Outlook report

QUESTION: 22

When the Reserve bank of India reduces the Repo Rate by 75 basis points then, which of the following is likely to happen?

Solution: Option a is incorrect: Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. Monetary authorities use this to control money supply in the economy, thereby inflation.

Option b is correct: The RBI, cut the repo rate and reserve repo rate by 75 basis points and 90 bps, respectively (100 basis points/bps = 1 percent). The repo rate now stands at 4.4 per cent and reserve repo rate at 4 percent. Impact of the rate cut on borrowers, the unexpected rate cut is likely to reduce equated monthly instalments (EMIs) of borrowers, and also make it cheaper to take new loans.

Option c is incorrect: No relation between two things, RBI decides both two things separately.

Option d is incorrect: When the Reserve bank of India reduces the Repo Rate by 75 basis points then decreases in the cost of borrowing.

QUESTION: 23

With reference to the use of Bioink in the health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is used for 3D bioprinting of functional tissues to replace injured or diseased tissues.

2. It can be made from natural biomaterials only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. Bioink is used for 3D bioprinting, an emerging technology with various applications in making functional tissue constructs to replace injured or diseased tissues. It is a relatively new approach that provides high reproducibility and precise control over the fabricated constructs in an automated manner, potentially enabling high-throughput production.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Bioinks may be made from natural or synthetic biomaterials alone, or a combination of the two as hybrid materials. In certain cases, cell aggregates without any additional biomaterials can also be adopted for use as a bioink for bioprinting processes.

QUESTION: 24

If the central government thinks that it is necessary to maintain or increase the supply of any commodity or make it available at fair price then it can regulate, prohibit the production or hoarding, distribution and sale of that commodity under the

Solution: Option a is incorrect: Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 To regulate the import, manufacture, distribution and sale of drugs & cosmetics through licensing.

Option b is incorrect: Epidemic Diseases Act 1897, when the state government is satisfied that the state or any part thereof is visited by or threatened with an outbreak of any dangerous epidemic disease; and if it thinks that the ordinary provisions of the law are insufficient for the purpose, then the state may take, or require or empower any person to take some measures and by public notice prescribe such temporary regulations to be observed by the public. The state government may prescribe regulations for inspection of persons travelling by railway or otherwise, and the segregation, in hospital, temporary accommodation or otherwise, of persons suspected by the inspecting officer of being infected with any such disease.

Option c is incorrect: The Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937 provides for the grading and marking of agricultural and other allied commodities with the objectives of making avail- able quality agricultural produce including horticulture and livestock produce to the consumers.

Option d is correct: Under the EC Act of 1955, if the Central government thinks that it is necessary to maintain or increase supplies of any essential commodity or make it available at fair prices, it can regulate or prohibit the production, supply, distribution and sale of that commodity. Some of the essential commodities listed out in the schedule to this Act are foodstuffs including edible oils and oilseeds, drugs, fertilisers, petroleum and petroleum products. The Centre has the power to add or remove any commodity. Kb)

In recent years, there has been an argument that the EC Act was draconian and not suited for times when farmers face problems of plenty rather than scarcity. The Economic Survey 2019-20 argued that it hampered remunerative prices for farmers and discouraged investment in storage infrastructure.

QUESTION: 25

The initiative 4P1000 sometimes seen in the news is associated with

Solution: On the sidelines of COP 14 of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), TRIFED and Union Tribal Ministry has launched TICD (TRIFED’s Initiative to Combat Desertification) under “The 4P1000 Initiative: The Tribal Perspective through Bamboonomics.” The aim of the initiative is to demonstrate that agriculture and in particular agricultural soils can play a crucial role where food security and climate change are concerned.

QUESTION: 26

Consider the following statements with reference to the Home Rule Movement:

1. The 1915 Bombay Congress session rejected the proposal of Annie Besant to start the movement.

2. V K Krishna Menon was associated with the formation of India League in 1928 which was inspired by Annie Besant’s Home rule leagues.

3. The 1917 August Declaration changed the course of the movement.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect: The congress neither rejected nor approved the proposal of Anni Besant to start the movement Statement 2 is correct: The India league was based in Britain. Its objective was to achieve full independence and self-government for India. VK Krishna Menon was an important figure in it. It evolved from the Commonwealth of India League (1922) which was inspired by the Home Rule League. VK Menon after becoming joint secretary radicalised the organisation and started demanding complete independence. The organisation opened up its branches in other cities of Britain like Liverpool, Manchester, Newcastle, Southampton and Wolverhampton. The league sought to raise consciousness among British people of the injustice of British rule in India.

Statement 3 is correct: After Tilak left for England the movement was left leaderless. Annie Besant was satisfied by the promise of the reforms proposed by the 1917 August Declaration. After the Montagu declaration the League agreed to put a halt on their movement and all the moderate members gave up their membership of the league. The league believed in the promises of the British government that it will gradually reform the administration. The rise of Gandhi and his Satyagraha also provided for the dissolution of the league.

QUESTION: 27

With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. The President may specify the first list of Scheduled Tribes in relation to a state.

2. The President is not required to consult the Governor of the state before specifying such a list.

3. Any subsequent amendment to such a list of Scheduled Tribes can be only done by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. Article 342 of the Constitution provides the Supreme Court the power to President to provide the list of tribal communities to be listed under Scheduled Tribes of the Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. The President in consultation with the Governor prepares the initial list of tribes to be listed under Scheduled Tribes. (Article 342 (1))

Statement 3 is correct. Parliament is empowered to make amendments to the list only through law. Only Parliament has the power to amend. (Article 342 (2)

QUESTION: 28

The ‘Portfolio system of governance’ in British India was introduced by

Solution: The Indian Council Act 1861 made changes in the Governor General’s council for executive and legislative purposes. The Act was introduced by Lord Canning. It empowered the Governor General to delegate special tasks to individuals of the Executive council. Each member had their own portfolio and dealt with it. This was the first instance of a portfolio system in India.

The act also provided for the establishment of new Legislative Councils for Bengal, NWFP and Punjab. Before the 1861 act, the Executive council had little or no representation of the people and there was demand for representation. Therefore, a fifth finance member was added, and provision was made for addition of 6 to 12 members to the Executive council.

The 1858 Act made Governor General the Viceroy. Now onwards India was to be governed by and in the name of the crown through secretary of state and council of 15 members.

Indian Council Act 1892 enlarged the Legislative council of Governor General. A principle of representation was introduced along with elements of indirect election.

The Indian Council Act 1909 or Morley Minto reforms provided first time entry of an Indian in the Executive Council of the Governor General. It also introduced a separate electorate for the Muslims.

QUESTION: 29

Which of the following brings out the Logistics Performance Index?

Solution: World Bank released the Logistics Performance Index (LPI) is an interactive benchmarking tool created to help countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance on trade logistics and what they can do to improve their performance. The LPI 2018 allows for comparisons across 160 countries. The LPI is based on a worldwide survey of operators on the ground (global freight forwarders and express carriers), providing feedback on the logistics “friendliness” of the countries in which they operate and those with which they trade. They combine in-depth knowledge of the countries in which they operate with informed qualitative assessments of other countries where they trade and experience of the global logistics environment, feedback from operators is supplemented with quantitative data on the performance of key components of the logistics chain in the country of work.

QUESTION: 30

In the context of use of stealth technologies, consider the following statements:

1. It makes vehicles or missiles nearly invisible to enemy radar or other electronic detection.

2. Indian Air Force has recently inducted indigenously developed stealth fighter aircraft HAL AMCA.

3. Project 17 was conceptualised by the Indian Navy to design and build stealth frigates in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. Stealth technology makes vehicles or missiles nearly invisible to enemy radar or other electronic detection. The concept of stealth is to operate or hide while giving enemy forces no indication as to the presence of friendly forces.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The HAL Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) is an Indian programme to develop a fifth-generation fighter aircraft. AMCA will be a single-seat, twin-engine, stealth all-weather multirole fighter aircraft, feasibility study on AMCA and the preliminary design stage have been completed, and the project entered the detailed design phase in February 2019. It is expected to make its first flight in 2032.

Statement 3 is correct. Project 17 was conceptualized by the Indian Navy to design and build stealth frigates indigenously. In 1997, the Indian Government approved the order for three frigates.

QUESTION: 31

The term “Host Country Agreement” appearing frequently in the news in the context of the affairs of

Solution: The Host Country Agreement is an agreement between the International Solar Alliance and India. Its motive is to make ISA functioning independent in discharging its functions. Through this agreement ISA will get power to contract, to acquire and dispose movable and immovable property, to institute and defend legal proceedings. Under the agreement ISA will get tax concessions and exemptions necessary for ISA independent functioning.

QUESTION: 32

With reference to ‘FASTag’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It uses barcoding, which includes a pattern of black bars and white spaces.

2. It uses an Electronic Produce Code (EPC) which is similar to the vehicle’s registration number

3.National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) ensures the data security in the case of FASTag.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology is at the core of FASTag, the flagship initiative of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) for implementing electronic toll collection across the national highways in India. Unlike barcoding, which uses a pattern of black bars and white spaces, in which the information is coded, an RFID tag uses a small electronic chip for the same which is surrounded by an antenna.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The RFID technology uses an Electronic Produce Code (EPC) through which every vehicle can be uniquely identified. This code is different from the vehicle’s registration number and exclusive to it on a global scale.

Statement 3 is correct. National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) ensures the data security in the case of RFID-FASTag. They have proper IT infrastructure with backend servers in a place where all the data is captured.

QUESTION: 33

Bougainville has been recently in the news. It is

Solution: In December 2019, South Pacific Archipelago of Bougainville voted for independence from Papua New Guinea. The referendum gave them a choice between independence and greater autonomy, and they opted for independence. The referendum is legally non-binding and Parliament of Papua New Guinea will have the final say. Between 1988 and 1998 there was an armed conflict between factions in Bougainville and Papua New Guinea. The conflict was over the control of resources in the island of Bougainville. The peace agreement of 2001 ended the armed conflict.

In the 1970s a decentralised system of provincial government was introduced in Bougainville and the autonomy was introduced. There was a sense of dissatisfaction among the people of Bougainville over the implementation of Bougainville autonomy, particularly with respect to the financial grants. Bougainville is a resource rich region and the Panguna mine or Bougainville Copper mine holds some of the world largest Copper reserves.

QUESTION: 34

Which of the following is not a component of capital account?

Solution: Component a is correct: The reserve account is a part of the capital account, are the foreign currency and securities held by the central bank of a country and used to balance the payments from year-to-year. The reserves increase in case of a trade surplus and decrease when there is a trade deficit.

Component b is incorrect: Investment Income is a component of the current account.

Component c is correct: An individual investor interested in opportunities outside their own country is most likely to invest through an FPI. On a more macro level, foreign portfolio investment is part of a country's capital account and shown on its balance of payments (BOP). FPI holdings can include stocks, ADRs, GDRs, bonds, mutual funds, and exchange traded funds.

Component d is correct: Foreign Holdings: - The percentage of a portfolio's investment represented by stocks or Indian depository Receipts (IDRs) of companies based outside India.

A surplus in the capital account means there is an inflow of money into the country, while a deficit indicates money moving out of the country. In this case, the country may be increasing its foreign holdings.

QUESTION: 35

Consider the following pairs.

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

The Rashtrakuta kingdom was founded by Dantidurga who established his capital at Manyakhet in Gulbarga district of Karnataka. Amoghavarsha is the greatest Rashtrakuta ruler and wrote Kavirjmarga, the earliest Kannada book on poetry. The rock cut temple Kailasa at Ellora was built by Rashtrakuta king Krishna 1.

The Pratiharas are also Gurjar Pratihara. They had their capital at Kannauj. Nagabhata is the founder of this dynasty. One of the greatest cultural achievements during their rule was the temple building of Khajuraho which is a UNESCO world heritage site.

The Pala empire was founded by Gopala. He was not a hereditary ruler, rather he was elected by the noblemen to avoid anarchy. The Pala period is known as the golden age in Bengal History. Palas had their capital at Munger, Goud, Bikrampur and Patliputra. The Palas patronised the universities of Nalanda and Vikramshila.

 

QUESTION: 36

Which of the following dams/multipurpose projects are associated with Krishna River System?

1. Nizam Sagar Dam

2. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam

3. Srisailam Dam

4. Banasura Sagar Dam

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution: Nizam Sagar Dam is a reservoir constructed across the Manjira River, a tributary of the Godavari River, between Achampet and BanjePally villages of the Kamareddy district in Telangana.

Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a masonry dam across the Krishna river at Nagarjuna Sagar which straddles the border between Guntur district, Andhra Pradesh and Nalgonda district, T elangana.

The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River in Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh.

Banasura Sagar Dam has been constructed across Kabini river, a tributary of Kaveri river.

QUESTION: 37

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the privilege motion moved in a house of Parliament?

Solution: Option a is correct. Every Cabinet Minister, be it Prime Minister is also the member of Parliament. To ensure Collective privileges of the house, any member can be punished for breach of the privilege or its contempt by reprimand, admonition or imprisonment.

Option b is correct. Rules no 222 in Chapter 20 of the Lok Sabha Rule Book governs privilege. It says that a member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee thereof. The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament. If the Speaker/Chair gives consent under Rule 222, the member concerned is given an opportunity to make a short statement.

Option c is correct. In the Rajya Sabha, the deputy chairperson heads the committee of privileges, that consists of 10 members.

Option d is incorrect. In the Lok Sabha, the privilege committee consists of 15 members. In the Rajya Sabha, the privilege committee consists of 10 members.

QUESTION: 38

In which among the following geographical regions you are least likely to encounter upon both mangroves and coral reefs?

Solution: Mangroves in India are found all along the west coast, along with Palk Bay and Gulf of Mannar. Sundarbans has the largest area under mangroves in India.

Coral reefs are found on all the three locations except Sundarbans. Sundarbans is not suitable for coral reefs due to heavy incoming sediment load, which make the environment hostile for corals.

QUESTION: 39

Which of the following was/were the Mahajanapadas in Ancient India?

1. Matsya

2. Chedi

3. Lichchhavi

4. Sakya

Select the correct alternative using the code given below

Solution: The Mahajanapada period is between 600BC to 325 BC. There was a total of 16 Mahajanapada. Matsya mahajanapada was in today's Rajasthan state in areas around Alwar, Jaipur and Bharatpur. Its capital was

Viratnagar. Chedi mahajanapada was in today's Bundelkhand area and its capital was at Shaktimati. Licchavi was an ancient kingdom which existed in Kathmandu, Nepal. The Sakyas were a clan in ancient India. They had their independent republican state Sakya Ganrajya. Its capital was at Kapilavastu. Gautam Buddha belongs to the Sakya clan. He is called Sakhya Muni “Sage of the Sakyas”.

QUESTION: 40

Which of the following programmes is aimed at enhancing carbon stocks in forests while contributing to national sustainable development?

Solution: The UN-REDD Programme is the United Nations Collaborative Programme on Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and forest Degradation (REDD+) in developing countries. It is aimed at reducing forest emissions and enhancing carbon stocks in forests while contributing to national sustainable development. Support to partner countries is delivered through

(i) Direct support to the design and implementation of National REDD+ Programmes;

(ii) Complementary tailored support to national REDD+ actions;

(ii)iTechnical capacity building support through sharing of expertise, common approaches, analyses, methodologies, tools, data, best practices and facilitated South-South knowledge sharing.

QUESTION: 41

The rule of Firoz Shah Tughlaq is associated with

1. Diwan-i-Khiarat was established for the welfare of widows and orphans.

2. White Marble was for the first time used in architecture.

3. The iqta system was made hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution: Statement 1 is correct: Firuz Shah Tughlaq ruled over Delhi Sultanate from 1351-1388. He built canals, rest houses and hospitals, reservoirs and wells of water. He founded a number of cities like Jaunpur, Hisar,Firozpur etc. He set up a new department Diwan-i-khairat in which he provided money for the marriage of poor girls. To encourage agriculture and irrigation he imposed Hasil-i-Sharb or water tax. During his tenure Jizya became a separate tax. He did not even exempt Brahmanas. He established a hospital in Delhi called Dar-ul-Shifa.

Statement 2 is incorrect: White Marble was used for the first time in India by Mughals. White marble was used first time in Tomb of Itmad ud daula

Statement 3 is correct: After his accession Firuz Shah appeased the nobility, army and theologians. He did this because he was facing the problem of the immediate breakup of the Sultanate. He ordered that whenever a noble died his son should succeed his position and his Iqta and in case he dies without son then son in law should succeed. He even extended the principle of hereditary to the Army.

QUESTION: 42

With reference to the Inter State Council, which of the following statements is not correct?

Solution:

Option a is correct. Inter State Council is a constitutional body constituted in 1993. The purpose of this council is to resolve inter-state disputes, Centre- State disputes. Similarly, Article 131 provides the Supreme court the authority to settle state- state disputes and Centre- States disputes. Hence, Inter State council’s function is complementary to the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 131.

Option b is correct. Article 263 provides for the establishment of the Inter State Council. It provides the constitution of the Inter State council on Presidential Order. Further, it was constituted on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission.

Option c is incorrect. Inter State Council can discuss any subjects of disputes between Centre and State and State- State disputes, even Inter- State Water disputes. The council can only discuss, investigate and advise on any particular disputes. The council is not a quasi- judicial body, it has no authority of providing judgements.

Option d is correct. The secretarial functions of the Zonal Councils (established under State Reorganisation Act 1956) are performed by the Inter-State Council Secretariat.

 

QUESTION: 43

The term ‘Seabed 2030’ sometimes seen in the news is

Solution: Seabed 2030 is a collaborative project between GEBCO and the Nippon Foundation with the aim to facilitate the complete mapping of the global ocean floor by the year 2030. Goal of the project is to produce a definitive, high-resolution bathymetric map of the entire World Ocean. This ambitious initiative is driven by a strong motivation to empower the world to make policy decisions, use the ocean sustainably and undertake scientific research based on detailed bathymetric information of the Earth’s seabed.

QUESTION: 44

Consider the following statements regarding Constitution of India:

1. It shall be the duty of Cabinet Ministers to enforce the collective responsibility of Council of Ministers to the lower house of Parliament.

2. The term Cabinet has been defined in the Constitution under Article 352.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 75 of the Constitution mentions collective responsibility of Council of Ministers to the legislatures of the house. Collective responsibility is the fundamental principle of parliamentary democracy. Hence, the Constitution nowhere mentions that it is the duty of Cabinet Ministers to enforce collective responsibility rather it is the duty of every minister of the Council of Ministers.

Statement 2 is correct. Article 352 (3) defines the Cabinet Ministers. It defines that the Cabinet consists of the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank under Article 75.

QUESTION: 45

Convalescent plasma therapy, recently seen in the news, is possible treatment of

Solution: Convalescent plasma has been listed as a therapeutic method by China’s National Health Commission. In the absence of any preventive vaccine or specific antivirals for treating COVID-19 patients infected with the novel coronavirus SARS-CoV-2, a pharmaceutical company in China has turned to plasma taken from people who have recovered from the infection to treat critically ill patients. People who have recovered from COVID-19 disease would have antibodies against the virus. Infusing the antibodies to critically ill patients is expected to improve the chances of survival. The plasma that is transfused contains the antibodies

QUESTION: 46

Who of the following was associated with the Berlin Committee formed in 1914?

Solution: The Berlin committee was established in 1914. Its motive was Independence of India.

Its founders were Virendranath Chatterjee, Bhupendranath Dutta and Lala Hardayal. These revolutionaries mobilised Indian settlers abroad and sent volunteers and anns to India. This was mainly aimed to mobilise a Indian troops and organise an armed invasion of British India to Liberate the country.

QUESTION: 47

Who among the following built the “Hazara Rama Temple”, took the title of “Abhinava Bhoja” and wrote Sanskrit Drama “Jambvati Kalyanam”?

Solution: Krishna Deva Raya ruled from 1509-1529 AD. He was the third ruler of the Tuluva dynasty. He got the title of “Kanada Rajya Rama Ramana", “Andhra Bhoja'' and “Mooru Rayara Ganda”. Portugese traveller Domingo Paes and Nuniz visited Vijayanagara during his reign. He won Odisha and Vijayanagar emerged strongest during his reign. He built Vijay Mahal and Vithal Swami Temple. His patronised Ashtadiggajas, the eight celebrated poets of Telugu. He was contemporary of Babur.

QUESTION: 48

Consider the following regarding Quit India Movement

1. Vidyut Vahini was the armed wing of the Jatiya Sarkar in Bengal.

2. The Karnataka Method emerged as the novel form of peasant protest.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is correct: The Jatiya Sarkar was a parallel government established in West Bengal. It established Police stations, Courts and a system of revenue collection. It organised an armed Vidyut Vahini commanded by Sushil Kumar Dhara.

Statement 2 is correct: Karnataka method was a system in which many citizens became part time peasants. Working in farms in the daytime and carrying out sabotage operations at night. In the Quit India Movement many smaller factions within the movement evolved developing different methods of resistance. Some held onto Gandhi’s method, others changed to a violent means. The Karnataka method was one such method.

QUESTION: 49

Which of the following statements regarding ‘Global Wildlife Programme (GWP)’ is/are correct?

1. It is funded by the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and led by the World Bank.

2. It will promote community-based natural resource management and tourism development.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. The Global Wildlife Programme (GWP) is a World Bank-led, GEF-funded global partnership that promotes wildlife conservation and sustainable development by combating illicit trafficking in wildlife. GWP’s priority and immediate focus are combating wildlife poaching, trafficking and demand. It seeks to reduce both the supply and demand that drives the illegal wildlife trade and protect species and habitats through integrated landscape planning.

Statement 2 is correct. Through its global and country projects, the GWP will: Promote community-based natural resource management and tourism development; Promote landscape-level management and human-wildlife conflict mitigation tools; Increase law enforcement efforts in-country through improved legislation, judiciary and prosecution etc.

QUESTION: 50

The prestigious ‘Order of the rule of Izzudeen’, recently seen in the news, is

Solution: “Order of the Rule of Izzuddeen” is the highest civilian honor of the Maldives. It was conferred to Prime Minister Modi. The 2019 visit by the PM is the first bilateral visit by Indian PM in 8 years. India needs to have good relations with Maldives as China views it as key to its Maritime Silk Road project in Indian Ocean Region. To keep a check on China's activity India must have good relations with Maldives

QUESTION: 51

With reference to Wavell Plan, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Wavell plan envisaged a federal structure for India.

2. The plan was accepted by the Congress but not by Muslim league

3. Equal representation was proposed for Caste Hindus and Muslims in the new council.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect: The motive behind Wavell Plan was to reconstruct the Executive Council of the Governor General. It does not mention anything about federal structure.

Statement 2 is correct: The Plan was objected to by the Congress as an attempt to reduce the Congress to a status of Hindu Caste party and it insisted on its right to include members of all communities among its members.

Statement 3 is correct: The Wavell planned equal representation for Both the communities.

QUESTION: 52

With reference to Pangolins, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

Solution: Option a is incorrect. The Asian species of pangolin are Sunda Pangolin, Philippine Pangolin, Chinese Pangolin and Indian Pangolin. Chinese pangolin and Sunda pangolin are Critically Endangered whereas Indian pangolin and Philippine pangolin are Endangered.

Option b is correct. According to a report released by TRAFFIC, Pangolin is the most trafficked mammal in the world.

Option c is correct. They have large, protective keratin scales covering their skin and they are the only known mammals with this feature.

Option d is correct. Chinese pangolin is mostly found in northeast India and Indian pangolin is found in the rest of India.

QUESTION: 53

Global Alliance for Vaccine and Immunization is

Solution: Global Alliance for Vaccine and Immunisation (shortened as Gavi), is a public- private partnership committed to increase access to immunisation in poor countries. Gavi promotes research and innovation but it is not research conducting alliances.

QUESTION: 54

Which of the following is a shadow puppet theatre tradition of Andhra Pradesh, which literally means “dance of leather puppets”?

Solution: Tholu Bommalata is a shadow puppet theatre tradition in Andhra Pradesh. The performers are group of wandering entertainers who pass through the villages and offer to sing ballads, charm snakes and perform acrobatics. The musical instrument consists of harmonium, keyboard and drum. The puppets are large in size and have jointed waist, shoulders, elbows and knees. The theme of the puppet plays are inspired by Ramayana, Mahabharata and Puranas.

Puppet from Tamil Nadu known as Bommalattam combine techniques of rods and string puppets. They are made of wood and strings are tied to an iron ring which is worn by the puppeteer Togalu Gombeyatta is the Shadow theatre of Karnataka.

Putul Nautch is the traditional rod puppet of Bengal.

QUESTION: 55

With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are feature/features of Bhakti Movement?

1. Discarding rituals and sacrifices

2. Acceptance of God as Nirguna (formless) only

3. Denouncement of Casteism

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Statement 1 is correct: Bhakti refers to passionate devotion to a deity. The Bhakti movement originated in South India in the 8th century and moved northwards. Bhakti movement preached using local language so that it can reach the masses. It began with an aim of reforming Hinduism.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bhakti movement saw two ways of imagining the divine Power. It can be either Nirguna (formless) and Saguna (with physical attributes).

Statement 3 is correct: The Bhakti movement raised their voice against immoral activities like infanticide, sati and casteism. The method of god worships also changed. More importance was now given to devotion and love for god rather than rituals and customs.

QUESTION: 56

Which of the following statements is incorrectly stated?

Solution: TRAFFIC is the leading non-governmental organisation working globally on the trade of wild animals and plants. It was founded in 1976 as a strategic alliance of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species on Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) on the other hand is an intergovernmental organisation to protect endangered plants and animals. The species listed under Appendix I of CITES enjoy the highest degree of protection as there is a complete international ban enforced on their trade. The upgradation of the protection of star tortoises to Appendix 1 of CITES was approved at the Conference of the Parties (COP18) held at Geneva.

QUESTION: 57

With respect to the balance of trade with its trade partners, India enjoys trade surplus with which of the following countries?

1. United States of America

2. United Arab Emirates

3.Malaysia

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: The U.S. goods trade deficit with India was $20.8 billion in 2018, a 9.0% decrease ($2.1 billion) over 2017. The United States has a services trade deficit of an estimated $4.4 billion with India in 2018, down 3.7% from 2017.

India’s trade with UAE:

Exports: 30.29 billion dollars, Imports: 19.45 billion-dollar, Trade Surplus: 10.84 billion dollar

India’s trade With Malaysia:

Exports: 3.71 billion-dollar Imports: 9.08-billion-dollar Trade Deficit: 5.30 billion dollar.

QUESTION: 58

The term ‘Coradia iLint’ sometimes seen in the news is

Solution: Germany has recently rolled out the world’s first hydrogen-powered train, called Coradia iLint trains, built by French TGV-maker Alstom, signalling the start of a push to challenge the might of polluting diesel trains with costlier but eco-friendly technology.

The Hydrogen trains are equipped with fuel cells that produce electricity through a combination of hydrogen and oxygen, a process that leaves steam and water as the only emissions. Excess energy is stored in ion lithium batteries on board the train. The Coradia iLint trains can run for around 1,000 km on a single tank of hydrogen, similar to the range of diesel trains.

QUESTION: 59

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

Solution: Option a is incorrect. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act has divided provisions into two: Mandatory Provisions and Voluntary provisions which state legislatures have to implement. Providing reservations for women at all the three levels is under Mandatory provisions and reservation for OBCs is kept under Voluntary provisions.

Option b is incorrect. Parliament cannot grant any reservation to any category at the level of Panchayats. Option c is correct. Article 243 J empowers state legislatures to enact law to ensure auditing of accounts of local bodies.

Option d is incorrect. An elected member at the level of panchayats stands disqualified under any law made by state legislatures or can stand disqualified if he/ she has nor attained the age of 21 years.

QUESTION: 60

Consider the following statements:

1. Supplementary Grant is granted when a need arises during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not mentioned in the Budget.

2. Excess Grant is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through appropriation act for a particular service is found to be insufficient for the year.

3. Additional Grant is granted when more money has been spent on any service in addition to the amount granted for that service in the budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. Supplementary Grant is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Additional Grant is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon new service not contemplated in the budget.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Excess Grant is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year.

QUESTION: 61

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Law Commission of India?

Solution: Option a is incorrect. The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Government from time to time. The Commission was originally constituted in 1955 and is reconstituted every three years. Hence, it is not a permanent body.

Option b is incorrect. The members are appointed by the Central Government without any consultation from the chairperson of the Commission.

Option c is incorrect. Since, the commission is constituted through executive resolutions, the commission has to be accountable only to Executives.

Option d is correct. It has no set functions and compositions. This all depends on the will of the Government. The Law Commission, on a reference made to it by the Central Government or suo-motu, undertakes research in law and review of existing laws in India for making reforms therein and enacting new legislations.

KB: The functions of the law commission includes:

(i) Review/Repeal of obsolete laws: Identification of laws which are no longer relevant and recommending the repeal of obsolete and unnecessary enactments.

(ii) Law and Poverty: Examines the Laws which affect the poor and carries out post-audit for socio-economic legislations.

(iii) Suggesting enactment of new legislation as may be necessary to implement the Directive Principles and to attain the objectives set out in the Preamble of the Constitution.

(iv) Judicial Administration: Considering and conveying to the Government its views on any subject relating to law and judicial administration that may be specifically referred to it by the Government through the Ministry of Law and Justice (Department of Legal Affairs).

(v) Research: Considering the requests for providing research to any foreign countries as may be referred to by the Government through the Ministry of Law & Justice (Department of Legal Affairs).

(vi) Examine the existing laws with a view of promoting gender equality and suggesting amendments thereto.

(vii) Examine the impact of globalization on food security, unemployment and recommend measures for the protection of the interests of the marginalized.

(viii) Preparing and submitting to the Central Government, from time to time, reports on all issues, matters, studies and research undertaken by it and recommending in such reports for effective measures to be taken by the Union or any State.

Performing such other functions as may be assigned to it by the Central Government from time to time.

QUESTION: 62

Consider the following statements:

1. DIKSHA serves as national digital infrastructure for students across India.

2. National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) accommodates the diversity of the Indian education and training systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect: DIKSHA means Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing which is the National Teacher Platform, an initiative of the MHRD. Institutional User means and includes MHRD, any state council for educational research and training (SCERT), any state education department, Government department, statutory body, Government affiliated body, autonomous authority set up by the Government, boards/councils of education set up by the Government, or other such institutions or organisations who are authorised to operate as a tenant on the DIKSHA infrastructure.

Statement 2 is correct: The objectives of the NSQF are to provide a framework that:

(i) Accommodates the diversity of the Indian education and training systems.

(ii) Allows the development of a set of qualifications for each level, based on outcomes which are accepted across the nation.

(iii) Provides structure for development and maintenance of progression pathways which provide access to qualifications and assist people to move easily and readily between different education and training sectors and between those sectors and the labour market.

(iv) Gives individuals an option to progress through education and training and gain recognition for their prior learning and experiences.

(v) Gives individuals an option to progress through education and training and gain recognition for their prior learning and experiences.

Supports and enhances the national and international mobility of persons with NSQF-compliant qualifications through increased recognition of the value and comparability of Indian qualifications.

QUESTION: 63

Which of the following best describes the phenomena of Gravitational Lensing?

Solution: Gravitational lensing is a phenomenon wherein a huge amount of matter, such as a massive galaxy or cluster of galaxies, creates a gravitational field that distorts and magnifies the light from objects behind it, but in the same line of sight. In effect, these are natural, cosmic telescopes and are called gravitational lenses. These large celestial objects will magnify the light from distant galaxies that are at or near the peak of star formation. The effect allows researchers to study the details of early galaxies too far away to be seen otherwise with even the most powerful space telescopes.

QUESTION: 64

Which of the following countries are the members of the sub-regional/regional groupings - Arctic Council ?

1. Norway

2. Italy

3. Finland

4. Sweden

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Members of Arctic Council are Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden, and the United States

Members of Schengen Zone are: 26 Countries: Austria, Belgium, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, and Switzerland.

 

QUESTION: 65

The term ‘Pillar 3 disclosure’, recently seen in the news is associated with

Solution: Option a is incorrect: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued a Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework to maintain sound financial health of banks. It facilitates banks in breach of risk thresholds for identified areas of monitoring, viz., capital, asset quality (which is tracked in terms of the net Non­Performing Assets ratio) and profitability, to take corrective measures in a timely manner, in order to restore their financial health.

Option b is incorrect: 'Project Sashakt', a five-prong strategy to deal with non-performing assets. Sashakt aims to strengthen the credit capacity, credit culture and credit portfolio of public sector banks.

Option c is correct: The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision has updated Pillar 3 disclosure requirements. These requirements, together with the updates published in January 2015 and March 2017, complete the Pillar 3 framework. Pillar 3 of the Basel framework seeks to promote market discipline through regulatory disclosure requirements. The revised Pillar 3 framework reflects the Committee's December 2017 Basel III post-crisis regulatory reforms and pertains to the following areas: First, credit risk, operational risk, the leverage ratio and credit valuation adjustment (CVA) risk. Second, risk-weighted assets (RWAs) as calculated by the bank's internal models and according to the standardised approaches, and third, an overview of risk management, RWAs and key prudential metrics.

Option d is incorrect: Government announced Indradhanush plan for revamping Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in August 2015. The plan envisaged, inter alia, infusion of capital in PSBs by the Government to the tune of Rs. 70,000 crores over a period of four financial years. Government has recently announced decision to further recapitalise PSBs to the tune of Rs. 2,11,000 crores, through recapitalisation bonds of Rs. 1,35,000 crore and budgetary provision of Rs. 18,139 crores (the residual amount under Indradhanush plan) over two financial years, and the balance through capital raising by banks from the market. Government has so far infused capital of Rs. 59,435 crores in PSBs under Indradhanush.

QUESTION: 66

Consider the following statements regarding Polar Vortex:

1. It is a low-pressure area surrounding both the poles of the Earth.

2. Global warming is resulting in ‘strengthening’ of the vortex.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. A polar vortex is an upper-level low-pressure area overlying both the North and South Poles. Each polar vortex is a persistent, large-scale, low-pressure zone less than 1,000 kilometres (620 miles) in diameter, that rotates counterclockwise at the North Pole and clockwise at the South Pole (called a cyclone in both cases), i.e., both polar vortices rotate eastward around the poles. Like cyclones, their rotation is driven by the Coriolis effect. The bases of the two polar vortices are located in the middle and upper troposphere and extend into the stratosphere.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The vortex is strongest when the poles are very cold and there is an intense upper air low pressure. However, due to Global Warming, poles are becoming warmer, especially Arctic. As a result, the vortex is weakening (not strengthening).

When weak, the vortex breaks into two or more vortices, the flow of Arctic air becomes more disorganized, and masses of cold Arctic air can push equator ward, bringing with them a rapid and sharp temperature drop.

 

QUESTION: 67

With reference to Indian Ocean Commission, consider the following statements:

1. It is an intergovernmental organisation institutionalised by the Victoria Agreement.

2. India is one of the member states of the commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Ocean Commission is an intergovernmental organization that was created in 1982 at Port Louis, Mauritius and institutionalized in 1984 by the Victoria Agreement in Seychelles.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Recently, India has been accepted as an observer. The COI is composed of five African Indian Ocean nations: Comoros, Madagascar, Mauritius, Reunion (an overseas region of France), and Seychelles. These five islands share geographic proximity, historical and demographic relationships, natural resources and common development issues.

KB: Objectives of Indian Ocean Commission are:

(i) COI’s principal mission is to strengthen the ties of friendship between the countries and to be a platform of solidarity for the entire population of the African Indian Ocean region.

(ii) COI’s mission also includes development, through projects related to sustainability for the region, aimed at protecting the region, improving the living conditions of the populations and preserving the various natural resources that the countries depend on.

Being an organisation regrouping only island states, the COI has usually championed the cause of small island states in regional and international fora.

QUESTION: 68

Which of the following was not an outcome of Gandhi-Irwin Pact?

Solution: On 25th March 1931, Gandhi and all other members of the Congress Working Committee (CWC) were released unconditionally. Later on, the CWC authorised Gandhi to initiate discussion with the Viceroy. Consequently, a pact was signed between Viceroy and Gandhi which came to be known as Gandhi Irwin Pact. It placed Congress on parity with the government.

Two demands were turn down by the Viceroy. The first is public inquiry into police excesses and second, the commutation of Bhagat Singh and comrades from death to life sentence. Gandhi, on behalf of the Congress agreed to suspend CDM and to participate in the next Round Table Conference. Irwin on behalf of government agreed for remission of all fines which were not yet collected, return all lands not yet sold to third parties and right to make salt in coastal villages for personal consumption (not for sale)

QUESTION: 69

This national park is characterized by wet climate and the presence of stunted tropical montane forests. Three important rivers, the Tunga, the Bhadra, and the Nethravathi are said to have their origin here. It hosts diverse animal species like malabar civets, wild dogs, sloth bears and spotted deer. Its ecology is mainly threatened due to iron ore mining in the region.

Which one of the following national parks is described in the above paragraph?

Solution: The Kudremukh National Park in the Western Ghats is a part of the world’s 38 hottest hotspots of biological diversity, a UNESCO world heritage site. It's more than 630 sq km area of stunted tropical montane forests. The park is home to unique, threatened and endangered biodiversity including lion-tailed macaques, tigers, Malabar civets, great pied hornbills, wild dogs, sloth bears and spotted deer. The rivers Tunga, Bhadra and Netravati originate from the heart of the park, sustaining millions of rural people in south India. Iron ore mining by Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Limited (KIOCL) has led to the destruction of Kudremukh’s forests, wildlife and caused massive siltation of the rivers and reservoirs.

QUESTION: 70

Insolation received at a place varies due to which among the following factors?

1. The rotation of earth on its axis.

2. The angle of inclination of the sun’s rays.

3. Aspect of Land.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: The factors that cause variations in insolation are : (i) the rotation of earth on its axis; (ii) the angle of inclination of the sun’s rays; (iii) the length of the day; (iv) the transparency of the atmosphere; (v) the configuration of land in terms of its aspect.

Statement 1 is correct. The rotation of earth on its axis, causes day and night i.e diurnal variation in insolation received from the Sun. This, combined with the tilt in Axis of rotation of the Earth, causes seasonal variations in the length of Day and Night too.

Statement 2 is correct. The second factor that determines the amount of insolation received is the angle of inclination of the rays. This depends on the latitude of a place. The higher the latitude the less is the angle they make with the surface of the earth resulting in slant sun rays. The area covered by vertical rays is always less than the slant rays. If more area is covered, the energy gets distributed and the net energy received per unit area decreases. Moreover, the slant rays are required to pass through greater depth of the atmosphere resulting in more absorption, scattering and diffusion.

Statement 3 is correct. Aspect refers to the direction that the slope faces. A north facing slope in the northern hemisphere will receive less insolation than a south facing slope, as it is tilted away from the Sun.

QUESTION: 71

With reference to India’s Space programme, which of the following is/are correct?

1. HysIS is a hyperspectral earth observation satellite.

2. Vyom Mitra is the first planned Space Station of India.

3. NISAR is the joint earth observation project of NASA and ISRO.

4.Project NETRA is a spectrograph to find exo­planets.

5. New Space India Limited is a commercial arm of ISRO.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. HysIS (Hyperspectral Imaging Satellite) is an Earth observation satellite which will provide hyperspectral imaging services to India for a range of applications in agriculture, forestry and in the assessment of geography such as coastal zones and inland waterways. It was placed into polar sun synchronous orbit and has mission lifespan of 5 years

Hyperspectral images provide much more detailed information about the scene by dividing the spectrum into many more bands than a normal colour camera, which only acquires three different spectral channels corresponding to the visual primary colours red, green and blue.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Vyommitra is a female spacefaring humanoid robot being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation to function on-board the Gaganyaan, a crewed orbital spacecraft. Statement 3 is correct. ISRO and NASA are jointly working on the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) mission to co-develop and launch a dual frequency synthetic aperture radar satellite. The satellite will be the first radar imaging satellite to use dual frequencies.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Project NETRA (Network for space object Tracking and Analysis) is an early warning system of ISRO in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.

It includes a network of observational facilities like connected radars, telescopes, data processing units and a control centre. The system can spot, track and catalogue objects as small as 10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km and equal to a space orbit of around 2,000 km.

Statement 5 is correct. New Space India Limited is the second commercial arm of ISRO, headquartered at Bengaluru. It was incorporated for commercially utilising research and development activities carried out by ISRO.

QUESTION: 72

Consider the following statements:

1. Western Disturbances are called ‘Mawath’ in Rajasthan.

2. Most of India receives rainfall from the Bay of Bengal branch of the South-West Monsoon.

3. Konkan coast receives rainfall mainly from retreating monsoon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. Mawath refers to the winter rainfall in Rajasthan, caused by Western Disturbances during the months of December and January. These rains are very beneficial for the Rabi crops like wheat and mustard.

Statement 2 is correct. While the Arabian Sea Branch is more powerful than the Bay of Bengal Branch, it is the latter which provides rain to large parts of India, including Gangatic plains, North-East India, Odisha plains and Central India.

Arabian Sea branch gives copious rainfall on Western Coast, some parts of central India along Narmada and Tapi valley, parts of Gujarat. However, it gives almost no rainfall in Rajasthan as Aravallis are parallel to the branch.

Rajasthan, hence receives some amount of rainfall only from the Bay of Bengal Branch during the monsoon season.

The two branches meet and combine near Delhi to give rainfall over the rest of Northern India.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Konkan coast extends throughout the western coasts of Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka.It is bounded by the Western Ghats mountain range (also known as Sahyadri) in the east, the Arabian Sea in the west. It receives rainfall mainly from the South-west monsoon.

It is the Coromandel coast which receives rainfall from the North-East or the retreating monsoon.

QUESTION: 73

The term ‘Goldschmidtite’ sometimes seen in the news, is the name of

Solution: Goldschmidtite is a new mineral that has been discovered inside a diamond unearthed from a mine in South Africa. It has high concentrations of niobium, potassium and the rare earth elements lanthanum and cerium. The mineral has been named after the Norwegian scientist Victor Moritz Goldschmidt, who is considered as the founder of Modem Geochemistry.

QUESTION: 74

With reference to ‘EChO network’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative jointly launched by Government of India and World Wildlife Fund.

2. It would develop a national network to catalyse a new generation of Indians who can synthesize interdisciplinary concepts.

3. It establishes a new platform to change how science is embedded in our modern society.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. EChO Network is a joint initiative of the Government of India, academia and industry.

Statement 2 is correct. EChO Network would develop a national network to catalyse a new generation of Indians who can synthesize interdisciplinary concepts and tackle real-world problems in medicine, agriculture, ecology, and technology.

Statement 3 is correct. With no precedent for such a network anywhere in the world, EChO Network establishes a new platform to change how science is embedded in our modern society. Through interactive sessions with citizens, industry, academia, and the government, the Network will identify gaps in knowledge regarding selected topics in human and environmental ecosystems.

QUESTION: 75

Which of the following schools of art created Buddhist images with more prominent physical attributes?

Solution: Gandhara school of art is influenced from realism of Roman and Greek art. This school contributed to development of Buddha image characterised by Hellenistic features like Wavy hair in top knot, often a moustache, garment with thick pleats usually covering both the shoulders, plain halo behind the head and muscular body. The expression on the face of Buddha is of calmness. In Gandhara school, the realism is combined with local traditions of India which give a realistic look.

In Mathura school more stress is given to inner beauty and facial emotion than bodily gesture. They were depicted as more human and less spiritual. The shoulders are broad, and the chest is swelled, the head is shaved, and the right arm is raised in Abhay Mudra.

The Amaravati school started the practise of depicting Buddha as divine being and receiving worship. The Andhra sculpture is generally known as the Amaravati school.

QUESTION: 76

With reference to an organization known as ‘Climate Action Network’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a network of NGOs working on climate change from around the world.

2. It is financed by the Global Environment Facility (GEF).

3. Its vision is to protect the atmosphere while allowing for sustainable development worldwide.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. The Climate Action Network (CAN) is a worldwide network of over 1300 Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs) in more than 120 countries, working to promote government and individual action to limit human-induced climate change to ecologically sustainable levels. CAN members work to achieve this goal through information exchange and the coordinated development of NGO strategy on international, regional, and national climate issues.

Statement 2 is incorrect. CAN finances itself through sponsoring, donations and financial backing from foundations. Its fundraising is based on their ethical fundraising strategy, which includes that they neither take money from foundations whose ethics do not align with theirs, nor accept money bound to conditions which would modify their work or representation.

Statement 3 is correct. CAN's vision is to protect the atmosphere while allowing for sustainable and equitable development worldwide. CAN members place a high priority on both a healthy environment and development that "meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs".

QUESTION: 77

Which one of the following countries does not open out to the Red Sea?

Solution: As seen in the map, Ethiopia is a landlocked country and does not open out to the Red Sea.

QUESTION: 78

If you are travelling India and you come across a region with prevalence of rosewood and mahogany trees, you are most likely in which of the following states?

Solution: Rosewood and mahogany trees are found in Tropical Evergreen and Semi Evergreen Forests. In the given options, these forests are found only in Meghalaya.

Uttarakhand mainly has montane forests, while Gujarat and Telangana have deciduous forests.

QUESTION: 79

With reference to the World Happiness Report, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution: Option a is correct. The World Happiness Report is released by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network of the United Nations.

Option b is correct. The rankings are based on polling (Gallup World Poll) which looks at six variables: GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom, generosity, and absence of corruption. Option c is incorrect. The World Happiness Report ranks 156 countries by how happy their citizens perceive themselves to be.

Option d is correct. Finland is ranked as the world’s happiest nation for the third consecutive year, including 2019 and 2020.

KB: Sustainable Development Solutions Network

(i) The SDSN, launched in 2012, mobilizes global scientific and technological expertise to promote practical problem solving for the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and the Paris Climate Agreement

(ii) It was established under the auspices of the United Nations Secretary-General.

(ii) The SDSN and the Bertelsmann Stiftung have been publishing the annual SDG Index & Dashboards Global Report since 2016.

QUESTION: 80

These hot and dry wind originate from the Sahara Desert and blow towards the Guinea coast of Africa. As a result, the warm and moist weather of the coast turns into pleasant dry weather with low relative humidity, thus bringing great relief to the people. They are also known as doctor winds in the Guinea coast area of Western Africa.

Which of the following winds is described in the above passage?

Solution: Harmattan are hot and dry winds that originate from the Sahara Desert and blow towards the Guinea coast of Africa.

Due to their journey over the Sahara Desert, these winds become extremely dry and as they pass over the Sahara Desert, they pick up more sand especially red sand and turn dusty.

As these winds arrive on the western coast of Africa, the weather, which is warm and moist before its arrival, turns into pleasant dry weather with low relative humidity, thus bringing great relief to the people. Due to this reason, they are also known as doctor winds in the Guinea coast area of Western Africa.

QUESTION: 81

With reference to Indian Economy, consider the following statements:

1. The current account deficit (CAD) as a percent of GDP has constantly increased over the last 5 year.

2. The service imports as a percent of GDP has constantly decreased in the last 5 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect: The current account deficit (CAD) as a percent of GDP in 2015-16 it was 1.1%, in 2016-17 it was 0.6%, in 2017-18 it was 1.8%, in 2018-19 it was 2.1%, and 2019-20H1 it was 1.5%

Statement 2 is incorrect: The service imports as a percent of GDP in 2015-16 it was 4.0%, 2016-17 it was 4.2%, 2017-18 it was 4.4%, 2018-19 it was 4.6% and 2019-20H1 it was 4.6%

QUESTION: 82

Consider the following statements:

1. Fast track courts are established through a legislation of Parliament.

2. Special courts can be set up through an executive order.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. Fast Track Courts (FTCs) are created through executive resolutions, no legal backing is needed. FTCs were to be established by the state governments in consultation with the respective High Courts. The judges for these FTCs were appointed on an adhoc basis. The judges were selected by the High Courts of the respective states. Fast track courts were the result of recommendations made by the 11th Finance Commission which advised the creation of 1,734 such courts to deal with the judicial backlog.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Special Courts are constituted through parliamentary legislation as provided under The Special Courts Act 1979. The objective is to expedite the justice delivery mechanism. Special courts, from time to time, have been constituted for purposes like economic offences, regulatory offences, law and order, social justice, and national security.

Setting up a special court may require new infrastructure and facilities, whereas a designated court merely adds additional responsibilities to an existing court. However, in practice even Special courts are being conducted through existing infrastructure.

Various legislation through which special court has been constituted are: the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, or the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985

QUESTION: 83

Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties is/are correct?

Solution: Fundamental Duties was added into Indian Constitution through 42nd Amendment under recommendation of Swaran Singh committee.

Option b is incorrect. The duty to vote still not comes under Fundamental duties. However, there has been suggestion to include some of the duties like duty to pay tax and duty to vote as a part of Fundamental Duties.

Option c is correct. Part IVA is Fundamental Duties. It has been amended only once through the 86th Constitutional Amendment. It added duty on the part of parents to send their children, aging between six years to fourteen years, to school.

QUESTION: 84

The working principle of a washing machine is ______: 

Solution:

The working principle of a washing machine is centrifugation. Centrifugation is a separation process which uses the action of centrifugal force to promote accelerated settling of particles in a solid-liquid mixture.

QUESTION: 85

Which among the following institution(s) has/have been constituted to achieve the objectives of Alternative Dispute Settlement?

1. Gram Nyayalaya

2. Fast Track courts

3. Lok Adalats

3. Gram Panchayat

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. Gram Nyayalaya has both civil and criminal jurisdiction. Gram Nyayalaya is also called as Mobile court constituted under Gram Nyayalaya Act 2008. However, Gram Nyayalaya also functions at a time as arbitrator, mediator and conciliator. Hence, it facilitates Alternate Dispute redressal mechanisms.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Fast Track Courts are constituted through Executive Resolutions, from time to time, to expedite the justice delivery process.

Statement 3 is correct. Lok Adalats are constituted under National Legal Services Authority Act 1987. Lok Adalats are constituted to promote alternative dispute redressal mechanisms. The purpose of this court is to bring down the burden of cases in subordinate, high and supreme court by delivering the justice through arbitration, mediation and conciliation.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Village Panchayats have no judicial power. Village Panchayats is a part of the legislative and executive body. Hence, cannot act as Alternate dispute resolution mechanism.

QUESTION: 86

Which of the following is/are component/components of a Repo Transaction?

1. Cash Reserve

2. Long-Term Borrowing

3. Hedging & Leveraging

4. Securities

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution: Component a is correct: Cash Reserve, Banks borrow money from RBI to maintain liquidity or cash reserve as a precautionary measure.

Component b is incorrect: Long-Term Borrowing is not a component of repo transactions. Short-Term Borrowing is a component of repo transactions. Short-Term Borrowing - RBI lends money for a short period of time, maximum being an overnight post which the banks buy back securities deposited at a predetermined price.

Component c is correct: Hedging & Leveraging, RBI aims to hedge and leverage by buying securities and bonds from the banks and provide cash to them in return for the collateral deposited.

Component d is correct: Securities, RBI accepts collateral in the form of gold, bonds etc.

QUESTION: 87

With regard to the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) and Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER), which of the following statements is correct?

Solution: Option a is incorrect: The NEER may be adjusted to compensate for the inflation rate of the home country relative to the inflation rate of its trading partners. The resulting figure is the real effective exchange rate (REER). Unlike the relationships in a nominal exchange rate, NEER is not determined for each currency separately. Instead, one individual number, typically an index, expresses how a domestic currency’s value compares against multiple foreign currencies at once.

Option b is correct: NEER and REER has the basket of SDR currencies

Option c is incorrect: When the weight of inflation is adjusted with the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) we get the real effective exchange rate (REER) of the rupee.

Option d is incorrect: The Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) of the rupee is a weighted average of exchange rates before the currencies of India's major trading partners.

QUESTION: 88

Consider the following pairs.

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Solution: Pair 1 is correctly matched. Indonesia has provided India economic and military access to the strategic island of Sabang at the northern tip of Sumatra and close to the Malacca Strait.

Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Port of Doraleh is an extension of the Port of Djibouti, located 5 km west of Djibouti City. The multipurpose port has terminals for handling oil, bulk cargo, and containers. It was partially owned and operated by DP World and China Merchants Holdings, until its container facility was seized by the government of Djibouti in February 2018. There is a Chinese naval base under construction directly adjacent to the port

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Farkhor Air Base is a military air base located near the town of Farkhor in Tajikistan, 130 kilometres southeast of the capital Dushanbe. It is operated by the Indian Air Force in collaboration with the Tajik Air Force. Farkhor is India's first military base outside its territory.

QUESTION: 89

Who among the following upholds the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of Financial Administration?

Solution: Comptroller and Auditor General of India’s duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.

QUESTION: 90

With reference to Gaganyaan, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution: GSLV Mk III, the three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle, will be used to launch Gaganyaan.

Option b is correct. Gaganyaan Mission is expected to carry three people into space for five-seven days. It will make India the 4th country to send manned mission after Russia, USA and China.

Option c is correct. The spacecraft is expected to be placed in a low earth orbit of 300-400 km. Within 16 minutes of taking off, the crew will be in space, where they will remain for five-seven days.

Option d is correct. ISRO has signed a pact with the Russian firm Glavkosmos to select and train astronauts for the country’s Gaganyaan project.

QUESTION: 91

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding lapsing of bills on dissolution of Lok Sabha?

Solution:

The position with respect to lapsing of bills is as follows

i. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).

ii. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses. Option c is incorrect.

iii. A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse. Option b is correct.

iv. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse. Option d is correct.

v. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.

vi. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse. Option a is correct. 

 

QUESTION: 92

The drug ‘hydroxychloroquine’ has been used over years to treat

Solution: Hydroxychloroquine is a medication used to prevent and treat malaria.

Recently, some trials have found that the malaria drug hydroxychloroquine given to patients helps shorten the time to clinical recovery in corona virus cases.

QUESTION: 93

Which of the following statements is correct?

Solution: Option a is correct. Viruses have their genetic material encased in a layer of fat called the lipid envelope. Viruses are tiny and smaller in its size, ranging between 30-50nm. They contain either RNA or DNA as the genetic material.

Option b is correct. The alcohol present in hand sanitizers dissolves the lipid envelope, thus inactivating the virus. In order to be effective, sanitizers should contain at least 60% alcohol.

Option c is correct. Soap molecules are pin-shaped with a head that is water-loving and a tail that is oil- loving. Being oil-loving, the tail portion of the molecule tends to have an affinity for and ‘competes’ with lipids in the virus envelope. Thus, soap and water together dissolve the viral bond and breaks the interaction between the virus and the skin surface

QUESTION: 94

The problem of Liquidity Trap is related to

Solution:

Option a is correct: First described by economist John Maynard Keynes, during a liquidity trap, consumers choose to avoid bonds and keep their funds in cash savings because of the prevailing belief that interest rates could soon rise (which would push bond prices down). Because bonds have an inverse relationship to interest rates, many consumers do not want to hold an asset with a price that is expected to decline. At the same time, central bank efforts to spur economic activity are hampered as they are unable to lower interest rates further to incentivize investors and consumers.

Option b is correct: A liquidity trap is a contradictory economic situation in which interest rates are very low and savings rates are high, rendering monetary policy ineffective.

Option c is correct: Liquidity trap refers to a situation in which an increase in the money supply does not result in a fall in the interest rate but merely in an addition to idle balances: the interest elasticity of demand for money becomes infinite.

QUESTION: 95

With reference to Lithium-ion battery consider the following statements:

1. It has a higher energy density than lead-acid batteries.

2. It has zero self-discharge rate.

3. It can be used to power automobiles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. A lithium-ion battery is a type of rechargeable battery. It is lightweight and has high energy

density i.e. stores more energy per unit of weight when compared to other kinds of batteries, including from lead acid and Nickel-Cadmium batteries. It is able to store 150 watt-hours electricity per kg of battery. Statement 2 is incorrect. Li-ion batteries do self-discharge. However, they have low self-discharge rate of around 1.5-2% per month.

Statement 3 is correct. The most common battery type in modern electric cars are lithium-ion and Lithium polymer batteries, because of their high energy density compared to their weight. However, more research is being done for its use on a larger scale by reducing their cost and making them stable.

QUESTION: 96

Mithila paintings is characterised by

Solution: Mithila or Madhubani painting was created by women of different communities in Mithila region of Bihar.it is also practised in areas of Bihar. It is done with a variety of tools like twigs, brushes, fingers and uses natural dyes and pigments. It is characterised by its geometrical pattern. It has specific designs for particular occasion like birth, marriage, festivals like Holi, Durga Puja etc. The Central theme of the painting is Hindu God and Goddesses. Some of the main attribute of these paintings are double line border, bold use of colours, ornate floral patterns, abstract like figure of deities. Various styles of painting include Bharni, Tantrik, Katchni, Godna and Kohbar. Mithila paintings have been accorded GI tag.

QUESTION: 97

With reference to deposit insurance, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Solution: Option a is incorrect: Commercial Banks: All commercial banks including branches of foreign banks functioning in India, local area banks and regional rural banks are insured by the DICGC. Cooperative Banks : All State, Central and Primary cooperative banks, also called urban cooperative banks, functioning in States / Union Territories which have amended the local Cooperative Societies Act empowering the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to order the Registrar of Cooperative Societies of the State / Union Territory to wind up a cooperative bank or to supersede its committee of management and requiring the Registrar not to take any action regarding winding up, amalgamation or reconstruction of a co-operative bank without prior sanction in writing from the RBI are covered under the Deposit Insurance Scheme. At present all co­operative banks are covered by the DICGC. Primary cooperative societies are not insured by the DICGC. Option b is correct: Deposit insurance in India has been raised from Rs. 1 Lakh to Rs. 5 Lakhs (earlier it was 1 Lakh max limit). Each depositor in a bank is insured upto a maximum of 5,00,000 (Rupees Five Lakhs) for both principal and interest amount held by him in the same right and same capacity as on the date of liquidation/cancellation of bank's licence or the date on which the scheme of amalgamation/merger/reconstruction comes into force.

Option c is correct: The DICGC insures all deposits such as savings, fixed, current, recurring, etc.

Option d is correct: Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a wholly owned subsidiary of Reserve Bank of India. It was established on 15 July 1978 under the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961 for the purpose of providing insurance of deposits and guaranteeing of credit facilities.

QUESTION: 98

With regard to the Current Account Deficit (CAD), which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?

1. Devaluation of exchange rate

2. Protectionism

3. High consumer spending

4. Supply side policies to improve the competitiveness of domestic industry

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect: Overvalued exchange rate helps to reduce the Current Account Deficit (CAD). The country can also use monetary policy to improve the domestic currency’s valuation relative to other currencies through devaluation, which reduces the country’s export costs. Devaluation of exchange rate (make exports cheaper - imports more expensive)

Statement 2 is correct: The government could increase tariffs on imports or even impose quotas. Both these measures would have the impact of reducing imports and therefore improve the current account. Protectionism may lead to retaliation - with other countries placing tariffs on our exports - so exports could decrease. Protected by tariffs - domestic industries may become uncompetitive because there is less incentive to cut costs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: High consumer spending does not help to reduce the Current Account Deficit (CAD). Reduce domestic consumption and spending on imports (e.g. tight fiscal policy/higher taxes) helps reduce the Current Account Deficit (CAD).

Statement 4 is correct: Supply side policies can improve the competitiveness of the economy and help make exports more attractive. This can improve the current account position, but it may take considerable time to have an effect.

QUESTION: 99

Which of the following can be used to make second generation biofuel?

1. Rice husk

2. Algae

3. Jatropha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: Second generation biofuels are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic biofuels and waste biomass. Hence, biofuels made from Rice husk and Jatropha are second generation biofuels.

Biofuels made from algae, come under Third Generation biofuels.

QUESTION: 100

With reference to the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO), consider the following statements:

1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

2. It is responsible to control the prices of pharmaceutical drugs in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the national regulatory body for Indian pharmaceuticals and medical device. It functions under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act,1940. CDSCO comes under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.

Statement 2 is correct. The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority is a government regulatory agency that controls the prices of pharmaceutical drugs in India. CDSCO is not responsible for controlling drug prices.