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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 1

Consider the following statements about Seva Sadan:

  1. It was founded in 1887 at Lahore by Shiv Narayan Agnihotri.

  2. As a religious and social reform society, it emphasised on the eternity of the soul, the supremacy of the guru, and the need for good action.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 1
Seva Sadan was founded in 1908 by a Parsi social reformer, Behramji M. Malabari along with a friend, Diwan Dayaram Gidumal. Malabari spoke vigorously against child marriage and for widow remarriage among Hindus. It was his efforts that led to the Age of Consent Act regulating the age of consent for females, Seva Sadan specialised in taking care of those women who were exploited and then discarded by society.

It catered to all castes and provided the destitute women with education, and medical and welfare services. It was Dev Samaj (Dev Dharma) which was founded in 1887 at Lahore by Shiv Narayan Agnihotri. Dev Samaj is a religious and social reform society which emphasised on the eternity of the soul, the supremacy of the guru, and the need for good action. So, both statements are not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 2

Consider the following statements with reference to Tropical Evergreen Forests:

  1.  

    These are the most widespread forests in India, also called the monsoon forests.

  2.  

    It is well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and is covered with shrubs and creepers, with short structured trees followed by a tall variety of trees.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 2

Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread forests in India. They are also called the monsoon forests. They are spread over regions which receive rainfall between 70-200 cm. Based on the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous.

So, statement 1 is not correct. Tropical Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen Forests are found on the western slopes of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22 0C. Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers, with short structured trees followed by a tall variety of trees.

In these forests, trees reach great heights up to 60 m or above. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition. As such these forests appear green all the year-round. The species found in these forests include rosewood, mahogany, aini, ebony, etc. The semi-evergreen forests are found in the less rainy parts of these regions. Such forests have a mixture of evergreen and moist deciduous trees. The under growing climbers provide an evergreen character to these forests. Main species are white cedar, hollock and kail. So, statement 2 is correct

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 3

Consider the following statements with reference to the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis:

  1. It is a constitutional body and serves as a recommendatory body to the Central Government.

  2. It was initially constituted with validity up to 1997 but it was later extended indefinitely.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 3
The NCSK was constituted in 1994 as a statutory body under National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) Act, 1993. It was made and was valid up to 1997. But it was later extended indefinitely. In 2004, the Act lapsed and since then the NCSK acts as a non-statutory body of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It serves as a recommendatory body to the Central Government regarding specific programmes and policies for the elimination of inequalities in status, and opportunities for Safai Karamcharis. So, Statement (1) is not correct and (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 4

Indian National Association, also known as Indian Association, was founded by

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 4
The Indian Association of Calcutta (also known as the Indian National Association) superseded the Indian League and was founded in 1876 by younger nationalists of Bengal led by Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose, who were getting discontented with the conservative and pro- landlord policies of the British Indian Association.

The Indian Association was the most important of pre-Congress associations and aimed to “promote by every legitimate means the political, intellectual and material advancement of the people.”

It set out to—

(i) create a strong public opinion on political questions, and

(ii) unify Indian people in a common political programme. It protested against the reduction of the age limit in 1877 for candidates of the Indian Civil Service examination.

The Association demanded simultaneous holding of civil service examinations in England and India and Indianisation of higher administrative posts. It led a campaign against the Repressive Arms Act and the Vernacular Press Act.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 5

Consider the following statements in the context of the status of the Right to Property in India:

  1. It protects private property against legislative action but not against executive action.

  2. In case of violation, the aggrieved person can directly move the Supreme Court under Article 32.

  3. There is guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition of the private property by the State.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 5
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the heading ‘Right to Property’. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. Thus, the right to property remains a legal right or a constitutional right, though no longer a fundamental right.

The right to property as a legal right (as distinct from the Fundamental Rights) has the following implications:

a) It can be regulated i.e., curtailed, abridged or modified without a constitutional amendment by an ordinary law of the Parliament.

b) It protects private property against executive action but not against legislative action. So, statement 1 is not correct.

c) In case of violation, the aggrieved person cannot directly move the Supreme Court under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies including writs) for its enforcement. He can move the High Court under Article 226. So, statement 2 is not correct.

d) No guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition or requisition of the private property by the State. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 6

Consider the following statements with reference to Extraocular vision:

  1. Extraocular vision is the ability of night vision in certain land and marine species.

  2. The vision is facilitated by the photoreceptor cells found on the bodies of the species.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 6
Extra ocular vision is the ability to see without eyes which has been found in some marine species. Enrich Your Learning: Extraocular vision: Extra ocular vision is the ability to see without eyes and has been found in some marine species.
  • Researchers have found that a species of brittle stars, which are relatives of starfish can see, even though it does not have eyes.

  • The red brittle star (Ophiocoma wendtii), which lives in the coral reefs of the Caribbean Sea, becomes only the second creature, after a sea urchin species, known to have this ability.

What facilitates vision?

  • In sea urchins and brittle stars, researchers suspect that extra ocular vision is facilitated by the photoreceptor cells found on their bodies.

  • Another peculiar feature of the red brittle star is its signature colour change. While the creature is deep red during the day, it changes its colour to beige at night.

  • The researchers think that there may be a link between their extra ocular vision and colour changing abilities since the responses they saw in the creatures tested during the day, disappeared in those that were tested at night.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 7

Consider the following statements with reference to Infant mortality rate (IMR) in India:

  1. IMR is the number of deaths of children under 5 years of age per one thousand live births.

  2. In recent years, India’s IMR has increased.

  3. Children born to educated mothers are less prone to neonatal and post-neonatal death as compared to illiterate mothers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 7
  • Infant Mortality Rate is the number of deaths of children under 1 year of age per one thousand live births.

  • In recent years, India’s IMR has declined by 15.4%. Enrich Your Learning: Infant mortality rate (IMR):

  • Infant Mortality Rate or IMR is the number of deaths of children under 1 year of age per one thousand live births.

  • 99% of deaths of infants take place in developing nations.

  • Among these, 86% are caused due to premature births, infections, delivery complications, birth injuries and perinatal asphyxia.

  • The infant mortality rate (IMR) in India currently stands at 33 per 1,000 live births.

  • Between 2014 and 2017, India’s IMR has declined by 15.4%. Reasons:

  • The major causes of infant mortality are sudden infant death syndrome, malformations, accidents, maternal complications during the pregnancy and unintentional injuries and availability of basic medical resources.

  • Other factors include lack of education in the mother, malnutrition (more than half of Indian women are anaemic), age of the mother at the time of birth, spacing, and whether the child is born at home or in a facility. Statistics:

  • According to UNICEF, the infant and under- five mortality rates are highest among mothers under age 20.

  • The rates are lowest among children born to mothers between the ages of 20-24, remain low up to 25-34, and increase again after that age.

  • Children born to mothers with at least 8 years of schooling have lesser chances of dying in the neonatal period and post-neonatal period, as compared to the illiterate mothers.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 8

Consider the following statements with reference to Arms Trade Treaty (ATT):

  1. ATT is aimed at regulating the international trade in conventional arms.

  2. The treaty places restrictions on the types or quantities of arms that may be bought, sold, or possessed by states.

  3. India is a party to the Arms Trade treaty.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 8
  • ATT does not place restrictions on the types or quantities of arms that may be bought, sold, or possessed by states.

  • India has not signed the treaty. Enrich Your Learning: Arms Trade Treaty (ATT):

  • The Arms Trade Treaty was approved by vote at the 67th UN General Assembly in 2013, came into effect in 2014 and 104 countries have ratified it so far.

Objective:

  • The Treaty seeks to regulate the international trade in conventional arms (from small arms to battle tanks, combat aircraft and warships).

  • It is an attempt to regulate the international trade of conventional weapons for the purpose of contributing to international and regional peace; reducing human suffering; and promoting co- operation, transparency, and responsible action by and among states.

Conditions:

  • It requires member countries to keep records of international transfers of weapons and to prohibit cross-border shipments that can be used in human rights violations or attacks on civilians.

  • The treaty establishes common standards for the international trade of conventional weapons and seeks to reduce the illicit arms trade.

  • ATT does not place restrictions on the types or quantities of arms that may be bought, sold, or possessed by states.

  • Further, it does not impact a state’s domestic gun control laws or other firearm ownership policies.

Status Quo:

  • India has not signed the treaty.

  • The US has quit the treaty recently in April 2019.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 9

Consider the following amendments that can be undertaken only by Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States:

  1. Election of the President

  2. Supreme Court and high courts

  3. Citizenship—acquisition and termination

  4. Article 368

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 9
The constitutional amendment regarding Citizenship—acquisition and termination can be undertaken by a simple majority in the parliament.

Enrich Your Learning: Article 368 of the Indian constitution provides for two types of amendments:

  • by a special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states.

  • Special Majority: Majority of the provisions are needed to be amended by a special majority of the Parliament, which means- a majority (more than 50%) of the total membership of each House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of each House present and voting.

By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States:

  • The provisions of the Constitution related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

  • It does not matter if one or some or all the remaining states take no action on the bill, the moment half of the states give their consent, the amendment gets way ahead.

  • However, there is no time limit within which the states should give their consent to the bill.

The following provisions can be amended in this way:

  • Election of the President and its manner.

  • Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.

  • Supreme Court and high courts.

  • Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.

  • Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.

  • Representation of states in Parliament.

  • Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 10

Consider the following statements with reference to principles of parliamentary government in India:

  1. The advice tendered by the council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister is binding on the President.

  2. A non-member of the parliament cannot be appointed as a minister.

  3. The ministers take the oath of secrecy before entering their office, administered by the speaker of Lok Sabha.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 10
  • A non-member may be appointed as a minister, but he/she will have to get elected to either house within six months.

  • The ministers take the oath of secrecy before entering their office administered by the President. Enrich Your Learning: The features or principles of parliamentary government in India are:

1. Nominal and Real Executives:

  • The President is the nominal executive while the Prime Minister is the real executive.

  • The President is head of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the government.

  • Article 74 provides for a council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions.

  • The advice so tendered is binding on the President.

2. Majority Party Rule:

  • The party with majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government.

  • The leader of the party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President.

  • Other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the PM.

  • When no single party gets the majority, then the President invites a coalition of parties to form the government.

3. Collective Responsibility:

  • In general, the ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75).

  • The principle of collective responsibility means that Lok Sabha can remove the council of ministers headed by the PM from the office by passing a vote of no confidence.

4. Political Homogeneity:

  • The members of the council of ministers generally belong to the same political party, and hence share the same political ideology.

  • In the case of a coalition government, the ministers are bound by consensus.

5. Double Membership:

  • A person cannot be a minister without being a member of the Parliament i.e. the ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.

  • A minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months’ ceases to be a minister.

  • It means a non-member may be appointed as a minister, but he/she will have to get elected to either house within six months.

6. Leadership of the Prime Minister:

  • The PM is the leader of the council of ministers, leader of the Parliament and leader of the party in power.

7. Dissolution of the Lower House:

  • Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President on recommendation of the Prime Minister.

  • The executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary system.

8. Secrecy:

  • The ministers take the oath of secrecy before entering their office information, about their proceedings, policies and decisions, administered by the President.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding Rabindranath Tagore:

  1. He is also referred to as Biswakabi.

  2. He gave the title of Mahatma to Mahatma Gandhi.

  3. Ghare-Baire, Manasi and Sonar Tori and some of his literary works.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 11
Rabindranath Tagore was also referred to as ‘Gurudev’, ‘Kabiguru’, and ‘Biswakabi’.

Hence, statement 1 is correct. He is regarded as the outstanding creative artist of modern India and hailed by W.B Yeats, Rabindranath Tagore was a Bengali poet, novelist, and painter, who was highly influential in introducing Indian culture to the west. He was a good friend of Mahatma Gandhi and is said to have given him the title of Mahatma.

Hence, statement 2 is correct. He had always stressed that unity in diversity is the only possible way for India’s national integration. He had spoken at the World Parliament for Religions in the years 1929 and 1937.

Contributions: He is said to have composed over 2000 songs and his songs and music are called ‘Rabindra Sangeet’ with its own distinct lyrical and fluid style. He is responsible for modernising Bengali prose and poetry. His notable works include Gitanjali, Ghare-Baire, Gora, Manasi, Balaka, Sonar Tori, He is also remembered for his song ‘Ekla Chalo Re’.

Hence, statement 3 is correct. He published his first poems aged 16 under the pen name ‘Bhanusimha’. He not only gave the national anthems for two countries, India and Bangladesh, but also inspired a Ceylonese student of his, to pen and compose the national anthem of Sri Lanka.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 12

With reference to Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), consider the following statements:

  1. The Prime Minister of India launched CDRI during his speech at the COP-26

  2. It aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks in support of sustainable development.

  3. The CDRI Secretariat is based in New York.

Choose the correct option from the given code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 12
The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is a multi-stakeholder global partnership of national governments, UN (United Nations) agencies and programmes, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, and knowledge institutions. The Prime Minister of India launched CDRI during his speech at the UN Climate Action Summit on 23rd September 2019.

Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks in support of sustainable development. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The CDRI Secretariat is based in New Delhi, India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 13

Mauna Loa Atmospheric Baseline Observatory, recently seen in news is located in

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 13

Carbon dioxide measured at the Mauna Loa Atmospheric Baseline Observatory, Hawaii, run by the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), peaked for 2022 at 421 parts per million in May.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 14

Consider the following statements.

  1. State of Environment Report 2022 was released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

  2. In India most of the Rivers are polluted with heavy toxic metals such as lead, iron, nickel, cadmium, arsenic, chromium and copper.

  3. High coliform and biochemical oxygen demand is an indicator of poor wastewater treatment from industry, agriculture and domestic households.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 14

Three out of every four river monitoring stations in India posted alarming levels of heavy toxic metals such as lead, iron, nickel, cadmium, arsenic, chromium and copper. State of Environment Report 2022 from the environmental NGO, the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE). The report is an annual compendium of environment-development data and is derived from public sources.

India has 764 river quality monitoring stations across 28 states. Of these, the Central Water Commission tested water samples from 688 stations for heavy metals between August 2018 and December 2020. Of the 588 water quality stations monitored for pollution, total coliform and biochemical oxygen demand were high in 239 and 88 stations across 21 States - an indicator of poor wastewater treatment from industry, agriculture and domestic households.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 15

Consider the following statements.

  1. World’s first fishing cat census was done in Chilika Lake.

  2. Chilika Lake is Asia’s largest freshwater lagoon.

  3. Spatially explicit capture–recapture (SECR) method is used to estimate the density of an animal population from capture–recapture data collected using an array of 'detectors'.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 15

The Chilika Lake, Asia’s largest brackish water lagoon, has 176 fishing cats, according to a census conducted by Chilika Development Authority (CDA) in collaboration with The Fishing Cat Project (TFCP). This is the world’s first population estimation of the fishing cat, which has been conducted outside the protected area network.

A total of 150 camera traps were deployed in two phases with each fixed in the field for 30 days. Spatially Explicit Capture Recapture (SECR) method was used to analyse the data. Spatially explicit capture–recapture (SECR or SCR) is used to estimate the density of an animal population from capture–recapture data collected using an array of 'detectors'.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 16

Consider the following statements with reference to the peaty soils of India:

  1. These soils are low in humus and organic content

  2. They are generally found in areas that have high humidity and high precipitation

  3. It occurs widely in coastal areas of West Bengal, Odisha and Tamil Nadu

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 16
Peaty Soils are found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, where there is a good growth of vegetation. Thus, a large quantity of dead organic matter accumulates in these areas, and this gives rich humus and organic content to the soil. Organic matter in these soils may go even up to 40- 50 per cent.

So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct. These soils are normally heavy and black in colour. At many places, they are alkaline also. It occurs widely in the northern part of Bihar, the southern part of Uttarakhand and the coastal areas of West Bengal, Odisha and Tamil Nadu. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 17

Consider the following statements with reference to the Butler Committee:

  1. It was set up to examine the nature of the relationship between the princely states and the colonial government.

  2. It recommended that States should be handed over to an Indian Government in British India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 17
The Butler Committee (1927) was set up to examine the nature of the relationship between the princely states and the government. So, statement 1 is correct. The Butler Committee gave the following recommendations— 1. Paramountcy must remain supreme and must fulfil its obligations, adopting and defining itself according to the shifting necessities of time and progressive development of states. 2. States should not be handed over to an Indian Government in British India, responsible to an Indian legislature, without the consent of States. Thus, “paramountcy” was left undefined. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 18

With reference to the Cabinet Committees, consider the following statements:

  1. They are set up by the President according to the exigencies of time and requirement of the situation.

  2. Non-Cabinet Ministers are debarred from membership of such Committees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 18
Features of Cabinet Committees:
  • They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned in the Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment.

  • They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of time and requirements of the situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition vary from time to time. So, statement 1 is not correct.

  • They are of two types - Standing and Ad-hoc. The former is permanent while the latter is temporary. The Ad-hoc Committees are constituted from time to time to deal with special problems. They are disbanded after their task is completed.

  • Their membership varies from three to eight. They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-Cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership. They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other senior Ministers. So, statement 2 is not correct.

  • They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Sometimes other Cabinet Ministers, particularly the Home Minister or the Finance Minister, also act as their Chairman. But, in case the Prime Minister is a member of a Committee, he invariably presides over it. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR) is the proportion of the total deposits commercial banks keep as reserves.

  2. The Reserve Deposit Ratio (RDR) is the ratio of money held by the public in currency (CU) to that they hold in bank deposits (BD).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 19
The Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR) is the ratio of money held by the public in currency (CU) to that they hold bank deposits (BD).CDR = CU/BD. It reflects people’s preference for liquidity. It is a purely behavioural parameter which depends, among other things, on the seasonal pattern of expenditure. For example, CDR increases during the festive season as people convert deposits to cash balance for meeting extra expenditure during such periods. So, statement 1 is not correct.

The Reserve Deposit Ratio: Banks hold a part of the money people keep in their bank deposits as reserve money and loan out the rest to various investment projects. Reserve money consists of two things – vault cash in banks and deposits of commercial banks with RBI. Banks use this reserve to meet the demand for cash by account holders.

Reserve Deposit Ratio (RDR) is the proportion of the total deposits commercial banks keep as reserves. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding the Berlin Committee:

  1. It was established by Virendranath Chattopadhyay, Bhupendranath Dutta, Lala Hardayal in 1915.

  2. It aimed to mobilise the Indian settlers abroad to send volunteers and arms to India to incite rebellion among Indian troops.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 20
The Berlin Committee for Indian Independence was established in 1915 by Virendranath Chattopadhyay, Bhupendranath Dutta, Lala Hardayal and others with the help of the German foreign office under ‘Zimmerman Plan’. So statement 1 is correct. These revolutionaries aimed to mobilise the Indian settlers abroad to send volunteers and arms to India to incite rebellion among Indian troops there and to even organise an armed invasion of British India to liberate the country.

So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c. The Committee soon established contacts with Indian revolutionaries, including Bagha Jatin. They visited armament and explosives factories to identify war material and met with Indian prisoners- of-war held in Germany to recruit them to the nationalist cause. Lala Har Dayal, who had fled to Germany after his arrest in the United States, was convinced to lend his support to the Committee's cause. They established contacts with the Ghadarite Movement in the United States. The Indian revolutionaries in Europe sent missions to Baghdad, Persia, Turkey and Kabul to work among Indian troops and the Indian prisoners of war (POWs) and to incite anti-British feelings among the people of these countries. It created an Indo-German-Turkish mission to the Indo-Iranian border to encourage the tribes to strike against British interests.

Although the Amir of Afghanistan did not commit to the group, they found support amongst Amir's immediate and close political and religious advisory group. In 1916, the Berlin Committee established the Provisional Government of India in Kabul. Its formation infers the seriousness of intention and purpose of the revolutionaries. The government had Raja Mahendra Pratap as President, Barkatullah as Prime Minister, Ubaid al Sindhi as the Minister for India, Maulavi Bashir as War Minister and Champakaran Pillai as Foreign Minister. It tried to gain support from the Russian Empire, Republican China, and Japan. Galib Pasha joined them in proclaiming jihad against Britain.

In 1918, Pratap met the Russian leader Leon Trotsky in Petrograd before meeting the Kaiser in Berlin; he urged both to mobilise against British India. Under pressure from the British, the Afghans withdrew their cooperation and the mission closed down. The Committee was formally disbanded in late 1918, with most of the members shifting their attention to nascent Soviet Russia. Between 1917 and 1920, most of the members became active Communists.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 21

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to ‘Neolithic age’?

  1. The Neolithic people were farming communities.

  2. The tools of raw and coarse stone tools were used.

  3. The pottery was not in existence.

  4. The microliths were completely banished.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 21
  • The Neolithic period saw the emergence of polished stone tools.

  • The pottery emerged in the Neolithic Phase. Handmade pottery is found in the early stage. Black burnished ware, grey ware and mat – impressed ware are found.

Enrich Your Learning: Characteristics of Neolithic age:

  • The Neolithic Age in the Indian subcontinent began around the sixth millennium B.C.

  • The Neolithic settlers were the earliest farming communities. They broke the ground with stone hoes and digging sticks at the end of which ring stones weighing one to half a kilogram were fixed.

  • Some of the important crops, including rice, wheat and barley, came to be cultivated in the subcontinent.

  • A few villages appeared in this part of the world. It appears that the people were now on the threshold of civilization.

  • People of this age used tools and implements of polished stone. They used stone axes particularly, which have been found in large numbers in a good part of the hilly tracts of the country.

  • The Neolithic people are mainly found in three important places i.e. north – western, North –eastern and southern.

  • The pottery first appears in this phase. Handmade pottery is found in the early stage. Later the Neolithic people used footweels to turn up pots. Their pottery included black burnished ware,grey ware and mat – impressed ware.

North – western

  • Tools – Rectangular axes with curved cutting edge.

  • The Kashmiri Neolithic Culture was distinguished by its dwelling pits, the range of ceramics, the variety of stone and bone tools with the complete absence of the microliths.

  • The neolithic people in Burzahom lived there on a lake-side in pits and probably had a hunting and fishing economy.

  • They seem to have been acquainted with agriculture.

  • The people of Gufkral (literally the cave of the potter), a neolithic site 41 km south- west of Srinagar, practised both agriculture and domestication of animals.

  • The neolithic people in Kashmir used not only polished tools of stone, but what is more interesting, they used numerous tools and weapons made up of bone.

  • The people of Burzahom used coarse grey pottery.

  • It is interesting that the Burzahom domestic dogs were buried with their masters in their graves.

Southern

  • The second group of neolithic people lived in south India, south of the Godavari river. They usually settled on the tops of granite hills or on plateaus near the river banks.

  • They used stone, axes and also some kind of stone blades.

  • Fire-baked earthen figurines suggest that they kept a large number of cattle. They possessed cattle, sheep and goats.

  • They used to rub stone querns, which shows that they were acquainted with the art of producing cereals.

  • Some of the important Neolithic sites or those with Neolithic layers that have been excavated include Maski, Brahmagiri, Hallur, Kodekal, Sanganakallu T. Narsipur, Piklihal and Takkalakota in Karnataka and Palyampalli in Tamil Nadu.

    Utnur is an important Neolithic site in Andhra Pradesh.

  • The Neolithic phase in south India seems to have covered the period from about 2000 B.C. to about 1000 B.C.

  • The Neolithic settlers in Piklihal were cattle-herders. They domesticated cattle, sheep, goats, etc.

  • They set up seasonal camps surrounded by Cowpens made with posts and stakes. In these enclosures they accumulated dung. Then the entire camping ground was put to fire and cleared for camping in the next session.

  • Both ash mounds and habitation sites have been found in Piklihal.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 22

With reference to ‘Agriculture’ and ‘Technology and Crafts’ of Indus Civilisation, consider the following statements:

  1. Rice was cultivated by the Indus people.

  2. Ploughshare has been discovered from many sites.

  3. People were acquainted with the manufacture of bronze.

  4. Spindle whorls were used for spinning.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 22
Ploughshare or hoe has not been discovered from any sites. Enrich Your Learning

The Harappan Culture Agriculture

  • Sindh was a fertile part of the country. The Indus region possessed more natural vegetation which attracted more rainfall.

  • It supplied timber fuel for baking bricks on a large scale and also for construction.

  • In course of time, natural vegetation was destroyed by the extension of agriculture, large-scale grazing and supply of fuel.

  • A far more important reason for the fertility of the area seems to have been the annual inundation in the Indus river.

  • Walls made of burnt bricks raised for protection show that floods took place annually.

  • The Indus earned far more alluvial silt than the Nile in Egypt and deposited it on the flood plains. The Indus people sowed seeds in the floodplains in November, when the flood water receded and reaped their harvests of wheat and barley in April, before the advent of the next flood.

  • No hoe or ploughshare has been discovered, but the furrows discovered in the pre-Harappan phase at Kalibangan show that the fields were ploughed in Rajasthan in the Harappan period. The Harappans probably used the wooden ploughshare.

  • No information on whether the plough was drawn by men or oxen.

  • Stone sickles may have been used for harvesting the crops.

  • Gabarbands or nalas enclosed by dams for storing water were a feature in parts of Balochistan and Afghanistan, but channel or canal irrigation seems to have been absent.

  • The Indus people produced wheat, barley, rai, peas, etc. They produced two types of wheat and barley.

  • In addition to this, they produced sesamum and mustard.

  • The people of Lothal used rice whose remains have been found.

  • Foodgrains were stored in huge granaries in both Mohenjodaro and Harappa and possibly in Kalibangan.

  • Probably, cereals were received as taxes from peasants and stored in granaries for the payment of wages as well as for use during emergencies.

  • The Indus people were the people to produce cotton. Because cotton was first produced in this area the Greeks called it sindon, which is derived from Sindh.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 23

The festivals named Losar and Lohri are celebrated in which of the following pairs of the states of India Respectively?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 23
Enrich Your Learning: Losar Festival:
  • Losar Festival is one of the major festivals of the Monpa tribe of Arunachal Pradesh.

  • Losar is celebrated to observe the arrival of the New Year. (it marks the Tibetan New Year.)

  • The festival is exactly organised in the Tawang District.

  • Tribes like Monpa, Sherdukpens, Memba, Khamba and Nah following the Mahayana sect of Buddhism celebrate this festival with all pomp.

Lohri Festival:

  • Lohri is a Punjabi folk festival celebrated every year on 13th of January.

  • It is a festival of worshipping the fire.

  • It is celebrated chiefly by Sikhs and Hindus from the Punjab region of India. It is also celebrated in several parts of Northern India as well.

  • Lohri is celebrated to mark the end of peak winter and is usually associated with the harvest of the ‘rabi’ crops.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 24

Which of the following communities of Rajasthan started the use of Kathputli as string marionette art?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 24
Enrich Your Learning: Kathputli:
  • Kathputli dance is one of the ancient folk art forms of Rajasthan.

  • No village fair and no religious festival in Rajasthan is complete without the dance of Kathputlis.

  • In this dance, the puppeteer uses ballads to narrate the stories. These stories or tales of romance and chivalry are told with movements of string puppets.

  • The term 'Kathputli' is derived from Rajasthani language. 'Kath' means wood and 'Putli' means a doll.

  • It is believed that around 1500 years ago, the Bhat community of Rajasthan started the use of Kathputli as string marionette art.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 25

Consider the following statements with reference to Smog tower in India:

  1. The world’s highest smog tower has been installed in Delhi recently.

  2. The tower uses carbon nanofibers as a major component to purify impure air in its vicinity.

  3. It has been indigenously developed by Indian Institute of Science (IISc).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 25
  • The world’s highest smog tower is operational in the city of Xi’an, China (100 metres).

  • The smog tower in Delhi is a collaboration between the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay, IIT-Delhi and the University of Minnesota, USA, in association with The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). Enrich Your Learning: Smog tower: Recently a smog tower or a prototype air purifier was inaugurated at Lajpat Nagar, Delhi.

What is a smog tower?

  • Smog towers are structures designed to work as large-scale air purifiers. They are usually fitted with multiple layers of air filters, which clean the air of pollutants as it passes through them.

  • The 20-metre (65 feet) high smog tower will trap particulate matter of all sizes suspended in the air. Large-scale air filters shall draw in the air through fans installed at the top before passing it through the filters and then releasing clean air.

  • The filters installed in the tower will use carbon nanofibers as a major component and will be fitted along its peripheries, to facilitate reduction of particulate matter.

  • The smog tower installed at Lajpat Nagar is capable of treating 6,00,000 cubic metres of air per day and can collect more than 75 % of particulate matter (PM) 2.5 and 10.

  • The project is a collaboration between the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay, IIT-Delhi and the University of Minnesota, USA, in association with The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

Smog Tower in China:

  • China, which has been battling air pollution for years, has two smog towers — in its capital Beijing and in the northern city of Xi’an.

  • The Xi’an tower is dubbed the world’s largest and has reportedly brought down PM 2.5 by 19% in an area of around 6 sq. km in its vicinity.

  • The 100-metre (328 feet) high tower has produced 10 million cubic metres of clean air every day since its launch, and on severely polluted days, is able to bring down smog close to moderate levels.

  • The smog tower in Beijing has been able to compress the carbon waste generated during purification to produce gemstones used in ornaments.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS):

  1. Nominated Members of both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can recommend works anywhere in the country under the scheme.

  2. Funds under MPLADS are non-lapsable.

  3. MPLADS funds can be used to create both durable and nondurable assets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 26
MPLAD is a central government scheme, under which MPs can recommend development programmes involving spending of Rs 5 crore every year in their respective constituencies. MPs from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, including nominated ones, can do so.

Hence, statement 1 is correct. Funds under MPLADS are non-lapsable i.e. in case of non-release of funds in a particular year it is carried forward to the next year.

Hence, statement 2 is correct. For the MPLAD Scheme, the guidelines focus on the creation of durable community assets like roads, school buildings etc. Recommendations for non-durable assets can be made only under limited circumstances.

Hence, statement 3 is not correct. For example, in 2020, the government allowed use of MPLAD funds for the purchase of personal protection equipment, coronavirus testing kits etc.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding the Standard Model of Elementary Particle Physics:

  1. A flaw with this model was that it totally omitted gravity.

  2. The last particle discovered under this model was the Higgs Boson particle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 27

Standard Model of Elementary Particle is a theoretical construct in physics that describes particles of matter and their interaction. It describes the elementary particles of the world as being connected by mathematical symmetry, just as two objects are connected by bilateral (left-right) symmetry.

According to this model there are a finite number of fundamental particles which are represented by the characteristic “eigen” states of these groups. The particles predicted by the model, such as the Z boson, have been seen in experiments. The last to be discovered, in 2012, was the Higgs boson which gives mass to the heavy particles.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Standard Model is believed to be Incomplete because it gives a unified picture of only three of the four fundamental forces of nature — electromagnetic, weak nuclear, strong nuclear and gravitational interactions — it totally omits gravity.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

So, in the grand plan of unifying all forces so that a single equation would describe all the interactions of matter, the standard model was found to be lacking. Also, it does not include a description of dark matter particles. So far these have been detected only through their gravitational pull on surrounding matter.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 28

With reference to the BHARAT TAP Initiative, consider the following statements:

  1. It is launched by the Ministry of rural development and Panchayati raj. ‘

  2. This initiative will lead to a renewed focus on water conservation efforts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 28
BHARAT TAP Initiative Recently, the Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs launched the BHARAT TAP initiative at the ‘Plumbex India’ exhibition. This exhibition is aimed at products and services related to the plumbing, water, and sanitation industry.

Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It is a concept to use low flow tap and fixtures. It will provide low-flow, sanitary-ware at scale, and thereby reduce water consumption at the source considerably. It is estimated to save approximately 40% of water.

This will in turn result in water saving and energy saving due to less water and energy will be required for pumping, transporting, and purification. This initiative will also be accepted quickly in the country and will lead to a renewed focus on water conservation efforts. Hence, statement 2 is correct

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding Oil Palm.

  1. Malaysia, Indonesia and Nigeria are the leading producers of oil palm.

  2. Oil palm requires very little rainfall and is mainly grown in dry areas.

  3. Highly alkaline and waterlogged soils are not suitable for Oil Palm cultivation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 29
Oil Palm is known to be the highest edible oil yielding perennial crop. Malaysia, Indonesia and Nigeria are the leading producers of oil palm. Oil palm is a humid crop. Requires evenly distributed rainfall of 150mm/ month or 2500-4000 mm/annum. Rainfall distribution in India is not even and adequate. Hence grow oil palm under assured irrigation conditions by adopting recommended practices.

Crop comes up well between 29-33 degree C max. and 22-24 degree C min. temperatures and with bright sunlight for at least 5 hrs. per day. Humidity of more than 80% is required to come up well. Best-suited soils are moist, well-drained, deep, loamy alluvial soils, rich in organic matter with good water permeability. At least one-metre depth of soil is required. Avoid highly alkaline, highly saline, waterlogged and coastal sandy soils.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

  1. In India, fake reviews of products on e-commerce websites pose a threat to the consumer rights under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

  2. The right to be informed is a consumer right under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019

  3. Every e-commerce entity is required to provide information regarding the country of origin of a product.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 30

The Union government recently said that it plans to develop a framework to curb fake reviews of products on ecommerce websites after studying the “best practices available globally”. Due to fake and misleading reviews, the right to be informed, which is a consumer right under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is violated.”

In India, fake reviews pose a threat to the consumer rights under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Act states that the consumers have a right to be “informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods, products or services”. The Consumer Protection Act,2019 comes into force from today i.e. 20th July 2020. Under this act every e-commerce entity is required to provide information relating to return, refund, exchange, warranty and guarantee, delivery and shipment, modes of payment, grievance redressal mechanism, payment methods, security of payment methods, charge-back options, etc. including country of origin which are necessary for enabling the consumer to make an informed decision at the pre-purchase stage on its platform.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 31

Which of the following reforms were introduced by William Bentinck?

  1. Abolition of the four Circuit Courts.

  2. Setting up of Sadar Diwani Adalat and Sadar Nizamat Adalat at Allahabad.

  3. Usage of Persian or a vernacular language in courts except the Supreme Court by suitor.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 31
Reforms under William Bentinck (1828-1833)
  • The four Circuit Courts were abolished and their functions transferred to collectors under the supervision of the commissioner of revenue and circuit. So statement 1 is correct.

  • Sadar Diwani Adalat and a Sadar Nizamat Adalat were set up at Allahabad for the convenience of the people of Upper Provinces. So statement 2 is correct.

  • Until then, Persian was the official language in courts. Now, the suitor had the option to use Persian or a vernacular language, while in the Supreme Court, the English language replaced Persian.

So statement 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 32

Consider the following statements with reference to Danakil Depression:

  1. It was formed by the evaporation of an inland water body.

  2. It is part of the Afar Triangle, a geological depression in the remote northeastern part of Ethiopia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 32
The Danakil Depression in northeastern Ethiopia is one of the world’s hottest places, as well as one of its lowest, at 100 metres below sea level. At the northern end of the Great Rift Valley, and separated by live volcanoes from the Red Sea, the plain was formed by the evaporation of an inland water body. All the water entering Danakil evaporates, and no streams flow out from its extreme environment. It is covered with more than 10 lakh tonnes of salt.

So, statement 1 is correct. The Danakil Depression is an area of outstanding geological interest, providing a unique window on the underlying processes which have created the Earth’s continents and landmasses. Here, in relatively close proximity, geological features associated with the splitting of continental landmasses are clearly seen, including intense volcanic activity (with one of the few permanent lava lakes on the planet - Mount Irtale), hot sulphur springs elaborately decorated with extraordinary coral-like formations, salt-encrusted lake beds, and vast limestone chimneys (Lake Abbe).

A new study in 2020 says that active and naturally occurring life cannot be sustained at Danakil. It identifies two barriers: magnesium-dominated brines that cause cells to break down; and an environment having simultaneously very low pH and high salt, a combination that makes adaptation highly difficult.

Danakil is part of the Afar Triangle, a geological depression in the remote northeastern part of Ethiopia, where three tectonic plates are slowly diverging. The area is large — 124 miles by 31 miles — and was once part of the Red Sea. Over time, volcanic eruptions spewed enough lava to eventually seal off an inland sea which evaporated in the arid climate. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 33

Which of the following statements are correct about the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) of India?

  1. It was constituted under the statute of Disaster Management Act, 2005.

  2. It handles both natural and man-made disasters in the country.

  3. It is functioning under the Ministry of Defence in extraordinary circumstances.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 33
The mid-nineties and the subsequent decade saw much international debate & discussion around Disaster Response & Preparedness. Some of the notable and more impactful ones were the Yokohama Strategy Plan (1994) & the Hyogo Framework for Action (2005), adopted by the UN. During the same period, India faced some of its most severe natural calamities like Orissa Super Cyclone (1999), Gujarat Earthquake (2001) and Indian Ocean Tsunami (2004).

This succession of events and the International environment brought to fore the need for a comprehensive disaster management plan. This led to the enactment of the Disaster Management Act on December 26th, 2005. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) was constituted to lay down the policies, plans and guidelines for disaster management. So, statement 1 is correct.

The Disaster Management Act has statutory provisions for the constitution of the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) for a specialised response to natural and man-made disasters. Accordingly, in 2006 NDRF was constituted with 8 Battalions. In 2008, NDRF was made a dedicated force for disaster response related duties, under the unified command of DG NDRF. At present, NDRF has a strength of 12 Battalions with each Battalion consisting of 1149 personnel. In the beginning, the personnel of NDRF were deployed for routine law and order duties also.

So, statement 2 is correct. The Chairman of the NDMA is the Prime Minister. The responsibility of managing disasters in India is that of the State Government. The ‘Nodal Ministry’ in the central government for the management of natural disasters is the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 34

With reference to the Censorship of Press Act, 1799, consider the following statements:

  1. Lord Wellesley enacted it in anticipation of the French invasion of India.

  2. Rammohan Roy’s Mirat-ul-Akbar had to stop publication under it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 34

Lord Wellesley enacted the Censorship of Press Act, 1799, anticipating a French invasion of India. It imposed almost wartime press restrictions including pre-censorship. These restrictions were relaxed under Lord Hastings, who had progressive views, and in 1818, pre-censorship was dispensed with.

So, statement 1 is correct. The acting Governor-General, John Adams, who had reactionary views, enacted Licensing Regulations, 1823. According to these regulations, starting or using a press without a licence was a penal offence. Later on, the Act was extended to cover journals, pamphlets and books.

These restrictions were directed chiefly against Indian language newspapers or those edited by Indians. Rammohan Roy’s Mirat-ul-Akbar had to stop publication. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 35

With reference to the National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions (NCMEI), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a quasi-judicial body which has been endowed with the powers of a Civil Court.

  2. It is to be headed by a Chairman who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court of India.

  3. Decision of the Commission would be final regarding affiliation of a minority educational institution to a university.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 35
The National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions was set up in 2004. The Government brought out an Ordinance in November 2004 establishing the Commission. Later a bill was introduced in the Parliament in December 2004 and both Houses passed the Bill.

The NCMEI Act was notified in January 2005. The Commission is mandated to look into specific complaints regarding deprivation or violation of rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This Commission is a quasi-judicial body and has been endowed with the powers of a Civil Court. So, statement 1 is correct. It is to be headed by a Chairman who has been a Judge of the High Court and three members are to be nominated by the Central Government.

The Commission has 3 roles namely adjudicatory function, advisory function and recommendatory powers. So, statement 2 is not correct. So far as affiliation of a minority educational institution to a university is concerned, the decision of the Commission would be final.

So, statement 3 is correct. Many state governments still do not have any rules for recognition of institutions as minority institutions. The Central government has also not issued any comprehensive guidelines for the recognition of minority institutions. That is why a statutory commission was given the task in 2004 of determining the minority status of educational institutions in cases where a state government refuses or sleeps over the ‘no objection’ request for the establishment of a minority educational institution.

The NCMEI Act lays down that the commission will have the power to intervene in such cases. The Act gives state governments 90 days to make a decision one way or the other; if it fails to clear the file in that period, ‘no objection’ shall be deemed to have been given. The commission was originally given the mandate of facilitating direct affiliation of a minority institution to six central universities listed in the schedule. Two subsequent amendments further broadened its powers and mandate. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 36

The first Rehabilitation Centre for Turtles in India is about to be opened in which of the following states?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 36
A rehabilitation centre for freshwater turtles is to be inaugurated in Bihar.

Enrich Your Learning: Rehabilitation Centre for Turtles in India: A first-of-its-kind rehabilitation centre for freshwater turtles is to be inaugurated in Bihar’s Bhagalpur forest division in 2020.

Why Bhagalpur?

  • In eastern Bihar and Bhagalpur, the flow of water in the Ganga is ample and it serves as an ideal breeding ground for turtles. Also, there are many sandbanks in the middle of the river, which facilitate breeding of turtles.

  • The rehabilitation centre, spread over half a hectare, will be able to shelter 500 turtles at a time.

Need and Purpose:

  • The need to build such a centre was felt after several turtles were found severely injured, sick or dead and sick when rescued from smugglers by rescue teams.

  • Previously the rescued turtles used to be released into rivers without much treatment in the absence of any facility like the centre.

  • This centre will play a significant role in treating these animals and their proper upkeep before being returned to their natural habitat.

Freshwater Turtles:

  • The turtles play a significant role in the river by scavenging dead organic materials and diseased fish, controlling fish population as predators and controlling aquatic plants and weeds.

  • They are also described as indicators of healthy aquatic ecosystems.

  • IUCN:Turtles like Assam roofed turtles and River terrapin are Critically endangered.

  • Turtles are placed in schedule 1 of theIndian Wildlife Protection Act (1972).

Threats:

  • According to a recent study conducted by Traffic India, around 11,000 turtles are being smuggled in India every year for meat, and pet trade.

  • These species are now under severe threats due to habitat fragmentation and loss through dams and barrages, pollution, illegal poaching, accidental drowning through fishing nets and threats to their nesting habitats.

Operation Save Kurma:

  • Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) had convened a species specific operation on turtles, code named ``Operation Save Kurma” from December 15, 2016 to January 30, 2017.

  • The operation brought about an awareness among the enforcement agencies to focus on the existing trade routes and major trade hubs in the country, which will be specifically focused in future.

  • The Indian government was awarded a certificate of commendation for its effort to combat illegal wildlife trade by Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) for its Operation Kurma in 2017.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 37

In context of UN Military Observer Group in India and Pakistan (UNMOGIP), consider the following statements:

  1.  

    It has been tasked to formulate International policies to partially end India-Pakistan conflict.

  2.  

    Its headquarter is located in Rawalpindi, Pakistan.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 37
  • It has been tasked with monitoring the ceasefire line or tasked with monitoring the ceasefire line between nuclear-armed India and Pakistan in Jammu and Kashmir.

Enrich Your Learning: UN Military Observer Group in India and Pakistan (UNMOGIP):

  • UNMOGIP was established by the UN Security Council (UNSC) Resolution and started its operations in 1949.

  • It has been tasked with monitoring the ceasefire line between India and Pakistan in Jammu and Kashmir.

  • The group is financed by the United Nations regular budget.

  • The group, based in Rawalpindi, is composed of 43 military observers and 23 international civilian personnel.

United Nations Security Council Resolution 47:

  • Resolution 47 of the UNSC focuses on the complaint of India concerning the dispute over the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

  • It was taken to the Security Council in 1948 by India.

Who were the UNSC members who oversaw the issue?

  • The UN Security Council increased the size of the investigating council established by UNSC Resolution 39 to include six members along with permanent members of the UNSC.

  • Along with the five permanent members, China, France, UK, US & Russia, non- permanent members included Argentina, Belgium, Canada, Colombia, Syria and the Ukrainian Soviet Socialist Republic.

What were the recommendations of UNSC resolution 47?

  • The Resolution recommended a three-step process for the resolution of the dispute.

  • In the first step, Pakistan was asked to withdraw all its nationals from Kashmir.

  • In the second step, India was asked to progressively reduce its forces to the minimum level required for law and order.

  • In the third step, India was asked to appoint a plebiscite administrator nominated by the United Nations who would conduct a plebiscite [a free and impartial voting to know the people’s desire about J&K merger (with India or Pakistan)].

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 38

Consider the following statements:

  1. Under the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), the developmental projects are requiring prior clearance from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

  2. On-shore drilling explorations development projects are required to take clearance under the EIA but offshore projects are exempted from EIA.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 38
The clearance is required for both on-shore and offshore drilling explorations under the EIA.

Enrich Your Learning: Green clearance oil and gas exploration:

  • Recently, the Environment Ministry has exempted oil and gas firms, looking to conduct exploratory drilling, from seeking an environmental clearance. Background:

  • In 2019, the ONGC and the Vedanta group were granted permission to conduct exploratory oil surveys in Tamil Nadu and Puducherry which argue that the exploratory drilling will lead to destruction of agricultural fields in the Cauvery delta.

Environmental impact assessment (EIA):

  • The EIA process is an interdisciplinary and multistep procedure to ensure that environmental considerations are included in decisions regarding projects that may impact the environment.

  • Under the EIA, the various developmental projects categorised into category ‘A’ and category ‘B’ depending on their threshold capacity and likely pollution potential.

  • These require prior Environmental Clearance, respectively from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change or the concerned State Environmental Impact Assessment Authorities (SEIAAs).

  • Earlier, the highest level of environmental scrutiny was classified under category ‘A’ projects that required project proponents to prepare an Environment Impact Assessment plan.

  • The EIA would be scrutinised by a centrally constituted committee of experts.

  • The project would also be subject to a public hearing involving the locals of the proposed project site.

  • Public hearings are generally exempted if they are offshore projects for category ‘A’ projects.

New provisions:

  • The new amendments demote exploratory projects to the category of ‘B2’ that will be conducted by the States concerned and will not require an EIA.

  • Developing an offshore or onshore drilling site as a hydrocarbon block will still continue to merit a “category A” classification.

  • The new exemption of environmental clearance is valid only for drilling explorations of both on-shore and offshore projects.

Key fact:

  • Onshore drilling refers to drilling deep holes under the earth’s surface whereas offshore drilling relates to drilling underneath the seabed.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 39

Consider the following statements with reference to territorial extent of Central and State Legislation:

  1. The Parliament is empowered to make ‘extra- territorial legislation’ with absolute jurisdiction.

  2. A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 39
The Parliament alone can make ‘extra- territorial legislation’ but it is subjected to some territorial restrictions. Enrich Your Learning: Territorial Extent of Central and State Legislation: The territorial limits of the legislative powers vested in the Centre and the states are defined as

(i) The Parliament can frame laws for the whole or any part of India. The territory of India includes the states, the union territories, and any other area included in the territory of India.

(ii) A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made by a state legislature are inapplicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object.

(iii) The Parliament alone can make ‘extraterritorial legislation’, which implies the laws of the Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world.

However, the Constitution places certain restrictions on the territorial jurisdiction of the Parliament and its laws are not applicable in the following areas:

a) The President can make or repeal any regulations for the peace, progress and welfare of the four Union Territories-the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. The regulation thus made has the same effect as an act of Parliament.

b) The governor can direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.

c) The Governor of Assam may direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to tribal areas (autonomous districts) in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. The President enjoys the same power with respect to tribal areas (autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 40

Consider the following statements:

  1. During a financial emergency,money bills and other financial bills passed by the state legislature can be reserved for the President's consideration.

  2. The President has absolute veto on certain types of bills passed by the state legislature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 40
All of the above statements are correct. Enrich Your Learning: Centre’s Control Over State Legislation: The Constitution empowers the Centre to exercise control over the state’s legislative matters in the following ways

(i) Governor can reserve bills: The governor can reserve certain types of bills passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President. The president enjoys absolute veto over them. the state legislature has no power to override the suspensive veto of the President.

(ii) Bills on state list: Bills on certain matters listed in the State List can be introduced in the state legislature with previous permission of the president.

(iii) The President can direct the states to reserve money bills and other financial bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration during a financial emergency. The Constitution has assigned superiority to the Centre in the legislative sphere. This rule of federal supremacy is indispensable for the successful functioning of the federal system.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 41

Consider the following statements regarding Jute:

  1. India is the largest producer of jute followed by Bangladesh and China.

  2. The production of jute is mainly concentrated in western India.

  3. Well drained alluvial soil is ideal for growing jute.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 41
Temperature: Between 25-35°C Rainfall: Around 150-250 cm Soil Type: Well drained alluvial soil.

Hence, statement 3 is correct. Production: India is the largest producer of jute followed by Bangladesh and China. Hence, statement 1 is correct. However, in terms of acreage and trade, Bangladesh takes the lead accounting for three-fourth of the global jute exports in comparison to India’s 7%. It is mainly concentrated in eastern India because of the rich alluvial soil of GangaBrahmaputra delta.

Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Major jute producing states include West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Meghalaya and Tripura.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 42

Consider the following statements regarding Corticosteroid:

  1. Corticosteroids are usually used by bodybuilders.

  2. They control the body’s stress response, metabolism, and inflammation.

  3. Corticosteroids are lab-made molecules that mimic the action of the hormone called cortisol.

Choose the correct option from the given code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 42
Anabolic steroids (Corticosteroid) are usually used by bodybuilders.

Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Anabolic steroids are essentially lab-made versions of the male hormone testosterone and have a similar effect of increasing muscle mass as the natural hormone does. It also increases male characteristics in a person, such as facial hair and a deeper voice. Anabolic steroids are, however, very different from the steroids that are prescribed by doctors for inflammations, several autoimmune diseases, or to suppress the body’s immune system during a Covid-19 infection.

These medicines are called corticosteroids and are lab-made molecules that mimic the action of the hormone called cortisol that controls the body’s stress response, metabolism, and inflammation. Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 are correct. Unlike corticosteroids, anabolic steroids have limited medical use.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 43

With reference to ‘Office of Profit’, consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution clearly defines what constitutes an office of profit.

  2. Under Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the central or state government.

  3. The office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution.

Choose the correct option from the given code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 43
The constitution of India does not clearly define what constitutes an office of profit, but the definition has evolved over the years with interpretations made in various court judgments.

Hence, statement 1 is not correct. An office of profit has been interpreted to be a position that brings to the officeholder some financial gain, advantage, or benefit. The amount of such profit is immaterial. Under Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the central or state government. The articles clarify that “a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the government of India or the government of any state by reason only that he is a minister”.

Hence, statement 2 is correct. The office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the ConstitutionThe principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 44

With reference to State of the World’s Forests 2022, consider the following statements:

  1. It was released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

  2. The report is published biennially and is widely regarded as one of the most important stock takes on forest ecosystems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 44

Recently, the State of the World’s Forests 2022 (SOFO 2022) was released by the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).

Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The report is published biennial and is widely regarded as one of the most important stock takes on forest ecosystems.

Hence, statement 2 is correct. The 2022 edition of SOFO explores the potential of three forest pathways for achieving green recovery and tackling multidimensional planetary crises, including climate change and biodiversity loss. Halting deforestation and maintaining forests Restoring degraded lands and expanding agroforestry Sustainably using forests and building green value chains.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 45

With respect to the Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMF ME) Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. The expenditure would be shared in a 60:40 ratio between the State and Central Governments.

  2. An initial funding of Rs. 40,000- per Self Help Group (SHG) member would be provided for working capital and purchase of small tools.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 45
Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMF ME) Scheme: Launched under Atmanirbhar Abhiyan (in 2020), it aims to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises in the unorganised segment of the food processing industry and to promote formalisation of the sector and provide support to Farmer Producer Organisations, Self Help Groups, and Producers Cooperatives along their entire value chain.

The scheme adopts the One District One Product (ODOP) approach to reap the benefit of scale in terms of procurement of inputs, availing common services and marketing of products. It will be implemented over a period of five years from 2020-21 to 2024-25. It is a centrally sponsored scheme with an outlay of Rs. 10,000 crores. The expenditure under the scheme would be shared in a 60:40 ratio between Central and State Governments, in 90:10 ratio with Northeastern and Himalayan States, 60:40 ratio with UTs with legislature and 100% by Centre for other UTs.

Hence, statement 1 is not correct. A seed capital (initial funding) of Rs. 40,000- per Self Help Group (SHG) member would be provided for working capital and purchase of small tools. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 46

Consider the following statements with reference to Volcanoes:

  1. Shield Volcanoes are the largest and the most explosive of the earth’s volcanoes.

  2. The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples of Composite Volcanoes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 46
Shield Volcanoes: Barring the basalt flows, the shield volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth. The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples of Shield Volcanoes. These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid when erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes are not steep. They become explosive if somehow water gets into the vent; otherwise, they are characterised by low-explosivity. The upcoming lava moves in the form of a fountain and throws out the cone at the top of the vent and develops into a cinder cone.

So, statement 1 is not correct. Caldera is the most explosive of the earth’s volcanoes. They are usually so explosive that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any tall structure. The collapsed depressions are called calderas. Their explosiveness indicates that the magma chamber supplying the lava is not only huge but is also in close vicinity. So, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 47

With reference to the Indian Civil Services (ICS) in the colonial period, consider the following statements:

  1. Statutory civil services were started by Lord Lytton in India.

  2. Montagu Chelmsford Reforms provided for the reservation of one-third of superior ICS posts for the Indians.

  3. Federal and Provincial Public Service Commissions were established on the recommendation of the Lee Commission.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 47
The Indian Civil Service (ICS), for part of the 19th century officially known as the Imperial Civil Service, was the elite higher civil service of the British Empire in British India during British rule in the period between 1858 and 1947. Lord Lytton introduced the Statutory Civil Service in India to provide jobs to loyal Indians and dampen the spirit of the Indians, in general, to compete for covenanted services. It was the Montagu Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 that provided for the reservation of one-third of superior ICS posts for the Indians.

So, statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Public Service Commissions were established on the recommendation of the Lee Commission. The Federal and Provincial Public Service Commissions were established on the basis of Government of India Act 1935. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 48

The Vice President can be removed from the office by a

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 48
The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President. He can also be removed from the office before completion of his term. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal.

He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. This means that this resolution should be passed in the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority and in the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.

It must be noted here that the effective majority in India is only a type of special majority and not a separate one. Further, this resolution can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha. But, no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days’ advance notice has been given. Notably, no ground.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 49

Consider the following statements:

  1. It is a silk and cotton saree with intricate motifs and geometric ikat style of dyeing.

  2. Air India airlines crew wears this saree.

Which of the traditional regional saree of India is best described above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 49
Pochampally Saree or Pochampally Ikat is a saree made in Bhoodan Pochampally, Yadadri Bhuvanagiri district, Telangana State, India. They have traditional geometric patterns in the Ikat style of dyeing. The intricate geometric designs find their way into sarees and dress materials. The Indian government's official aeroplane company, Air India, has its cabin crew wear specially designed Pochampally silk sarees.

Tanchoi saree – It is a kind of Banarasi saree where weaving technique involves a single or double warp and two to five colours on the weft on silk fabric. It is produced mainly in Varanasi. Sambalpuri Saree – It is a traditional handwoven ikat or sari wherein the warp and the weft are tie- dyed before weaving. Sambalpuri saris are known for their incorporation of traditional motifs like shankha (shell), chakra (wheel), phula (flower), all of which have deep symbolism with the native Odia colour red black and white represent true Odia Culture along with Lord Kaalia(Jagannatha)'s face colour.

It is produced in the western districts of Bargarh, Sonepur, Sambalpur, Balangir, Boudh in Odisha. Paithani saree – It is a silk saree embroidered with gold colour thread and use of parrot as a motif. It is produced mainly in Maharashtra. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 50

Which of the following diseases can be diagnosed with the help of Serological tests?

  1. Measles

  2. Polio

  3. HIV

  4. Rheumatoid Arthritis

  5. Leucopenia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 50
Serologic tests are blood tests that look for antibodies in the blood. They can involve several laboratory techniques. Different types of serologic tests are used to diagnose various disease conditions. Serologic tests have one thing in common.

They all focus on proteins made by the body’s immune system. The process for having the test is the same regardless of which technique the laboratory uses during serologic testing. Serological testing is particularly helpful in the diagnosis of certain bacterial, parasitic, and viral diseases, including Rocky Mountain spotted fever, influenza, measles, polio, yellow fever, and infectious mononucleosis.

It is also useful in the detection of autoantibodies (harmful antibodies that attack components of the body) that are involved in autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis. As a practical mass- screening tool, serological testing has proved valuable in the detection of diseases such as syphilis, HIV/AIDS, and epidemic and pandemic infectious diseases (e.g., influenza and coronavirus disease). Therefore, the correct answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 51

With reference to ‘Sabha’ and ‘Samiti’ in the Vedic period, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Sabha was the ‘Body of the Elders’ which mainly constituted the Brahmins and elites.

  2. Women were not allowed to attend the Sabha.

  3. The Samiti used to elect the King.

  4. The members of the Samiti were called Vishah.

Select the correct answer using the codes given Below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 51

Women were allowed to attend the Sabha.

Enrich Your Learning: Sabha and Samiti in Vedic Civilization

  • Sabha performed judicial functions while Samiti did not. Sabha

  • The term Sabha includes both the assembly in early Rig- Vedic period and the assembly hall of later vedic period.

  • The Sabha was the ‘Body of the Elders’ and constituted mainly of the Brahmanas and the elite.

  • The speaker of Sabha was called Sabhapati and its members, Sabhya.

  • Women who were called Sabhavati also attended this assembly.

  • It was used to be basically a kin-based assembly and the practice of women attending it was stopped in Later-Vedic times.

  • Rig Veda speaks of the Sabha also as a dicing and gambling assembly, along with a place for dancing, music, witchcraft, and magic.

  • It discussed pastoral affairs and performed judicial and administrative functions and exercised judicial authority.

  • The Samiti assumed importance only towards the end of the Rig-Vedic period.

  • Samiti was a folk assembly in which people of the tribe gathered for transacting tribal business.

  • The members of the Samiti were called Vishah.

  • The most important function of the Samiti was the election of the king.

  • It discussed philosophical issues and was concerned with religious ceremonies and prayers.

  • The Sabha, a selected body, was more like an advisory council.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 52

Which of the following dance forms are mentioned in the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization’s (UNESCO) List of Intangible Cultural Heritage?

  1. Mudiyettu

  2. Kalbelia

  3. Sattriya

  4. Chhau

Select the correct answer using the codes given Below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 52
Enrich Your Learning: Masterpiece of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity:
  • The Masterpieces of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity is UNESCO's response to the call for humanity to widen its concept of cultural heritage by bringing in the intangible aspects.

  • It was started in 2001 and held biennially until 2005.

Significance:

  • It was made to raise awareness of intangible cultural heritage and encourage local communities to protect them and the local people who sustain these forms of cultural expressions.

  • Identification of the Masterpieces entails the commitment of states to promote and safeguard these treasures, while UNESCO finances plans for their conservation.

Background:

  • Prior to the Lists of Intangible Cultural Heritage (established in 2008), a project known as the Masterpieces of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity has already been active.

  • A total of three Proclamations occurred, designated a total of 90 forms of intangible heritage around the world as Masterpieces.

  • Following the World Heritage List program, Convention for the Safeguarding of Intangible Cultural Heritage, UNESCO established the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity that superseded the Proclamation program in 2008.

  • The Convention went into force in 2006, and has since been approved by over 130 members.

  • The 90 previously proclaimed Masterpieces have been incorporated into the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity as its first entries, to be known as elements.

  • Subsequent elements will be added following the assessment of nominations submitted by national governments acceding to the UNESCO Convention and who are each allowed to submit a single candidature file, in addition to multi- national candidatures.

India’s Intangible Cultural Heritages list include:

  • Tradition of Vedic chanting

  • Ramlila, the traditional performance of the Ramayana

  • Kutiyattam, Sanskrit theatre

  • Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas.

  • Mudiyettu, ritual theatre and dance drama of Kerala

  • Kalbelia folk songs and dances of Rajasthan

  • Chhau dance

  • Buddhist chanting of Ladakh: recitation of sacred Buddhist texts in the trans- Himalayan Ladakh region, Jammu and Kashmir.

  • Sankirtana, ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur

  • Traditional brass and copper craft of utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab

  • Yoga

  • Nowruz

  • Kumbh Mela Key fact:

  • UNESCO defines oral and intangible heritage as the totality of tradition-based creations of a cultural community expressed by a group or individuals and recognized as reflecting the expectations of a community in so far as they reflect its cultural and social identity.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 53

Consider the following statements:

  1. Tamasha folk theatre art is performed by Mahar, the community of Maharashtra.

  2. Asaita Thakar originated from Bhavai folk theatre art of Gujarat.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 53
Enrich Your Learning:

Tamasha:

  • Tamasha is a form of theatre, which came into existence in the early 16th century in Maharashtra, which includes the love songs i.e. 'Lavanis'.

  • Tamasha is associated and performed with two of the communities of Maharashtra, viz: Kolhati and Mahar.

  • Ram Joshi is considered as the originator of the Tamasha.

Bhavai:

  • Bhavai is a popular form of folk theatre of western India, especially Gujarat.

  • It is as much a dramatic form of entertainment as it is a kind of ritual offering made to the Hindu goddess Amba.

  • The genesis of Bhavai is traced back to the 14th century and a Brahmin priest, Asaita Thakar, is traditionally credited for its origin.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 54

Consider the following statements with reference to Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose:

  1. He opposed the non-cooperation movement started by Gandhi.

  2. The newspaper named Swaraj was started by him.

  3. He was elected as the President of Indian National Congress at the Tripuri Session of Indian National Congress.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 54
He was a participant of the non-cooperation movement started by Gandhiji.

Enrich Your Learning: Life and contributions of Subhash Chandra Bose: Key facts about Netaji:

  • He passed the Indian Civil Service examination but resigned his candidacy in 1920.

  • Bose was known in particular for his militant approach to independence and for his push for socialist policies.

  • During the non-cooperation movement, he was advised by Mahatma Gandhi to work with Chittaranjan Das who became his political guru.

  • In 1924 he was appointed chief executive officer of the Calcutta Municipal Corporation.

  • He renamed Andaman as Shaheed (“Martyrs”) Island, and Nicobar as Swaraj (“Freedom”) Island.

  • He was re-elected the President of INC at the Tripuri Session in 1939 by defeating Gandhiji's Candidate Pattabhai Sitaramaiyya.

Key contribution of Netaji:

  • He led an Indian national force from abroad against the Western powers during World War II.

  • While in exile in the 1940s, Bose raised a liberation army in East Asia with Japanese aid and influence.

  • He wrote a book named The Indian Struggle (1920–1934).

  • In 1938 he was elected president of the Indian National Congress and formed a national planning committee, which formulated a policy of broad industrialization.

  • Bose led the All India Forward Bloc that emerged as a faction within the Indian National Congress in 1939.

  • In 1943, Bose proclaimed the establishment of a provisional independent Indian government and Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 55

A folk theatre art named Bhad Pather is related to which of the following Indian states?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 55

Enrich Your Learning: Bhand Pather:

  • Bhand Pather is a traditional folk theatre form performed by the ‘bhand’, i.e., folk entertainers of Kashmir.

  • Bhands in India are now an endogamous Muslim community, which is no longer involved in their traditional occupation of folk entertainment.

  • They include actors, dancers, minstrels, storytellers and impressionists. The payment for their performances is usually voluntary.

  • Bhand Pather is the dramatic form based on mythological stories, incorporating contemporary social satires within its practical theme.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 1 - Question 56

Consider the following statements regarding West Nile Virus.

  1. The West Nile Virus is a mosquito-borne, RNA virus.

  2. It is a flavivirus related to the viruses that cause Japanese encephalitis, and yellow fever.

  3. Birds are the reservoir host of the virus.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?