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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 1

Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements:

  1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.

  2. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 1
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Land revenue known as Sist, was the principal source of income of the Vijayanagar State. It had an efficient system of land revenue administration. To meet the heavy burden of the State and solve the problem of obtaining men and money to withstand its enemies, the Vijayanagar emperors including Krishan Deva gave up the traditional rate of assessments at one-sixth of the produce and increased it to some extent. Krishna Deva’s land revenue system was based on the “principle of differential taxation”, that is, levied taxes according to the relative fertility or quality of the lands. For this he conducted the survey of land in his empire and then decided the taxes according the fertility of land. Besides the land taxes, the ryots had to pay other kinds of taxes like grazing tax, marriage tax etc.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Besides land-tax, many professional and industrial taxes were also imposed. These were on shopkeepers, farm-servants, shepherds, washermen, potters, shoemakers, barbers, prostitutes, musicians, Manufacturers and craftsmen, etc. There was also tax on property. Other source of income of the State were the revenue from customs duties; tolls on roads, revenue from gardening and plantations; and taxes levied on dealers in goods of common consumption. Taxes were paid both in cash and kind.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 2

Consider the following statements with reference to the Bahamani Kingdom:

  1. It was founded by Hoshang Shah.

  2. They had regular confrontations with the Vijayanagar kingdom over the Marathwada region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 2
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Bahmani Kingdom was a Muslim state of the Deccan in Southern India during the medieval era in Indian History. It was founded by Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah (in 1347), also known as Hasan Gangu, revolting against the Delhi Sultanate of Muhammad bin Tughlaq. Hoshang Shah (1406–1435) was the first formally appointed Sultan of the Malwa Sultanate of Central India.

  • Statement 2 is correct: There were constant conflicts between the Vijayanagar kingdom and the Bahmani Sultanate as their interests clashed in three separate and distinct areas:

    • Over the control of the Raichur doab

    • The Krishna–Godavari basin

    • Over the Marathwada region

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 3

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to “The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA)” frequently seen in news?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 3
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Option a is incorrect: The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is an intergovernmental military alliance between 30 member states – 28 European countries and two North American countries (United States of America and Canada). NATO had deployed troops along Eastern Europe and economic sanctions on Russia to deter Russian aggression against Ukraine. The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA)” is not related to these sanctions.

  • Option b is correct: Recently, the US imposed sanctions against a Mumbai based petrochemical company, Tibalaji Petrochem Pvt Ltd. as it was accused of selling Iranian petroleum products. It is the first Indian entity to face the US designation under unilateral sanctions passed in 2018-19, after the US walked out of the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA). The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) commonly known as the Iran nuclear deal is an agreement on the Iranian nuclear program reached in 2015, between Iran and the P5 countries (China, France, Russia, United Kingdom, United States) plus Germany together with the European Union. The main motive of this agreement is to prevent Iran from producing nuclear weapons. However, in 2018 the Trump administration unilaterally pulled the U.S. out of this agreement. Recently, The U.S. and Iran have also exchanged their stands indirectly via the European Union for a “final draft” on re-joining the JCPOA.

  • Option c is incorrect: In 2022, the 12th Ministerial Conference of the World Trade Organization (WTO) was held in Geneva, Switzerland. This conference (and not JCPOA) agreed to setting limits on harmful fishing subsidies. Also, the conference agreed to give a temporary waiver on Covid-19 vaccines.

  • Option d is incorrect: Sharm el-Sheikh Implementation Plan (and not JCPOA) adopted at Conference of Parties (COP27) is an implementation plan to achieve climate goals adopted under the Paris climate change conference. It highlights that a global transformation to a low-carbon economy is expected to require investments of at least US$ 4-6 trillion a year.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 4

In Medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 4
Option b is the correct answer.

The designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for Village headmen. Mahattara refers to “representatives of towns or villages” and was a title used in the administration during the rule of the Silahara dynasty (765-1215 AD.) Paṭṭakila also refers to village headman.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 5

With reference to the history of India, which of the following dynasties primarily ruled over/from the territory of Kashmir’?

  1. Karkota Dynasty

  2. Yashaskara Dynasty

  3. Haryanka dynasty

  4. Utpala Dynasty

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 5
Option c is correct answer.

Much of the history of Kashmir is deduced from the legendary and historical chronicle Rajatarangini (which means ‘the river of kings’). It was probably written in 12th century CE in Sanskrit by a Kashmiri Brahmana called Kalhana.

  • Option 1 is correct: In early 7th century, the Karkota dynasty rulers established their rule in Kashmir. The dynasty marked the rise of Kashmir as a power in Central Asia and Northern India. The Karkota dynasty (c. 625−855 CE) was founded by Durlabhvardhana during the lifetime of the Pushyabhuti king, Harshavardhana. The Karkota emperors were primarily Hindu, who have been known for building spectacular Hindu temples in their capital, Parihaspur.

  • Option 2 is correct: Yashaskara dynasty belogs to the kingdom of Kashmir. It was established after the Utpala dynasty. It was ruled by Queen Didda (c.958 – 1003 CE).

  • Option 3 is incorrect: The Haryanka dynasty was the third ruling dynasty of Magadha, an empire of ancient India, which succeeded the Pradyota dynasty and Barhadratha dynasty.

  • Option 4 is correct: From the 8th to 10th century CE, the Kashmir region was ruled over by the Hindu Utpala dynasty. The kingdom was established by Avanti Varman, ending the rule of the Karkota dynasty in 855 CE.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 6

“He was one of the important rulers of the Kalachuri dynasty. He made the Kalachuris one of the important political powers in India. He assumed the proud title of Trikalingadhipati (the Lord of Trikalinga).

Some historians believe that an important factor in his success was the fact that his kingdom escaped the devastating raids of Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni.”

The ruler described in the above paragraph is:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 6
Option d is the correct answer.

The state of Chedi was situated between the Narmada and Godavari rivers, and was ruled by the Kalachuri dynasty. Like the Chandellas, the Kalachuris of Chedi (also known as the Kalachuris of Tripuri) were formerly subordinate to the Pratiharas, but around the middle of the 10th century CE, they asserted their independence. They ruled the historical Chedi region (also known as Dahala-mandala) with their capital at Tripuri, near modern Jabalpur, MP.

  • Option a is incorrect: King Bhoja was an important ruler from the Paramara dynasty.

  • Option b is incorrect: Nannuka (831-845 CE) was the founder of the Chandela dynasty, which ruled in the Jejakabhukti region (Bundelkhand in Madhya Pradesh).

  • Option c is incorrect: Nagabhata I (730 – 760 CE) was the founder of the imperial Gurjara Pratihara dynasty.

  • Option d is correct: Gangeya-deva (1015–41 CE) was one of the most important rulers of the Kalachuri dynasty, who, due to his military genius, made the Chedis one of the greatest political powers in India at the time. As a token of his great victory, he assumed the proud title of Trikalingadhipati (the Lord of Trikalinga). He also assumed the title of Vikramaditya. Some historians believe that an important factor in his success was the fact that his kingdom escaped the devastating raids of Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni, which affected most of the other great powers to its north and north-west. Hence, option d is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding Indian Antarctic Act, 2022:

  1. The Act is applicable on a citizen of India as well a citizen of any other country.

  2. According to the act, no permit is required to collect sample of mineral resources from Antarctic for the purposes of scientific research.

  3. Commercial fishing in Antarctica is allowed only after obtaining permit from the appropriate authority.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 7
Option b is the correct answer.

Recently, Indian Antarctic Act, 2022 has been passed. Its key objectives include having India’s own national measures for protecting Antarctic environment, ensuring de-militarization of the region, getting rid of mining or illegal activities, management of growing Antarctic tourism and sustainable development of fisheries.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Antarctic Act, 2022 is applicable on Indian citizens, citizens of foreign countries and a vessel or aircraft registered in India or outside India. It is also applicable on a company, body corporate, corporation, partnership firm, joint venture, an association of persons or any other entity incorporated, established or registered as such under any law in force in India.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In general, drilling, dredging, excavating, collecting samples etc. of mineral resources is not allowed. However, permission can be granted for these activities for the purposes of scientific research or construction, repair and maintenance of an Indian station or any other structure. Hence, permit is required.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Any person who intends to go to Antarctica for the purpose of commercial fishing shall apply for a permit to the appropriate authority.

Knowledge Base:

Other important provisions of the Act:

  • Background: To give effect to the provisions of Antarctic Treaty, the Protocol on Environment Protection (Madrid Protocol) to the Antarctic Treaty and to the Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources. India acceded to Antarctic Treaty system in 1983.

  • Central Government shall establish a Committee on Antarctic Governance and Environmental Protection. This committee shall be chaired by the Secretary, Ministry of Earth Sciences.

  • This committee shall establish a waste classification system and waste management plans.

Important Facts about Antarctica:

  • It is the southernmost continent, fifth largest in area and contains the geographic South Pole.

  • It is mostly uninhabited, except approximately 40 permanent stations established by several countries. Maitri and Bharti are India’s research stations on the continent.

  • Native species of animals include mites, nematodes, penguins, seals and tardigrades etc. Vegetation occurs, mostly, in the form of lichens and moss.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 8

With respect to the Solanki Rajputs of Gujarat, which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Bhima I?

  1. He defeated Qutab-ud-din Aibak and stopped his expansion into Gujarat.

  2. He built the Sun Temple in Modhera.

  3. He built the famous Rani-Ki-Vav in Patan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 8
Option b is the correct answer.

The Solanki Rajputs are also known as the Chalukya family of Gujarat, which was different from the earlier Chalukyan dynasty of Badami. It ruled parts of Gujarat and Kathiawar between 10th century AD and 13th century AD.

  • Option 1 is incorrect: Qutab-ud-din Aibak (1150 – 1210 CE) was the contemporary of Bhima II (1178–1240 CE). He was not the contemporary of Bhima I (1022–1064 CE).

  • Option 2 is correct: Bhima I built the Sun temple of Modhera (Mehsana, Gujarat). Modhera Sun Temple was built in 1026-27 CE. This historical complex contains a huge kund known as the Ramakund, built in rectangular shape containing 108 shrines to various gods and demi-gods.

  • Option 3 is incorrect: Bhima-I’s wife Udaymati built the Rani-ki vav (Queen’s step well) in his memory, which is on the list of UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites. This stepwell situated in the town of Patan in Gujarat, India. It is located on the banks of the Saraswati River.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 9

Consider the following statements with respect to the battles fought by Muhammad Ghori in India:

  1. He defeated Prithviraj Chauhan, the ruler of Delhi, in the first Battle of Tarain.

  2. He defeated Jaichandra, the ruler of Kannauj, in the Battle of Chandawar.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 9
Option b is correct answer.

Muhammad Ghori (c.1173–1206 CE) was the Real founder of the Islamic empire in India. The battles of Tarain and Chandwar laid the foundations of Turkish rule in Northern India.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Muhammad Ghori was defeated by Prithivaraja Chauhan, a Rajput ruler in the areas surrounding Delhi, in the first battle fought at Tarain (c.1191 CE). Ghori’s army was defeated badly and he narrowly escaped death. Prithviraj conquered Bhatinda. However, in 1192 CE, Muhammad Ghori defeated Prithviraj Chauhan in the Second Battle of Tarain, and subsequently executed him.

  • Statement 2 is correct: In the Battle of Chandwar (c.1194 CE), Ghori defeated Jaichandra- the ruler of Kannauj (Gahadavalas Dynasty). After this invasion, Qutab- ud-din Aibak was made the viceroy of Muhammad Ghori.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 10

With reference to Davos summit 2022 of World Economic Forum, consider the following statements:

  1. A new initiative called ‘Defining and Building the Metaverse’ was launched in this summit.

  2. India announced the Mission LiFE programme for the first time in this summit to fight climate change.

  3. One health initiative was proposed by India in this summit to prevent another Covid-19 like pandemic in the future.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 10
Option b is the correct answer.

Davos summit 2022 was convened by the World Economic Forum (WEF). The World Economic Forum (WEF) is a Swiss non-profit foundation established in 1971, based in Geneva, Switzerland.

  • Statement 1 is correct: World Economic Forum in its 2022 summit at Davos announced a new initiative called Defining and Building the Metaverse. This initiative brings together key stakeholders to build an economically viable, interoperable, safe, and inclusive of metaverse. Different research suggests that the metaverse is expected to grow into an $800 billion market by 2024.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian launched a Mission LiFE at the COP26 summit in Glasgow in 2021. In the Davos summit Indian Prime Minister urged that Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) is useful for fighting climate challenges and he also urged the world to launch a people's movement with "3 Ps" — "Pro Planet People" to bring behavioural change among people to fight climate change.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The World Health Organisation formed a One Health Initiative to integrate work on human, animal and environmental health across the Organization. The Indian Prime Minister highlighted India’s role as pharma producer during Covid times and he asserted that India followed a vision of One Earth, One Health which saved crores of lives by giving essential medicines and vaccines to many countries. Thus, one health Initiative was not proposed by India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 11

In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 11
Option b is the correct answer.

Option b is correct: The Fanam coins were the regular unit of currency in medieval Travancore and appear to have been extensively used for trading in the region of South India. The words Fanam and Panam literally mean money and are still used as a synonym for wealth in Kerala in the native language of Malayalam.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 12

With reference to the Lodhi Dynasty of Delhi Sultanate, consider the following statements:

  1. It was the first Afghan dynasty of Delhi sultanate.

  2. Lodhi rulers removed the Jaziya tax on non-Muslims.

  3. Sikandar Lodhi provided irrigation facilities to the peasantry.

  4. The city of Agra was founded during Lodhi rule.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 12
Option d is the correct answer.

The Lodhis (1451-1526) were the last ruling family of the Sultanate period. Three rulers of Lodhi dynasty were Bahlul Lodhi(founder), Sikander Lodhi and Ibrahim Lodhi. In 1526, Babur marched against Delhi and defeated and killed Ibrahim Lodhi in the first Battle of Panipat.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Lodhis were the first Afghan rulers of Delhi sultanate. They were earlier ruling over Sirhind at the time of sayyids.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Sikander Lodhi re-imposed Jaziya on non-Muslims. He showed little tolerance towards the non-Muslims. He destroyed many Hindu temples and imposed many restrictions on the Hindus.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Sikandar Lodi (1489-1517) was the greatest of the three Lodi sovereigns. He was a good administrator. Roads were laid and many irrigational facilities were provided for the benefit of the peasantry.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Sultan Sikandar Lodi of the Delhi Sultanate, founded Agra in the year 1504.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 13

With reference to music and literature of Delhi Sultanate, consider the following statements:

  1. Persian language was first introduced in India during the period of Delhi Sultanate.

  2. There was a significant decline in composition of Sanskrit literature during the rule of Delhi sultanate.

  3. Musical instruments like sarangi and rabab were introduced during this period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 13

Explantion: Option c is the correct answer.

The Delhi Sultanate rule was significant in India as it resulted in far-reaching changes in the Indian society, administration and cultural life.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Persian language was introduced in India during the period of Ghaznavi rule in the Punjab in 11th century. Persian literature written in India before the establishment of the Delhi sultanate adopted literary forms and imagery which were prevalent in Iran. It was after the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate that Indian influence began to exert itself on Persian works written in India. Amir Khusrau created a new style of Persian which came to be known as sabaq-i Hindi or the Indian style.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: During Delhi sultanate period, there was no quantitative decline in the production of Sanskrit literary work. Sanskrit lost the patronage of the new Persian speaking ruling class but the Sultanate did not interfere with the independent production of Sanskrit literary works. The introduction of paper during the Sultanate period gave impetus to the literary activity of reproduction and dissemination of already existing Sanskrit texts such as the Ramayana and the Mahabharata.

  • Statement 3 is correct: New musical instruments such as the sarangi and the rabab were introduced during Delhi Sultanate period. Amir Khusrau also introduced many new ragas such as Ghora and Sanam. He evolved a new style of light music known as qawwalis by blending the Hindu and Iranian systems.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 14

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Saint Kabir and Guru Nanak?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 14
Option d is the correct answer.

Saint Kabir Das (1440-1518) was a very renowned saint, poet and social reformer of India who lived during the 15th century. Guru Nanak (1469-1539) was the founder and first Guru of Sikhism, was born in the year 1469, in the village of Talwandi which is located in the Punjab.

  • Option a is incorrect: Both Kabir and Guru Nanak were against the practise of idol worship. Guru Nanak held that instead of putting our faith in the almighty who is omnipresent we are putting our faith in some statue. Kabir worshipped the Nirguna (without form) God whom he calls by several names such as Rama, Allah, Hari, Sain, Sahib, etc.

  • Option b is incorrect: The Bhakti movement promoted the growth of vernacular language and literature in different parts of the country. Kabir, Nanak and Chaitanya preached in their respective vernacular tongues– Kabir in Hindi, Nanak in Gurmukhi and Chaitanya in Bengali. So subsequent Bhakti literatures were compiled in these languages and many Muslim writers also translated Sanskrit works into regional languages.

  • Option c is incorrect: Both Kabir and Guru Nanak subscribed to the idea of nonviolence. However, Sikhism under its sixth Guru Hargobind began its transformation from a peaceful community to warrior community.

  • Option d is correct: The Guru Granth Sahib incorporates the teachings of both Kabir and Guru Nanak. It incorporates the writings of many Bhakti poets and Sufi saints such as Ramananda, Namadeva, Kabir and Sheikh Farid. While Adi Granth is the teachings of Guru Nanak.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 15

With reference to the Indian society during Mughal empire, consider the following statements:

  1. The practice of forced labour was not at all witnessed, because of influence of Bhakti movement.

  2. Women from both Hindu and Muslim community enjoyed limited rights of inheritance.

  3. Only the people of Central Asian and Iranian origin constituted Mughal noble class.

  4. Mughal administration refrained from interfering in indigenous practices such as Sati.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 15
Option c is the correct answer.

The Mughal Empire was an empire that controlled much of India between the 16th and 19th centuries. Its impact on Indian society is manifold.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Despite the popular Bhakti movement raising the banner of revolt against discrimination, the deprived and disadvantaged classes, who were landless peasants, were subject to forced labour. The caste system remained a dominant institution in the society. Castes at lower levels were subject to much repression.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Under Mughal rule, both the Hindu women and Muslim women had only limited right of inheritance. Though they had the right to inherit property, it was not equal to the share of the male members of the family.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Mughal rule, Afghans, Indian Muslims (shaikhzadas), Rajputs and Marathas also obtained the status of nobility. It is estimated that during the reign of Akbar over 15% of the nobility consisted of Rajputs. However, most of the nobles came from Central Asia and Iran.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Mughal administration discouraged the practice of sati that was prevalent among communities of the higher caste. For instance, Emperor Humayun took a bold step against sati and tried to eradicate it. Akbar also endeavoured to prevent forceful “Sati” in his kingdom.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 16

With reference to the Bucharest Nine (B9), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a group of nine countries that signed a collective defence treaty with Russia.

  2. The group is formed to collectively oppose the eastward expansion of NATO.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 16
Option d is the correct answer.

The Bucharest Nine (B9) is a group of nine NATO countries in Eastern Europe that became part of the US-led military alliance after the end of the Cold War. Member countries of Bucharest Nine are Romania, Poland, Hungary, Bulgaria, the Czech Republic, Slovakia, Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: All members of the Bucharest Nine are part of the European Union (EU) and North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO). The B9 countries have been critical of President Vladimir Putin’s aggression against Ukraine since 2014, when Russia annexed the Crimean Peninsula. Hence B9 are not allies of Russia.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Recently, the Bucharest Nine (B 9) rejected the Russian claim about the eastward “expansion” of North-Atlantic Treaty Alliance organisation (NATO). They underlined that NATO is not an organisation that “expanded” to the east”, rather, these countries as the independent European states have decided on their own to go west i.e., to align with United States of America and NATO.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 17

With reference to social structure under Delhi Sultanate, consider the following statements:

  1. Large number of Hindu nobles were given high positions in the court of Delhi Sultanate.

  2. Turkish women seems to have enjoyed more freedom as compared to women of indigenous communities of India.

  3. Slaves during sultanate period were allowed to own personal property.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 17
Option b is the correct answer.

The role of Delhi Sultanate was significant in India as it resulted in far-reaching changes in the Indian society, administration and cultural life.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Muslim nobles occupied high offices and very rarely the Hindu nobles were given high position in the government. The Hindus were considered zimmis or protected people, for which they were forced to pay a tax called Jaziya.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Turkish women under the Sultanate seem to have enjoyed a relative measure of freedom than the women in many indigenous communities. It was because most of the local communities were ridden with several social injunctions for women.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Slaves were allowed to marry and can own some personal property under Delhi sultanate. Condition of slaves was better than the domestic servant. The master of slave was obliged to provide him food and shelter, while a free person may starve to death.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 18

Who among the following Bhakti saints were contemporaries of the Maratha King Shivaji?

  1. Tukaram

  2. Saint Ramdas

  3. Chaitanya

  4. Jana bai

  5. Eknath

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 18
Option a is the correct answer.

Shivaji (1627–1680) was born in Shivneri near Junnar and a member of the Bhonsle Maratha clan. Shivaji began his military career at the age of nineteen. In 1646, he captured the fortress of Torna from the Sultan of Bijapur.

  • Option 1 is correct: Tukaram was born in 1608 in a village near Poona, Maharashtra. He was a contemporary of Maratha King Shivaji (1627-80) and saint Ramdas. He wrote and sung devotional songs in praise of his favourite deity Lord Vithoba of Pandharpur. He rejected Vedic sacrifices, ceremonies, pilgrimages, idol worship, etc. He spread the message of equality and brotherhood. He tried to foster Hindu-Muslim Unity.

  • Option 2 is correct: Saint Ramdas (AD 1608 - c. 1681), also known as Samarth Ramdas was an Indian Hindu saint, philosopher, poet, writer and spiritual master. He was a devotee of the Hindu deities Rama and Hanuman. Ramdas was regarded by Shivaji as his guru.

  • Option 3 is incorrect: Chaitanya (1485–1533) is not a contemporary of Shivaji. Chaitanya was a devotee of Lord Krishna and he started a revivalist movement which tried to show Krishna as superior to all gods. He popularised the practice of group devotional singing accompanied by ecstatic dancing. His movement became popular in Bengal and Orissa.

  • Option 4 is incorrect: Jana Bai belonged to 13th – 14th century (thus not contemporary of Shivaji). She was a follower of Namdev and a shudra poetess of Ganga Kheda who composed more than 350 poems (abhangas).

  • Option 5 is incorrect: Eknath belonged to 1533- 1599 AD (thus not contemporary of Shivaji). Sant Eknath of Paithan on the other hand was known for his Chatuhshloki Bhagvat, Eknathi Bhagvat, Bhavarth Ramayan and Rakmini Svayamvar.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding India-UN Development Partnership Fund?

  1. The ‘Fund’ is established by United Nations (UN) to support India’s progress towards Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

  2. The fund is also aimed to promote multilateralism and shared prosperity in the global South.

  3. UNICEF, UNESCO and WHO are the implementing partners of the Fund.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 19
Option b is the correct answer.

The year 2022 marks the 5th anniversary of India-UN Development Partnership Fund.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The fund was established (in 2017), supported and led by the Government of India and implemented in collaboration with the UN Systems.

    • Its key objectives are:

    • Promote multilateralism and shared prosperity in global South. (South-South Cooperation)

    • The Fund supports Southern-owned and -led, demand-driven and transformational sustainable development projects across the developing world, with a focus on least developed countries and Small Island developing States.

    • Its thematic reach spans all 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

    • The Government of India has committed USD150 million over 10 years to the India-UN Fund.

  • Statement 2 is correct: One of the key objectives of the fund is to promote multilateralism and shared prosperity in the global South.

  • Statement 3 is correct: UNICEF, UNESCO and WHO are among the implementing partners of the Fund.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 20

In the recently concluded G20 summit in Indonesia, the Prime Minister of India’s gift to various leaders represented India’s cultural traditions. In this context, consider the following pairs: India’s traditions Description

  1. Patan Patola Double ikat woven sari from Gujarat.

  2. Kangra paintings Love scenes of Krishna is an important theme of this painting.

  3. Mata Ni Pachedi Wooden carving technique.

  4. Pithora paintings Mural paintings practised only by women

How many pairs above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 20
Option b is the correct answer.

At the G20 summit, Prime Minister Narendra Modi gifted paintings, silver bowls, and artwork to world leaders. The summit was held in Nusa Dua, Bali, Indonesia in November 2022.

  • Pair 1 is correct: Patola is a double ikat woven sari, usually made from silk, made in Patan, Gujarat, India. They are very expensive, once worn only by those belonging to royal and aristocratic families. Patola-weaving is a closely guarded family tradition and it is taught only to the sons. These are highly valued in Indonesia, and became part of the local weaving tradition there.

  • Pair 2 is correct: After the decline of the Mughal empire, many artists trained in the Mughal style migrated to the Kangra region in Himachal Pradesh as they got patronage by Raja Govardhan Singh in 1774. Kangra school of painting belongs to the category of Miniature painting and love scenes of Krishna was a very prominent theme of this school.

  • Pair 3 is incorrect: Mata ni pacchedi is not a wood carving technique rather it is a free hand painting in the textiles. The original creators of Mata ni Pacchedi (literal meaning - behind the Mother Goddess) are the Vaghari nomads who lived along the edges of the Sabarmati River in Gujarat. These textiles are sacred, wall art pieces that are used as a backdrop for shrines. The designs are made using hand block prints and freehand painting.

  • Pair 4 is incorrect: Pithora paintings are wall murals created as offerings to Pithora, the God of food grains. They are only painted by men commonly in the Chhotaudepur area of Gujarat. These simple paintings are traditionally done to seek blessings before a special occasion such as a wedding, the birth of a child or a festival.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 21

With reference to the Nizam Ul Mulk, the founder of Hyderabad state during the later phase of Mughal empire, consider the following statements:

  1. He never openly declared his independence from the Mughal empire.

  2. He reorganised the state finances by transferring large amounts of jagir lands into Khalisa land.

  3. He followed a policy of religious tolerance towards Hindus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 21
Option a is the correct answer.

In 1724 Nizam ul Mulk established autonomous rule over the Deccan region and started what came to be known as the Asaf Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Nizams of Hyderabad.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Nizam ul Mulk never openly declared his independence from the Mughal empire but in practice he acted like an independent ruler. He waged wars and concluded peace without any reference to the empire in Delhi.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It is Murshi Quli khan, a ruler of Bengal who transformed the large amount of jagir land into Khalisa land and introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal. Nizam ul Mulk continued to offer jagirs and he tried to get rid of corruption from the revenue system.

  • Statement 3 is correct: He followed a policy of religious tolerance towards Hindus. For example, a Hindu Puran Chand was his Dewan. He tried to consolidate his power by establishing an orderly administration in his state.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 22

Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian history were generally:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 22
Option d is the correct answer.

Option d is correct: The two major business communities in medieval India were the Banjaras (long-distance transporters) and Baniyas (village and town merchants). Banjaras during medieval period trading groups that moved from one place to another in buying and selling goods. The Banjaras combined pastoralism and the carrying trade. Their role in Indian agrarian commerce was extremely important. The basis for the trade and, indeed, for the existence of the Banjaras lay in conditions of inland transport. Goods were carried on boats and carts, and by camels and bullocks. They could travel with their herds over long

distances. They had to move in large groups for safety, and were kept together by strong clan ties and subordination to headmen.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 23

Recently one of the state governments has sent a proposal to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to get Cyclopean wall, an ancient structure, to be listed in the UNESCO World Heritage Site. In this context, which option best describe the term Cyclopean Wall?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 23
Option c is the correct answer.

Bihar government has sent a proposal to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to get Cyclopean wall, a more than 2,500 years old structure at Rajgir, listed in the UNESCO World Heritage Site. The Cyclopean Wall of Rajgir is a 40 km long wall of stone which encircled the ancient city of Rajgir to protect it from external enemies and invaders, built before 3rd century BC. The wall is among the oldest examples of cyclopean masonry in the world. It is believed to have been built in the pre-Mauryan era.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 24

With reference to the Group of Twenty (G20) organisation, consider the following statements:

  1. The theme of upcoming G20 summit “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” has been taken from Maha Upanishad.

  2. ‘Sherpas’ are governors of the central bank representing particular countries in the G20 summit.

  3. G20 in association with World Bank has launched Stolen asset recovery (StAR) initiative to put an end to safe havens for corrupt funds.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 24
Option a is the correct answer.

The Group of Twenty (G20) comprises 19 countries (Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Türkiye, United Kingdom and United States) and the European Union. The G20 members represent around 85% of the global GDP, over 75% of the global trade, and about two-thirds of the world population.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The theme of India’s G20 Presidency - Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam or One Earth · One Family · One Future - is drawn from the Maha Upanishad. Essentially, the theme affirms the value of all life – human, animal, plant, and microorganisms and their interconnectedness.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The G20 consists of two parallel tracks: the Finance Track and the Sherpa Track. The Sherpa side is coordinated by the Sherpas who are personal emissaries of the Leaders. Finance Track is led by Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of the member countries.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Stolen asset recovery (StAR) was launched by the World Bank and the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) (not by G20) to facilitate the return of stolen assets and put an end to safe havens for corrupt funds. G20 also works in the area of anti-corruption and Anti-Corruption Working Group (ACWG) established in 2010 and it reports to G20 Leaders on anti-corruption.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 25

With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:

  1. AIIB is a multilateral development bank with a capital size of $100 billion.

  2. India is the second-largest shareholder in AIIB.

  3. AIIB does not lend to members outside of Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 25
  • The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank whose mission is financing the Infrastructure for Tomorrow—infrastructure with sustainability at its core.

  • As a multilateral development bank focused on developing Asia, but with members from all over the world, investments in infrastructure and other productive sectors seek to foster sustainable economic development, create wealth and improve infrastructure connectivity.

  • AIIB was founded in 2016 with a significant capital endowment of $100 billion by 57 sovereigns. By the end of 2020, it had 103 approved Members representing approximately 79 percent of the global population and 65 percent of the global GDP. AIIB is headquartered in Beijing, China. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • All powers of the Bank are vested in our Board of Governors, which is the highest decision-making body under the Articles of Agreement. China is the largest shareholder with 26.57% voting shares in the bank, followed by India (7.59%), Russia (5.97%), and Germany (4.15%). Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • AIIB is an open and inclusive multilateral financial institution. Our doors are always open to countries and regions dedicated to promoting economic and social development in Asia. Membership in AIIB shall be open to members of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development or the Asian Development Bank. Any AIIB member can submit a proposal for funding. The Bank can lend to members beyond Asia if the project delivers a clear benefit to the region. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • In 2018, AIIB was granted Permanent Observer status in the deliberations of both the United Nations General Assembly and the Economic and Social Council, the two development-focused principal organs of the global body.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 26

With reference to PM Gati Shakti, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a digital platform to bring related ministries together for integrated planning of infrastructure projects.

  2. Under the scheme, dynamic mapping of all infrastructure projects with real-time updation will be provided by way of a map.

  3. An Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS) which approves any changes in the Master Plan has been constituted under the chairmanship of Special Secretary (Logistics) of Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 26
  • PM Gati Shakti Plan: Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti National Master Plan is a central government project, aimed to revolutionise infrastructure in India and to bring down logistics costs. Prime minister announced the launch of the Gati Shakti Yojana, Rs 100 lakh-crore project for developing 'holistic infrastructure' in India.

  • Gati Shakti is a digital platform that will bring 16 ministries including railways and roadways together for integrated planning and coordinated implementation of infrastructure connectivity projects. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • PM Gati Shakti will incorporate the infrastructure schemes of various Ministries and State Governments like Bharatmala, Sagarmala, inland waterways, dry/land ports, UDAN etc. Economic Zones like textile clusters, pharmaceutical clusters, defence corridors, electronic parks, industrial corridors, fishing clusters, agri zones will be covered to improve connectivity & make Indian businesses more competitive.

  • PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan has been developed as a Digital Master Planning tool by BISAG-N (Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geoinformatics) and has been prepared in dynamic Geographic Information System (GIS) platform wherein data on specific action plan of all the Ministries/Departments have been incorporated within a comprehensive database. Dynamic mapping of all infrastructure projects with real- time updation will be provided by way of a map developed by BISAG-N. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The institutional framework for rolling out, implementation, monitoring and support mechanism is designed to have a three-tier system:

    • Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGOs) - An Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS) under the Chairmanship of Cabinet Secretary has been constituted for monitoring the Master Plan and for approving any changes in the Master Plan to meet any emerging requirements. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

    • Network Planning Group (NPG): An Integrated Multimodal Network Planning Group (NPG) with heads of Network Planning Division of all connectivity infrastructure Ministries & Departments is responsible for unified planning and integration of the proposals and assist the EGOS in respect of its mandate.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 27

Consider the following:

  1. Life Insurance Corporation of India

  2. Max Life Insurance Company Limited

  3. General Insurance Corporation of India

  4. New India Assurance Company Limited

Which of the above are identified as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 27
  • Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) refer to insurers of such size, market importance, and domestic and global interconnectedness, whose distress or failure would cause a significant dislocation in the domestic financial system. They are perceived as insurers ‘too big or too important to fail’. D-SIIs are subjected to additional regulatory measures to deal with systemic risks and moral hazard issues.

  • D-SIIs are identified on an annual basis by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI). Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC), and New India Assurance Company Limited have been retained as D-SIIs for 2021-22.

  • Requirements for D-SIIs:

    • Public sector insurers are required to raise the level of corporate governance.

    • They are mandated to identify all relevant risks as well as promote a sound risk management culture.

    • They are subjected to enhanced regulatory supervision of the IRDAI.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 28

Which of the following statements best describes the Reserve Tranche Position of an economy?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 28
  • A reserve tranche is a portion of the required quota of currency each member country must provide to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be utilized for its own purposes without a service fee or economic reform conditions.

  • The IMF is funded through its members and their quota contributions. The reserve tranche is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access at any time without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

  • The reserve tranche represents the member’s unconditional drawing right on the IMF, created by the foreign exchange portion of the quota subscription, plus increase (decrease) through the IMF’s sale (repurchase) of the member’s currency to meet the demand for use of IMF resources by other members in need of balance of payments financing.

  • The reserve tranches that countries hold with the IMF are considered their facilities of first resort, meaning they will tap into the reserve tranche at a short notice before seeking a formal credit tranche.

  • Initially, member nations’ reserve tranches are 25% of their quota, but this position can change according to any lending that the IMF does with its holdings of the member’s currency. For any member country, out of the total quota, 25% should be paid in the form of foreign currency or gold. Hence this is called as reserve tranche or gold tranche. The remaining 75% can be in domestic currencies and it is called credit tranche.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 29

With reference to the horticulture sector in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Overall production in the horticulture sector has surpassed the food grain production.

  2. It contributes more than 50% to the Gross Value Added of the agriculture sector.

  3. Overall productivity of horticulture crops is higher than that of food grains.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 29
  • Indian horticulture sector contributes about 33% to the agriculture Gross Value Added (GVA) making very significant contribution to the Indian economy. Apart from ensuring nutritional security of the nation, it provides alternate rural employment opportunities, diversification in farm activities, and enhanced income to farmers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • India is currently producing about 320.48 million tones of horticulture produce which has surpassed the food grain production, that too from much less area (25.66 million Ha. for horticulture against 127.6 M. ha. for food grains). Productivity of horticulture crops is much higher compared to productivity of food grains (12.49 tones/ha against 2.23 tones/ha.). Hence statement 1 and statement 3 are correct.

  • India has emerged as world leader in the production of a variety of fruits like mango, banana, guava, papaya, sapota, pomegranate, Lime & aonla and is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables. Besides, India has maintained its dominance in the production of spices, coconut and cashewnut.

  • Among the new crops, kiwi, gherkins, kinnow, date palm and oil palm have been successfully introduced for commercial cultivation in the country. Launch of National Horticulture Mission has spurred the production and productivity of horticultural crops.

  • Productivity of horticulture crops has increased by about 38.5% between 2004-05 and 2021-22(3rd Advance Estimate). Increase in demand for horticultural produce due to greater health awareness, rising income, export demands and increasing population poses the challenge for further increasing the production and productivity of horticultural crops.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 30

Recently Lokur Committee was in the news.

It is set up to give recommendations on matters related to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 30
  • Experts have pointed out that the Office of Registrar-General of India (RGI) follows ‘obsolete’ criteria set out by Lokur Committee to define any new community as a Scheduled Tribe (ST).

  • Criteria set out by Lokur Committee are indications of primitive traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact with the community at large, and backwardness.

  • New criteria under government consideration included:

    • Socio-economic, including educational, backwardness vis-a-vis, rest of population of State;

    • Historical geographical isolation;

    • Distinct language/dialect;

    • Presence of a core culture relating to life-cycle, marriage, songs, etc.

    • Endogamy, or in case of exogamy, marital relationship primarily with other STs.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 31

Consider the following statements regarding the textile industry in India:

  1. The textiles and apparel industry in India is the largest employer among all the sectors.

  2. The Government targets to achieve US $100 billion in export for textile products by 2030.

  3. USA was the top export destination of textiles during FY2022.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 31
  • India’s textile sector is one of the oldest industries in the Indian economy, dating back to several centuries. The industry is extremely varied, with hand-spun and hand-woven textiles sectors at one end of the spectrum, with the capital-intensive sophisticated mills sector at the other end. The decentralised power looms/ hosiery and knitting sector forms the largest component of the textiles sector.

  • The textiles and apparel industry in India is the 2nd largest employer after agriculture in the country providing direct employment to 45 mn people and 100 mn people in allied industries. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • India’s textile and apparel exports (including handicrafts) stood at US$ 44.4 billion in FY22, a 41% increase YoY. The Government aims to achieve US$ 100 billion in export for textile products by 2030. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • India’s textile and apparel exports to the US, its single largest market, stood at 27% of the total export value in FY22. USA was the top export destination accounting for 27% share, followed by EU (18%), Bangladesh (12%) and UAE (6%). Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • Government has launched the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme with an approved outlay of INR 10,683 crore to promote production of MMF Apparel, MMF Fabrics and Products of Technical Textiles in the country to enable Textiles Industry to achieve size and scale and to become competitive.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 32

With reference to planning in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Bombay Plan focused on rapid industrialization with an emphasis on heavy capital goods and basic industries.

  2. Visvesvaraya Plan gave more importance to agriculture than industrialization.

  3. Sarvodaya Plan promoted land reforms, self-dependent villages, and decentralized participatory forms of planning and economic progress.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 32
  • The Bombay Plan was the popular title of ‘A Plan of Economic Development for India’. The eight capitalists involved in this plan were Purshotamdas Thakurdas, J.R.D. Tata, G.D. Birla, Lala Sri Ram, Kasturbhai Lalbhai, A.D. Shroff, Avdeshir Dalal and John Mathai. The Plan was published in 1944–45. Out of these eight industrialists, Purshotamdas Thakurdas was one among the 15 members of the National Planning Committee (1938); J.R.D. Tata, G.D. Birla, and Lala Sri Ram were members of the sub-committees (29 in total) of the National Planning Committee.

    • The popular sentiments regarding the need for planning and criss-cross of memberships between the NPC and the Bombay Plan club made possible some clear-cut agreements between these two major plans, which ultimately went to mould the very shape of the Indian economy after Independence.

  • Important agreements are as follows:

    • A basic agreement on the issue of the agrarian restructuring—abolition of all intermediaries (i.e., zamindari abolition), minimum wages, the guarantee of minimum or fair prices for agricultural products, cooperatives, credit and marketing supports.

    • Agreement on rapid industrialization for which both the plans agreed upon an emphasis on heavy capital goods and basic industries (the Bombay Plan had allocated 35 percent of its total plan outlay on basic industries). Hence statement 1 is correct.

    • Taking clues from the Soviet Planning, the NPC and the Bombay Plan both were in favour of simultaneous development of the essential consumer goods industries, but as a low-key affair.

    • Both the plans agreed upon the importance of promoting the medium-scale, small-scale, and cottage industries as they could provide greater employment and require lesser capital and lower order of plants and machineries.

    • Both the plans wanted the state to play an active role in the economy through planning, controlling, and overseeing the different areas of the economy, i.e., trade, and industry.

  • Visvesvaraya Plan: The credit of proposing the first blueprint of Indian planning is given to the popular civil engineer and the ex-Dewan of the Mysore state, M. Visvesvaraya. In his book The planned Economy of India, published in 1934, he outlined the broad contours of his plan proposal. His ideas of state planning were an exercise in democratic capitalism (similar to the USA) with emphasis on industrialization—a shift of labor from agricultural to industries, targeting to double the national income in one decade. Though there was no follow-up by the British government on this plan, it aroused an urge for national planning among the educated citizens of the country. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • Sarvodaya Plan: After the reports of the NPC were published and the government was set to go for the five-year plans, a lone blueprint for the planned development of India was formulated by the famous socialist leader Jayaprakash Narayan—the Sarvodaya Plan published in January 1950. The plan drew its major inspirations from the Gandhian techniques of constructive works by the community and trusteeship as well as the Sarvodaya concept of Acharya Vinoba Bhave, the eminent Gandhian constructive worker.

    • Major ideas of the plan were highly similar to the Gandhian Plan like an emphasis on agriculture, agri-based small and cottage industries, self-reliance and almost no dependence on foreign capital and technology, land reforms, self-dependent villages and decentralized participatory form of planning and economic progress, to name the major ones. Some of the accepted ideas of the plan got their due importance when the Government of India promoted five-year plans. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • Gandhian Plan: Espousing the spirit of Gandhian economic thinking, Sriman Narayan Agarwal formulated The Gandhian Plan in 1944. The plan laid more emphasis on agriculture. Even if he referred to industrialization, it was to the level of promoting cottage and village-level industries, unlike the NPC and the Bombay Plan which supported a leading role for the heavy and large industries. The plan articulated a ‘decentralized economic structure’ for India with ‘self-contained villages’.

  • People's Plan: In 1945, yet another plan was formulated by the radical humanist leader M.N. Roy, Chairman of the Post-War Reconstruction Committee of Indian Trade Union. The plan was based on Marxist socialism and advocated the need of providing the people with the ‘basic necessities of life’. Agricultural and industrial sectors, both were equally highlighted by the plan. Many economists have attributed the socialist leanings in Indian planning to this plan.

  • FICCI Proposal: In 1934, a serious need of national planning was recommended by the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), the leading organisation of Indian capitalists. Its President N.R. Sarkar proclaimed that the days of undiluted laissez-faire were gone forever and for a backward country like India, a comprehensive plan for economic development covering the whole gamut of economic activities was a necessity. Voicing the views of the capitalist class, he further called for a high powered ‘National Planning Commission’ to coordinate the whole process of planning so that the country could make a structural break with the past and achieve its full growth potential.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 33

With reference to the recently signed Australia-India water security initiative (AIWASI), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a part of Australia’s South Asia Water Security Initiative (SAWASI).

  2. It aims to create at least 100 water secure cities by 2030.

  3. It proposes to implement stormwater treatment and reuse systems to improve water security.

  4. It also aims to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections to all households in rural India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 33
Option b is the correct answer.

Recently, India and Australia signed an initiative called Australia India water Security initiative (AIWASI).

  • Statement 1 is correct: Australia India water Security initiative (AIWASI) is a part of South Asia Water Security Initiative (SAWASI) of Department of Foreign Affairs and Trade (DFAT), Australia. It aims at strengthening South Asian city-level water governance by (a) supporting governments to provide urban water services and (b) improving water security for disadvantaged communities in India and Pakistan.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: There is a component of the project known as AIWASI CDP (Community level Demonstration Project). Its goal is to improve water security for two disadvantaged communities in India by implementing pilot Water Sensitive Urban Design (WSUD) solutions through participatory engagement and joint accountability mechanisms. There is not any defined goal of achieving at least 100 water secure cities under this initiative.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Water Sensitive Urban Design (WSUD) solutions proposes to improve water security by stormwater treatment and reuse systems, decentralised nature-based sewage, community-based rainwater harvesting, groundwater recharge systems, and innovative circular solutions at WASH stations etc.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Providing safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections to all households in rural India is an aim of the Jal Jeevan mission (not an aim of AIWASI). Jal Jeevan mission aims to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India. On the other hand, the scope of the AIWASI initiative largely restricts to Cities.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 34

With reference to, “Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan” (PM-AASHA), which of the following schemes is/are part of PM-AASHA?

  1. The Price Support Scheme (PSS)

  2. The Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)

  3. The Pilot of Private Procurement and Stockist Scheme (PPPS)

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 34
  • Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA): The Scheme is aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce.

  • It is expected that the increase in MSP will be translated to farmers’ income by way of robust procurement mechanism in coordination with the State Governments.

  • The three schemes that are part of AASHA are:

    • The Price Support Scheme (PSS)

    • The Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)

    • The Pilot of Private Procurement and Stockist Scheme (PPPS)

    • These three components will complement the existing schemes of the Department of Food and Public Distribution.

  • They relate to paddy, wheat and other cereals and coarse grains where procurement is at MSP now.

  • PSS – Under the PSS, physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds and copra will be done by Central Nodal Agencies.

  • Besides, NAFED and Food Corporation of India will also take up procurement of crops under PSS.

  • The expenditure and losses due to procurement will be borne by the Centre.

  • PDPS – Under the PDPS, the Centre proposes to cover all oilseeds.

  • The difference between the MSP and actual selling/modal price will be directly paid into the farmer’s bank account.

  • Farmers who sell their crops in recognised mandis within the notified period can benefit from it.

  • PPSS – In the case of oilseeds, States will have the option to roll out PPSS in select districts.

  • Under this, a private player can procure crops at MSP when market prices drop below MSP.

  • The private player will then be compensated through a service charge up to a maximum of 15% of the MSP.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 35

The water bird count at the Kole Wetlands, a Ramsar site, and an Important Bird Area was held recently as part of the Asian Waterbird Count (AWC) 2023. Where is Kole wetlands situated?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 35
  • Recent Context: The water bird count at the Kole Wetlands — a Ramsar site and an Important Bird Area — was held as part of the Asian Waterbird Count (AWC) 2023.

  • The survey was jointly organized by the Kerala State Forest Department, Kerala Agricultural University & Kole Birders with support from students of the College of Forestry, College of Climate Change, Sir Syed College, and College of Veterinary, and members of CNHS.

  • Most spotted were wood sandpiper (1,016), cattle egret (770), grey-headed swamphen (690), little cormorant (647), lesser whistling-duck (622). Northern pintail (495), white egret sp. (466) and Indian pond-heron (418) were also common.

  • Kole wetlands lie between the Chalakudy river in the Thrissur district and the Bharathapuzha river in the Malappuram district, Kerala.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 36

Which of the following is/are included to estimate food inflation in India?

  1. Cereals

  2. Fruits

  3. Eggs

  4. Sugar and Confectionery

  5. Tobacco

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 36
  • Food inflation: The Consumer Price Index (CPI) tracks the change in retail prices of goods and services which households purchase for their daily consumption. To measure inflation, we estimate how much CPI has increased in terms of percentage change over the same period the previous year. If prices have fallen, it is known as deflation (negative inflation).

  • Food items are included to indicated inflation in the economy. Food accounts for about 46% of India’s Consumer Price Index (CPI), making it the highest among inflation-targeting countries. Most food items, namely, cereals, pulses, milk, fruits and vegetables, meat-fish eggs and sugar etc. are included in it.

  • Although Pan, tobacco and intoxicants are included in the CPI, they do not come under the food and beverages category.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 37

With reference to Neem Coated Urea, consider the following statements:

  1. Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms.

  2. It prevents leaching of nitrogen of urea into the soil and hence prevents the soil from damage.

  3. It can enhance the yield of paddy and soybean.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 37
  • Neem has proven nitrification inhibition properties. This way it slows down the process of nitrogen release from urea (by about 10 to 15 percent). Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) of Neem Coated Urea increases resulting in reduced consumption of NCU as compared to normal urea. Thus it reduces the consumption of the fertilizer.

  • Some of the benefits of Neem Coated urea include:

    • Enhance the yield of paddy, sugarcane, maize, soybean, Tur/Red Gram. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    • Decrease the urea requirement. Hence, save Money.

    • Improvement in soil health.

    • Reduction in usage of plant protection chemicals.

    • Reduction in pest and disease attack.

    • Negligible diversion towards non-agricultural purposes.

    • The excessive use of urea has deteriorated the soil health and adversely impacting overall crop yield.

    • Neem coated urea prevents leaching of nitrogen of urea into the soil and hence prevents the soil from damaging. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The government hence decided to make it mandatory for all the indigenous producers of urea to produce 75 per cent of their total production of subsidised urea as Neem Coated urea.

  • Release of neem oil in the soil does not lead to increase in nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 38

Consider the following statements regarding National Logistics Policy 2022:

  1. It aims to lower the cost of logistics from the current 10% of GDP to less than 5% by the year 2050.

  2. India aims to be among the top 25 countries in the LPI (Logistics Performance Index) by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 38
  • The National Logistics Policy has been launched recently. It provides a comprehensive agenda to develop the entire logistics ecosystem. The policy has been formulated with two major visions.

    • The first is to reduce logistics cost in India by 5 percentage points of GDP over the next 5 years (from current 13-14% of GDP to 8-9% of GDP). Hence statement 1 is not correct.

    • The second is to improve India’s ranking in the Logistics Performance Index. It aims to enhance logistics sector competitiveness through a unified policy environment and an integrated institutional mechanics.

  • The policy aims to boost economic growth, provide employment opportunities, and make Indian products more competitive in the global market.

  • The three targets of NLP are:

    • First, to reduce the cost of logistics in India to be comparable to global benchmarks by 2030.

    • Second, improve the Logistics Performance Index ranking, to be among the top 25 countries by 2030. According to the World Bank Logistics Index of 2018, India is ranked 44th in logistics cost. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    • Third, create a data-driven decision support mechanism for an efficient logistics ecosystem.

  • There are 4 significant steps to be implemented under the NLP through the Comprehensive Logistics Action Plan (CLAP).

    • Integration of Digital System (IDS): There will be digital integration of 30 different systems from 7 departments, integrating data from the road transport, railways, customs, aviation, and commerce departments.

    • Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP): This will ensure smoother cargo movement. It will enable the exchange of information confidentially on a real-time basis. This National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC) Logistics Data Bank Project has been leveraged. This will bring all the digital services related to the transportation sector into a single portal, freeing the exporters from a host of very long and cumbersome processes.

    • Ease of Logistics (ELOG): It will enable and ensure the ease of logistics business through transparency and accessibility. Through this portal, industry associations can directly take up any such matters which are causing problems in their operations and performance with government agencies.

    • System Improvement Group: It will monitor all logistics-related projects regularly.

  • Apart from the above, CLAP envisages benchmarking service standards, human resource development, capacity building, development of logistics parks, etc.

  • Proper implementation of the policy will result in greater integration of global value chains and higher share in global trade besides facilitating accelerated economic growth in the country, is another outcome envisaged.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 39

In the context of the World Trade Organization (WTO), consider the following statements with respect to the Amber Box subsidies:

  1. These are trade distorting by making products of a particular country cheaper in comparison to other country's products.

  2. Support limit of subsidy is capped at 10% of the total agricultural production for developed countries and at 5% for developing countries.

  3. It includes input subsidies such as subsidies for fertilisers, seeds, electricity, etc.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 39
Amber Box Subsidies:
  • Amber box are those subsidies that can distort international trade by making products of a particular country cheaper in comparison to other country's products. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Examples of amber subsidies include electricity, seeds, fertilizers, irrigation, minimum support prices etc. The minimum Support Price (MSP) is also included in this box. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • Nearly all domestic support measures considered to distort production and trade (with some exceptions) fall into the amber box, which is defined in Article 6 of the Agriculture Agreement as all domestic supports except those in the blue and green boxes. These include measures to support prices, or subsidies directly related to production quantities.

  • These supports are subject to limits. “De minimis” minimal supports for both product-specific and non-product-specific support are allowed, defined as a share of the value of agricultural production.

  • This threshold is generally 5% of the value of agricultural production for developed countries, and 10% for most developing countries — although some WTO members agreed to a different level when they negotiated to join the WTO. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • Furthermore, 32 WTO members with larger subsidies than the de minimis levels at the beginning of the post-Uruguay Round reform period committed to reducing these support levels.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 40

Recently, the 108th Indian Science Congress was held in Nagpur. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Science Congress:

  1. The Indian Science Congress Association was an initiative of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

  2. It is presided over by the chairman of the Defence Research and Development Organisation.

Which of the statements given is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 40
  • Recently, the 108th session of the India Science Congress (ISC) was inaugurated by the Prime Minister. The event’s theme is ‘Science and Technology for Sustainable Development with Women’s Empowerment’.

    • Among the events, a Children’s Science Congress, in order to stimulate “scientific interest and temperament”, a Farmers’ Science Congress, to “improve the bio-economy” and attract the youth to agriculture, and a Tribal Science Congress to platform for the “scientific display of indigenous ancient knowledge system and practice” also featured as part of 108th Indian Science Congress.

  • The Indian Science Congress Association (ISCA) owes its origin to the foresight and initiative of two British Chemists, namely, Professor J. L. Simonsen and Professor P.S. MacMahon. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

    • It occurred to them that scientific research in India might be stimulated if an annual meeting of research workers somewhat on the lines of the British Association for the Advancement of Science could be arranged.

  • It is organized by the Indian Science Congress Association (ISCA), an independent body functioning with the support of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) in the central government.

  • The Association was formed with the following objectives:

    • To advance and promote the cause of science in India.

    • To hold an annual Congress at a suitable place in India

    • To publish proceedings, journals, transactions etc.

    • To popularise science.

  • The first meeting of the Congress was held from January 15-17, 1914 at the premises of the Asiatic Society, Calcutta, with the Honourable Justice Sir Ashutosh Mukherjee, the then Vice-Chancellor of the Calcutta University, as President.

  • After independence ISCA has been actively represented in various foreign scientific academies associations, namely the British Association for the Advancement of Science, the American Association for the Advancement of Science, the French Academy of Sciences, the Bangladesh Academy of Sciences, Sri Lanka Association for the Advancement of Science, etc. with a view to having a first-hand knowledge on topics of mutual interest.

  • Over the years, Indian Science Congress was presided (General President) by prominent scientific personalities such as Professor P.C. Mahalanobis (1950), M. S. Swaminathan (1976), Prof. C. N. R. Rao (1988), etc. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 41

With reference to “Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP)”, consider the following statements:

  1. FRP is the price declared by the government, which sugar mills are legally bound to pay to farmers for the cane procured from them.

  2. It is fixed and announced by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 41
  • Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the price declared by the government, which sugar mills are legally bound to pay to farmers for the cane procured from them. Mills have the option of signing an agreement with farmers, which would allow them to pay the FRP in installments. Delays in payment can attract an interest up to 15% per annum, and the sugar commissioner can recover unpaid FRP as dues in revenue recovery by attaching properties of the mills. The payment of FRP across the country is governed by the Sugarcane Control order, 1966 issued under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 which mandates payment within 14 days of the date of delivery of the cane. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • It has been determined on the recommendation of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. It is an advisory body whose recommendations are not binding on the Government. CCEA is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. The FRP is based on the Rangarajan Committee report on reorganizing the sugarcane industry.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 42

With reference to Karakattam dance, consider the following statements:

  1. It is mostly famous in regions of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

  2. It is primarily performed at the time of Onam to celebrate harvest.

  3. In this dance, the performer balances a pot on their head.

  4. The dance sometimes involves the incorporation of various acrobatics skills.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 42
Option c is the correct answer.

Karakattam is a form of folk dance performed by both men and women.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Karakattam is mostly famous in Tamil Nadu, it’s performed in different parts of Kerala as well.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It is performed at festivals, conferences, roadshows and primarily at Mariamman festivals. It is one of the many creative traditions that owe their existence to Mariamman, the rain goddess. The performances start from the month of December and go on till May. Onam is mainly celebrated between month of August and September.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Both men and women perform the dance on the muddy ground. The performers balance a pot on their head. Three tiers of flower arrangements of different colours sit on top of a container filled to the brim with either water, rice, or soil. All of this is balanced on the head of a Karakattam dancer while he or she dances.

  • Statement 4 is correct: The dance form has undergone radical change and adaptation in recent years. Earlier, it was performed in temples or Aatta karagam which was pure entertainment. Now, lot of acrobatic skills and circus-like acts are incorporated into the dance. For instance, while balancing the pot on their heads through intricate steps and body or arm movements also dance on a rolling block of wood or up and down a ladder.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 43

Which of the following countries share land borders with Russia?

  1. Sweden

  2. Kazakhstan

  3. Turkey

  4. Uzbekistan

  5. North Korea

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 43
  • Option 1 is incorrect: Sweden has no land border with Russia. Sweden shares its major border line with the Baltic Sea and Finland (which shares borders with Russia) to its east. To its west lies the country Norway (which shares land borders with Russia).

  • Option 2 is correct: Kazakhstan shares land borders with Russia. Kazakhstan lies to the south of Russia. Other countries lying south of Russia are China, Georgia, Azerbaijan.

  • Option 3 is incorrect: Turkey does not share a border with Russia. Between Russia and Turkey lies the country Georgia and Black Sea.

  • Option 4 is incorrect: Uzbekistan does not share land borders with Russia. To the north of Uzbekistan lies Kazakshatan. Aral Sea is located in between Uzbekistan and Kazakhstan.

  • Option 5 is correct: North Korea shares a land border with Russia. The terrestrial boundary between Russia and North Korea runs along the thalweg of the Tumen River and its estuary.

Source: Oxford Student Atlas for India - Political map of Europe and Asia.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 44

With reference to the history of India, the term ‘Angadias’ best reflects which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 44
Option b is the correct answer.

The Angadia system is a system in the country where traders send cash generally from one state to another through a person called Angadia.

  • Option a is incorrect: This is Ibadat Khana. In 1575, Akbar built a hall called Ibadat Khana or the Hall of Prayer at his new capital, Fatehpur Sikri. To this he called selected theologians, mystics and those of his courtiers and nobles who were known for their scholarship and intellectual attainments. Akbar discussed religious and spiritual topics with them.

  • Option b is correct: Angadia stands for courier. Angadia is responsible for transferring money in cash from one state to another for which they charge a nominal fee. It is largely used in the jewellery business and prevalent in the Mumbai – Surat area as they are the most popular route as they are two ends of the diamond trade. Generally, it is the Gujarati, Marwari and Malbari community that are involved in the business.

  • Option c is incorrect: Trading communities are communities largely engaged in trading activities for their livelihood. Chettiars, Marwaris and Banjaras were the principal trading groups of India.

  • Option d is incorrect: A guild is an association of artisans or merchants or any other people with similar interests or pursuits. A moneylender is a person or group who typically offers small personal loans at high rates of interest.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 45

Which of the following statements regarding 'Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana' is/are correct?

  1. It is a one-year life insurance scheme renewable from year to year offering coverage for death due to any reason.

  2. Individuals in the age group of 18-70 years having a savings bank or a post office account are entitled to enroll under the scheme.

  3. It is mandatory for the participatory account holders to link their Aadhar Card to their account to avail benefits of the scheme.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 45
  • Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) is available to people in the age group of 18 to 50 years having a bank account and who give their consent to join/enable auto-debit. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • It is a one-year life insurance scheme. It provides benefits of life cover of Rs. 2 Lakh in case of death due to any reason against a premium of Rs. 436/- per annum. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The scheme is being offered by Life Insurance Corporation and all other life insurers who are willing to offer the product on similar terms with necessary approvals and tie up with banks for this purpose.

  • Aadhar card linking to a participatory bank account is mandatory to obtain the benefits of this scheme. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 46

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Dara Shikoh?

  1. He translated the Sanskrit epic Mahabharata into Persian.

  2. He authored Safinat-ul-Awliya, a book that documents the life of prophet and his family.

  3. He believed in the concept of ‘One Reality and One God’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 46
Option c is the correct answer.

Dara Shikoh was the son of Shah Jahan. Dara Shikoh was killed on the orders of his brother Aurangzeb in 1659 after losing the war of succession.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Dara Shikoh translated the Upanishads into Persian in 1657 and this work entitled Sirr-I-Akbar (the Great Secret). The Razmnama (Book of War) is a Persian translation of the epic Mahabharata, commissioned by the Mughal Emperor Akbar.

  • Statement 2 is correct: He authored Safinat-ul-Awliya, a concise document detailing the lives of the Prophet and his family, the Caliphs and of saints belonging to the five major Sufi orders, then popular in India.

  • Statement 3 is correct: His works Majma-ul-Bahrain and Sirr-i-Akbar are devoted to the cause of establishing connections between Hinduism and Islam.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 47

With reference to the recession in an economy, consider the following statements:

  1. Two consecutive quarters of negative economic growth is an indicator of recession.

  2. Recession is normally considered to be extremely severe than depression as the decline in GDP can exceed 10 percent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 47
  • According to the World Bank’s annual report global economic prospects, the global economy will come “dangerously close” to a recession this year, owing to poorer growth in all of the world’s top economies – the United States, Europe, and China.

  • There is no official definition of recession, but there is general recognition that the term refers to a period of decline in economic activity. Very short periods of decline are not considered recessions. Most commentators and analysts use, as a practical definition of recession, two consecutive quarters of decline in a country’s real (inflation-adjusted) gross domestic product (GDP)—the value of all goods and services a country produces. Although this definition is a useful rule of thumb, it has drawbacks. A focus on GDP alone is narrow, and it is often better to consider a wider set of measures of economic activity to determine whether a country is indeed suffering a recession. Using other indicators can also provide a timelier gauge of the state of the economy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • There is no formal definition of depression, but most analysts consider a depression to be an extremely severe recession, in which the decline in GDP exceeds 10 percent. There have been only a handful of depression episodes in advanced economies since 1960. The most recent was in the early 1990s in Finland, which registered a decline in GDP of about 14 percent. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 48

With reference to 'major airports in India, consider the following statements:

  1. An airport can be designated as a 'major airport' only if it has annual passenger traffic of at least 35 lakhs.

  2. Airports Authority of India (AAI) regulates tariffs for aeronautical services at major airports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 48
  • Earlier, Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) under Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008 was responsible to designate an airport as a major airport if it had annual passenger traffic of at least 35 lakhs.

  • The Airport Economic Regulatory Authority of India (Amendment) Act, 2021 extended the definition of “major airports'', empowering the government to designate any airport as a major airport by a notification.

  • Further, now a grouping of airports can be notified as major airports in order to group profitable airports with non-profitable ones, which could be offered in public-private partnership (PPP) mode as a package to the prospective bidders. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India (AERA) is an independent economic regulator to regulate tariffs and other charges (development fee and passenger service fee) for aeronautical services at a major airport and also a group of airports together. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 49

With reference to various pricing mechanisms, which of the following statements is not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 49
  • Fixation of price levels for wheat and rice by the Commission for Agriculture Costs and Prices (CACP) is an example of Support Price. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

  • Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.

  • The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

  • On the recommendations of CACP, the MSP is finally announced by CCEA- Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.

  • Minimum Support Price- Government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane.

  • The mandated crops are 14 crops of the Kharif season, 6 rabi crops and two other commercial crops.

  • In addition, the MSPs of toria and de-husked coconut are fixed on the basis of the MSPs of rapeseed/mustard and copra, respectively.

  • An administered price is the price of a good or service as dictated by a government or centralized authority, as opposed to buyers and sellers interacting according to supply and demand. Examples of administered prices include price controls and rent controls. Price controls are often imposed to maintain the affordability of certain goods and to prevent price gouging (of gasoline, for example). Rent control and stabilization are used to limit rent rises in certain cities.

  • Price controls are government-mandated minimum or maximum prices set for specific goods and services. Price controls are put in place to manage the affordability of goods and services on the market. Minimums are called price floors while maximums are called price ceilings.

  • The market price is the current price at which an asset or service can be bought or sold. The market price of an asset or service is determined by the forces of supply and demand.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 50

Which of the following are most likely consequences of rigid labor laws?

  1. Increased compliance burden on firms

  2. Increased use of contract labor

  3. Entry and exit barriers for firms

  4. Difficulties in hiring and firing employees

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 11 - Question 50
  • Strict labor laws can create compliance burdens for businesses, as they must ensure that they are following all relevant regulations and fulfilling their obligations to their employees. This can involve a significant amount of time and resources, as businesses may need to train staff on the relevant laws and policies, implement systems and processes to ensure compliance, and respond to any issues or complaints that arise. Hence option 1 is correct.

  • Strict labor laws could promote the use of contract labor. For example, if a business is required to provide certain benefits or protections to regular employees under labor laws, it may be more cost-effective for the business to use contract labor rather than hiring regular employees. This is because contract workers are not typically entitled to the same benefits and protections as regular employees, and may be more flexible in terms of the hours and tasks they are willing to perform. Hence option 2 is correct.

  • Strict labor laws can act as barriers to entry for businesses, as they may need to comply with a range of regulations and obligations in order to operate legally. This can involve significant time and resources, and may be particularly challenging for small or new businesses that may not have the same level of experience or expertise in navigating complex labor laws. Strict labor laws can also act as barriers to ex