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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 1

With reference to the Off-budget Borrowings, consider the following statements:

  1. These are the loans that public sector undertakings take on behalf of the Union Government.

  2. These constitute one of the largest items in the fiscal deficit of the Government.

  3. Repayment of principal and interest of such borrowings is done from the Central Government Budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 1
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect: Off-budget borrowings are loans that are taken not by the Centre directly, but by another public institution, like public sector undertakings, which borrow on the directions of the central government. These also include the deferred payments of bills and loans by the Centre. These items constitute off-budget borrowings because these loans and deferred payments are not part of fiscal deficit calculations. Off budget borrowings is not counted in the calculation of fiscal deficit. This helps keep the country’s fiscal deficit within acceptable limits.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Off-budget Borrowings are those financial liabilities that are raised by public sector undertakings for which repayment of entire principal and interest is done from the Central Government Budget. Such borrowings are made by state-owned firms to fund government schemes but are not part of the official budget calculations. This means that though the borrowing is not a part of the consolidated fund of India, the interest payment for such borrowings is made out of the consolidated fund.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 2

Consider the following statements with respect to the INTERPOL notices:

  1. A Purple Notice is used to seek information on modus operandi used by criminals.

  2. A Red Notice is an international arrest warrant for persons with pending legal action.

  3. A Blue Notice is a global police alert for missing persons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 2
Option a is the correct answer.

The International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL) is an intergovernmental organization established in 1923. It facilitates worldwide police cooperation and crime control in around 194 countries. INTERPOL Notices are international requests for cooperation or alerts allowing police in member countries to share critical crime-related information. Notices are published by the General Secretariat at the request of a National Central Bureau and are made available to all the member countries.

  • Statement 1 is correct: INTERPOL's Purple Notices are used to seek or provide information on modus operandi, objects, devices and concealment methods used by criminals.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: A Red Notice is a request to law enforcement worldwide to locate and provisionally arrest a person pending extradition, surrender, or similar legal action. A Red Notice is not an international arrest warrant. Red Notices are issued for fugitives wanted either for prosecution or to serve a sentence. This follows judicial proceedings in the country issuing the request. This is not always the home country of the individual, but the country where the crime was committed. When a person is sought for prosecution, they have not been convicted and should be considered innocent until proven guilty.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: A Yellow Notice (and not blue notice) is a global police alert for a missing person. It is published for victims of parental abductions, criminal abductions (kidnappings) or unexplained disappearances. It can also be used to help identify a person who is unable to identify himself or herself. Blue Notice is issued to collect additional information about a person’s identity, location or activities in relation to a crime.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 3

With reference to the world distribution of rainfall, consider the following statements:

  1. Generally, the rate of rainfall decreases steadily from the equator to the poles.

  2. The coastal areas receive more rainfall than the interior of the continents.

  3. Between 35 degree to 40-degree North latitudes, the rainfall decreases from the Western coast towards the eastern coast.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 3
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: As we proceed from the equator towards the pole's rainfall goes on decreasing steadily.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The coastal areas of the world receive greater amounts of rainfall than the interior of the continents. Also, the rainfall is more over the oceans than on the landmasses of the world because of being great sources of water.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Between the latitudes 35 degree and 40-degree N and S of the equator, the rain is heavier on the eastern coasts and goes on decreasing towards the west.

  • Knowledge Base: Between 45 degree and 65-degree N and S of equator, due to the westerlies, the rainfall is first received on the western margins of the continents and it goes on decreasing towards the east.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 4

The term fraternity present in the Preamble gets reflected implicitly in which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

  1. Part-III

  2. Part-IV (A)

  3. 6th Schedule

  4. Part-IV

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 4
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Fraternity essentially means that all the citizens should behave like members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior. The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things—the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. The word 'integrity' has been added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976).

  • Option 1 is correct: Part III deals with fundamental rights and does talk about the fraternity ideal implicitly. Fundamental rights are the basic human rights enshrined in the Constitution of India which are guaranteed to all citizens. They are applied without discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender, etc. Value of Fraternity gets manifested in the Fundamental right through provisions like Article 17 [ ban of untouchability to uphold dignity of an individual], Artucle 23 [ ban on child labor], Article 25 [secularism promotes unity and integrity], etc.

  • Option 2 is correct: The idea of fraternity finds mention in Art. 51A(e) of (Part-IV A) i.e., fundamental duties, where it is the duty of every citizen “to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practice derogatory to the dignity of women”.

  • Option 3 is correct: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states. It promotes fraternity by upholding the dignity of the tribal people as they can govern themselves according to their customs and values and also within the larger framework of nationalism, Sixth Schedule fulfils their needs and aspirations, thus promoting unity and integrity of the nation.

  • Option 4 is correct: Part-IV of Indian Constitution deals with directive principles of state policy which are instructions to the state. It aims to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state. It promotes fraternity by upholding dignity of an individual through provisions like Article 39(b) [the equitable distribution of material resoruces of the community for the common good], Article 39(c) [prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production], article 43 [living wage for workers], etc. Further, unity and integrity is upheld through provisions like article 44 [ uniform civil code for the citizens], etc.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding Wildlife Protection Act,1972:

  1. Schedule I of the Act provides the list of vermin animals that can be hunted with prior permission.

  2. Schedule III of the Act contains exclusive protection for specimens listed in the Appendices under CITES.

  3. Schedule VI of the Act protects and regulates the cultivation of specified plants in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 5
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Recently, the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Bill, 2021 was introduced in Lok Sabha. It seeks to increase the species protected under the law, and implement the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). Currently, the Act has six schedules for specially protected plants (one), specially protected animals (four), and vermin species (one). The Bill reduces the total number of schedules to four.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Schedule I of the Act gives absolute protection to certain species and these cannot be infringed on any account. The animals can only be hunted if they are dangerous to human or diseased or disabled. Schedule V of act includes the list of vermin animals-mice, common crow, monkey, pigs, bats, etc. For this purpose, the hunter has to apply for a license to the District Forest Officer who will allow a hunter to shoot during a specific season and restricted area.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Schedule III of the Act includes animals that are not in danger of becoming extinct or endangered. The penalties under this section are also less than Schedule I and II. However, there is no schedule exclusively for specimens listed in the Appendices under CITES. The Bill reduces the total number of schedules to four by: (i) reducing the number of schedules for specially protected animals to two (one for greater protection level), (ii) removes the schedule for vermin species, and (iii) inserts a new schedule for specimens listed in the Appendices under CITES (scheduled specimens).

  • Statement 3 is correct: Schedule VI of the act concerns with the cultivation and plant life and gives teeth to setting up more protected animal parks. It provides for regulation in cultivation of a specified plant and restricts its possession, sale and transportation. Both cultivation and trade of specified plants can only be carried out with prior permission of competent authority.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 6

With reference to Atmospheric Brown Clouds, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a thick haze of polluting aerosols extending from the ground level to a height of 3 kms.

  2. Its distribution is limited to regions over South Asia and the Northern Indian Ocean.

  3. It causes both increased absorption of solar radiation as well as its enhanced reflection.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 6
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Atmospheric brown clouds (ABCs) are layers of air pollution consisting of aerosols such as black carbon (BC), organic carbon, and dust that alter the absorption and reflection of solar radiation at earth surface. ABCs also contain other anthropogenic aerosols such as sulphates, nitrates, and fly ash. During experiments such as INDOEX, they have been found to exist from the ground level upto a height of 3 km from the earth’s surface.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It was first found over this region comprising of South Asia and North Indian Ocean (NIO) during the INDOEX experiment of late 1990s, which is why they were informally named “Asian Brown Clouds'', however it has since been discovered to be a global phenomenon resulting from human polluting activities. It has been found to exist over other regions too such as Africa, South America, North America and even Europe.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The effect of these aerosols is dual in nature. It causes both warming due to increased absorption of solar radiation, especially by aerosols such as black and brown carbon. However other light coloured aerosols such as nitrates and sulphates caused enhanced reflection of solar radiation, leading to cooling effect.

  • Knowledge Base:

    • Atmospheric brown clouds are particularly prevalent in tropical regions; they occur as a result of elevated pollutant emissions and a lengthy dry season that prevents aerosols from being removed from the atmosphere through precipitation.

    • It causes thermal inversions and pollution related deaths in urban areas.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Chagas disease’:

  1. Chagas disease is a bacterial infection which causes skin related diseases.

  2. It is primarily spread through the bite of triatomine bugs, also known as "kissing bugs".

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 7
  • Chagas disease, also known as American trypanosomiasis, is a parasitic infection caused

  • by the protozoan parasite Trypanosoma cruzi. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The symptoms of Chagas disease can range from mild to severe, and may include fever,

  • fatigue, body aches, and a swelling of one eyelid.

  • It is primarily spread through the bite of triatomine bugs, also known as "kissing bugs".

  • Hence, statement 2 is correct. The disease can also be transmitted through blood transfusions, organ transplants, and from mother to child during pregnancy.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 8

Consider the following statements about the Hot Desert type climatic region:

  1. Aridity of hot deserts is mainly due to the effects of off-shore trade winds.

  2. Desert vegetation has highly specialized means of adaptation to an arid environment.

  3. Mineral wealth of Deserts make them economically attractive.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 8
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Deserts are regions of scanty rainfall which may be hot like the hot deserts of the Saharan type; or temperate as are the mid-latitude deserts like the Gobi. The Aridity of hot deserts is mainly due to effects of off-shore trade winds. offshore wind is the type of wind that blows from the land towards the sea.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Plants that exist in deserts have highly specialized means of adapting themselves to arid environment. Most desert shrubs have long roots and are well spaced out and search for groundwater. Plants have few or no leaves and their foliage is either waxy leathery, hairy and needle shaped to reduce the loss of water through transpiration. Some of them are entirely leafless with pricks and thorns. Others like Cacti have thick and succulent stems to store water for long droughts.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Deserts have rich mineral resources. The lure of mineral wealth has attracted many immigrants into the desert.

    • Gold brought immigrants to the Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie towns of the Great Australian Desert.

    • The Kalahari Desert is rich in diamond and copper.

    • The most arid Atacama Desert (in Northern Chile) is famous for mining of caliches (cemented gravels) from which sodium nitrate is prepared. Beside nitrates, copper is also mined.

    • Desert of North America - Silver is mined in Mexico, Uranium in Utah and Copper in Nevada.

    • Saharan and Arabian deserts are today supplying Oil all over the globe.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 9

With reference to the Desai-Liaqat Plan, consider the following statements:

  1. It came in the aftermath of the Cripps Mission.

  2. It was a formula for partitioning India to finalise the transfer of power

  3. No settlement could be reached between the Congress and the League on the plan.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 9
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Desai: Liaquat Pact was an informal agreement between Bhulabhai Desai of Congress and Liaquat Ali Khan of the Muslim League. It was an effort to construct an alliance between the 2 parties in order to bring independence faster.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Desai-Liaqat Pact was announced in January 1945. It came in the period between 1942 (post failure of Cripps Mission and the beginning of Quit India Movement) and 1945 (announcement of Wavell Plan). It was a plan to end the deadlock between the Congress and the Muslim League, which was being used as an excuse by the British to delay independence.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Among many things that the Congress and the Muslim were deadlocked over, one was the formula for representation of minorities in the Interim Government to be formed while talks for transfer of power from British to Indian hands was being negotiated. In keeping with its ‘Two Nation Theory’, the League asserted that it be recognized as the only legitimate party representing the interests of all Muslims in pre-independence India. The Congress refused to do so. In this backdrop the leaders of Congress and League, Bhulabai Desai and Liaqat Khan respectively decided to hold talks and find a compromise on the representation formula for the Interim Government at the Centre, not the partition of India. The Congress had still not agreed to the partitioning of the nation at this point. Hence this statement is incorrect.

  • Statement 3 is correct: No settlement could be reached between the Congress and the League on the proposals of the plan. Thus, the plan could not achieve anything substantial.

  • Knowledge Base:

    • The Proposals of the Pact:

      • An equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League in the central legislature.

      • 20% reserved seats for minorities.

    • Significance:

      • The fact that a sort of parity between the Congress and the League was decided upon had far-reaching consequences. As the League’s confidence of being able to force a partition by being stubborn increased.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 10

With reference to the Economic Survey 2022-23, consider the following statements:

  1. Both the Purchasing Managers Index (PMI) and Index of Industrial Production (IIP) are in an upward growth trajectory since July 2021.

  2. Headline inflation has been projected to remain within target range setup by the RBI for financial year 2023.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 10
  • Both the Purchasing Managers Index (PMI) and Index of Industrial Production (IIP) are in an upward growth trajectory since July 2021. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • It is projected that headline inflation will be 6.8 per cent in FY23, which is outside the target range set by the RBI. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 11

With reference to aerosols, consider the following statements:

  1. They have both natural and anthropogenic origins

  2. They play a role in the phenomenon of the water cycle

  3. They last in the atmosphere much longer than carbon dioxide

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 11
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Aerosols are extremely small solid particles, or very small liquid droplets, suspended in the atmosphere and are typically of sizes in the range 0.001 μm–10 μm.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Although most of us associate the word aerosol with cleaning chemicals or sprays, a majority of aerosols are natural in origin. These include ash from volcanoes and forest fires, certain vegetation that reacts with surroundings to release smoke containing these aerosols, in the ocean, some types of microalgae produce a sulphurous gas called dimethyl sulphide that can be converted into sulphates in the atmosphere. Sea salt and mineral dust are also examples of natural origin aerosols. Anthropogenic aerosols include smoke from burning of agricultural and municipal waste. Automobiles, incinerators, smelters, and power plants are other anthropogenic sources of aerosols such as sulphates, nitrates, black carbon, and other particles.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Aerosols provide the hygroscopic condensation nuclei, i.e. the surface to which little droplets of water vapour suspended in the atmosphere cling and accumulate to form clouds. When this droplets cools enough and the particular drop is heavy enough, it falls down resulting in rainfall. Thus aerosols play a huge role in the global water cycle. Some types of aerosols also suppress precipitation thus affecting the water cycle, but in an opposite way.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: A carbon dioxide molecule has a lifetime of about 100 years in the atmosphere, while an aerosol particle has an average life expectancy of only about 10 days. Thus this statement is incorrect as an aerosol lasts a much shorter time in the atmosphere than carbon dioxide. They are classified as a Short Lived Climate Pollutants (SLCP).

  • Knowledge Base:

    • Light colored aerosols such as sulphates increase earth’s albedo and reflect back sunlight into space creating a cooling effect.

    • Dark coloured aerosols such as brown or black aerosols (from biomass burning or soot) absorb solar radiation and act as greenhouse gas, contributing to climate change. However scientists believe that overall the cooling effect of aerosols dominate their warming effect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 12

With reference to the reasons for the superiority of the English over other European powers in gaining control of India in the 18th century, consider the following statements:

  1. Unlike others, the zeal of British Christian missionaries gave them deeper roots in Indian society

  2. British had naval supremacy over other European powers

  3. Advanced financial instruments helped the British with better funding for military

  4. A stable home government

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 12
Option b is the correct answer.
  • In 17th century India, a number of European countries had entered as traders and were competing for goods such as spices, silks, Indigo, etc that were rare in the West and were in great demand. In order to earn the largest profits, each of these European powers wanted to monopolise the trade between India and the West which led to rivalries both trade and military amongst them. The British emerged victorious over all the other European powers in India at the end. There were several reasons for that.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The zeal of British Christian missionaries gave them deeper roots in Indian society is incorrect, as it was quite the opposite. Britain put a restraint on the activities of its Christian missionaries so that the locals do not get too disturbed by their presence in the initial days and it does not become difficult to govern them. In fact some other European powers like the Portuguese had much more missionary zeal and converted much of their settlements like Goa into Christianity. However the British were not focused on religious work and mainly focussed on monopolising trade and resources.

  • Statement 2 is correct: In the beginning, the Portuguese were the European nation with the most advanced navy. This paid off huge dividends, as they controlled the traffic on the seas and ensured that the Portuguese traders were protected from pirates, as well as a greater share of access to Indian markets. So the British focussed on improving their navy. And in time, with the help of brilliant scientists, they made many advances and made their navy the best among all European powers, even that of the Portuguese. This not only helped them protect their investments on high seas from pirates, it also helped them win wars against rivals like the French and the Portuguese and increase their share in trade in India.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Unlike other European powers like France, whose wars in India were funded by the royal treasury and hence often under great strain, the British managed to publicly fund their wars. They were pioneers of financial instruments like the Debt Market and Stock Exchange, which allowed both English East India Company, as well as the British Crown to take debt from the market. This helped them get more and better quality recruits for the military and fight and win wars for supremacy in India against European powers much better like the Anglo-French war, the Anglo-Dutch war, etc, thus emerging the most successful European power in the Indian subcontinent.

  • Statement 4 is correct: A stable home government of British was another reason of supremacy of British over other European powers.

  • Knowledge Base: Some other reasons:

    • Structure of Trading Company (public shareholding so more professionally run than royally owned ones like the French).

    • Industrial Revolution (better cheaper products + better technologies in other areas) Military skills & Discipline.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 13

Which of the following can be the consequences of a ‘negative interest rate’ in an economy?

  1. Reduced savings in an economy

  2. Higher returns to foreign investors

  3. Appreciation of domestic currency

  4. Decreased profit margins of Banks

  5. Lower yields of Government Bonds

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 13
Option b is the correct answer.
  • The term negative interest rate refers to interest paid to borrowers rather than to lenders. Negative interest rates are a form of monetary policy that sees interest rates fall below 0%. Central banks and regulators use this unusual policy tool when there are strong signs of deflation.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Negative interest rates imply that instead of earning interest, deposits and savings will be charged by banks. The idea is to make saving unattractive and encourage consumers and companies to spend more instead of stockpiling cash.

  • Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: Negative (or low) interest rates mean that foreign investors earn lower returns on their investments, which leads to lower demand for the domestic currency – devaluing the currency and reducing the exchange rate. Currency devaluations may lead to competition among countries that export similar goods, along with unwanted exchange rate fluctuations.

    • Example: To protect the domestic export industry from an increase in the exchange rate, the Japanese central bank reduced the interest rate in 2016 and announced a 0.1% charge on any reserves that commercial banks deposited in the central bank. This is an example of using negative interest rates as a monetary policy tool.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Negative interest rates reduce the profit margins of lending institutions and commercial banks. Prolonged periods of low or negative interest rates may encourage banks to cease or decrease lending as profitability decreases. Many financial institutions worldwide are hesitant to charge for deposits and thus strategized for lowering of borrowing costs i.e., squeeze the margins or spread between what they pay for deposits and what they earn by lending money to borrowers.

  • Statement 5 is correct: Negative Interest rates push down short-term rates on other types of lending, which in turn influence business and consumer rates. Negative rates spur banks and other investors seeking yield to buy short-term government debt, pushing up prices and lowering yields on these securities. And rates on corporate bonds are in turn linked to yields on government debt. Ultimately, because negative central bank rates affect bond market yields, they affect bond benchmarks.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 14

In the context of COVID-19, the term ‘cytokine storm’ is most appropriately related to:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 14
Option b is the correct answer.
  • COVID-19 is a rapidly spreading global threat that has been declared as a pandemic by the WHO.

  • Mortality in some COVID-19 patients has been linked to the presence of the so-called “cytokine storm”.

  • An immune reaction triggered by the body to fight an infection is known as a cytokine storm when it turns severe. Cytokines are signaling proteins that are released by cells. During a cytokine storm, the body releases too many cytokines into the blood too quickly. While normally they regulate immune responses, in this case they cause harm and can even cause death. A cytokine storm is characterised by the overproduction of immune cells which can be harmful since an excess of immune cells can attack healthy tissues as well.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 15

‘Stri Purush Tulana’, considered the India's first modern feminist text, was written by:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 15
Option c is the correct answer.

Stri Purush Tulana (A comparison between men and women) is a pamphlet/book written by feminist activist Tarabai Shinde. Shinde was a writer born in the Berar province of Buldhana (present day Maharashtra) who protested against upper caste patriarchy and the caste system in India. She was a member of the Satyashodhak Samaj and was also an associate of Savitribai Phule and Jyotirao Phule. The pamphlet was originally published in Marathi in 1882. The literary work is a critique of upper caste patriarchy and the gender and caste system in 19th century India. The material is also considered the first modern feminist text of India. Shinde questions the position of women in the society and their rights.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

  1. Cryogenic engine makes use of liquid Oxygen and liquid Hydrogen at extremely low temperatures as propellants.

  2. Ramjet engine works most efficiently at hypersonic speeds.

  3. Scramjet engines obtain oxygen from the atmosphere by compressing the incoming air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 16
Option c is the correct answer.
  • A rocket engine uses stored rocket propellants as the reaction mass for forming a high-speed propulsive jet of fluid, usually high-temperature gas. Rocket engines are reaction engines, producing thrust by ejecting mass rearward (towards the back), in accordance with Newton's third law. Most rocket engines use the combustion of reactive chemicals to supply the necessary energy.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Cryogenic engine uses liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen which takes rocket into the orbit. It is more efficient than solid stage and liquid stage since it generates more thrust and higher specific impulse. It makes use of Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) as propellants which liquefy at -183 deg C and -253 deg C respectively.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: A ramjet is a form of air-breathing jet engine that uses the vehicle’s forward motion to compress incoming air for combustion without a rotating compressor. Ramjets work most efficiently at supersonic speeds around Mach 3 (three times the speed of sound) and can operate up to speeds of Mach 6. However, the ramjet efficiency starts to drop when the vehicle reaches hypersonic speeds. A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at hypersonic speeds (speed beyond Mach 5) and allows supersonic combustion. Thus, it is known as Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, or Scramjet.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Scramjet engines obtain oxygen from the atmosphere by compressing the incoming air before combustion at hypersonic speed. It uses hydrogen as fuel and the oxygen from the atmospheric air as the oxidizer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 17

With reference to the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It aims to increase the value of key service sectors in India.

  2. According to the scheme, incentives are calculated by local value addition done over the period of five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 17
  • About Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme:

    • The Indian government's introduction of the PLI scheme in 14 key manufacturing sectors is a significant step towards achieving its strategic vision for the manufacturing industry. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

    • With a budget of ₹1.97 lakh crore, the scheme is well-designed to encourage growth and sustainability in the targeted industry through various incentives and support measures.

  • Launched in March 2020, the scheme initially targeted three industries:

    • Mobile and allied Component Manufacturing

    • Electrical Component Manufacturing and

    • Medical Devices

  • Targeted Sectors:

    • The 14 sectors are mobile manufacturing, manufacturing of medical devices, automobiles and auto components, pharmaceuticals, drugs, specialty steel, telecom & networking products, electronic products, white goods (ACs and LEDs), food products, textile products, solar PV modules, advanced chemistry cell (ACC) battery, and drones and drone components.

  • Incentives Under the Scheme:

    • The incentives given, are calculated on the basis of incremental sales.

    • In some sectors such as advanced chemistry cell batteries, textile products and the drone industry, the incentive to be given will be calculated on the basis of sales, performance and local value addition done over the period of five years. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    • The emphasis on R&D investment will also help the industry keep up with global trends and remain competitive in the international market.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding Content Delivery Network (CDN):

  1. It can provide alternative Web Hosting services to websites.

  2. It increases the cost of transferring data over the internet.

  3. It reduces the distance between users and the website’s server.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 18
Option c is the correct answer.
  • A content delivery network (CDN) refers to a geographically distributed group of servers which work together to provide fast delivery of Internet content. A CDN allows for the quick transfer of assets needed for loading Internet content including HTML pages, javascript files, stylesheets, images, and videos.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: CDNs aren't a replacement for web hosting. A CDN does not host content and can’t replace the need for proper web hosting, it does help cache content at the network edge, which improves website performance. Many websites struggle to have their performance needs met by traditional hosting services, which is why they opt for CDNs.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: A content delivery network (CDN) reduces the cost of transferring data over internet. It is because it sits between users and the website's hosting servers, or origin servers, thus cutting down on traffic between the hosting servers and the rest of the Internet.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The globally distributed nature of a CDN means reduce distance between users and website resources/server. Instead of having to connect to wherever a website’s origin server may live, a CDN lets users connect to a geographically closer data centre. Less travel time means faster service.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 19

With regards to Special Purpose Acquisition Company (SPAC), which of the following statements is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 19
Option d is the correct answer.
  • A special purpose acquisition company (SPAC) is a corporation formed for the sole purpose of raising investment capital through an initial public offering (IPO). Such a business structure allows investors to contribute money towards a fund, which is then used to acquire one or more unspecified businesses to be identified after the IPO. Therefore, this sort of shell firm structure is often called a “blank-check company” in popular media.

  • Statement a is incorrect: The SPACs are mandated to return money to their investors in the event no merger is made within two years. There is no mandate with respect to return of money to the investors in case of split within a company.

  • Statement b is incorrect: Investors in SPACs can range from well-known private equity funds and celebrities to the general public.

  • Statement c is incorrect: A special purpose acquisition company (SPAC) is a company that has no commercial operations and is formed strictly to raise capital through an initial public offering (IPO) or the purpose of acquiring or merging with an existing company.

  • Statement d is correct: A company can go public through the SPAC route in a matter of months, while the conventional IPO process is an arduous process that take anywhere from six months to more than a year. SPACs gained popularity in 2020 may partly be due to their shorter time frame for going public, as many companies chose to forego conventional IPOs because of the market volatility and uncertainty triggered by the global pandemic.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

  1. No civil and criminal proceedings can be instituted against the President during his/her term of office.

  2. A prior permission of the President of India is mandatorily needed to arrest a cabinet minister.

  3. No civil process can be instituted against a member or outsider within the precincts of the House without the prior permission of the presiding officer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 20
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The President enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no such provision of getting prior permission of the President of India to arrest a cabinet minister. If Parliament is not in session, a cabinet minister can be arrested by a law enforcement agency in case of a criminal case registered against him. As per Section 22 A of the Rules of Procedures and Conduct of Business of the Rajya Sabha, the Police, Judge or Magistrate would, however, have to intimate the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha about the reason for the arrest, the place of detention or imprisonment in an appropriate form.

  • Statement 3 is correct: According to the collective privileges (privileges belonging to each House of Parliament collectively), no person (either a member or outsider) can be arrested, and no legal process (civil or criminal) can be served within the precincts of the House without the permission of the presiding officer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 21

With reference to Hieun Tsang and his observations of socio-economic life during the Harshavardhan period, consider the following statements:

  1. He wrote a detailed description of India in his book “Si-Yu-Ki”.

  2. The people during that time were not burdened with heavy taxes.

  3. The Sati system was absent during the period.

  4. The criminals and rebels were absent during the period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 21
Option a is the correct answer.

The Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang visited India during the period of emperor Harsha. The primary aim of the visit of Hiuen Tsang to India was to gain knowledge of Buddhism and collect its religious texts. As he did not get the permission of the Chinese emperor to visit India, he slipped away from there in 629 A.D. He crossed the desert of Gobi, visited several places in Central Asia like Kashagar, Samarkand and Balkha and reached Afghanistan.

Statement 1 is correct: Hiuen tsang wrote a detailed description of India during the reign of Harsha in his book ‘Si-yu-ki’ or ‘Record of the Western Countries’. His description has been accepted as the best available source of knowing the administrative, social and cultural condition of India at that time.

Statement 2 is correct: Hiuen Tsang described that the burden of taxation was not heavy on the subjects; they were free from the oppression of the government servants and were, thus, happy. According to him, the state used to record its every activity.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Hiuen Tsang described the social condition of India in detail. He wrote that caste-system was rigid. There was no purdah-system and women were provided education. However, the practice of sati prevailed. In general, the common people were simple and honest.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Hiuen Tsang informs that the criminals and rebels were very few in number. Hiuen Tsang described that the kingdom was well-governed; it was- free from revolts. But, the crime was there nevertheless. For example, Hiuen Tsang himself suffered in hands of the robbers at some distance from the capital itself. He faced the same misfortune more than once. While in the days of the Guptas, the Chinese traveller Fa-Hien moved freely and suffered no attack, in the days of Harsha, Hiuen Tsang did not find travelling safe.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 22

Which of the three banks will be merged with the other two to create India’s third-largest bank?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 22

Answer: B (Indian Bank)

Indian Bank is a bank located in India. It was merged with 3 different banks in order to focus on its core business, which is providing loans and deposits to customers. Indian Bank has been merged with three different banks to focus on its core services of providing loans and deposits. These three banks are the State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, and Syndicate Bank

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Environmental DNA’:

  1. It is a type of DNA that originates from cellular materials shed by different organisms.

  2. It cannot be obtained from the aquatic environment due to the dilution process.

  3. It can provide information regarding habitat requirements for lesser-known species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 23
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Environmental DNA originates from cellular materials shed by organisms (via skin, excrement, etc.) into aquatic or terrestrial environments that can be sampled and monitored using new molecular methods. Environmental DNA is collected from a variety of environmental samples such as soil, seawater, snow or air rather than directly sampled from an individual organism. Sources of eDNA include faeces, mucus, gametes, shed skin, carcasses and hair.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Biologists have frequently observed aquatic organisms by sequencing e-DNA from water samples. In aquatic environments, eDNA is diluted and distributed by currents and other hydrological processes, but it only lasts about 7–21 days, depending on environmental conditions. Exposure to UVB radiation, acidity, heat, and endo- and exonucleases can degrade eDNA.

  • Statement 3 is correct: eDNA allow for rapid, cost-effective, and standardized collection of data about species distribution and relative abundance. For small, rare, secretive, and other species that are difficult to detect, eDNA provides an attractive alternative for aquatic inventory and monitoring programs. Thus, detection of species using eDNA may improve biodiversity assessments and provide information about status, distribution, and habitat requirements for lesser-known species.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 24

In which of the following cases, sedition law under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code would most appropriately be applicable?

  1. Criticising Parliament or Judicial setup

  2. Exciting hatred against the government established by Law

  3. Violating the dignity of an individual

  4. Sloganeering in favour of certain communities

  5. Written Words showing disaffection towards the government

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 24
Option b is the correct answer.
  • The Supreme Court will take up for final hearing the petitions challenging the constitutional validity of Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code dealing with the offence of sedition. It is expected that the ambiguity over the validity of Sedition Law (Section 124A) will get settled after the Supreme Court’s Judgment. The law was originally drafted in 1837 by Thomas Macaulay, the British historian-politician, but was inexplicably omitted when the Indian Penal Code (IPC) was enacted in 1860.

  • Statement 2 and 5 are correct: The definition of Sedition includes an offence committed when "any person by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government established by law in India".

  • Statement 1, 3 and 4 are incorrect:

    • In P. Alavi vs State of Kerala, 1982, Supreme Court held that sloganeering, criticising Parliament or Judicial setup does not amount to sedition.

    • Sedition law causes inhibition on free speech and is an unreasonable restriction on free expression, a fundamental right. However, violation of dignity of an individual does not attract sedition charges. Sedition offence can be brought if any person try to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government.

    • In Balwant Singh v State of Punjab,1995, Supreme Court acquitted persons from charges of sedition for shouting slogans such as ‘Khalistan Zindabad’. The Court held that mere raising of slogans by two individuals alone cannot be said as sedition. Further, it is also not considered as an attempt aimed to excite hatred or disaffection against the government.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 25

With reference to British India, which among the following women participated in Third Round Table Conference?

  1. Begum Jahanara Shahnawaz

  2. Sarojini Naidu

  3. Annie Besant

  4. Vijay Laxmi Pandit

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 25
Option a is the correct answer.
  • The Third Round Table Conference, held between November 17, 1932 and December 24, 1932, was not attended by the Indian National Congress and Gandhi. It was ignored by most other Indian leaders. Only forty-six delegates attended since most of the main political figures of India were not present. The Labour Party from Britain and the Indian National Congress refused to attend.

  • Option 1 is correct: British-Indian Representatives: Aga Khan III, B. R. Ambedkar (Depressed Classes separate Electorate), Ramakrishna Ranga Rao of Bobbili, Sir Hubert Carr (Europeans), Nanak Chand Pandit, A. H. Ghuznavi, Henry Gidney (Anglo-Indians), Hafiz Hidayat Hussain, Muhammad Iqbal, M. R. Jayakar, Cowasji Jehangir, N. M. Joshi (Labour), Narasimha Chintaman Kelkar, Arcot Ramasamy Mudaliar, Begum Jahanara Shahnawaz (Women).

  • Option 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect:

    • Sarojini Naidu participated in Second Round Table Conference and not in Third Round Table Conference. The Gandhi–Irwin Pact opened the way for Congress participation in this conference. Gandhi was invited from India and attended as the sole official Congress representative accompanied by Sarojini Naidu and also Madan Mohan Malaviya, Ghanshyam Das Birla.

    • Annie Besant did not attend any of the Round Table Conference. Besant died on 20 September 1933, at age 85, in Adyar, Madras Presidency, British India.

    • Vijay Laxmi Pandit was the first Indian woman to hold a cabinet post in pre-independent India. In 1937, she was elected to the provincial legislature of the United Provinces and was designated minister of local self-government and public health. She also did not participate in any of the Round Table Conference.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 26

Which of the following factors is/are responsible for the rise of middle class in Nineteenth century India?

  1. Emergence of new urban areas as a seat for the British Government in India.

  2. Growth of indigenous industries led by Zamindars and Moneylenders.

  3. Establishment of new institutions of secular education.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 26
Option d is the correct answer.
  • The middle class played a very important role in the freedom movement. The precondition for the freedom movement is the growth of national consciousness. It was the middle class that played the most vital role in the awakening of national consciousness. The leadership to the Indian National Congress in all its stages of growth was provided by this class.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Urbanisation was an important factor responsible for the growth of the middle class. New urban areas and the emergence of cities were seats of government. Persons engaged in government jobs belonged to the new social order known as the middle class.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In Nineteenth Century India, there was no growth of indigenous industries. On the contrary, India became dependent on exports from foreign nations. Section of people that emerged as the middle class were the products of the administrative and economic policies of the British. By way of elaboration, it may be said that the new landlord (zamindars), money lenders, businessman etc. were the product of the British rule. They may also be described as the agents of the foreign rulers who constituted the middle class.

  • Statement 3 is correct: By the middle of the nineteenth century, the colonial rulers had been able to bring a large proportion of Indian territory under their rule. A large number of educated individuals were required to staff these administrative institutions. It was not possible to get all of them from Britain. So, in order to fulfil this need, the British opened schools and colleges in different parts of India, particularly in big cities like Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. This created a native middle class in India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 27

With reference to the ‘air mass', consider the following statements:

  1. The motion of air mass is usually based upon the airflow in the upper atmosphere.

  2. Polar air masses are very cold as they originate over the Arctic and Antarctic regions.

  3. Continental air masses are moist air masses.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 27
Option a is the correct answer.
  • An air mass is a large body of air with generally uniform temperature and humidity. The area over which an air mass originates is what provides its characteristics.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The motion of air mass is usually based upon the airflow in the upper atmosphere. As the jet stream changes intensity and position, it affects the motion and strength of air masses. Where air masses converge, they form boundaries called "fronts".

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Arctic air masses, designated by the letter 'A', are very cold as they originate over the Arctic or Antarctic regions. Polar air masses, designated by the letter 'P', are not as cold as Arctic air masses as they originate over the higher latitudes of both land and sea and Tropical air masses, designated by the letter 'T', are warm/hot as they originate over the lower latitudes of both land and sea.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: There are two broad overarching divisions of air masses based upon the moisture content. Continental air masses, designated by the lowercase letter 'c', originate over continents are therefore dry air masses. Maritime air masses, designated by the letter 'm', originate over the oceans and are therefore moist air masses.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 28

Consider the following statements:

  1. Devadana were tax-free villages donated exclusively to Brahmins for their resettlement in south India.

  2. The community land was transformed into feudal lands during the Medieval period in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 28
Option b is the correct answer.
  • The donation of land was a part of Indian tradition, which became popular in c. 700-1200 CE due to changed economic situation. Inscriptions and religious literature mention grants of cultivable land to Brahmins as the best of all types of gifts.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Agrahara/Mangalam were tax-free villages donated to Brahmins for their resettlement respectively in north and south India. Devadana was land given to temples, monasteries and other religious establishments, both Brahmana and non-Brahmana. The institutions such as Brahmadeyas and temples played an essential role in the development and expansion of the agrarian base, consolidation of state power, peasantisation of Shudras, and social differentiation.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The land-grants brought fundamental changes in the rights to land. In ancient India, king and farmer had rights over the land, but in the early medieval period, the intermediary rights were created through land-grants. Land-grants destroyed community rights to land. They transformed the community and communal property into feudal property, which affected the means and process of production, leading to the subjection of the peasantry. The individual rights to land developed at the cost of communal agrarian rights.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 29

Which international organization has/have the written provision of suspension or expulsion of membership of the countries from their respective organisations?

  1. United Nations (UN)

  2. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

  3. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 29
Option c is the correct answer.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct & Statement 3 is incorrect:

  • Article 6 of the UN Charter allows the UN General Assembly to expel a country, on the recommendation of the UN Security Council, if the country has persistently violated the principles reflected in the UN Charter. Likewise, Article 5 of the UN Charter allows for the suspension of a country from UN membership.

  • Article XXVI (2) of the Articles of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) envisages suspension and expulsion of a member country if it fails to meet its obligations under the IMF Articles. In the IMF terminology, this is called ‘compulsory withdrawal’.

  • SAARC do not contain any provision on expulsion or suspension of its member countries.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding ‘State Finance Commission’:

  1. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for a voluntary obligation on states to constitute a State Finance Commission after every five years.

  2. The Indian Constitution provides for the fixed tenure of the chairperson of the State Finance Commission.

  3. The Governor of a state ensures the laying of a State Finance Commission’s recommendations on the table of the state legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 30
Option b is the correct answer.
  • The State Finance Commission was created by the 73rd and 74th Constitutional (Amendment) Acts. SFCs were created to review the financial position of the panchayats and municipal corporations, and to make recommendations to the Governor.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) makes it mandatory for constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Constitution of India does not provide for the appointment and tenure of chairperson of the State Finance Commission. It is regulated by respective state legislation.

  • Statement 3 is correct: A State Finance Commission reviews the financial position of the panchayats in a state and makes recommendations to the Governor about the principles that should govern the distribution of tax proceeds. Under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution, the governor of a state ensures the laying of a State Finance Commission’s recommendations to the table of the state legislature. It also includes a memorandum of action taken by the government on the Commission’s report.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 31

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Kunming declaration on Biodiversity?

  1. It is a legally binding international agreement.

  2. It made a commitment to protect 30% of the Earth’s land and oceans by 2030.

  3. It is based on post-2020 implementation plan for the Cartagena Protocol on biosafety.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 31

Option b is the correct answer.

  • The Kunming Declaration was adopted by over 100 countries in 2021 at 15th virtual conference of the parties to the United Nations convention on biological diversity in China. According to it, the delegate countries have committed to “ensuring the development, adoption, and implementation of an effective post-2020 global biodiversity framework, that includes the provision of the necessary means of implementation.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Kunming Declaration is not an internationally binding document for biodiversity conservation. It was adopted as a document of political will.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The “30 by 30” goal, is a proposed commitment to protect 30 percent of land and Oceans by 2030. The Kunming declaration does not expressly commit to this goal. It only made a reference to the '30 by 30' target which is a key proposal being debated at the COP15.

  • Statement 3 is correct: By adopting Kunming declaration, the nations have committed themselves to support the development, adoption and implementation of an effective post-2020 implementation plan, capacity building action plan for the Cartagena Protocol on biosafety.

 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 32

With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.

2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.

4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 32
  1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.

    • This statement is correct. The Tea Board was established under the Tea Act of 1953, making it a statutory body.
  2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

    • This statement is incorrect. The Tea Board functions under the Ministry of Commerce, not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
  3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.

    • This statement is incorrect. The headquarters of the Tea Board is located in Kolkata.
  4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

    • This statement is correct. The Tea Board has offices in Dubai and Moscow, among other locations.

Thus, the correct statements are: 1 and 4

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 33

With reference to British India, which among the following women participated in Third Round Table Conference?

  1. Begum Jahanara Shahnawaz

  2. Sarojini Naidu

  3. Annie Besant

  4. Vijay Laxmi Pandit

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 33
Option a is the correct answer.

The Third Round Table Conference, held between November 17, 1932 and December 24, 1932, was not attended by the Indian National Congress and Gandhi. It was ignored by most other Indian leaders. Only forty-six delegates attended since most of the main political figures of India were not present. The Labour Party from Britain and the Indian National Congress refused to attend.

Option 1 is correct: British-Indian Representatives: Aga Khan III, B. R. Ambedkar (Depressed Classes separate Electorate), Ramakrishna Ranga Rao of Bobbili, Sir Hubert Carr (Europeans), Nanak Chand Pandit, A. H. Ghuznavi, Henry Gidney (Anglo-Indians), Hafiz Hidayat Hussain, Muhammad Iqbal, M. R. Jayakar, Cowasji Jehangir, N. M. Joshi (Labour), Narasimha Chintaman Kelkar, Arcot Ramasamy Mudaliar, Begum Jahanara Shahnawaz (Women).

Option 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect:

  • Sarojini Naidu participated in Second Round Table Conference and not in Third Round Table Conference. The Gandhi–Irwin Pact opened the way for Congress participation in this conference. Gandhi was invited from India and attended as the sole official Congress representative accompanied by Sarojini Naidu and also Madan Mohan Malaviya, Ghanshyam Das Birla.

  • Annie Besant did not attend any of the Round Table Conference. Besant died on 20 September 1933, at age 85, in Adyar, Madras Presidency, British India.

  • Vijay Laxmi Pandit was the first Indian woman to hold a cabinet post in pre-independent India. In 1937, she was elected to the provincial legislature of the United Provinces and was designated minister of local self-government and public health. She also did not participate in any of the Round Table Conference.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 34

Arrange the following Post-Independent Environment Movements of India in chronological order:

  1. Narmada Bachao Andolan

  2. Save Aarey Forest Movement

  3. Appiko Movement

  4. Save Silent Valley Movement

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 34
Option c is the correct answer.
  • The environmental movement is a broad generic term which is generally used to describe and understand different types of local struggles and conflicts concerned with livelihood issues and ecological security within the larger context of the development debate.

  • The genesis of the environmental movement in India can be traced to the Chipko movement (1973) in Garhwal region in the new state of Uttaranchal. In fact, between 1970s and 1980s there were several struggles in India around issues of rights to forest and water which raised larger ecological concerns.

    • Save Silent Valley Movement (1973): was a social movement aimed at the protection of Silent Valley, an evergreen sub-tropical forest in the Palakkad district of Kerala, India. It was started in 1973 by an NGO led by Kerala Sasthra Sahithya Parishad (KSSP) to save the Silent Valley from being flooded by a hydroelectric project.

    • Appiko Movement (1983): The Appiko Movement was locally known as “Appiko Chaluvali” in Uttara Kannada and Shimoga districts of Karnataka State. The locals embraced the trees which were to be cut by contractors of the forest department. The Appiko movement used various techniques to raise awareness such as foot marches in the interior forest, slide shows, folk dances, street plays etc.

    • Narmada Bachao Andolan (1985): The movement first started as a protest for not providing proper rehabilitation and resettlement for the people who have been displaced by the construction of the Sardar Sarovar Dam. The sites for protests include Narmada River, which flows through the states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. Later on, the movement turned its focus on the preservation of the environment and the eco-systems of the valley.

    • Save Aarey Forest Movement (2019): The Aarey forest, located in the Northern suburbs of Mumbai, is the only green cover in the region, and is known for its lush greenery, with tall trees, grasslands and rocky hills. The protest is against the construction of the Metro shed in the region.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 35

Which of the following factors is/are responsible for the rise of middle class in Nineteenth century India?

  1. Emergence of new urban areas as a seat for the British Government in India.

  2. Growth of indigenous industries led by Zamindars and Moneylenders.

  3. Establishment of new institutions of secular education.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 35
Option d is the correct answer.
  • The middle class played a very important role in the freedom movement. The precondition for the freedom movement is the growth of national consciousness. It was the middle class that played the most vital role in the awakening of national consciousness. The leadership to the Indian National Congress in all its stages of growth was provided by this class.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Urbanisation was an important factor responsible for the growth of the middle class. New urban areas and the emergence of cities were seats of government. Persons engaged in government jobs belonged to the new social order known as the middle class.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In Nineteenth Century India, there was no growth of indigenous industries. On the contrary, India became dependent on exports from foreign nations. Section of people that emerged as the middle class were the products of the administrative and economic policies of the British. By way of elaboration, it may be said that the new landlord (zamindars), money lenders, businessman etc. were the product of the British rule. They may also be described as the agents of the foreign rulers who constituted the middle class.

  • Statement 3 is correct: By the middle of the nineteenth century, the colonial rulers had been able to bring a large proportion of Indian territory under their rule. A large number of educated individuals were required to staff these administrative institutions. It was not possible to get all of them from Britain. So, in order to fulfil this need, the British opened schools and colleges in different parts of India, particularly in big cities like Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. This created a native middle class in India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 36

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Hydroponic systems are a type of technology used in urban farming that allow plants to be grown without soil.

  2. Nutrient Film Technique (NFT) is a type of hydroponic system.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 36
  • Hydroponic systems are a type of technology used in urban farming that allow plants to be grown without soil. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The plants are grown in a nutrient-rich water solution, which provides all the essential nutrients for growth. Nutrient Film Technique (NFT) is a type of hydroponic system in which a thin film of nutrient-rich water is continuously circulated past the roots of the plants, which are supported by a growth medium. Hence, statement 2 is correct. NFT is a simple and efficient system that is well suited to growing small, fast-growing plants such as lettuce, herbs, and microgreens.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 37

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Article 21’ of Constitution of India:

  1. No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to due process of law.

  2. The Supreme Court of India has recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right along with the tag of being absolute right.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 37
  • The right to privacy in India is a constitutional right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which states that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law”. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Article 21's protection of life and personal liberty is not absolute and can be subject to limitations imposed by the state. The right to privacy is also not an absolute right. It is generally protected under the law, but it may be subject to reasonable restrictions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 38

With reference to the ‘air mass', consider the following statements:

  1. The motion of air mass is usually based upon the airflow in the upper atmosphere.

  2. Polar air masses are very cold as they originate over the Arctic and Antarctic regions.

  3. Continental air masses are moist air masses.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 38
Option a is the correct answer.
  • An air mass is a large body of air with generally uniform temperature and humidity. The area over which an air mass originates is what provides its characteristics.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The motion of air mass is usually based upon the airflow in the upper atmosphere. As the jet stream changes intensity and position, it affects the motion and strength of air masses. Where air masses converge, they form boundaries called "fronts".

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Arctic air masses, designated by the letter 'A', are very cold as they originate over the Arctic or Antarctic regions. Polar air masses, designated by the letter 'P', are not as cold as Arctic air masses as they originate over the higher latitudes of both land and sea and Tropical air masses, designated by the letter 'T', are warm/hot as they originate over the lower latitudes of both land and sea.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: There are two broad overarching divisions of air masses based upon the moisture content. Continental air masses, designated by the lowercase letter 'c', originate over continents are therefore dry air masses. Maritime air masses, designated by the letter 'm', originate over the oceans and are therefore moist air masses.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 39

Why did the Europeans felt the need to discover a new sea route to India in the Medieval period?

  1. The spirit of a renaissance in the 15th-century Europe.

  2. The Ottoman Empire started charging the European trader’s high taxes on the goods passing through land routes.

  3. Great advances in the art of ship-building and navigation by Europe.

  4. Many European nations were in constant conflict with each other as they struggled to increase their power and wealth.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 39
Option d is the correct answer.
  • The European countries felt the necessity of finding new trade routes to Asia and particularly India. The European countries started finding new trade routes between 1400 and 1500 AD. It is usually termed as European exploration. Discovery of Sea-route to India by western countries happens to be one of the most important events in modern times. The wealth of India was an attraction.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Fifteenth-century Europe was gripped by the spirit of the Renaissance with its call for exploration. European economy growing rapidly, leading to prosperity and demand for luxury goods; increase in the supply of meat requiring spices for preservation.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The trade and commerce between Asia and Europe was taking place through the city of Constantinople. In 1453, the Ottoman Turks captured the city of Constantinople. As a result, all the trade routes connecting the city of Constantinople came under the control of Turks. The Turks started levying too many taxes on the goods passing through these routes. As a result, trade became unprofitable. Meanwhile, Spain and Portugal were attempting to break the monopoly of Italian traders. They started encouraging enterprising sailors to find a new sea route to India.

  • Statement 3 is correct: At the same time, Europe made great advances in the art of ship-building and navigation. Hence, there was an eagerness all over Europe for adventurous sea voyages to reach the unknown corners of the East.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Many European nations were in constant conflict with each other as they struggled to increase their power and wealth. Because of these struggles many of the European nations believed trade with other countries in Asia like India was the best way to increase wealth. Many Europeans guessed that one could reach Asia more quickly by sailing west. This led to further explorations by Columbus to discover the Americas and the Caribbean.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 40

Which of the following statements given below is incorrect regarding the Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO)?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 40
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Recently, Kazakhstan’s President called on the Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) to help manage ongoing protests in the country.

  • Statement a is correct: Collective Security Treaty Organization is an intergovernmental military alliance that was signed on 15th May 1992. The objective of the CSTO is to strengthen peace, international and regional security including cybersecurity and stability, the protection on a collective basis of the independence, territorial integrity and sovereignty of the member states.

  • Statement b is correct: The CSTO Treaty in its Article 4 says that an act of aggression (an armed attack that threatens security, stability, territorial integrity, and sovereignty) against one of the member states will be considered as a collective act of aggression on all member states of the CSTO Aggression or war against any one nation is a war against all the nations. Therefore, all the nations are to act collectively against every War/Aggression.

  • Statement c is incorrect: Six post-Soviet states belonging to the Commonwealth of Independent States—Russia, Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan signed the Collective Security Treaty In 1992. This is also referred to as the “Tashkent Pact” or “Tashkent Treaty”. Three other post-Soviet states—Azerbaijan, Belarus, and Georgia signed the next year and the treaty took effect in 1994. Ukraine is not the member of Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO)?

  • Statement d is correct: Until 2002, the Treaty was essentially a regional agreement, which played an important role in maintaining close cooperation and understanding in the military-political field. In 2002, the Collective Security Council made a decision to grant the status of an international regional organization to the Collective Security Treaty in Moscow. In 2002, the Charter of the CSTO was approved. In December 2003, the CSTO Charter was registered with the UN Secretariat. And in 2004, the Organization received observer status in the UN General Assembly.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 41

With reference to the Union Budget 2023-24, consider the following statements:

  1. The Budget is along the lines of the two-pronged growth strategy first unveiled in 2019.

  2. Capital outlay for the railways increased to the highest ever.

  3. A 33% increase in capital investment outlay has been proposed, the biggest in the past decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 41
Union Budget 2023-24:
  • A key theme of Union Budget 2023-24 is the focus on inclusive development - Sabka Sath, Sabka Vikas which specifically covers; Farmers, Women, Youth, Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes (OBCs), Divyangjan (PwDs) and Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), Overall priority for the underprivileged (vanchiton ko variyata), There has also been a sustained focus on UTs of J&K and Ladakh and the Northeast Region (NER).

  • The Budget is along the lines of the two-pronged growth strategy first unveiled in 2019:

    • Incentivising the private sector thus creating jobs and pushing growth. ‘Minimum Government, Maximum Governance’; increasing capex and raising more revenues via disinvestment. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Key Takeaways of the Budget:

    • Changes in the new income tax regime (in rebate limit and in tax slabs). A 33% increase in capital investment outlay has been proposed, raising it to Rs 10 lakh crore (the biggest in the past decade). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    • Changes in customs duty; reduced on import of certain inputs for mobile phone manufacturing, shrimp feed etc. and increased on cigarettes, gold articles, compounded rubber etc. Capital outlay for the railways increased to the highest ever – Rs 2.40 lakh crore. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 42

Consider the following statements:

  1. Devadana were tax-free villages donated exclusively to Brahmins for their resettlement in south India.

  2. The community land was transformed into feudal lands during the Medieval period in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 42
Option b is the correct answer.
  • The donation of land was a part of Indian tradition, which became popular in c. 700-1200 CE due to changed economic situation. Inscriptions and religious literature mention grants of cultivable land to Brahmins as the best of all types of gifts.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Agrahara/Mangalam were tax-free villages donated to Brahmins for their resettlement respectively in north and south India. Devadana was land given to temples, monasteries and other religious establishments, both Brahmana and non-Brahmana. The institutions such as Brahmadeyas and temples played an essential role in the development and expansion of the agrarian base, consolidation of state power, peasantisation of Shudras, and social differentiation.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The land-grants brought fundamental changes in the rights to land. In ancient India, king and farmer had rights over the land, but in the early medieval period, the intermediary rights were created through land-grants. Land-grants destroyed community rights to land. They transformed the community and communal property into feudal property, which affected the means and process of production, leading to the subjection of the peasantry. The individual rights to land developed at the cost of communal agrarian rights.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 43

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding ‘Small Island Developing States’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 43
Option c is the correct answer.
  • The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) has released a report titled “Development and Globalization: Facts and Figures”. The report highlights the numerous challenges faced by Small Island Developing States (SIDS).

  • Option a is incorrect: Small Island Developing States (SIDS) are a distinct group country that face unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities. The geographical regions in which SIDS are located are the Caribbean, the Pacific, and the AIS (Atlantic, Indian Ocean and South China Sea).

  • Option b is incorrect: Small Island Developing States (SIDS) are a distinct group of 38 UN Member States and 20 Non-UN Members/Associate Members of UN regional commissions that face unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities. Many of them (not all) are low-lying, situated just five metres above sea level. This makes them vulnerable to sea-level rise, storm surges and coastal destruction.

  • Option c is correct: Infrastructure for Resilient Island States Initiative is the first major initiative under the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI). It aims to make critical infrastructure in the SIDS (Small Island Developing States) resilient against all kinds of disasters. As part of the initiative, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will create a special “data window” for SIDS (Small Island Developing States).

  • Option d is incorrect: For SIDS, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)—the ocean under their control—is, on average, 28 times the country’s land mass. Thus, for many SIDS the majority of the natural resources they have access to comes from the ocean. SIDS are vulnerable to biodiversity loss and climate change because they lack economic alternatives.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 44

Consider the following statements:

  1. WaterCredit is the first to put microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.

  2. WaterCredit helps bring small loans to those who need access to affordable financing to make household water and toilet solutions a reality.

  3. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the UNEP.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 44
  • WaterCredit is a powerful solution and the first to put microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • WaterCredit helps bring small loans to those who need access to affordable financing and expert resources to make household water and toilet solutions a reality. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Watercredit is an initiative of Water.org, a global non-profit organization working to bring water and sanitation to the world.  Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 45

With reference to the “Central Bureau of Investigation’, consider the following statements:

  1. It owes its origin to the Special Police Establishment, constituted by the British government in 1941.

  2. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, they are given absolute exemption.

  3. It has to mandatorily obtain the consent of the concerned state government before beginning to investigate a crime in a state.

  4. The Director of CBI has been provided with the security of two-year tenure in office under the CVC Act, 2003.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 45
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Recently, the Supreme Court expressed concern about states withdrawing general consent to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) for investigating cases. At present, eight states have withdrawn general consent to the agency. The court observed this as “not a desirable position.”

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) owes its origin to the Special Police Establishment, constituted by the British government in 1941, which was substituted by the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. The CBI came into existence on 1 April, 1963, through a Government of India resolution. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962-64).

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Section 24 of the RTI act, intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule is exempted under the provisions of the act. However, Delhi high court in 2017 has directed the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to reveal information related to corruption, so there is no absolute exemption. Also, the CIC has said that the CBI cannot take refuge in the exemption clause under the Right to Information (RTI) Act to deny information related to corruption cases. Thus, they are not completely exempted from the ambit of RTI.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Section 5 of the DSPE Act empowers special police establishments (SPEs), including CBI, to investigate cases in the states. Section 6 of the DSPE Act restricts the powers of SPEs under section 5 and puts the condition of the consent of the state government to investigate any case in that state. So, the CBI must mandatorily obtain the consent of the state government concerned before beginning to investigate a crime in a state. Unlimited jurisdiction of CBI is confined to Union Territories and Railway areas (and not to states), under this Act.

  • Statement 4 is correct: The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure in office by the CVC Act, 2003.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 46

Consider the following statements regarding ‘State Finance Commission’:

  1. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for a voluntary obligation on states to constitute a State Finance Commission after every five years.

  2. The Indian Constitution provides for the fixed tenure of the chairperson of the State Finance Commission.

  3. The Governor of a state ensures the laying of a State Finance Commission’s recommendations on the table of the state legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 46
Option b is the correct answer.
  • The State Finance Commission was created by the 73rd and 74th Constitutional (Amendment) Acts. SFCs were created to review the financial position of the panchayats and municipal corporations, and to make recommendations to the Governor.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) makes it mandatory for constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Constitution of India does not provide for the appointment and tenure of chairperson of the State Finance Commission. It is regulated by respective state legislation.

  • Statement 3 is correct: A State Finance Commission reviews the financial position of the panchayats in a state and makes recommendations to the Governor about the principles that should govern the distribution of tax proceeds. Under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution, the governor of a state ensures the laying of a State Finance Commission’s recommendations to the table of the state legislature. It also includes a memorandum of action taken by the government on the Commission’s report.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 47

The Ephemeral plants are those plants which ____:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 47
Ephemeral plants Ephemeral plants are those plants that are born only after occasional rains and reproduce and die before a new drought comes. They generally have a very short life cycle.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 48

This economic theory states that as a household's income increases, the percentage of income spent on food decreases while the proportion spent on other goods (such as luxury goods) increases.

Which of the following Economic law is mentioned in the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 48
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Option a is incorrect: The law of supply states that, all other factors being equal, as the price of a good or service increases, the quantity of goods or services that suppliers offer will increase. The law of supply says that as the price of an item goes up, suppliers will attempt to maximize their profits by increasing the number of items for sale.

  • Option b is correct: Engel's Law is an economic theory introduced in 1857 by Ernst Engel, a German statistician, stating that the percentage of income allocated for food purchases decreases as income rises. As a household's income increases, the percentage of income spent on food decreases while the proportion spent on other goods (such as luxury goods) increases. This is because the amount and quality of food a family can consume in a week or month is fairly limited in price and quantity. As food consumption declines, luxury consumption and savings increase in turn.

  • Option c is incorrect: Law of Demand states that other things being equal, there is a negative relation between demand for a commodity and its price. In other words, when price of the commodity increases, demand for it falls and when price of the commodity decreases, demand for it raises, other factors remaining the same.

  • Option d is incorrect: In economics, self-interest is the idea that the best economic benefit for all can usually be accomplished when individuals act in their own self-interest. In a market economy, individuals and businesses own most of the resources available (e.g. labor, land, and capital) and use voluntary decisions, made in their own self-interest, to achieve the greatest personal benefit from marketplace activities and transactions. In this type of system, the government plays a small role, and the economy is shaped by two forces: self-interest and competition.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 49

With reference to the Cholera, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an acute, diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine with the bacterium Vibrio cholerae.

  2. Climate Change could make cholera epidemics more common.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 49
  • Cholera is a life-threatening infectious disease and a public health hazard. Cholera is an acute, diarrheal illness caused by infection of the intestine with the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The infection is often mild or without symptoms, but sometimes can be severe. The WHO (World Health Organization) has said Climate Change could make cholera epidemics more common, as the bacteria that causes the disease can reproduce more quickly in warmer water. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 50

With reference to the modes of reproduction in eukaryotic animals, which of the following statement defines Parthenogenesis:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 50
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Statement a is correct: Parthenogenesis is the development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg or one in which the male and female nuclei fail to unite following fertilization. It occurs commonly among lower plants and invertebrate animals and rarely among higher vertebrates. An egg produced parthenogenetically may be either haploid (i.e., with one set of dissimilar chromosomes) or diploid (i.e., with a paired set of chromosomes). Parthenogenic species may be obligate (that is, incapable of sexual reproduction) or facultative (that is, capable of switching between parthenogenesis and sexual reproduction depending upon environmental conditions).

  • Statement b is incorrect: In fragmentation a multicellular animal breaks into two or more parts or fragments. Each of these fragments is capable of becoming a complete individual. A number of invertebrates reproduce asexually by simply breaking into two parts and then regenerating the missing parts of the fragments, for example, most anemones and many hydroids reproduce by fragmentation. Many echinoderms can regenerate lost parts, but this is not the same as reproduction by fragmentation.

  • Statement c is incorrect: Budding is a type of asexual reproduction in which a new organism develops from an outgrowth or bud due to cell division at one particular site. A new individual arises as an outgrowth (bud) from its parent, develops organs like those of the parent, and then detaches itself. Budding occurs in several animal phyla and is especially prominent in cnidarians, like Hydra.

  • Statement d is incorrect: In gemmulation, new individuals are formed on the parent in the form of gemmules. A gemmule is an aggregation of cells, surrounded by a resistant capsule, which can survive under unfavorable conditions, like winter, even when the parent organism cannot survive. In many freshwater sponges, gemmules develop just before winter. This enables the gemmules to survive the cold temperature of winter in the dried or frozen body of the parent. In spring, the enclosed cells become active, emerge from the capsule, and grow into new sponge organisms.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 51

A series of State trials were conducted in 1860’s. In this context “The Ambala Trial, The Patna Trial, The Malda Trial and Rajmahal Trial” were associated with

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 51
  • Wahabi Movement was founded by Sayyid Ahmad (1786-1831) of Rae Bareli, the Wahhabi Movement in India was a vigorous movement for socio-religious reforms in Indo-Islamic society in the nineteenth century with strong political undercurrents.

  • It stood for a strong affirmation of Tauhid (unity of God), the efficacy of ijtihad (the right of further interpretation of the Quran and the Sunnah, or of forming a new opinion by applying analogy), and the rejection of bid'at (innovation). It remained active for half a century.

  • The movement was active since the 1830s but in the wake of the 1857 revolt, it turned into armed resistance, a Jihad against the British. Subsequently, the British termed Wahabis as traitors and rebels and carried out extensive military operations against the Wahabis.

  • Sittana in North-West Frontier Province was the headquarters of the Wahabis from 1850 onwards.

    British expeditions against Wahabi camp at Sittana:

    • Failure of 16 British expeditions, sent between 1850 and 1857, to destroy the Wahabis at Sittana.

    • British expedition under Sir Sydney Cotton and capture of Sittana (1858).

    • Recovery of Sittana by the Wahabis (July, 1863), and the failure of Sir Neville Chamberlain to recapture it and crush the rebels (October, 1863).

    • Defeat of the Wahabis by General Warvock (November, 1863).

  • The movement was fully suppressed after 1870. State Trials and suppression of the Wahabi Movement in India:

    • Ambala Trial (May, 1864) and passing of the sentence of transportation for life on Yahya Ali, Abdul Rahim, Muhammad Jaffer and many others.

    • Patna Trial (1865) and transportation of Ahmadullah (leader of the Wahabis at Patna) for life.

    • Malda Trial (September, 1870) and transportation of Maulavi Amiruddin of Maida for life.

    • Rajmahal Trial (October,1870) and transportation of Ibrahim of Islampore for life.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 52

In the context of modern Indian history, the term 'dubashes of Madras' referred to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 52
  • Madras developed by incorporating innumerable surrounding villages and by creating opportunities and spaces for a variety of communities. Several different communities came and settled in Madras, performing a range of economic functions.

    • The dubashes were Indians who could speak two languages – the local language and English. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

      • They worked as agents and merchants, acting as intermediaries between Indian society and the British.

      • They used their privileged position in government to acquire wealth.

      • Their powerful position in society was established by their charitable works and patronage of temples in the Black Town.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 12 - Question 53

Twelve EU member states launched Three Seas Initiative, a project that seeks to facilitate interconnectivity on energy, infrastructure, and digitalization projects in Central and Eastern Europe. The main goal of the venture is to create a “north-south” energy and infrastructure corridor in the region. Which of the following three seas are part of the initiative?

  1. Baltic Sea

  2. Black Sea

  3. Agean Sea

  4. Adriatic Sea

  5. Caspian Sea

Select the correct answer using the code given below.