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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 1

In the context of Razia Sultan of Delhi Sultanate, consider the following statements:

  1. The Turkish nobility unanimously appointed Razia Sultan as Iltutmish's successor after his death.

  2. She entered into matrimonial alliance for political stability of the sultanate.

  3. She fought the Battle of Chanderi against the Rajput ruler of Malwa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 1
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Participation in politics and public offices was largely dominated by men during the course of Indian history. Yet, several women created a direct space for themselves in the political affairs. The most direct and well-known role in this sphere was exercised by Razia Sultan.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Razia Sultan was the first Muslim female ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, who ruled Delhi from 1236 to 1240. Iltutmish nominated Razia as his successor, not the Turkish nobility. Most of the Muslim theologians approved her ascension and many of the Turkish nobility, army and people of Delhi accepted her on the throne. At the same time, many could not reconcile with the idea of a woman ruler. It was due to the prevalent attitude towards gender roles and the resentment against a woman ruler as affairs of sovereignty were thought to be an exclusive male prerogative. In addition to that, the provincial governors, did not have a voice in Razia’s selection and they felt ignored and thus, objected her rule.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Owing to the hostilities towards her, in April 1240 CE. Razia had to face the revolt of Altunia, the governor of Tabarhinda (Bathinda). Raziya married Altunia later. It was a purely political move to retrieve her throne and therefore she agreed to the proposal. Thus, it could be said that she entered into matrimonial alliance for political stability of the sultanate.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Battle of Chanderi took place in 1528 CE. This battle was fought between Babur and Medini Rai who was the Rajput ruler of Malwa. There is no role of Razia sultan in the Battle of Chanderi.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 2

Which among the following is the aim of the United Nations Capital Development Fund?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 2
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Statement a is incorrect: United Nation population fund is the United Nations sexual and reproductive health agency. Its mission is to deliver a world where every pregnancy is wanted, every child birth is safe and every young person's potential is fulfilled.

  • Statement b is incorrect: United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) is the specialized agency of the United Nations that promotes industrial development for poverty reduction, inclusive globalization and environmental sustainability.

    • The mission of the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO), as described in the Lima Declaration adopted at the fifteenth session of the UNIDO General Conference in 2013, as well as the Abu Dhabi Declaration adopted at the eighteenth session of the UNIDO General Conference in 2019, is to promote and accelerate inclusive and sustainable industrial development (ISID) in Member States.

  • Statement c is correct: The UN Capital Development Fund makes public and private finance work for the poor in the world’s 46 least developed countries (LDCs). UN Capital Development Fund offers “last mile” finance models that unlock public and private resources, especially at the domestic level, to reduce poverty and support local economic development.

    • UNCDF’s financing models work through three channels:

      • Inclusive digital economies, which connects individuals, households, and small businesses with financial eco-systems that catalyze participation in the local economy, and provide tools to climb out of poverty and manage financial lives;

      • Local development finance, which capacitates localities through fiscal decentralization, innovative municipal finance, and structured project finance to drive local economic expansion and sustainable development;

      • Investment finance, which provides catalytic financial structuring, de-risking, and capital deployment to drive SDG impact and domestic resource mobilization.

  • Statement d is incorrect: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) works to achieve sustainable growth and prosperity for all of its 190 member countries. It does so by supporting economic policies that promote financial stability and monetary cooperation, which are essential to increase productivity, job creation, and economic well-being. The IMF is governed by and accountable to its member countries.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ramakrishna Mission’:

  1. It aims to impart and promote the study of the Vedanta and science.

  2. It stresses upon the ideals of salvation through selfless action.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 3
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Ramakrishna Mission is a Hindu religious and spiritual organisation which forms the core of a worldwide spiritual movement known as the Ramakrishna Movement or the Vedanta Movement. The mission is named after and inspired by the Indian spiritual Guru Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and founded by Ramakrishna's chief disciple Swami Vivekananda on 1897.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The ideology and objectives of the Ramakrishna Mission is to impart and promote the study of the Vedanta and its principles. Vedanta is a Hindu philosophy which teaches that there is Oneness of all Truth. It also aims to impart and promote the study of the arts, science and industries.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Ramakrishna Mission stresses the ideal of salvation through social service and selfless action. The organisation mainly propagates the Hindu philosophy of Vedanta–Advaita Vedanta and four yogic ideals– Jnana, Bhakti, Karma, and Raja yoga. The mission bases its work on the principles of karma yoga, the principle of selfless work done with a dedication to God.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 4

With reference to ancient Indian History, the terms like Ghosha, Juhu and Paulomi are related to:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 4
Option c is the correct answer.
  • The Rig Veda mentions Romasa, Lopamudra, Apala, Kadru, Visvavara, Ghosha, Juhu, Vagambhrini, Paulomi, Yami, Indrani, Savitri, and Devajami. The Sama Veda adds Nodha, Akrishtabhasha, Sikatanivavari and Gaupayana. They were significant female figures and women rishis of the Vedic period.

  • In the early Vedic age women enjoyed an honoured place in the society. The wife was the mistress of the household and authority over the slaves. In all religious ceremonies she participated with her husband. Prada system was not prevalent in the society. Sati system was also not prevalent in the Vedic society. The education of girls was not neglected. The Rig-Veda mentions the names of some learned ladies like Viswavara, Apala and Ghosa who composed mantras and attained the rank of Rishis.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Taxation system during Mahajanpadas period’:

  1. Bali was a form of tax imposed by the kings upon the rich traders.

  2. An ‘bhagadugha’ collected a share of the agricultural produce as a tax from the peasants.

  3. The profession of crafting, hunting, and gathering were tax-free during this period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 5
Option b is the correct answer.
  • As the rulers of the Mahajanpadas were building huge forts and maintaining big armies, they needed more resources. And they needed officials to collect these. So, instead of depending on occasional gifts brought by people, as in the case of the raja of the janapadas, they started collecting regular taxes.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Bali was a tax imposed based on the area of cultivable land and not upon the rich traders. Bhaga was obtained as a share of the produce. Kara and Shulka were some of the other taxes collected during this period.

  • Statement 2 is correct: An official called bhagadugha collected bhaga i.e., a share of the agricultural produce. Survey of the agricultural land was done by an official called Rajjugahaka. Taxes on crops were the most important. This was because most people were farmers. Usually, the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This was known as bhaga or a share

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: There were taxes on crafts persons during Mahajan padas period. These could have been in the form of labour. For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to work for a day every month for the king. Herders were also expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal produce. Hunters and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the raja.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 6

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Magnetic particles can interfere with the migratory patterns of birds by disrupting their magnetic navigation system.

  2. Magnetic nanoparticles can enter in to brain of human beings and generate free radicals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 6
  • Magnetic particles can interfere with the migratory patterns of birds by disrupting their magnetic navigation system. Birds have the ability to sense the Earth's magnetic field and use it as a guide to navigate during their migrations. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Researchers at Lancaster University in the UK found abundant magnetite nanoparticles in the brain tissue from individuals.

  • This strongly magnetic mineral is toxic and has been implicated in the production of reactive oxygen species (free radicals) in the human brain, which are associated with neurodegenerative diseases including Alzheimer’s disease. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 7

With reference to ‘Dhamma’ of Ashoka, consider the following statements:

  1. The principles of Dhamma were formulated so as to be acceptable to the people belonging to different communities.

  2. It attacked ceremonies and sacrifices practised on various occasions, as meaningless.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 7
  • Ashoka Maurya, succeeded to the Mauryan throne around 269 B.C. Many historians consider him as one of the greatest kings of the ancient world. The word Dhamma is the Prakrit form of the Sanskrit word Dharma. Dhamma has been variously translated as piety, moral life, righteousness and so on, but the best way to understand what Ashoka means by Dhamma is to read his edicts. The edicts were written primarily to explain to the people throughout the empire the principles of Dhamma. This is why most of the edicts have something or the other to say about Dhamma, about how keen Ashoka was that his subjects should practise Dhamma and how keen he was that the affairs of the state too were carried out according to the principles of Dhamma. To make the principles of Dhamma accessible and understandable to all, he put up edicts or inscriptions at the important points throughout the empire and sent messengers of Dhamma outside the empire.

  • The principles of Dhamma were so formulated as to be acceptable to the people belonging to different communities and following any religious sect. Dhamma was not given any formal definition or a structure. It emphasised on toleration and general behaviour. Dhamma stressed on dual toleration, it emphasised on toleration of the people themselves also on toleration of their various beliefs and ideas. There is a stress on the notion of showing consideration towards the slaves and the servants; there is a stress also on obedience to the elders; generosity towards the needy Brahmanas and the Sramanas etc.

  • Ashoka also pleaded for tolerance of different religious sects in an attempt to create a sense of harmony. Major Rock Edict VII is a plea for toleration amongst all the sects. The policy of Dhamma also included certain welfare measures, like planting of trees, digging of wells etc. Ashoka attacked ceremonies and sacrifices practiced regularly on various occasions, as meaningless. A group of officers, known as the Dhammamahamattas, were instituted to implement and publicize the various aspects of Dhamma. Ashoka thrust a very heavy responsibility on them to carry his message to the various sections of the society. Major Rock Edicts IX attack the ceremonies performed after birth, illness, marriage and before setting out for a journey. A censure is passed against the ceremony observed by wives and mothers. Ashoka instead lay stress on the practice of Dhamma and uselessness of the ceremonies.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

  1. The H5N1 avian influenza virus was first detected in China.

  2. Till now, no human H5N1 infections have been reported.

  3. Domestic ducks are recognized as an important reservoir for H5N1.

  4. Intra-mammal transmission of H5N1 is not possible.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 8
  • The H5N1 avian influenza virus was first detected in 1996 on a goose farm in China. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • To date, over 800 cases of human H5N1 infections have been reported, with a high fatality of 53%. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Domestic ducks are recognized as an important reservoir for H5N1. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • Intra-mammal transmission of H5N1 in captivity in mink farms has been recorded, posing a bigger concern concerning zoonotic potential. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 9

With reference to the medieval Indian history, the term ‘Ziyarat’ relates to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 9
Pilgrimage, called Ziyarat, to the tombs of the Sufi saints is prevalent all over the Muslim world. This practice is an occasion for seeking the Sufi’s spiritual grace (Barakat). For more than 7 centuries, the people of various creeds, classes and social backgrounds have expressed their devotion at the Dargahs of the 5 great Chishti saints. Amongst these, the most revered shrine is that of Khwaja Muinuddin, popularly known as “Gharib Nawaz” (comforter of the poor). Also, part of Ziyarat is the use of music and dance, including mystical chants performed by specially trained musicians or Qawwals to evoke divine ecstasy.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 10

With reference to the First Battle of Panipat (1526), consider the following statements:

  1. It was fought between the armies of Babur and Sultan Ibrahim Lodi.

  2. The people of India came to know about gun-powder with the advent of Babur in this Battle.

  3. This Battle brought under Babur’s control the entire area upto Delhi and Agra.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 10
  • A conflict with Ibrahim Lodi, the ruler of Delhi, was inevitable, and Babur prepared for it by marching towards Delhi. Ibrahim Lodi met Babur at Panipat on 20th April, 1956, with a force estimated at 1,00,000 men and 1,000 elephants. Since the Indian armies generally contained large hordes of servants, the fighting men on Ibrahim Lodi’s side must have been far less than this figure. Babur had crossed the Indus with a force of 12,000, but this had been swelled by his army in India, and the large number of Hindustani nobles and soldiers who joined Babur in the Punjab. Even then, Babur’s army was numerically inferior.

  • Babur strengthened his position by resting one wing of his army on the city of Panipat which had a large number of houses and protected the other by means of a ditch filled with branches of trees. In front, he lashed together a large number of carts, to act as a defending wall. Between two carts, breastworks were erected on which the soldiers could rest their guns and fire.

  • Babur calls his device an Ottoman (Rumi) device, for it had been used by the Ottomans in their famous battle against Shah Ismail of Iran. Babur had also secured the services of two Ottoman master-gunners, Ustad Ali and Mustafa. The use of gun-powder had been gradually developing in India. Babur says that he used it for the first time in his attacks on the fortress of Bhira. Apparently, gun-powder was known in India, but its use for artillery became common in north India with the advent of Babur. The Battle of Panipat is regarded as one of the decisive battles of the Indian history. It broke the back of Lodi power and brought under Babur’s control the entire area upto Delhi and Agra. The treasures stored up by Ibrahim Lodi at Agra relieved Babur from his financial difficulties. The rich territory up to Jaunpur also lay open to Babur.

  • However, Babur had to wage two hard- fought battles, one against Rana Sanga of Mewar and the other against the eastern Afghans, before he could consolidate his hold on this area. Viewed from this angle, the Battle of Panipat was not as decisive in the political field as has been made out. Its real importance lies in the fact that it opened a new phase in the struggle for domination in north India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 11

With reference to the Deccan states, consider the following statements:

  1. Ali Adil Shah of Bijapur provided the grants to Pandharpur, a centre of the worship of Vithoba.

  2. Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah of Golconda was the first to introduce secular note in poetry.

  3. Murahari Rao rose to the position of Peshwa in the kingdom of Ibrahim Qutb Shah.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 11
  • The successor of Ali Adil Shah, Ibrahim Adil Shah II (1580–1627), ascended the throne at the age of nine. He was very solicitous to the poor and had the title of ‘Abla Baba’, or the ‘Friend of the Poor’ He was deeply interested in music, and composed a book, called Kitab-i- Nauras, in which songs were set to various musical modes or Ragas. He built a new capital, Nauraspur, in which a large number of musicians were invited to settle. In his songs, he freely invoked the Goddess of music and learning, Saraswati. Due to his broad approach, he came to be called ‘Jagat Guru’. He accorded patronage to all, including the Hindu saints and temples. This included grants to Pandharpur, the centre of the worship of Vithoba, which became the centre of the Bhakti Movement in Maharashtra. The broad, tolerant policy followed by Ibrahim Adil Shah II was continued under his successors.

  • Golconda was the intellectual resort of literary men. Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, a contemporary of Akbar, was very fond of literature and architecture. The Sultan was not only a great patron of art and literature, but was a poet of no mean order. He wrote in Dakhini Urdu, Persian and Telugu, and has left an extensive Diwan or collection. He was the first to introduce a secular note in poetry. Apart from the praise of God and the Prophet, he wrote about nature, love and the social life of his day. The growth of Urdu in its Dakhini form was a significant development during the period. The successors of Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah and many other poets and writers of the time adopted Urdu as a literary language. In addition to Persian, these writers drew on Hindi and Telugu for forms, idioms and themes, as well as vocabulary. Urdu was patronized at the Bijapuri court also. The poet laureate, Nusrati, who flourished during the middle of the 17th century, wrote a romantic tale about Prince Manohar, the ruler of Kanak Nagar, and Madhu Malati. From the Deccan, Urdu came to north India in the 18th century.

  • Maratha families played an important role in the service of the Ahmadnagar state. The Qutb Shahs, too, utilised the services of both the Hindus and the Muslims for military, administrative and diplomatic purposes. Under Ibrahim Qutb Shah (d. 1580), Murahari Rao rose to the position of Peshwa in the kingdom, a position which was second only to that of Mir Jumla or Wazir. The Nayakwaris, who formed the military- cum-landed elements, remained a power in the kingdom ever since the foundation of the dynasty. From 1672 till its absorption by the Mughals in1687, the administrative and military affairs of the state were dominated by the brothers, Madanna and Akkanna.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS)’:

  1. A seed fund is an investment fund that provides financial support to startups, usually in the form of seed capital.

  2. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has established the Experts Advisory Committee (EAC) to oversee the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 12
  • A seed fund is an investment fund that provides financial support to startups, usually in the form of seed capital. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Seed capital is the earliest stage of investment in a startup, typically used to finance the company's initial operations, product development, and market research.

  • The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has established the Experts Advisory Committee (EAC) to oversee and monitor the implementation of the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

  1. A separate department of Diwan-i-Amir Kohi was established by Firoz shah Tughlaq to address the concerns of slaves.

  2. Diwan-i-arz was responsible for the administration of military affairs under the Delhi Sultanate.

  3. Alauddin Khilji set up Diwan-i-Mustakhraj to realize arrears of revenue payments from the different parts of the empire.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 13
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Central administration in the Delhi sultanate during the period of Slave dynasty was carried out mostly by trusted slaves who had helped the sultan to acquire the throne; or by the members of the royal household and family. Loyalty was therefore a prerequisite for holding the high office and was given the highest rewards. The Sultan was the head of the administration with all military, administrative and legal powers. A number of separate departments were created to look after different aspects of administration.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Muhammad bin Tughlaq established a separate department, Diwan-i-Amir Kohi. It was responsible for bringing uncultivated land into cultivation through state support. Firoz Shah Tughlaq had a genuine concern for the slaves and established a separate government department to attend to their welfare. It was called Diwan-i-Bandagan.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Diwan-i-Arz was instituted specially to look after the military organisation of the Delhi Sultanate. It was headed by the Ariz-i-Mumalik. With the Delhi Sultanate always having a large military entourage, this ministry was very important in the empire. The Ariz, along with his office, maintained the royal contingents, recruited the soldiers, ensured the discipline and fitness of the army, examined the horses and branded them with the royal insignia.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Diwan-i-Mustakhraj was set up by Alauddin Khilji to enquire into and realise arrears of revenue payments from the different parts of the empire. The centre’s policy of revenue collection reached its highest of one-half of the produce during the reign of Alauddin Khalji, who had adopted the policy of actual measurement of land where land was measured and revenue demand determined on its anticipated yield.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding socio-economic conditions in 18th Century India:

  1. Old commercial centres degenerated and regional capitals like Madras arose.

  2. The education system emphasised upon the study of physical and natural sciences, and ignored religion and philosophy.

  3. The balance of trade in the 18th century was positive as India’s exports were more than its imports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 14
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Eighteenth century India failed to make progress economically, socially or culturally, at an adequate pace. India became a land of contrasts because extreme poverty and extreme luxury existed side by side. The common populace remained impoverished, backward and oppressed and lived at the bare subsistence level; the rich and the powerful enjoyed a life of luxury and lavishness. But it is worth noting that the life of the Indian masses was, by and large, better in the 18th century than it was after 100 years of British rule.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The old commercial centres of Surat, Masulipatnam and Dhaka degenerated, and colonial port cities like Bombay, Madras and Calcutta took their place. The decline of the Mughal capitals of Delhi and Agra was offset by the rise of regional capitals, including Lucknow, Hyderabad, the various Maratha cities, and Seringapatam.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The education imparted in 18th-century India was still traditional which could not match with the rapid developments in the West. The knowledge was confined to literature, law, religion, philosophy, and logic and excluded the study of physical and natural sciences, technology and geography. In fact, due to over-reliance placed on ancient learning, any original thought got discouraged. The education system could not change according to the requirements of the time. The curriculum was confined to literature, languages, law, religion, philosophy and logic and excluded the study of physical and natural sciences, technology and geography. There was lack of progressive ideas as theoretical framework dominated.

  • Statement 3 is correct: On account of being self-sufficient in handicrafts and agricultural products, India did not import foreign goods on a large scale. On the other hand, its industrial and agricultural products were in good demand in foreign markets. Hence its exports were more than its imports; trade was balanced by import of silver and gold. India was known as a sink of precious metals.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 15

With reference to 8th Century Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct regarding the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 15
Option d is the correct answer.
  • The Gurjara Pratihara dynasty was founded by Nagabhatta I in the region of Malwa in the eighth century C.E. He belonged to a Rajput clan. Later one of his successors, Vatsaraja extended his rule over to a large part of North India and made Kannauj in western Uttar Pradesh his capital.

  • Option a is incorrect: In the Gurjara-Pratihara history, king occupied the highest position in the state and had enormous powers, kings adopted big titles such as 'Parmeshwara', 'Maharajadhiraja', 'Parambhaterak'.

  • Option b is incorrect: The appointment of the samantas and singing on giants and charities were the works of the kings in Gurjara Pratihara dynasty. The samantas used to give military help to their Kings and fought for them the advice of the high officers was taken in matters of administration. However, there is no reference of mantriparishad or ministers in the inscriptions of this period.

  • Option c is incorrect: Caste system was prevalent in Indian during Gurjara-Pratihara period. The Arab writer Ibda Khurdadab has referred seven castes in the time of the Pratiharas. Caste based occupations prevailed during this period. The people of Sudaria were regarded as Sudras and usually did farming or cattle rearing. Basuria class was the Vaishya class whose duty was to serve other classes. The people of Sandila class did the work of Chandals. Lahuda class constituted of low and wandering tribe.

  • Option d is correct: Economy in Pratihara Empire was mainly dependent on agricultural production. Thus, the major source of government revenue at that time was the tax derived from the bulk of agricultural production. The feudal levies due from subordinates to the Gurjara king were supplemented by standing armies garrisoned on the frontiers.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 16

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the impact of the Easterly jet stream over the Indian climate?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 16
Option b is the correct answer.
  • The Tropical Easterly Jet flows from east to west over Peninsular India at 6 to 9 kilometres and over the Northern African region. The formation of Tropical Eastern Jet results in reversal of upper air circulation patterns (high pressure switches to low pressure) and leads to the quick onset of the monsoon.

  • When the summer temperature of air over Tibet remains high for a sufficiently long time, it helps in strengthening the easterly jet and results in heavy rainfall in India. The easterly jet does not come into existence if the snow over the Tibet Plateau does not melt because this weakens the Tibetan heating. This hampers the occurrence of rainfall in India. The formation of Easterly Jet Stream results in the reversal of upper air circulation patterns [High pressure switches to low pressure] and leads to the quick onset of monsoons.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 17

In the context of the GST (Compensation to States) Act, consider the following statements:

  1. The Act guarantees a minimum annual growth rate in the GST revenues of all the states for the first five years of GST implementation.

  2. The Act provides for cess to be levied on luxury and sin goods.

  3. The proceeds from the Compensation cess are parked into a lapsable fund created for the purpose.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 17
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: The GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 guarantees all states an annual growth rate of 14 per cent in their GST revenue, over the base year of 2015-16, for the first five years of implementation of GST beginning July 2017. The 5-year period ends in June 2022. It was introduced as a relief for states for the loss of revenues arising from the implementation of GST.

  • Statement 2 is correct: If a state’s revenue grows slower than 14 per cent relative to the base year, it is supposed to be compensated by the Centre using the funds specifically collected as compensation cess. To provide these grants, a GST compensation cess is levied on certain luxury and sin goods.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The collected compensation cess flows into the CFI, and is then transferred to the Public Account of India, where a GST compensation cess account has been created. The GST Compensation cess fund is non lapsable in nature. States are compensated bi-monthly from the accumulated funds in this account.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

  1. World Wetlands Day (WWD) is celebrated every year on 2 nd February.

  2. The 2023 theme for World Wetlands Day is ‘Wetland Restoration’.

  3. India has the largest network of Ramsar Sites in Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 18
World Wetlands Day (WWD):
  • The State Govts and UT administrations across India celebrated World Wetlands Day (WWD) at all 75 Ramsar sites on 02nd Feb 2023. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The 2023 theme for World Wetlands Day is ‘Wetland Restoration’ highlighting the urgent need to prioritise wetland restoration. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • The Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change launched the ‘Save Wetlands Campaign’ structured on a “whole of society” approach for wetlands conservation. World Wetlands Day is celebrated all over the world to commemorate the signing of the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance (1971). India has been a party to the Convention since 1982 and has so far declared 75 wetlands as Ramsar across 23 states/UTs. India has the largest network of Ramsar Sites in Asia. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 19

With reference to the Treaty of Allahabad of 1765, consider the following statements:

  1. It was concluded between Robert Clive, the Marathas and the Nawab of Awadh.

  2. The Company acquired both the Nizamat and the Diwani rights for Bengal.

  3. The Company did not annex Awadh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 19
The combined armies of Mir Kasim, the Nawab of Awadh, and Shah Alam II were defeated by the English forces, under Major Hector Munro at Buxar in 1764 in a closely contested battle. Robert Clive concluded 2 important treaties at Allahabad in August 1765 – one with the Nawab of Awadh and the other with the Mughal emperor, Shah Alam II.

Shah Alam II agreed to:

  • Reside at Allahabad, to be ceded to him by the Nawab of Awadh, under the Company’s protection; Issue a Farman granting the diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the East India Company, in lieu of an annual payment of Rs. 26 lakhs; and A provision of Rs. 53 lakhs to the Company in return for the Nizamat functions (military defence, police and administration of justice) of the said provinces.

  • Thus, the Company acquired the Diwani functions from the emperor and the Nizamat functions from the Subahdar of Bengal.

  • Clive did not want to annex Awadh, because it would have placed the Company under an obligation to protect an extensive land frontier from the Afghan and the Maratha invasions. The Treaty made the Nawab a firm friend of the Company and turned Awadh into a buffer state. Similarly, Clive’s arrangement with Shah Alam II was inspired by practical considerations. It made the emperor a useful ‘rubber stamp’ of the Company. Besides, the emperor’s Farman legalised the political gains of the Company in Bengal.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 20

With reference to the C. Rajagopalachari (CR) Formula, consider the following statements:

  1. It was an implicit acceptance of the Muslim League’s demand for Pakistan.

  2. It accepted the League’s demand of only the Muslims to participate in plebiscite, for separation of the Muslim majority area.

  3. It provided for common centre after partition, for defence, commerce and communication.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 20
After the failure of the Cripps Mission, efforts were on to solve the ongoing constitutional crisis, and some individuals also tried to come up with constitutional proposals. C. Rajagopalachari (CR), the veteran Congress leader, prepared a Formula for Congress-League co-operation in 1944. It was a tacit acceptance of the League’s demand for Pakistan. Gandhi supported the Formula.

Main highlights of the CR Plan:

  • The Muslim League to endorse Congress demand for independence.

  • The League to co-operate with Congress in forming a provisional government at centre.

  • After the end of the war, the entire population of the Muslim majority areas in the North-West and North-East India to decide by a plebiscite, whether or not to form a separate sovereign state.

  • In case of acceptance of partition, agreement to be made jointly for safeguarding defence, commerce, communications, etc.

  • The above terms to be operative only if England transferred full powers to India.

  • Jinnah wanted the Congress to accept the two-nation theory. He wanted only the Muslims of North- West and North-East to vote in the plebiscite and not the entire population. He also opposed the idea of a common centre. While the Congress was ready to co-operate with the League for the independence of the Indian Union, the League did not care for independence of the Union. It was only interested in a separate nation. Hindu leaders, led by Vir Savarkar, condemned the CR Plan.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 21

With reference to the Lahore Session of Congress (1929), consider the following statements:

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru was nominated as the President of the Session with backing of the majority of the Provincial Congress Committees.

  2. The decision of boycott of The Round Table Conference was taken.

  3. All members of the legislatures were asked to resign their seats.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 21
Jawaharlal Nehru, who had done more than anyone else to popularise the concept of Purna Swaraj, was nominated the President for the Lahore Session of the Congress (December, 1929), mainly due to Gandhi’s backing (15 out of 18 Provincial Congress Committees had opposed Nehru). Nehru was chosen because of the appositeness of the occasion (Congress’ acceptance of complete independence as its goal), and to acknowledge the upsurge of youth which had made the anti-Simon campaign a huge success.

The following major decisions were taken at the Lahore Session:

  • The Round Table Conference was to be boycotted.

  • Complete independence was declared as the aim of the Congress.

  • Congress Working Committee was authorised to launch a programme of civil disobedience including non-payment of taxes and all members of the legislatures were asked to resign their seats.

  • January 26, 1930, was fixed as the first Independence (Swarajya) Day, to be celebrated everywhere.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 22

With reference to the Swarajists (1920s), consider the following statements:

  1. The Swarajists were allowed to contest elections as a group within the Congress.

  2. The Responsivists among the Swarajists wanted to protect the so-called Hindu interests.

  3. They failed to resist the perks and privileges of power and office.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 22
  • Both sides (The No Changers and the Swarajists) however, wanted to avoid a 1907-type split and kept in touch with Gandhi who was in jail. Both sides also realised the significance of putting up a united front to get a mass movement to force the government to introduce reforms, and both sides accepted the necessity of Gandhi’s leadership of a united nationalist front. Keeping these factors in mind, a compromise was reached at a meeting in Delhi in September, 1923. The Swarajists were allowed to contest elections as a group within the Congress. The Swarajists accepted the Congress programme with only one difference—that they would join the Legislative Councils. The elections to the newly constituted Central Legislative Assembly and to the Provincial Assemblies were to be held in November, 1923.

  • Gradually, the Swarajists’ position had weakened because of widespread communal riots, and a split among the Swarajists themselves on communal and ‘Responsivist-Non-Responsivist’ lines. The government strategy of dividing the Swarajists – the more militant from the moderates, the Hindus from the Muslims – was successful. The Responsivists among the Swarajists – Lala Lajpat Rai, Madan Mohan Malaviya and N.C. Kelkar – advocated co-operation with the government and holding of office wherever possible. Besides, they also wanted to protect the so-called Hindu interests. The communal elements accused leaders like Motilal Nehru, who did not favour joining the Council, of being anti-Hindu, even as the Muslim communalists called the Swarajists anti-Muslims.

  • Drawbacks:

    • The Swarajists lacked a policy to co-ordinate their militancy inside the legislatures with the mass struggle outside.

    • They relied totally on newspaper reporting to communicate with the public.

    • An obstructionist strategy had its limitations.

    • They could not carry on with their coalition partners very far, because of conflicting ideas, which further limited their effectiveness.

    • They failed to resist the perks and privileges of power and office. They failed to support the peasants’ cause in Bengal and lost support among the Muslim members, who were pro-peasants.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 23

With reference to Paris Club, consider the following statements:

  1. Its objective is to find sustainable debt-relief solutions for countries unable to repay their loans.

  2. Its importance has receded with the emergence of China as the world’s largest bilateral lender.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 23
  • About: The Paris Club is a group of mostly western creditor countries that grew from a 1956 meeting in which Argentina agreed to meet its public creditors in Paris. It describes itself as forum where official creditors meet to solve payment difficulties faced by debtor countries. Their objective is to find sustainable debt-relief solutions for countries that are unable to repay their bilateral loans. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Members: The members are: Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Ireland, Israel, Japan, Netherlands, Norway, Russia, South Korea, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, the United Kingdom and the United States. All 22 are members of the group called Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).

  • Recent Developments: The Paris group countries dominated bilateral lending in the last century, but their importance has receded over the last two decades or so with the emergence of China as the world’s biggest bilateral lender. Hence, statement 2 is correct. In Sri Lanka’s case, for instance, India, China, and Japan are the largest bilateral creditors. Sri Lanka’s debt to China is 52% of its bilateral debt, 19.5% to Japan, and 12% to India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 24

With reference to Red Sanders, consider the following statements:

  1. It is endemic to the Eastern Ghats of India.

  2. Recently, IUCN has moved it from the ‘Endangered’ to the ‘Least Concern’ category.

  3. Invasive species are the biggest threat to it.

  4. It is used for making medicines, furniture, and musical instruments.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 24
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Red Sanders, also known as Pterocarpus Santalinus, is an extremely rare and commercially valuable tree species found in India. It was recently re-listed as Endangered in the Red Data List of the IUCN.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders is a very valuable tree species as it is found only in very limited areas. It is endemic to the Eastern Ghats. The most superior variety is found in Andhra Pradesh in districts of Chittoor, Kadapa, Kurnool and Nellore. In Karnataka it is found in Kolar, Tumkur and Chitradurga.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: This statement is incorrect as after being classified in 2018 (for the first time since 1997) as ‘Near Threatened’, IUCN has again had to classify Red Sanders as ‘Endangered’ in 2021 due to drastic fall in numbers of specimens. The latest IUCN assessment stated: “Over the last three generations, the species has experienced a population decline of 50-80 per cent. It is assessed as Endangered”.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Illegal felling and smuggling of the tree’s wood for international trade is the biggest threat to the survival of the species. The trees have an extremely long growing span. Most trees usually take about 12 to 14 years to attain maturity. But the red sander wood needs about 100 years to reach that stage. The latest IUCN report says that although the area of distribution has been maintained over the years, the overharvesting to satisfy growing global demand has pushed the species to dangerously low levels of population. Cattle grazing and invasive species are a threat too, however they are not a primary factor.

  • Statement 4 is correct: The wood of red Sanders is in high demand as it has following uses:

    • Making musical instruments like violin, etc.

    • High quality, water resistant luxury furniture

    • Making nuclear radiation shielded structures

    • High demand from SouthEast Asia (like China, Japan, Myanmar, etc) for Medicinal uses: astringent properties, treating urinary tract infections, bilious affections and skin diseases, headache, fever, boils, scorpion sting and improving sight.

  • Knowledge Base:

  • Other facts about Red Sanders:

    • Protected Under Schedule II of CITES, and Schedule II of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

    • It is a deciduous tree.

    • It grows in tropical deciduous forests, with red soils. Rainfall between 80 cm to 100 cm annually is required. It grows well in dry, hot climates.

    • It also yields Santaline dye, which finds use in colouring foodstuff and pharmaceutical preparations.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 25

Which of the following is not a challenge faced by the Food Processing Sector in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 25
Option c is the correct answer.
  • The Food Processing Industry (FPI) has been touted as a sunrise sector of Indian economy. The food processing sector has been growing at an Average Annual Growth Rate of around 8.41 % between 2014-18. The sector constitutes 8.83 % and 10.66 % of gross value added in manufacturing and agriculture sector respectively. However, there are still many challenges to the realisation of its full potential. Currently it accounts for less than 10% of the total food in India.

  • Statements a and d are correct: The Ministry of Food Processing Industries has identified six key challenges faced by the food processing industry:

    • gaps in supply chain infrastructure (i.e., lack of primary processing, storage and distribution facilities);

    • inadequate link between production and processing;

    • seasonality of operations and low capacity utilisations;

    • institutional gaps in supply chain, viz., dependence on APMC markets, etc.;

    • inadequate focus on quality and safety standards; and

    • lack of product development and innovation

  • Statement b is correct: The Food Processing Industry in India is highly fragmented and dominated by the unorganised sector. These small players do not have many funds at their disposal. Hence they are unable to invest in machinery that can add much value beyond Primary processing. This prevents them from creating products that are in demand by the modern consumer, while making the operation cheaper due to the huge quantity of order. According to ASI date, 39,748 food processing enterprises are in the organised sector in 2016-17 while the number of unincorporated enterprises as per NSSO data stood at 24,59,929 in 2015-16.

  • Statement c is incorrect: The Food Processing sector was opened to a 100% FDI under Automatic Route in 2016. Further, in 2017, 100 per cent FDI under the Government route for retail trading, including through e-commerce, is permitted in respect of food products manufactured and/or produced in India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 26

With respect to Genetic engineering, which of the following is/are correct?

  1. Gene editing involves altering of both DNA and RNA component of the organism.

  2. Gene drive technology can permanently change the traits of an entire species.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 26
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Genetic engineering, also called genetic modification, is the direct manipulation of an organism's genome using biotechnology. It is a set of technologies used to change the genetic makeup of cells, including the transfer of genes within and across species boundaries to produce improved or novel organisms.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: During the process of gene editing, a piece or several pieces of DNA (not the RNA) are altered to change a characteristic about the organism. If DNA is inserted, it can come from another individual with the desired characteristic, it can come from a different species or it could be artificially produced. The process of genetic engineering involves splicing an area of a chromosome, a gene, that controls a certain characteristic of the body. This gene may be reprogrammed to produce an antiviral protein. The enzyme endonuclease is used to split a DNA sequence as well as split the gene from the rest of the chromosome.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Gene drive is a genetic engineering technology that can permanently change the traits of a population or even an entire species. Gene drives are genetic elements that pass from parents to unusually high numbers of their offspring, thereby spreading quickly. It occur naturally but can also be engineered. In a breakthrough in the global fight for malaria, scientists have wiped out an entire population of malaria-carrying mosquitoes in lab conditions using a CRiSPR gene drive technology.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 27

With reference to the Indian Pangolin, consider the following statements:

  1. It is listed as Endangered by the IUCN.

  2. It is widely distributed in the high-altitude Himalayan region.

  3. It is the only species of Pangolin found in India

  4. Its scales are used for treating infertility in women.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 27
Option c is the correct answer.
  • The Indian Pangolin is a scaly anteater. It is the only mammal with keratinous scales on its skin. It is the largest of the 8 species of Pangolins existing in the world. Pangolins are the most illegally traded mammals in the world.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The IUCN lists Indian Pangolins as ‘Endangered’ on its Red Data List. It must not be confused with the Chinese Pangolin which is listed under ‘Critically Endangered’ category by the IUCN.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian Pangolin is widely distributed in India except higher altitudes of the Himalayas (> 2500m), the North east India and arid regions.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: There are 2 species of Pangolins found in India - the Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla). Indian Pangolin is found throughout the country south of the Himalayas, excluding the north-eastern region while the Chinese Pangolin ranges through Assam and the eastern Himalayas.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Although not proven by modern medical science, traditional Chinese medicine values the scales of the pangolin as a treatment of many ailments like - arthritis, anorexia, sores, and skin infections to treating infertility in women and promoting lactation.

  • Knowledge Base:

    • Conservation Status: Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972; CITES Appendix I (since 2017).

    • Habitat preferred by the species is tropical forests, open grasslands, etc.

    • Other than India, it is also found in Bangladesh, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

    • A terminal scale is also present on the ventral side of the tail of the Indian Pangolin, which is absent in the Chinese Pangolin.

    • Threats: hunting and poaching for local consumptive use (e.g. as a protein source and traditional medicine) and international trade, for its meat and scales in East and South East Asian countries, particularly China and Vietnam.

    • Inadequate information on population and distribution further accentuates the threats arising from hunting and poaching.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC):

  1. Only ‘Agriculture and allied sectors’ are eligible for receiving funds from NAFCC.

  2. NABARD is the National Implementing Entity for projects under NAFCC.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 28
Option b is the correct answer.
  • The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) is a Central Sector Scheme which was set up in the year 2015-16. The overall aim of NAFCC is to support concrete adaptation activities which mitigate the adverse effects of climate change.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) has been established to support adaptation activities in the States and Union Territories (UTs) of India that are vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. The projects related to adaptation in sectors such as agriculture, animal husbandry, water, forestry, tourism, disaster management, human health, marine system, habitat sector and other rural livelihood sectors are eligible for funding under NAFCC.

  • Statement 2 is correct: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE) for implementation of adaptation projects under NAFCC.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 29

Exercise Varuna is a joint naval exercise between

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 29
  • Exercise Varuna is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France, aimed at improving interoperability and enhancing defense cooperation between the two nations. Hence, option B is correct.

  • It typically involves a range of naval activities, including training in anti-submarine warfare, search and rescue operations, and surface warfare tactics. The exercise takes place annually and alternates between Indian and French naval bases.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 30

In which of the following states, India’s maximum number of mines producing minerals (excluding minor minerals, petroleum (crude), natural gas and atomic minerals) are located?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 30

Andhra Pradesh
Notes: The number of mines which reported mineral production {excluding minor minerals, petroleum (crude), natural gas and atomic minerals} in India was 3108 in 2012-13. Out of 3108 reporting mines, maximum number of mines were located in Andhra Pradesh (583) followed by Rajasthan (374), Gujarat (350).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 31

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Nirbhay cruise missile is a two-stage missile, with the first stage using solid fuel and the second stage using liquid fuel.

  2. It is a supersonic missile which flies at a speed of 1.5 – 2.5 Mach.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 31
Nirbhay is a subsonic missile, flying at a speed of 0.7 to 0.9 Mach, with sea- skimming and terrain-hugging capability.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 32

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Gravitational Waves are the 'ripples' in space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe.

  2. These Waves carry with them information about their origins.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 32
  • The Gravitational Waves are the 'ripples' in space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe. Albert Einstein predicted the existence of the Gravitational Waves in 1916 in his General Theory of Relativity. Einstein's mathematics showed that massive accelerating objects (such as neutron stars or black holes orbiting each other) would disrupt space-time in such a way that the 'Waves' of undulating space- time would propagate in all directions away from the source. These cosmic ripples would travel at the speed of light, carrying with them information about their origins, as well as clues to the nature of gravity itself.

  • The strongest Gravitational Waves are produced by cataclysmic events, such as the colliding black holes, supernovae (massive stars exploding at the end of their lifetimes) and the colliding neutron stars. Other Waves are predicted to be caused by the rotation of the neutron stars that are not perfect spheres, and possibly even the remnants of the gravitational radiation created by the Big Bang.

  • While the processes that generate the Gravitational Waves can be extremely violent and destructive, by the time the Waves reach Earth, they are thousands of billions of times smaller. In fact, by the time the Gravitational Waves from LIGO's (The Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory)’s first detection reached us, the amount of space-time wobbling they generated was 1,000 times smaller than the nucleus of an atom. Such inconceivably small measurements are what the LIGO was designed to make.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 33

Which of the following statements are correct?

  1. The Starlink Project aims to deliver high speed broadband internet to inaccessible locations.

  2. Neuralink aims to develop ultra-high bandwidth brain-machine interfaces.

  3. Elon Musk is the co-founder and leads Starlink, as well as Neuralink.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 33
  • SpaceX is developing Starship – a fully reusable transportation system that will carry crew and cargo to the Moon, Mars and beyond – and Starlink, which will deliver high speed broadband internet to the locations where access has been unreliable, expensive or completely unavailable. By pioneering reusable rockets, SpaceX is pursuing the long-term goal of making humans a multi-planet species by creating a self-sustaining city on Mars.

  • Elon is also the CEO of Neuralink, which is developing ultra-high bandwidth brain- machine interfaces to connect the human brain to the computers.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 34

With respect to the “Parthenocarpic Fruits”, consider the following statements:

  1. These are the species in which the fruits develop without fertilisation.

  2. Banana is an example of the “Parthenocarpic Fruits.

  3. These fruits are seedless.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 34
  • In most plants, by the time the fruit develops from the ovary, other floral parts degenerate and fall off. However, in a few species, such as apple, strawberry, cashew, etc., the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation. Such fruits are called the ‘False Fruits’. Most fruits, however, develop only from the ovary and are called the ‘True Fruits’. Although, in most of the species, the fruits are the results of fertilisation, there are a few species in which the fruits develop without fertilisation. Such fruits are called the ‘Parthenocarpic Fruits’. Banana is one such example.

  • Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones and such fruits are seedless.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 35

With respect to the “Restriction Enzyme”, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a protein produced by bacteria that cleaves the DNA at specific sites.

  2. It protects the live bacteria from bacteriophages.

  3. It is used in genetic engineering to form ‘recombinant’ molecules of the DNA, which are composed of the DNA from different sources/genomes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 35
  • The ‘Restriction Enzyme’ is a protein produced by bacteria that cleaves the DNA at specific sites. This site is known as the restriction site. The restriction enzymes protect the live bacteria from bacteriophages. They recognize and cleave at the restriction sites of the bacteriophage and destroy its DNA. Restriction enzymes are important tools for genetic engineering. Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes, called nucleases. These are of 2 kinds: Exonucleases and endonucleases. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA, whereas endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA.

  • Each restriction endonuclease functions by ‘inspecting’ the length of a DNA sequence. Once it finds its specific recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA and cut each of the two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar-phosphate backbones. Each restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA.

  • Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering to form ‘recombinant’ molecules of the DNA, which are composed of the DNA from different sources / genomes.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 36

Which of the following can be the possible causes of Algal Bloom?

  1. Agricultural Runoff

  2. Discharge of untreated Sewage

  3. Discharge of untreated Industrial Effluents

  4. Blockage in the flow of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 36
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Option 1 is correct: Agricultural Runoff contains a high amount of nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus due to increased use of fertilizers, especially nitrogen rich urea in modern agriculture. On reaching water bodies these nutrients stimulate the phytoplanktons in water such as blue-green bacteria, etc causing algal blooms in an unnatural amount, due to unnatural enhanced levels of plant growing nutrients in water.

  • Option 2 is correct: Discharge of untreated Sewage causes addition of organic wastes and pathogens in water bodies. These organic wastes act like manure and enhance nutrients in water bodies to unnatural levels, thus causing algal blooms.

  • Option 3 is correct: Discharge of untreated Industrial Effluents also results in an unnatural concentration of various chemicals in water bodies, some of these directly promote plant growth (nitrogen, phosphorus, etc), while others such as lead, mercury, etc cause death of aquatic organisms, whose decaying organic matter further acts as manure enriching nutrients of the water body leading to algal blooms.

  • Option 4 is correct: Algal blooms occur in water bodies that are stagnant, as there is no removal of enhanced levels of nutrients and no disturbance leading to unchecked proliferation of the algae. So, blockage of the flow of water, mostly due to human interventions such as the creation of dams, or diversion of natural waters for artificial projects leaving behind stranded lakes and blockage of river courses due to deposition of eroded soil (due to land use changes) helps in creating algal blooms.

  • Knowledge Base:

    • Algal bloom is an unchecked proliferation/ growth of algae (green, blue-green, cyanobacteria, etc) in a water body in an unnatural amount leading to disbalance in that aquatic ecosystem and death of biodiversity of that water body. This is due to:

      • Decreased sunlight penetration. Algae cover the surface of the water body, causing the death of other oxygen-producing vegetation and other aquatic organisms.

      • Dead and decaying organic matter further adds nutrients to the water body fuelling more algal growth while also reducing oxygen availability, killing more organisms. This cycle repeats, till most of the water body becomes lifeless and loses its biodiversity.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 37

With respect to the effects of cultivating Millets, consider the following statements:

  1. They are completely resistant to pests

  2. They help in water conservation

  3. They improve the soil structure

  4. They can sequester carbon

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 37
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Millets – often called “Nutri-Cereals” due to their high nutritional value – are a group of small-seeded grasses grown mainly in dry zones of Asia and Africa. These include sorghum (or great millet), pearl millet, finger millet, fonio, proso millet, foxtail millet, teff and other smaller varieties The UN has declared 2023 to be the ‘International Year of Millets’ to promote awareness about them as a solution to problems related to food security and climate change.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: This statement is incorrect as it is not always true. While generally millets remain free of pests, sometimes, some pests like shoot fly have been known to attack if planting is delayed due to delay in the onset of monsoon. So, some pest control is required, although the need for chemical pesticides is limited to a great extent as even biological pest control and organic pesticides are potent enough.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Millets are a rainfed crop. They do not require standing water or lots of irrigation for which canals need to be dug, or dams need to be built or groundwater needs to be overexploited. They have an extremely low water footprint, with a crop of millets requiring around 80 percent less water than crops like rice, wheat, or sugarcane. Hence Millets help in preserving water, which is already in short supply due to aggravating climate change (erratic rains, increased droughts).

  • Statement 3 is correct: Millets are extremely good for preserving and even improving the soils’ structure naturally and preserving soil health.

    • Millets have a deep fibrous root network which helps to maintain the integrity of the soil, saving it from wind and water erosion.

    • Millets are slow to decompose, so when added to the soil after harvest, as a compost/ mulch, they improve soil aeration without the need of tillage which disturbs soils.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Millets help control climate change as they can store/ sequester more carbon than other foodgrains. They do not need standing water like paddy does, so it eliminates the methane emission that might have otherwise contributed to climate change.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 38

With reference to the environmental impact of cement production, consider the following statements:

  1. It causes an increase in particulate matters in the air.

  2. It can cause acidic corrosion in buildings and vegetation.

  3. It contributes to the formation of ground level smog.

  4. It causes around 5% of global carbon dioxide emissions.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 38
Option d is the correct answer.
  • The cement sector is one of the largest industrial sources of pollution, emitting thousands of tons per year of sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, and carbon monoxide. The production of cement is enormously energy intensive and produces many harmful emissions, odours and noise.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Cement production involves the process of pulverisation (crushing) which releases many fine particles (PM 2.5, PM 10). These fine particles reduce albedo (reflective capacity of white surfaces) thus enhancing global warming due to increased absorption of insolation. On the human front, these particles lead to many respiratory diseases.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The process of cement production involves burning of fuels that releases huge quantities of Sulphur dioxide. This mixes with rainwater and comes down as Acid Rain causing deposition of acid on buildings and structures (such as bridges, multi-storey buildings, etc) outside thus corroding them and making them weak, which may be a danger to public safety. Acid deposition on vegetation leads to necrosis (death) of plant tissue, thus damaging the environment and disrupting ecosystem services.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The process of cement production involves burning of fuels that releases huge quantities of Nitrogen Oxides (NOx), Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs), etc which combine in the presence of sunlight to form Peroxyacetylnitrate (PAN) which leads to formation of ground level ozone and photochemical smog. It reduces visibility and causes irritation to the eyes, lungs and mucus lining of all living beings.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Cement production is a cause of around 5% of global carbon dioxide emission as the production process is highly energy intensive and emitting process.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 39

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The annual range of temperature in Temperate grassland is vastly different in Northern and Southern Hemispheres.

Reason (R): The Temperate grassland in the Southern Hemisphere is on thin land strips near the sea, while those in the Northern Hemisphere is in remote interiors of the continent.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 39
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Steppes are Temperate Grasslands found in the Eurasian interior areas in the Northern Hemisphere. They border the deserts, and are away from the Mediterra-nean regions. In the Southern Hemisphere, the Temperate Grasslands are distributed in the Southeast portion of Africa (the High Veld), in the South East portion of Australia (Downs) and in Paraguay in South America (Pampas).

  • A is True: Being in the interior of the continent, far from the moderating maritime influence of sea and land breezes, or moisture laden onshore winds, temperate grasslands of northern hemisphere experience extremes of temperatures due to this ‘Continentality’. The summers are extremely hot and dry as moisture laden winds are unable to reach so far into the interior and there is no local breeze to cool down temperature. Similarly, the winters are very cold, as there are no warm currents to raise the temperature. Thus, these grasslands see a very high annual range of temperature (difference between the highest and lowest temperatures recorded in a year). On the other hand, the Temperate Grasslands in the Southern Hemisphere have quite mild climates without any extremes of temperatures. The summers are not very hot, and even in winters, it rarely ever reaches sub-zero temperatures. Thus, the annual range of temperatures over Southern Hemisphere Temperate Grasslands is very small. For example, Winnipeg, in the American Prairies (a Temperate Grassland in the Northern Hemisphere) has 3 times the annual range of temperature as Pretoria (in the HighVeld region).

  • R is True: In general, the amount of landmass is very less compared to the amount of ocean expanse in the Southern Hemisphere. Most landmasses are thin strips of land with no appreciable east-west breadth. So this is why the Temperate Grasslands in the Southern Hemisphere too are present on thin strips of land and are in close proximity to the oceans. For example the Pampas in Argentina R is the correct explanation for A: The feature of Continentality which is responsible for the extremes of temperature (and thus by extension for the high annual range of temperature) is absent in the Temperate Grasslands of the Southern Hemisphere. Thus the location of Temperate Grasslands in the Southern Hemisphere and the thin width of landmass ensure that they are within the moderating influence of the Land & Sea Breezes and ocean currents and there are no extremes of temperatures throughout the year. Thus there is a very small annual range of temperature.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 40

Consider the following statements about Mission LiFE.

  1. LiFE envisions replacing the prevalent 'use-and-dispose' economy governed by mindless and destructive consumption with a circular economy.

  2. The Mission plans to create and nurture a global network of individuals, namely ‘Pro-Planet People’ (P3) with commitment to adopt and promote environmentally friendly lifestyles.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 40
Option c is the correct answer.
  • At the 2021 UN Climate Change Conference (UNFCCC COP26), Hon’ble Prime Minister of India Shri Narendra Modi announced Mission LiFE, to bring individual behaviours at the forefront of the global climate action narrative.

  • LiFE envisions replacing the prevalent 'use-and-dispose' economy—governed by mindless and destructive consumption—with a circular economy, which would be defined by mindful and deliberate utilization. The Mission intends to nudge individuals to undertake simple acts in their daily lives that can contribute significantly to climate change when embraced across the world. (Hence option 1 is correct).

  • LiFE plans to leverage the strength of social networks to influence social norms surrounding climate. The Mission plans to create and nurture a global network of individuals, namely ‘Pro-Planet People’ (P3), who will have a shared commitment to adopt and promote environmentally friendly lifestyles. Through the P3 community, the Mission seeks to create an ecosystem that will reinforce and enable environmentally friendly behaviours to be self-sustainable. (Hence option 2 is correct).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 41

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The epicenter of an earthquake is the point beneath the Earth's surface where the seismic energy is released.

  2. The Mercalli scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake, which is a measure of the amount of energy released by a seismic event.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 41
  • The hypocenter of an earthquake is the point beneath the Earth's surface where the seismic energy is released. The epicenter of an earthquake is the point on the Earth's surface directly above the hypocenter. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • The Mercalli scale measures the intensity of an earthquake at a specific location, taking into account the effects of the earthquake on the local environment and human-made structures. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Richter scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake, which is a measure of the amount of energy released by the seismic event.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 42

With respect to “Oogenesis”, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the differentiation of the ovum into a cell, competent to further develop when fertilized.

  2. It is initiated in the embryonic stage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 42
Oogenesis is the differentiation of the ovum (egg cell) into a cell, competent to further develop when fertilized. It is developed from the primary oocyte by maturation. Oogenesis is initiated in the embryonic stage.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 43

With respect to “DNA fingerprinting”, consider the following statements:

  1. It involves identifying differences in some specific regions in the DNA sequence, called as the repetitive DNA.

  2. It is the basis of paternity testing.

  3. The polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis of DNA fingerprinting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 43
  • DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in the DNA sequence, called the repetitive DNA, because in these sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times. These repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during density gradient centrifugation. The bulk DNA forms a major peak and the other small peaks are referred to as satellite DNA.

  • Depending on the base composition (A: T rich or G:C rich), the length of the segment and the number of the repetitive units, the satellite DNA is classified into many categories, such as micro-satellites, mini- satellites etc. These sequences normally do not code for any proteins, but they form a large portion of the human genome. These sequences show high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA fingerprinting.

  • Since DNA from every tissue (such as blood, hair-follicle, skin, bone, saliva, sperm etc.), from an individual show the same degree of polymorphism, they become very useful identification tool in forensic applications. Further, as the polymorphisms are inheritable from the parents to the children, DNA fingerprinting is the basis of paternity testing, in case of disputes. As polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis of genetic mapping of the human genome, as well as of DNA fingerprinting.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 44

With reference to the Peat Bogs, consider the following statements:

  1. Its spongy ground is composed largely of living and decaying Sphagnum moss.

  2. They are found throughout the world where warm temperatures prevail.

  3. Peat can be harvested to use for fuel or as a soil additive.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 44
  • A Peat Bog is a type of wetland whose soft, spongy ground is composed largely of living and decaying Sphagnum moss. Decayed, compacted moss is known as ‘peat’, which can be harvested to use for fuel or as a soil additive. Peat has been harvested as a fuel for millennia, and it is still used this way today. Fuel peat is harvested both commercially and by the individuals. Because bog peat is approximately 95% water, it must be dried before use. Dried peat is also used as a soil additive in gardens and nurseries, and its harvest and export for this purpose is economically significant to Canada, Sweden and Ireland, and several other countries.

  • Peat bogs are found throughout the world where cool temperatures and adequate rainfall prevail. Estimates indicate that peatlands (bogs and fens) cover as much as 5% of the land surface, primarily in the northern temperate and arctic regions. Canada contains approximately 130 million hectares of bogs, while the United States has approximately 7 million hectares.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 45

Which of the following pollutants are taken into account while measuring the Air Quality Index (AQI) of an area?

  1. Sulphur dioxide

  2. Carbon dioxide

  3. Carbon monoxide

  4. Ground level ozone

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 45
  • The Air Quality Index (AQI) is an index for reporting air quality on a daily basis. It is a measure of how air pollution affects one's health within a short time-period. The purpose of the AQI is to help people know how the local air quality impacts their health. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) calculates the AQI for 5 major air pollutants, for which national air quality standards have been established to safeguard public health.

    • Ground-level ozone

    • Particle pollution/particulate matter (PM 2.5/PM 10)

    • Carbon monoxide

    • Sulphur dioxide

    • Nitrogen dioxide

  • The higher the AQI value, the greater the level of air pollution and the greater the health concerns. The concept of the AQI has been widely used in many developed countries for over the last 3 decades. The AQI quickly disseminates air quality information in real-time.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 46

With reference to the Nilgiri BiosphereReserve, consider the following statements:

  1. It was the first Biosphere Reserve to be established in India, in 1986.

  2. It possesses the largest known population of the Lion-tailed Macaque.

  3. The Evergreen Shola Montane Forests are found in this Reserve.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 46
  • The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR) was established in 1986. It embraces the Sanctuary Complex of Wayanad, Nagarhole, Bandipur and Mudumalai, the entire forested hill slopes of Nilambur, the Upper Nilgiri Plateau, the Silent Valley and the Siruvani Hills. The total area of the Biosphere Reserve is around 5,520 sq. km. The NBR possesses different habitat types, unspoilt areas of natural vegetation types with several dry scrubs, dry and moist deciduous, semi- evergreen and wet evergreen forests, evergreen sholas (Sholas are the local name for the patches of stunted tropical montane forest found in the valleys, amid rolling grassland in the higher montane regions of South India, largely in Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nādu), grasslands and swamps.

  • It includes the largest known population of 2 endangered animal species, viz., the Nilgiri Tahr and the Lion-tailed Macaque. The largest south Indian population of elephant, tiger, gaur, sambar and chital, as well as a good number of endemic and endangered plants are also found in this Reserve. The habitat of a number of tribal groups, remarkable for their traditional modes of harmonious use of the environment, are also found here. The topography of the NBR is extremely varied, ranging from an altitude of 250 m to 2,650 m. About 80% of the flowering plants reported from the Western Ghats occur in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 47

With reference to the Beema Bamboo, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a genetically modified variety of the wild Bamboo plant.

  2. It acts as an efficient carbon sink to mitigate carbon dioxide emissions.

  3. It is a sterile variety of bamboo which does not produce any seed.

  4. It can re-grow on its own and does not require replanting for decades.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 47
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Beema or Bheema Bamboo is a superior clone, selected from Bambusa balcooa, a higher biomass yielding bamboo species.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Beema Bamboo is not a product of genetically modified organisms. It is developed by the conventional breeding method and does not involve genetically modified organism.

  • Statement 2 is correct: This species is said to be the best ‘carbon sink’ to mitigate carbon dioxide emissions. A fully-grown bamboo tree may generate over 300 kilograms of oxygen annually and it may be sufficient for one person for one year. A four-year-old bamboo may absorb over 400 kg of carbon dioxide per annum from the surrounding areas. Bamboo raised on one acre can sequester 80 tonnes of carbon dioxide annually.

  • Statement 3 is correct: As it is sterile, this bamboo does not produce any seed and does not die for several hundred years and keeps growing. As a result, this particular bamboo species can be able to establish permanent green cover.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Since the plants are produced through tissue culture, the culms grow almost solid and adapt to different soil and climatic conditions. After every harvest cycle, it re-grows and does not require replanting for decades. As its rhizome and root formation provide a strong foundation, the plant becomes robust against natural forces and plays a major role in mitigating global warming and climate change.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 48

Consider the following statements with respect to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC):

  1. Goa is the only state in India which follows Uniform Civil code.

  2. During constituent assembly debates, B.R. Ambedkar was against the implementation of Uniform Civil Code.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 48
Option a is the correct answer.
  • A Uniform Civil Code aims to replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of various religious communities, with a common set of rules governing every citizen of the country.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Goa has been following the Portuguese Civil Code 1867, which is also called Uniform Civil Code. After its liberation from Portuguese rule, the UCC survives through Section 5(1) of the Goa, Daman and Diu Administration Act, 1962. The Uniform Civil Code in Goa applies to everyone irrespective of religion, sex, order of the birth etc. Goa is the only state in India which follows Uniform Civil code.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: B.R. Ambedkar was in favour of the Uniform Civil Code in the Constituent assembly debates. Ambedkar was of the view that the laws were grossly discriminatory in nature where women were given little to no rights. During Constituent Assembly debates, Ambedkar said that, “There was nothing new about the Uniform Civil Code. There already existed a common civil code in the country except for the areas of marriage, inheritance — which are the main targets for the Uniform Civil Code in the Draft Constitution.” However, Ambedkar also felt that the UCC should be optional. Crucially Ambedkar argued that the absence of a UCC would hinder the government’s attempts at social reforms.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 49

With reference to the concept of Martial Law, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 49
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Statement a is correct: The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law. However, the expression ‘martial law’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution.

  • Statement b is correct: Martial refers to a situation where civil administration is run by the military authorities according to their own rules and regulations framed outside ordinary law.

  • Statement c is correct: During the operation of martial law, the military authorities are vested with abnormal powers to take all necessary steps. They can impose restrictions and regulations on the rights of the civilians, can punish the civilians and even condemn them to death.

  • Statement d is incorrect: The Supreme Court held that the declaration of martial law does not ipso facto result in the suspension of the writ of habeas corpus.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 50

In the context of Nidhi company and Chit fund company, consider the following statements:

  1. Unlike Chit funds, Nidhi Companies cannot advance loans.

  2. There is no upper limit for deposits collected by both Chit Fund Companies and Nidhi Companies.

  3. Both of them are a type of Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 50
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Option 1 is incorrect: A Nidhi company can advance loans as per the Nidhi rules 2014. Chit fund is also a committee as Nidhi Company but they only accept instalments over a fixed period of time which is paid by its members, they neither do lend nor accept the amount as a whole unlike the Nidhi Company, they just do accept amounts in small instalments.

  • Option 2 is incorrect: Under the Chit Funds (Amendment) Act, 2019, chits may be conducted by firms, associations or individuals. The Act specifies the maximum amount of chit funds which may be collected. These limits are: (i) one lakh rupees for chits conducted by individuals, and for every individual in a firm or association with less than four partners, and (ii) six lakh rupees for firms with four or more partners. Thus, there is an upper limit for deposits collected by Chit Fund Companies.

  • Options 3 is correct: Nidhi Company is a class of Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has powers to issue directives for them related to their deposit acceptance activities. Chit funds in India are managed, conducted, and regulated according to Chit Funds Act of 1982. Chit funds are included in the definition of Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) by RBI under the sub- head Miscellaneous Non-Banking Company (MNBC). Thus, both of them are a type of NBFCs.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 51

With respect to “The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas”, consider the following statements:

  1. This part lies approximately between the Ravi in the west and the Kali in the east.

  2. Some important duns located in this region are the Nalagarh dun, the Harike dun and the Kota dun.

  3. It comprise a series of ranges, such as the Zaskar and the Pir Panjal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 13 - Question 51
  • The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas: This part lies approximately between the Ravi in the west and the Kali (a tributary of the Ghaghara) in the east. It is drained by two major river systems of India, viz., the Indus and the Ganga. The tributaries of the Indus include the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej, and the tributaries of the Ganga flowing through this region include the Yamuna and the Ghaghara. The northern-most part of the Himachal Himalayas is an extension of the Ladakh cold desert, which lies in the Spiti sub- division of district Lahul and Spiti. All the three ranges of the Himalayas are prominent in this section also.

  • These are the Great Himalayan range, the Lesser Himalayas (which is locally known as Dhaoladhar in Himachal Pradesh and Nagtibha in Uttarakhand) and the Shiwalik range from the north to the south. Some of the important hill stations, such as Dharamshala, Mussoorie, Shimla, Kaosani and the cantonment towns and health resorts, such as Kasauli, Almora, Lansdowne and Ranikhet, etc., were developed in this region.

  • The two distinguishing features of this region from the point of view of physiography are the ‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Dun formations’. Some important duns located in this region are the Chandigarh-Kalka dun, Nalagarh dun, Dehradun, Harike dun and the Kota dun, etc.

  • In the Great Himalayan range, the valleys are mostly inhabited by the Bhotias. These are the nomadic groups who migrate to ‘Bugyals’ (the summer glasslands in the higher reaches) during summer months and return to the valleys during winters. The famous ‘Valley of Flowers’ is also situated in this region. The places of pilgrimage, such as Gangotri, Yamunotri, Kedarnath, Badrinath and Hemkund Sahib are also situated in this part. The region is also known to have five famous Prayags (river confluences).

  • Kashmir or the North-western Himalayas: They comprise a series of ranges, such as the Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar and Pir Panjal.