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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - UPSC MCQ


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100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 1

Three patrol boats of border security forces are patrolling 3 rivers (River Kali, River Manas and River Tiau) along India‘s International Borders. Which of the following borders has been patrolled via these rivers?

  1. India-Nepal border

  2. India-China border

  3. India-Myanmar border

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 1
The Sharda River, also called Kali river and Mahakali River, originates at Kalapani in the Himalayas at an elevation of 3,600 m (11,800 ft) in the Pithoragarh district in Uttarakhand, India. It flows along Nepal's western border with India and has a basin area of 14,871 km2 (5,742 sq mi). Therefore, patrolling via Kali covers the India-Nepal border. The Manas River is transboundary in the Himalayan foothills between southern Bhutan and India. It originates in Bhutan and enters China but while entering India it enters via Bhutan only. Therefore, patrolling via Manas covers the India-Bhutan border. Tiau River (or Tio river) is a 159 km (99 mi) long river that forms part of the international boundary between India and Myanmar.Therefore, patrolling via Tiau covers the India-Myanmar border. So, Option (b) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 2

Consider the following pairs of National parks and their nature.

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 2
  • Bhitarkanika National Park is a large national park in the Indian state of Odisha. It has the habitat type of mangroves and wetlands.

  • Blackbuck National Park is a national park in India located at Velavadar in the state of Gujarat.

  • The habitat of the park region comprises grasslands, shrublands, saline land, and mudflats.

  • Bandipur National Park is a national park covering 868.63 km2 (335.38 sq mi) in the chamarajnagar district of the Indian state of Karnataka. The park has a variety of biomes including dry and moist deciduous forests and shrublands. The wide range of habitats helps support a diverse range of organisms.

  • Gangotri National Park is a national park located in the state of Uttarakhand, covering about 2,390 km2 (920 sq mi). Its habitat consists of coniferous forests, alpine meadows, and glaciers.

So, Option (b) is correct.

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 3

Which of the following are examples of the liberal tendencies in the Constitution of India?

  1. Freedom of publication for press

  2. Freedom from arbitrary arrest

  3. Freedom of Conscience

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 3

The term liberalism‘ is generally associated with:

  • Demands for greater overall equality

  • Defense of individual reason and autonomy

  • A tool against moral conservatism

  • Cosmopolitanism and humanism

  • Free markets

The Constitution of India protects Personal/Individual Liberty through the Fundamental Rights such as,

  • Article 19(a): Freedom of Speech and Expression which includes Freedom of Press. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Article 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases that is no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice.So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Article 25: Right to Freedom of Religion where all persons are entitled to freedom of conscience. So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 4

Consider the following statements:

  1. In Indian agriculture, the investments made by private far exceed the investments made by the government.

  2. A large majority of Indian agriculturists are small and marginal landowners who at present cannot use their land as collateral for credit.

  3. The majority of credit creation in the Indian agriculture sector is done by Non-Institutional Lenders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 4

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because private investments in Indian agriculture, such as investments made by farmers, have historically been higher than government investments. This is primarily due to the fact that a majority of Indian farmers are small and marginal landowners who invest in their farms through their savings, loans, and other forms of credit.

Statement 2 is also correct. A large majority of Indian agriculturists are small and marginal landowners, often owning less than 2 hectares of land. Due to the small size of their landholdings and the lack of clear land titles, these farmers are often unable to use their land as collateral for credit. As a result, they may struggle to access formal credit channels and are often forced to rely on informal sources of credit, such as moneylenders, at higher interest rates.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While non-institutional lenders, such as moneylenders, do play a significant role in providing credit to farmers in India, the majority of credit creation in the Indian agriculture sector is done by institutional lenders, such as banks and cooperative societies. The government has also been making efforts to expand the reach of institutional credit to farmers through various schemes and initiatives, such as the Kisan Credit Card scheme and the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 5

Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana:

  1. It focuses on the improvement of mariculture and deep-sea fishing only.

  2. It aims to replace all the bottom trawlers with deep-sea lines by 2024.

  3. It will leverage the use of GEMINI navigation technology to prevent the crossing of maritime borders by Indian fishermen.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 5

The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana. (PMMSY) is designed to address critical gaps in fish production and productivity, quality, technology, post-harvest infrastructure and management, modernisation and strengthening of the value chain, traceability, establishing a robust fisheries management framework and fishers‘ welfare. It focuses on the improvement of Mari culture, fishers and fish farmers also. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The Aims and Objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) are:

  • Harnessing of fisheries potential in a sustainable, responsible, inclusive and equitable manner.

  • Enhancing of fish production and productivity through expansion, intensification, diversification and productive utilization of land andwater.

  • Modernizing and strengthening of the value chain - post-harvestmanagement and quality improvement.

  • Doubling fishers and fish farmers‘ incomes and generation ofemployment.

  • Enhancing contribution to Agriculture GVA and exports.

  • Social, physical and economic security for fishers and fish farmers.

  • Robust fisheries management and regulatory framework

The Palk Bay scheme was launched in 2017 under the umbrella of Blue Revolution to replace 2,000 bottom trawlers with deep-sea fishing boats. The scheme is financed by the Union government (50%), and the state Government (20%) with beneficiary participation (30%). So, Statement 2 is not correct.

GEMINI (Gagan Enabled Mariner‘s Instrument for Navigation & Information)was developed by Hyderabad based Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS). For the dissemination of information on disaster warnings, Potential Fishing Zones (PFZ) and Ocean States Forecasts (OSF) to fishermen, GOI launched the GEMINI device and mobile application. It is not connected to PMMSY. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 6

Which of the following is correct regarding T cells?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 6
T cells, also known as T lymphocytes, are a type of white blood cell that play a key role in the immune system. T cells are part of the adaptive immune system, which is capable of adapting its response to new antigens over time. T cells mature in the thymus gland and then circulate in the blood and lymphatic system, where they can encounter antigens. T cells are able to recognize specific antigens and respond in a variety of ways, depending on the type of T cell and the context of the encounter. The Hypothalamus gland is located at the base of the brain and secretes hormones that stimulate or suppress the release of hormones in the pituitary gland, in addition to controlling water balance, sleep, temperature, appetite, and blood pressure. Hence, option A is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 7

Which of the following properties of the soil cannot be altered by soil management practices?

  1. Soil Structure

  2. Soil Colour

  3. Soil Texture

  4. Soil Porosity

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 7
  • Soil structure is defined by the way individual particles of sand, silt, and clay are assembled. We can improve the structure of soils by adding organic matter in the form of compost or composted manure.

  • Soil colour is influenced by its mineral composition as well as water and organic contents. Addition of Organic matter tends to make the soil colour darker. During the Humus formation, the final stage of organic matter breakdown, the colour changes to black. Soil texture is usually defined as the proportions of sand, silt and clay.

  • We cannot change soil texture without physically adding or subtracting one of these components. Soil porosity may be altered by the addition of biochar due to the interaction between biochar particles and soil aggregates. So, Option (b) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 8

Consider the following statements about ―Biofertilizers‖:

  1. These fertilizers have living microorganisms as one of their constituents to accelerate microbial processes in the soil.

  2. Bacillus species improve solubilising many nutrients like phosphorous, silicate and zinc and Pseudomonas species help in nitrogen fixation and plant growth.

  3. Fungi are not used as constituents in Biofertilizers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 8
  • Bio-fertilisers are living microorganisms of bacterial, fungal and algal origin. Their mode of action differs and can be applied alone or in combination.So, Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is not correct.

  • Pseudomonas and Bacillus species are the predominant plant growth-promoting bacteria. Many heterotrophic bacteria live in the soil and fix significant levels of nitrogen without direct interaction with other organisms. Examples of this type of nitrogen-fixing bacteria include species of Azotobacter, Bacillus, Clostridium, and Klebsiella.

  • The application of Bacillus-based fertilizers to soil can enhance the plant-available forms of nutrients in rhizospheres, control disease-causing pathogenic microbial growth and induce pest defence systems.

  • Pseudomonas has been reported to have the potential to improve plant biomass, relative water content, leaf water potential and root adhering soil/root tissue ratio. The function of zinc is to help the plant produce chlorophyll.So, Statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding Propulsion Systems in India:

  1. Glycidyl Azide Polymer and Ammonium Di-Nitramide are green propellants that do not emit chlorinated exhaust products from rocket motors.

  2. Liquid Oxygen and Liquid Hydrogen used in Cryogenic Upper Stage are environment-friendly and green propellants.

  3. It is impossible to manoeuvre a spacecraft in outer space without using fuel and an oxidiser.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 9
  • ISRO has made a beginning by developing an eco-friendly solid propellant based on Glycidyl Azide Polymer (GAP) as fuel and Ammonium Di-Nitramide (ADN) as oxidizer at the laboratory level, which will eliminate the emission of chlorinated exhaust products from rocket motors and act as green propellants. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • ISRO has already begun the move towards environment-friendly and green propellants with the acceptance of Liquid Oxygen (LOX)/Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) and LOX/Kerosene-based propulsion systems for launch vehicles, and the use of electric propulsion for spacecraft. The LOX/LH2 in combination produces water so it is environment-friendly and it is already being used in the cryogenic upper stages of GSLV and GSLV Mk-III launch vehicles. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • It is possible to manoeuvre a spacecraft in outer space without using fuel and oxidizer while it is in the coasting period which means the resting time of the flight at the transfer orbit, which helps to move the spacecraft from one orbit to another. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 10

A tourist travels across a landscape in a certain direction. Along the way, she witnesses the transformation of vegetation from deciduous forest to short grasses and then to short evergreen shrubs and bushes. In which direction is the tourist travelling?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 10
  • In low latitude areas, due to the rainfall,it receives from the Trade winds the eastern part of the continents witnesses the vegetation of Evergreen forest to Deciduous forest to short grasses in the middle area and desert type on the western side. So, Option (a) is not correct.

  • In the mid-latitude area, the eastern side has deciduous forest vegetation under the China type of climate, the center part has grassland of Steppe type and the western part of the continent come under the Mediterranean type of climate which has shrubs and bushes due to hot and dry summer with scanty rainfall. So, Option (b) is correct.

  • Mostly, north to South at 50 degrees East Longitude covers the area of the desert region, especially in the middle eastern countries. So, Option (c) is not correct.

  • In high latitude area, the western part has deciduous forests which comes under the British type of climate but the middle part has evergreen and coniferous forests and the eastern part has mixed forests. So, Option (d) is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 11

Which of the following is correct regarding Operation Dost?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 11
  • India, under ‘Operation Dost’ has sent its sixth plane carrying National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) personnel, essentials, and medical equipment for the earthquake-hit Turkey. A field hospital under Operation Dost has been set up by the Indian Army in Hatay province of Turkey. India has also sent a transport aircraft with medical supplies to Syria.

  • The earthquake of magnitude 7.7 on the Richter scale hit Turkey and Syria on 6 Feb 2023 followed by a series of aftershocks causing huge devastation, major loss of lives and damage to infrastructure in the two countries.

  • Operation Dost symbolises that India is a friend of Turkey and the two must deepen their relations.

  • Earlier, the NDRF was sent to two similar international operations – the 2011 Japan triple disaster (earthquake, tsunami and nuclear meltdown) and the 2015 Nepal earthquake. Hence, option C is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 12

In the context of Razia Sultan of Delhi Sultanate, consider the following statements:

  1. The Turkish nobility unanimously appointed Razia Sultan as Iltutmish's successor after his death.

  2. She entered into matrimonial alliance for political stability of the sultanate.

  3. She fought the Battle of Chanderi against the Rajput ruler of Malwa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 12
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Participation in politics and public offices was largely dominated by men during the course of Indian history. Yet, several women created a direct space for themselves in the political affairs. The most direct and well-known role in this sphere was exercised by Razia Sultan.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Razia Sultan was the first Muslim female ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, who ruled Delhi from 1236 to 1240. Iltutmish nominated Razia as his successor, not the Turkish nobility. Most of the Muslim theologians approved her ascension and many of the Turkish nobility, army and people of Delhi accepted her on the throne. At the same time, many could not reconcile with the idea of a woman ruler. It was due to the prevalent attitude towards gender roles and the resentment against a woman ruler as affairs of sovereignty were thought to be an exclusive male prerogative. In addition to that, the provincial governors, did not have a voice in Razia’s selection and they felt ignored and thus, objected her rule.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Owing to the hostilities towards her, in April 1240 CE. Razia had to face the revolt of Altunia, the governor of Tabarhinda (Bathinda). Raziya married Altunia later. It was a purely political move to retrieve her throne and therefore she agreed to the proposal. Thus, it could be said that she entered into matrimonial alliance for political stability of the sultanate.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Battle of Chanderi took place in 1528 CE. This battle was fought between Babur and Medini Rai who was the Rajput ruler of Malwa. There is no role of Razia sultan in the Battle of Chanderi.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 13

Consider the following statements with respect to Trade agreements:

  1. A free trade agreement is more comprehensive than a preferential trade agreement.

  2. Tariffs may be reduced to zero for some products in a preferential trade agreement (PTA).

  3. India has not signed a PTA with any country.

  4. Partnership agreements or cooperation agreements are more comprehensive than an FTA.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 13
  • Free Trade Agreement: A free trade agreement is an agreement in which two or more countries agree to provide preferential trade terms, tariff concession etc. to the partner country. Here a negative list of products and services is maintained by the negotiating countries on which the terms of FTA are not applicable hence it is more comprehensive than a preferential trade agreement. India has negotiated FTA with many countries e.g. Sri Lanka and various trading blocs as well e.g. ASEAN. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Preferential Trade Agreement: In this type of agreement, two or more partners give preferential right of entry to certain products. This is done by reducing duties on an agreed number of tariff lines. Here a positive list is maintained i.e. the list of the products to which the two partners have agreed to provide preferential access. Tariffs may even be reduced to zero for some products even in a PTA. Hence, statement 2 is correct. India signed a PTA with Afghanistan. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

  • Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement: A partnership agreement or cooperation agreement is more comprehensive than an FTA. CECA/CEPA also looks into the regulatory aspect of trade and encompasses an agreement covering the regulatory issues. CEPA covers negotiation on the trade in services and investment and other areas of economic partnership. It may even consider negotiation in areas such as trade facilitation and customs cooperation, competition, and IPR. India has signed CEPAs with South Korea and Japan. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 14

With reference to cultural history in India, which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding ‘Apabhramsa’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 14
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Statement a is correct: Apabhramsa is an umbrella term which means dialects other than Sanskrit. It represents a transition from Middle to Modern Indo-Aryan Group of languages The word, ‘Apabhramsa’ implies deviation from standard Sanskrit.

  • Statement b is correct: Apabhramsha became a literary language and was used to write several texts, legends, etc. The development of ‘Apabhramsa’ (corrupt or non-grammatical) took place by 6th-7th century AD. Apabhramsa developed its own identity by the 7th century AD. This can be highlighted by the fact that Bhamaha, a renowned poet of Kashmir from the 6th or 7th century AD, divided poetry into Sanskrit, Prakrit, and Apabhramsa.

  • Statement c is incorrect: By the middle of the second millennium, Apabhramsa and to a lesser degree Prakrit had come to be used almost exclusively by the Jains, whereas brahmanas monopolized Sanskrit. Literary texts in Apabhramsa were produced largely in western India. Dandin defines Apabhramsa as, “What is called ‘Apabhramsa’ is the language of the Abhiras and others when used in literary works. Statement d is correct: In the course of time many spoken forms called “Apabhramsa” developed in different part of the country. These Apabhramsa’s developed into regional languages. Among the Dravidian languages Tamil is the oldest. Medieval period also saw the development of Hindi from the ancient Apabhramsa language. Major texts in Apabhramsa language and writers are: Pushpadanta’s Mahapurana (Digambara Jain text), Dhanapala’s Bhavisayattakaha, etc.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 15

In the context of the Mauryan empire, consider the following statements:

  1. Megasthenes’ Indica provides an important literary source of the Mauryan period.

  2. Chandragupta Maurya overthrew the Shunga dynasty and established the Mauryan empire.

  3. Lord Mahavira was a contemporary to emperor Ashoka.

  4. Bulandibagh and Kumrahar were port cities of the Mauryan empire on the western coast.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 15
Option a is the correct answer.
  • The Mauryan Empire, which formed around 321 B.C.E. and ended in 185 B.C.E., was the first pan-Indian empire, an empire that covered most of the Indian region. It spanned across central and northern India as well as over parts of modern-day Iran.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The most important literary source of the Mauryan period is Megasthenes’ Indica. Megasthenes was a Seleukidian envoy who visited the Mauryan capital Pataliputra during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya. His account, Indica, encapsulates his impressions of India, particularly northern India, under Chandragupta Maurya.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The foundation of the Mauryan empire was laid by Chandragupta Maurya, who overthrew the Nanda dynasty (not Shunga dynasty) in 321/324 BCE. The Mauryan period lasted from around the late fourth century BCE to the first quarter of the second century BCE.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: It was king Bimbisara (not Emperor Ashoka) who was the contemporary of both Lord Buddha and Mahavira.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Archaeological remains from Bulandibagh and Kumrahar are associated with the Mauryan capital Pataliputra. These are not the port cities of Mauryan empire on the Western coast.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 16

Which of the following countries borders with Afghanistan?

  1. Kyrgyzstan

  2. Tajikistan

  3. Turkmenistan

  4. Uzbekistan

  5. Iran

  6. Iraq

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 16
Afghanistan has borders with the following countries: China, Iran, Pakistan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan. Hence, option B is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 17

Consider the following statements:

  1. A separate department of Diwan-i-Amir Kohi was established by Firoz shah Tughlaq to address the concerns of slaves.

  2. Diwan-i-arz was responsible for the administration of military affairs under the Delhi Sultanate.

  3. Alauddin Khilji set up Diwan-i-Mustakhraj to realize arrears of revenue payments from the different parts of the empire.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 17
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Central administration in the Delhi sultanate during the period of Slave dynasty was carried out mostly by trusted slaves who had helped the sultan to acquire the throne; or by the members of the royal household and family. Loyalty was therefore a prerequisite for holding the high office and was given the highest rewards. The Sultan was the head of the administration with all military, administrative and legal powers. A number of separate departments were created to look after different aspects of administration.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Muhammad bin Tughlaq established a separate department, Diwan-i-Amir Kohi. It was responsible for bringing uncultivated land into cultivation through state support. Firoz Shah Tughlaq had a genuine concern for the slaves and established a separate government department to attend to their welfare. It was called Diwan-i-Bandagan.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Diwan-i-Arz was instituted specially to look after the military organisation of the Delhi Sultanate. It was headed by the Ariz-i-Mumalik. With the Delhi Sultanate always having a large military entourage, this ministry was very important in the empire. The Ariz, along with his office, maintained the royal contingents, recruited the soldiers, ensured the discipline and fitness of the army, examined the horses and branded them with the royal insignia.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Diwan-i-Mustakhraj was set up by Alauddin Khilji to enquire into and realise arrears of revenue payments from the different parts of the empire. The centre’s policy of revenue collection reached its highest of one-half of the produce during the reign of Alauddin Khalji, who had adopted the policy of actual measurement of land where land was measured and revenue demand determined on its anticipated yield.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding socio-economic conditions in 18th Century India:

  1. Old commercial centres degenerated and regional capitals like Madras arose.

  2. The education system emphasised upon the study of physical and natural sciences, and ignored religion and philosophy.

  3. The balance of trade in the 18th century was positive as India’s exports were more than its imports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 18
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Eighteenth century India failed to make progress economically, socially or culturally, at an adequate pace. India became a land of contrasts because extreme poverty and extreme luxury existed side by side. The common populace remained impoverished, backward and oppressed and lived at the bare subsistence level; the rich and the powerful enjoyed a life of luxury and lavishness. But it is worth noting that the life of the Indian masses was, by and large, better in the 18th century than it was after 100 years of British rule.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The old commercial centres of Surat, Masulipatnam and Dhaka degenerated, and colonial port cities like Bombay, Madras and Calcutta took their place. The decline of the Mughal capitals of Delhi and Agra was offset by the rise of regional capitals, including Lucknow, Hyderabad, the various Maratha cities, and Seringapatam.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The education imparted in 18th-century India was still traditional which could not match with the rapid developments in the West. The knowledge was confined to literature, law, religion, philosophy, and logic and excluded the study of physical and natural sciences, technology and geography. In fact, due to over-reliance placed on ancient learning, any original thought got discouraged. The education system could not change according to the requirements of the time. The curriculum was confined to literature, languages, law, religion, philosophy and logic and excluded the study of physical and natural sciences, technology and geography. There was lack of progressive ideas as theoretical framework dominated.

  • Statement 3 is correct: On account of being self-sufficient in handicrafts and agricultural products, India did not import foreign goods on a large scale. On the other hand, its industrial and agricultural products were in good demand in foreign markets. Hence its exports were more than its imports; trade was balanced by import of silver and gold. India was known as a sink of precious metals.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 19

Consider the following statements related to patenting and trademarks:

  1. India’s environmental governance system needs the Supreme Court’s approval for administrative decisions in matters concerning the environment.

  2. Any proposal involving tree-cutting or non-forest use in a national park or sanctuary needs to be approved by the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife, headed by the Union environment minister and his decision is final.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 19
  • A unique feature of India’s environmental governance system is the need for the Supreme Court’s approval for administrative decisions in matters concerning the environment. This process came about as a result of the court’s own direction in the T.N. Godavarman (1995) and the Centre for Environmental Law (1995) cases. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Any proposal involving tree-cutting or non-forest use in a national park or sanctuary needs to be approved by the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife, headed by the Union environment minister but the minister’s decision is not final:

  • The proposal needs to be further examined by a special Supreme Court committee called the Central Empowered Committee (CEC), headed by a retired Secretary to the Government of India, and comprising retired Forest Service officers.

  • If the CEC believes the Standing Committee’s decision to be incorrect, it can defer to the Supreme Court for the final say, along with its own opinion. This procedure prima facie contravenes the separation of powers enshrined in the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 20

With reference to the Art and Culture of India, which one of the following statements is correct regarding Sittanavasal Paintings in Tamil Nadu?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 20
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Sittanavasal Cave (Arivar Koil) Paintings are dated from 1st century BC to 10th century AD, and located in Tamil Nadu.
  • Option a is incorrect: These famous rock-cut cave temples are known for the paintings based on Jainism, not Shaivism and Vaishnavism. Sittanavasal is a distorted form of Siddhanivasan, which means abode of Siddhas or Jain Gods. The paintings are not only on the walls but also on the ceiling and pillars. The paintings are with the theme of Jain Samavasarana (Preaching Hall). The medium used for painting was vegetable and mineral dyes, and was done by putting colours on surface of thin wet lime plaster. The common colours included yellow, green, orange, blue, black and white.

Sittanavasal Cave Paintings in Tamil Nadu

  • Option b is incorrect: The central element of the paintings in Sittanavasal is a pond with lotuses. Flowers in this pond are collected by monks and there are ducks, swans, fishes and animals. This scene shows Samavasarana - an important scene of Jain religion.
  • Option c is incorrect: Sittanavasal Caves represent one of the best cave paintings of early medieval India. Most paintings date to the Pandyan period i.e. 9th century AD. Bhimbetka Cave paintings date back to approximately 30,000 years.
  • Option d is correct: Sittanavasal Cave Paintings have a striking resemblance to paintings from Bagh and Ajanta. These caves together represent a Jain temple complex, situated in a small village near Trichy in Pudukottai district of Tamil Nadu. The most famous monument is a rock-cut monastery of the Jains which contains remnants of beautiful frescoes from the 7th century. Many of them are typical of the 9th century Pandyan period and include detailed pictures of animals, fish, ducks, masculine figures gathering lotuses from a pond and dancing girls.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 21

Consider the following statements about the SWIFT payments system:

  1. It is a messaging system for banks and other financial institutions around the world.

  2. It acts as an intermediary to hold or transfer assets.

  3. It is controlled by the central banks of G7 countries along with the International Monetary Fund.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 21
Option a is the correct answer.
  • SWIFT is formally known as the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT). It was established in 1973 and is based in Belgium. Prior to SWIFT, the only reliable means of message confirmation for international funds transfer was Telex. It was discontinued due to a range of issues such as low speed, security concerns, and a free message format. There are about 11,000 member banks in 200 countries and territories that use SWIFT. Since it began in 1973, SWIFT has become an integral part of the flow of global trade. India’s financial system has access to the SWIFT.

  • Statement 1 is correct: It is a trusted messaging system for banks and other financial institutions around the world. When a bank is a member of SWIFT, their instruction messages are cleared as secure immediately, so the transactions happen quickly.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Although, SWIFT has become a crucial part of global financial infrastructure, it is not a financial institution itself: SWIFT does not hold or transfer assets. Rather, its utility lies in its power to facilitate secure, efficient communication between member institutions.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: It is controlled by the central banks of the G10 countries, the European Central Bank, and the National Bank of Belgium. The Group of Ten is made up of eleven industrial countries (Belgium, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the Netherlands, Sweden, Switzerland, the United Kingdom and the United States) which consult and co-operate on economic, monetary and financial matters.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 22

Consider the following statements:

  1. Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decides Repo rate, Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).

  2. Repo Rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks by purchasing securities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 22
  • Under the Reserve Bank of India, Act,1934 (RBI Act,1934) (as amended in 2016), RBI is entrusted with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy in India with the primary objective of maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy.

  • Repo Rate: The interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides liquidity under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) to all LAF participants against the collateral of government and other approved securities. Repo rate is directly linked to loan rates offered by lenders so an increase in the repo will increase the borrowing cost and vice-versa. The Monetary Policy Committee decides repo rate. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • In the last meeting for the current fiscal (2022-23), the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) projected the real GDP growth at 6.4% (for FY 23-24). Repo Rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks by purchasing securities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Reserve Bank of India has prescribed statutory returns i.e., Form A Return (for CRR) under Section 42(2) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 and Form VIII Return (for SLR) under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Both SLR and CRR decided by the parliament and RBI and not by MPC.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 23

Which of the following statements with respect to the influence of global events on Indian Freedom Struggle is correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 23
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Statement a is incorrect: The British put forth the August Offer of 1940 due to the quick defeats against Hitler in Europe during World War II. They wanted wholehearted Indian support in the war effort as Hitler was proving to be too much. This is why they proposed more involvement of Indians in the government after the end of World War II, in exchange for support in the war effort. This was the essence of the August Offer. The reverses suffered by the British against Japan (Hitler’s ally in Asia) after 1940 was the reason why Cripps Mission was sent in 1942. It was to pacify Indian nationalists and garner support from Indian masses for more fighting and protection against Japanese advance into the Indian subcontinent.

  • Statement b is correct: India’s Home Rule League movement was directly inspired by Ireland’s freedom struggle. Even the Irish created Home Rule Leagues which demanded broad autonomy of governance for the nationals within the overall British empire. This meant that while the country remained a part of the British Empire, the day-to-day government was responsible and composed of the nationals of that country, elected by popular franchise.

  • Statement c is incorrect: The Nihilists were a group of revolutionaries in Russia in the 19th century who opposed the despotic autocratic monarchy of Russia and believed in using individual acts of sacrifice and bravery (throwing bombs on officials or aristrocrats) as a means to register their protest and inspire change. This philosophy inspired militant nationalist activity in the beginning decade of the 20th century (1900-1915). For example, the shootings by Chapekar Brothers, Anushilan Samiti, the activities of the Ghadar Party, etc The militrant nationalist activities of 1920s and 1930s such as the throwing of smoke bomb and courting arrest in 1929 by Bhagat Singh (HSRA) were inspired by the Socialist ideals which inspired the Russian Revolution of 1917.

  • Statement d is incorrect: Gandhi believed in passive resistance - Satyagraha, where the oppressive government was to be opposed and overthrown using only non-violent methods such as breaking oppressive laws (like salt tax, etc). The passive resistance displayed in Civil Disobedience Movement was inspired by Gandhi. On the contrary, Shays' Rebellion was an armed uprising in Western Massachusetts and Worcester in response to a debt crisis among the citizenry and in opposition to the state government's increased efforts to collect taxes both on individuals and their trades.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 24

With reference to Red Sanders, consider the following statements:

  1. It is endemic to the Eastern Ghats of India.

  2. Recently, IUCN has moved it from the ‘Endangered’ to the ‘Least Concern’ category.

  3. Invasive species are the biggest threat to it.

  4. It is used for making medicines, furniture, and musical instruments.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 24
Option c is the correct answer.
  • Red Sanders, also known as Pterocarpus Santalinus, is an extremely rare and commercially valuable tree species found in India. It was recently re-listed as Endangered in the Red Data List of the IUCN.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders is a very valuable tree species as it is found only in very limited areas. It is endemic to the Eastern Ghats. The most superior variety is found in Andhra Pradesh in districts of Chittoor, Kadapa, Kurnool and Nellore. In Karnataka it is found in Kolar, Tumkur and Chitradurga.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: This statement is incorrect as after being classified in 2018 (for the first time since 1997) as ‘Near Threatened’, IUCN has again had to classify Red Sanders as ‘Endangered’ in 2021 due to drastic fall in numbers of specimens. The latest IUCN assessment stated: “Over the last three generations, the species has experienced a population decline of 50-80 per cent. It is assessed as Endangered”.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Illegal felling and smuggling of the tree’s wood for international trade is the biggest threat to the survival of the species. The trees have an extremely long growing span. Most trees usually take about 12 to 14 years to attain maturity. But the red sander wood needs about 100 years to reach that stage. The latest IUCN report says that although the area of distribution has been maintained over the years, the overharvesting to satisfy growing global demand has pushed the species to dangerously low levels of population. Cattle grazing and invasive species are a threat too, however they are not a primary factor.

  • Statement 4 is correct: The wood of red Sanders is in high demand as it has following uses:

    • Making musical instruments like violin, etc.

    • High quality, water resistant luxury furniture

    • Making nuclear radiation shielded structures

    • High demand from SouthEast Asia (like China, Japan, Myanmar, etc) for Medicinal uses: astringent properties, treating urinary tract infections, bilious affections and skin diseases, headache, fever, boils, scorpion sting and improving sight.

  • Knowledge Base: Other facts about Red Sanders:

    • Protected Under Schedule II of CITES, and Schedule II of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

    • It is a deciduous tree.

    • It grows in tropical deciduous forests, with red soils. Rainfall between 80 cm to 100 cm annually is required. It grows well in dry, hot climates.

    • It also yields Santaline dye, which finds use in colouring foodstuff and pharmaceutical preparations.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 25

Consider the following statements about Lab Grown Diamonds (LGDs):

  1. LGDs have similar physical properties but different optical properties to that of natural diamonds.

  2. In India, the share of lab-grown diamonds in the overall diamond business is presently just 2-3 per cent.

  3. A common eye can’t distinguish between a natural diamond and an LGD.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 25
  • LGDs have similar physical and optical properties to that of natural diamonds. Statement 1 is not correct.

  • In India, the share of lab-grown diamonds in the overall diamond business is presently just 2-3 per cent. Statement 2 is correct.

  • A common eye can’t distinguish between a natural diamond and an LGD. Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 26

With reference to NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar), consider the following statements:

  1. It will be placed in Low Earth Orbit.

  2. Its objective is to map the moon.

  3. It comprises dual-frequency imaging radar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 26

NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar):

  • NISAR has been built by space agencies of the US and India under a partnership agreement signed in 2014.

  • It is expected to be launched in January 2024 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre into a near-polar orbit.

  • The satellite will operate for a minimum of three years.

  • It is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) observatory. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • NISAR will map the entire globe in 12 days. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Features:

  • It is a 2,800 kilograms satellite consisting of both L-band and S-band Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) instruments, which makes it a dual-frequency imaging radar satellite. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  • While NASA has provided the L-band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state recorder to store data, and a payload data subsystem, ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) has provided the S-band radar, the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) launch system and spacecraft.

  • S band radars ope rate on a wavelength of 8-15 cm and a frequency of 2-4 GHz. Because of the wavelength and frequency, they are not easily attenuated. This makes them useful for near and far range weather observation.

  • It has a 39-foot stationary antenna reflector, made of a gold-plated wire mesh; the reflector will be used to focus “the radar signals emitted and received by the upward-facing feed on the instrument structure.

  • By using SAR, NISAR will produce high-resolution images. SAR is capable of penetrating clouds and can collect data day and night regardless of the weather conditions.

  • NASA requires the L-band radar for its global science operations for at least three years. Meanwhile, ISRO will utilise the S-band radar for a minimum of five years.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 27

ho among the following is the author of the book ―Indian Women‘s Battle for Freedom?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 27
Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was an Indian social reformer and freedom activist. She was most remembered for her contribution to the Indian Independence movement; for being the driving force behind the renaissance of Indian handicrafts, handlooms, and theatre in independent India; and for the upliftment of the socio-economic standard of Indian women by pioneering the cooperation. She is the first lady in India to stand in elections from Madras Constituency although she lost in the elections. she pioneered the path for women in India. The book ―Indian Women‘s Battle for Freedom‖ is written by her. So, Option (a) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 28

Consider the following statements about ―Compressed Natural Gas (CNG):

  1. CNG is lighter than air.

  2. CNG has a higher auto-ignition temperature than petrol.

  3. CNG is much safer than petrol because of its narrow range of flammability.

  4. Petrol has lesser antiknock power than CNG.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 28
  • Compressed natural gas (CNG) is a fuel gas made of petrol which is mainly composed of methane (CH4), compressed to less than 1% of the volume it occupies at standard atmospheric pressure. It is lighter than air. Unlike other fuels such as diesel, petrol, or LPG, which are heavier than air, pools on the ground create a fire hazard and potential pollution to waterways. Should a CNG leak occur, the gas will disperse rapidly upwards into the atmosphere and dissipate. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • CNG has a higher auto-ignition temperature (540 °C) than petrol and is also much safer than petrol because of its narrow range (5–15 percent) of flammability, making combustion of CNG unlikely. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

  • CNG has a higher octane number and knocking resistance than gasoline and hence CNGdedicated engines can have higher compression ratios and therefore higher indicated efficiencies. So, Statement 4 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 29

Which of the following factors will play a role in increasing the value of ICOR in an economy?

  1. Improvement in technology

  2. Improvement in skill levels of labour

  3. Wasteful use of raw materials

  4. Increase in time taken for regulatory approvals

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 29
  • The incremental capital output ratio (ICOR) is a frequently used tool that explains the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the subsequent increase in the gross domestic product (GDP). ICOR indicates the additional unit of capital or investment needed to produce an additional unit of output.

  • ICOR can be calculated by,

    • ICOR = Annual Increase in GDP/Annual Investment

  • A lower ICOR is preferred as it indicates a country's production is more efficient. Technological improvement and improvement in the skill levels of Labour will increase Investment and Productivity. So it will lower the value of ICOR making the country more efficient. So, Statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

  • Improper usage of raw materials and delayed process in regulatory approvals will lower the Investment and Productivity. So it will increase the value of ICOR making the country less efficient. So, Statements 3 and 4 are correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 30

Which of the following measures are likely to help in improving the monetary transmission mechanism in the Indian banking system?

  1. External benchmarking of loans

  2. Introduction of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code

  3. Regular conduct of asset quality review by Reserve Bank of India

  4. Increase of repo rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 30
  • Monetary transmission is essentially the process through which the policy action of the central bank is transmitted to the ultimate objective of stable inflation and growth. Monetary transmission is the entire process starting from the change in the policy rate by the central bank to various money market rates such as inter-bank lending rates, to bank deposit rates, to bank lending rates to households and firms, to government and corporate bond yields, and to asset prices such as stock prices and house prices, culminating in its impact on inflation and growth.

  • According to RBI, the introduction of the external benchmark system for lending and deposit rates has helped in improving the monetary transmission by banks. The EBLR system has also accelerated the pass-through to MCLR-linked loans, as changes in the benchmark rates lead banks to proactively adjust their deposit rates to protect their NIMs (net interest margins), thereby improving transmission to overall lending and deposit rates. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • The introduction of IBC will result in an easing of the monetary policy stance and improve the recovery of stressed assets. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Being a Comprehensive measure, regular conduct of asset quality review by RBI helps clean the Balance sheets of the banks and also withstand possible financial shocks. So, Statement 3 is correct.

  • Government should intend to bring down the interest rates on small saving accounts. If Repo rates are increased, people end up paying higher interest rates for their loans and disbursement of loans gets decreased. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 31

In the context of the budget of the Government of India, which of the following receipts are nondebt creating in nature?

  1. Cess

  2. Profits transferred by RBI

  3. Ways and means advances

  4. Recovery of past loans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 31
  • Cess is a form of tax charged/levied over and above the base tax liability of a taxpayer. A cess is usually imposed additionally when the state or the central government looks to raise funds for specific purposes. It is non-debt creating in nature. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) transfers its Dividends or Surplus money to the Government of India as a Non-tax revenue for which the government need not pay back the money to the RBI. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Ways and Means Advances are temporary advances given by the RBI to the government to tide over any mismatch in receipts and payments. These are debt creating in nature. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

  • Recovery of past loans by the government is a liability for the borrower to repay it. It does not create any debt. So, Statement 4 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 32

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding mutual funds?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 32
  • Investment risk can be defined as the probability or likelihood of occurrence of losses relative to the expected return on any particular investment.

  • Mutual funds are subject to market risk. Although it can't be avoided completely, we can minimize this risk through expert advice like asset allocation, diversifying the portfolio etc.

So, Option (c) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 33

With reference to the multilateral financing for Asian countries, consider the following statements:

  1. Both Public and Private sectors can borrow from New Development Bank (NDB), Asian Development Bank (ADB), and Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).

  2. While NDB can lend to projects in any country, ADB and AIIB can lend to projects only in the Asian Countries.

  3. Grants from Asian Development Fund can be provided by both NDB and ADB.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 33
  • Asian Development Bank (ADB), established in 1966, is owned by 68 members - 49 are from within Asia and the Pacific and 19 members outside this region.

  • The New Development Bank (NDB), was set up by the BRICS countries in 2015 with a more equitable power structure, to fund infrastructure projects.

  • AIIB began operations in 2016 with 57 founding Members (37 regional and 20 non-regional). By the end of 2020, they had 103 approved Members representing approximately 79 percent of the global population and 65 percent of global GDP. Both Public and Private sectors can borrow from all these three banks. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • NDB can mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies, as well as in developing countries.

  • ADB lend to its member countries which include countries from Asia, Europe and the Pacific region.

  • AIIB may provide or facilitate financing to any member, or any agency, instrumentality or political subdivision thereof, or any entity or enterprise operating in the territory of a member, as well as to international or regional agencies or entities concerned with the economic development of Asia. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Asian Development Fund (ADF), offers loans at very low-interest rates and grants to ADB's poorest borrowing countries, but it can be provided only by the Asian Development Bank and not by NDB. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 34

With reference to the social reformists in Modern India, consider the following statements:

  1. Swami Virajananda rechristened Mool Shankar as Dayanand Sarawati with the task of spreading Vedic knowledge.

  2. Swami Dayanand Saraswati made Karma Siddhanta, Rebirth, Brahmacharya, and Sanyasa as the four pillars of his philosophy.

  3. Swami Dayanand Saraswati was the first to give the call for Swaraj as "India for Indian" in 1876.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 34
  • Swami Virajananda entrusted Mool Shankar with the task of spreading Vedic knowledge throughout the society and rechristening him as Rishi Dayanand Saraswati. Maharishi Dayanand was a believer in Hinduism just as the Vedas have outlined, devoid of any corruption and embellishments. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Dayananda advocated the doctrine of Karma and Reincarnation. He emphasized the Vedic ideals of brahmacharya, including celibacy and devotion to God.So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati was an Indian philosopher, social leader and founder of the Arya Samaj, a reform movement of Vedic dharma. He was the first to give the call for Swaraj as "India for Indian" in 1876.So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 35

Why did Mahatma Gandhi never return to Sabarmati Ashram, where he started the salt march (Dandi March), in the then Bombay Province?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 35
When Gandhi started his Padayatra (foot march) in 1930 from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi for the Salt Satyagraha, he had decided not to return to Sabarmati till independence for India was attained. So, Option (b) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 36

With reference to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), consider the following statements:

  1. PACS functions under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

  2. PACS are not authorized to issue shares, nor are they allowed to invest in shares.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 36
  • Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) are outside the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and hence not regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • PACS are cooperative societies and are owned by their members, who do not hold shares in the traditional sense. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) are not authorized to issue shares, nor are they allowed to invest in shares. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 37

With respect to Genetic engineering, which of the following is/are correct?

  1. Gene editing involves altering of both DNA and RNA component of the organism.

  2. Gene drive technology can permanently change the traits of an entire species.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 37
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Genetic engineering, also called genetic modification, is the direct manipulation of an organism's genome using biotechnology. It is a set of technologies used to change the genetic makeup of cells, including the transfer of genes within and across species boundaries to produce improved or novel organisms.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: During the process of gene editing, a piece or several pieces of DNA (not the RNA) are altered to change a characteristic about the organism. If DNA is inserted, it can come from another individual with the desired characteristic, it can come from a different species or it could be artificially produced. The process of genetic engineering involves splicing an area of a chromosome, a gene, that controls a certain characteristic of the body. This gene may be reprogrammed to produce an antiviral protein. The enzyme endonuclease is used to split a DNA sequence as well as split the gene from the rest of the chromosome.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Gene drive is a genetic engineering technology that can permanently change the traits of a population or even an entire species. Gene drives are genetic elements that pass from parents to unusually high numbers of their offspring, thereby spreading quickly. It occur naturally but can also be engineered. In a breakthrough in the global fight for malaria, scientists have wiped out an entire population of malaria-carrying mosquitoes in lab conditions using a CRiSPR gene drive technology.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 38

With reference to the Indian Pangolin, consider the following statements:

  1. It is listed as Endangered by the IUCN.

  2. It is widely distributed in the high-altitude Himalayan region.

  3. It is the only species of Pangolin found in India.

  4. Its scales are used for treating infertility in women.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 38
Option c is the correct answer.
  • The Indian Pangolin is a scaly anteater. It is the only mammal with keratinous scales on its skin. It is the largest of the 8 species of Pangolins existing in the world. Pangolins are the most illegally traded mammals in the world.

  • Statement 1 is correct: The IUCN lists Indian Pangolins as ‘Endangered’ on its Red Data List. It must not be confused with the Chinese Pangolin which is listed under ‘Critically Endangered’ category by the IUCN.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian Pangolin is widely distributed in India except higher altitudes of the Himalayas (> 2500m), the North east India and arid regions.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: There are 2 species of Pangolins found in India - the Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla). Indian Pangolin is found throughout the country south of the Himalayas, excluding the north-eastern region while the Chinese Pangolin ranges through Assam and the eastern Himalayas.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Although not proven by modern medical science, traditional Chinese medicine values the scales of the pangolin as a treatment of many ailments like - arthritis, anorexia, sores, and skin infections to treating infertility in women and promoting lactation.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 39

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022 empowers the government to establish carbon markets in India.

  2. The share of agriculture-based carbon credits is the maximum out of total carbon credits traded globally.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 39
  • The Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022 empowers the government to establish carbon markets in India and specify a carbon credit trading scheme. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

  • As per the 2022 Report of the Ecosystem Marketplace, about 500 million carbon credits, valued at $1.98 billion, were traded globally in the voluntary carbon market in 2021. However, the share of agriculture-based carbon credits was minuscule — one million carbon credits worth $8.7 million. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 40

Consider the following statements regarding the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC):

  1. Only ‘Agriculture and allied sectors’ are eligible for receiving funds from NAFCC.

  2. NABARD is the National Implementing Entity for projects under NAFCC.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 40
Option b is the correct answer.
  • The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) is a Central Sector Scheme which was set up in the year 2015-16. The overall aim of NAFCC is to support concrete adaptation activities which mitigate the adverse effects of climate change.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) has been established to support adaptation activities in the States and Union Territories (UTs) of India that are vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. The projects related to adaptation in sectors such as agriculture, animal husbandry, water, forestry, tourism, disaster management, human health, marine system, habitat sector and other rural livelihood sectors are eligible for funding under NAFCC.

  • Statement 2 is correct: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE) for implementation of adaptation projects under NAFCC.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 41

Which of the following can be the possible causes of Algal Bloom?

  1. Agricultural Runoff

  2. Discharge of untreated Sewage

  3. Discharge of untreated Industrial Effluents

  4. Blockage in the flow of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 41
Option d is the correct answer.
  • Option 1 is correct: Agricultural Runoff contains a high amount of nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus due to increased use of fertilizers, especially nitrogen rich urea in modern agriculture. On reaching water bodies these nutrients stimulate the phytoplanktons in water such as blue-green bacteria, etc causing algal blooms in an unnatural amount, due to unnatural enhanced levels of plant growing nutrients in water.

  • Option 2 is correct: Discharge of untreated Sewage causes addition of organic wastes and pathogens in water bodies. These organic wastes act like manure and enhance nutrients in water bodies to unnatural levels, thus causing algal blooms.

  • Option 3 is correct: Discharge of untreated Industrial Effluents also results in an unnatural concentration of various chemicals in water bodies, some of these directly promote plant growth (nitrogen, phosphorus, etc), while others such as lead, mercury, etc cause death of aquatic organisms, whose decaying organic matter further acts as manure enriching nutrients of the water body leading to algal blooms.

  • Option 4 is correct: Algal blooms occur in water bodies that are stagnant, as there is no removal of enhanced levels of nutrients and no disturbance leading to unchecked proliferation of the algae. So, blockage of the flow of water, mostly due to human interventions such as the creation of dams, or diversion of natural waters for artificial projects leaving behind stranded lakes and blockage of river courses due to deposition of eroded soil (due to land use changes) helps in creating algal blooms.

  • Knowledge Base:

    • Algal bloom is an unchecked proliferation/ growth of algae (green, blue-green, cyanobacteria, etc) in a water body in an unnatural amount leading to disbalance in that aquatic ecosystem and death of biodiversity of that water body. This is due to:

      • Decreased sunlight penetration. Algae cover the surface of the water body, causing the death of other oxygen-producing vegetation and other aquatic organisms.

      • Dead and decaying organic matter further adds nutrients to the water body fuelling more algal growth while also reducing oxygen availability, killing more organisms. This cycle repeats, till most of the water body becomes lifeless and loses its biodiversity.

      • Other factors influencing algal blooms are: sunlight, temperature, climate change, and turbidity.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 42

With respect to the effects of cultivating Millets, consider the following statements:

  1. They are completely resistant to pests

  2. They help in water conservation

  3. They improve the soil structure

  4. They can sequester carbon

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 42
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Millets – often called “Nutri-Cereals” due to their high nutritional value – are a group of small-seeded grasses grown mainly in dry zones of Asia and Africa. These include sorghum (or great millet), pearl millet, finger millet, fonio, proso millet, foxtail millet, teff and other smaller varieties The UN has declared 2023 to be the ‘International Year of Millets’ to promote awareness about them as a solution to problems related to food security and climate change.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: This statement is incorrect as it is not always true. While generally millets remain free of pests, sometimes, some pests like shoot fly have been known to attack if planting is delayed due to delay in the onset of monsoon. So, some pest control is required, although the need for chemical pesticides is limited to a great extent as even biological pest control and organic pesticides are potent enough.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Millets are a rainfed crop. They do not require standing water or lots of irrigation for which canals need to be dug, or dams need to be built or groundwater needs to be overexploited. They have an extremely low water footprint, with a crop of millets requiring around 80 percent less water than crops like rice, wheat, or sugarcane. Hence Millets help in preserving water, which is already in short supply due to aggravating climate change (erratic rains, increased droughts).

  • Statement 3 is correct: Millets are extremely good for preserving and even improving the soils’ structure naturally and preserving soil health.

    • Millets have a deep fibrous root network which helps to maintain the integrity of the soil, saving it from wind and water erosion.

    • Millets are slow to decompose, so when added to the soil after harvest, as a compost/ mulch, they improve soil aeration without the need of tillage which disturbs soils.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Millets help control climate change as they can store/ sequester more carbon than other foodgrains. They do not need standing water like paddy does, so it eliminates the methane emission that might have otherwise contributed to climate change.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 43

With reference to the role of Methane as a Greenhouse Gas (GHG), consider the following statements:

  1. Rice cultivation is the biggest source of methane emissions.

  2. It is a much more potent GHG than CO2.

  3. India is not a signatory to the Global Methane Pledge.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 43
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Methane (CH4) is a hydrocarbon that is a primary component of natural gas. Methane is also a greenhouse gas (GHG), so its presence in the atmosphere affects the earth’s temperature and climate system. Over 25% of global warming today is being driven by Methane.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Combustion of fossil fuels (coal, petroleum and natural gas) is the biggest source (30-33%) of anthropogenic methane emissions - not rice cultivation. In second place is Enteric fermentation due the gut bacteria present in ruminating cattles (27%). In 3rd place is Rice cultivation (7-8%). The flooded fields prevent oxygen from penetrating the soil, creating ideal conditions for methane-emitting bacteria. Other anthropogenic emission sources include landfills, oil and natural gas systems, agricultural activities, coal mining, stationary and mobile combustion, wastewater treatment, and certain industrial processes.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Although the lifespan of methane (12 years) is much lower than that of CO2, its Global Warming Potential (GWP) is much more - more than 80 times compared to CO2 over a 20 year span.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The Global Methane Pledge is an initiative launched during the UNFCCC Climate Summit in Glasgow in 2021. It aims to reduce methane emissions by 30% from 2020 levels by 2030. So far 90 countries have signed it. However, India has refused to be a signatory. This is because, the major sources of methane emissions in India are Livestock enteric fermentation and from rice cultivation and controlling either of these will impact both food security as well as income security of India’s vast numbers of subsistence farmers who are already poor.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 44

With reference to Employment elasticity, consider the following statements:

  1. Employment elasticity is a measure of the percentage change in employment associated with a 1 percentage point change in economic growth.

  2. When the employment elasticity is 1, employment increases at the same pace as economic growth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 44
  • Employment elasticity is a measure of the percentage change in employment associated with a 1 %-point change in economic growth. So, statement 1 is correct.

  • An employment elasticity of 1 denotes that employment grows at the same rate as economic growth. So, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 45

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The annual range of temperature in Temperate grassland is vastly different in Northern and Southern Hemispheres.

Reason (R): The Temperate grassland in the Southern Hemisphere is on thin land strips near the sea, while those in the Northern Hemisphere is in remote interiors of the continent.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 45
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Steppes are Temperate Grasslands found in the Eurasian interior areas in the Northern Hemisphere. They border the deserts, and are away from the Mediterra-nean regions. In the Southern Hemisphere, the Temperate Grasslands are distributed in the Southeast portion of Africa (the High Veld), in the South East portion of Australia (Downs) and in Paraguay in South America (Pampas).

  • A is True: Being in the interior of the continent, far from the moderating maritime influence of sea and land breezes, or moisture laden onshore winds, temperate grasslands of northern hemisphere experience extremes of temperatures due to this ‘Continentality’. The summers are extremely hot and dry as moisture laden winds are unable to reach so far into the interior and there is no local breeze to cool down temperature. Similarly, the winters are very cold, as there are no warm currents to raise the temperature. Thus, these grasslands see a very high annual range of temperature (difference between the highest and lowest temperatures recorded in a year). On the other hand, the Temperate Grasslands in the Southern Hemisphere have quite mild climates without any extremes of temperatures. The summers are not very hot, and even in winters, it rarely ever reaches sub-zero temperatures. Thus, the annual range of temperatures over Southern Hemisphere Temperate Grasslands is very small. For example, Winnipeg, in the American Prairies (a Temperate Grassland in the Northern Hemisphere) has 3 times the annual range of temperature as Pretoria (in the HighVeld region).

  • R is True: In general, the amount of landmass is very less compared to the amount of ocean expanse in the Southern Hemisphere. Most landmasses are thin strips of land with no appreciable east-west breadth. So this is why the Temperate Grasslands in the Southern Hemisphere too are present on thin strips of land and are in close proximity to the oceans. For example the Pampas in Argentina R is the correct explanation for A: The feature of Continentality which is responsible for the extremes of temperature (and thus by extension for the high annual range of temperature) is absent in the Temperate Grasslands of the Southern Hemisphere. Thus the location of Temperate Grasslands in the Southern Hemisphere and the thin width of landmass ensure that they are within the moderating influence of the Land & Sea Breezes and ocean currents and there are no extremes of temperatures throughout the year. Thus there is a very small annual range of temperature.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 46

Consider the following statements with reference to the advantages of Bio-Pesticides:

  1. These are usually inherently less toxic than conventional pesticides.

  2. Bio-pesticide production requires a low capital investment.

  3. Bio-pesticides are effective in very small quantities and often decompose quickly.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 46
  • Biopesticides are biologically based agents used for the control of plant pests. These are usually inherently less toxic than conventional pesticides. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

  • Biopesticide production is a high-risk venture requiring a high initial capital investment — right from the screening stage to the selection of potential strains for sale, packaging, storage, and distribution. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Biopesticides often are effective in very small quantities and often decompose quickly, resulting in lower exposures and largely avoiding the pollution problems caused by conventional pesticides. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 47

Consider the following statements with reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES):

  1. It ensures ensure that international trade in both plants and animals does not threaten their survival.

  2. Trade in species listed in Appendix I of CITES is completely prohibited.

  3. CITES framework is incorporated in the domestic legislation of participating party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 47
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct: CITES is an international agreement between governments to ensure that international trade in plants and animals does not threaten their survival in the wild. It is administered through the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Trade in specimens of these species is permitted only in exceptional licensed circumstances. Ex- Red Panda, Asiatic Lion.

  • Statement 3 is correct: CITES does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislations to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 48

Consider the following statements with respect to photochemical smog:

  1. Ozone is one of the primary components of photochemical smog.

  2. At least one volatile organic compound is needed for the formation of photochemical smog in the atmosphere.

  3. The formation of photochemical smog requires low temperature and fast-moving air.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 48
Option a is the correct answer.
  • Photochemical smog is a term used to describe air pollution that is a result of the interaction of sunlight with certain chemicals in the atmosphere.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Ozone is one of the primary components of photochemical smog. While ozone in the stratosphere protects earth from harmful UV radiation, ozone on the ground is hazardous to human health. Ground-level ozone is formed when vehicle emissions containing nitrogen oxides (primarily from vehicle exhaust) and volatile organic compounds (from paints, solvents, printing inks, petroleum products, vehicles, etc.) interact in the presence of sunlight.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Photochemical smog is produced when sunlight reacts with oxides of nitrogen and at least one volatile organic compound (VOC) in the atmosphere. The chemical formation of airborne particles and ground-level ozone takes place in the sunlight. Paints, gasoline and many cleaning solvents release VOCs into the atmosphere.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The occurrence of photochemical smog is often linked to heavy traffic, high temperatures, and calm winds. During the winter, wind speeds are low and cause the smoke and fog to stagnate near the ground; hence pollution levels can increase near ground level. Smoke particles trapped in the fog gives it a yellow/ black colour and this smog often settled over cities for many days.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 49

The Gandhi Sagar Dam is built on which river in Madhya Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 49
The Gandhi Sagar Dam is built on Chambal river and is located in the Mandsaur & Neemuch district of Madhya Pradesh. It is a masonry gravity dam, standing 62.17 metres (204.0 ft) high, with a gross storage capacity of 7.322 billion cubic metres from a catchment area of 22,584 km2. The dam sports a 115-MW hydroelectric power station at its toe, with five 23-MW generating units each providing a total energy generation of about 564 GWh. The dam’s reservoir area is the second-largest in India (after the Hirakud Reservoir), and attracts a large number of migratory and non-migratory birds throughout the year.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 50

With reference to the Beema Bamboo, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a genetically modified variety of the wild Bamboo plant.

  2. It acts as an efficient carbon sink to mitigate carbon dioxide emissions.

  3. It is a sterile variety of bamboo which does not produce any seed.

  4. It can re-grow on its own and does not require replanting for decades.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 50
Option b is the correct answer.
  • Beema or Bheema Bamboo is a superior clone, selected from Bambusa balcooa, a higher biomass yielding bamboo species.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Beema Bamboo is not a product of genetically modified organisms. It is developed by the conventional breeding method and does not involve genetically modified organism.

  • Statement 2 is correct: This species is said to be the best ‘carbon sink’ to mitigate carbon dioxide emissions. A fully-grown bamboo tree may generate over 300 kilograms of oxygen annually and it may be sufficient for one person for one year. A four-year-old bamboo may absorb over 400 kg of carbon dioxide per annum from the surrounding areas. Bamboo raised on one acre can sequester 80 tonnes of carbon dioxide annually.

  • Statement 3 is correct: As it is sterile, this bamboo does not produce any seed and does not die for several hundred years and keeps growing. As a result, this particular bamboo species can be able to establish permanent green cover.

  • Statement 4 is correct: Since the plants are produced through tissue culture, the culms grow almost solid and adapt to different soil and climatic conditions. After every harvest cycle, it re-grows and does not require replanting for decades. As its rhizome and root formation provide a strong foundation, the plant becomes robust against natural forces and plays a major role in mitigating global warming and climate change.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 51

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Initial Public Offering (IPO)’:

  1. Initial Public Offering (IPO) is a process by which a privately held company becomes publicly traded on a stock exchange.

  2. The price of shares in an IPO is determined by supply and demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 51
  • An Initial Public Offering (IPO) is a process by which a privately held company becomes publicly traded on a stock exchange. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • An IPO is usually underwritten by one or more investment banks, which are responsible for facilitating the sale of shares and ensuring that the IPO is successful. The price of shares in an IPO is determined by supply and demand. The company and its underwriters will set an initial price for the shares, but the price can fluctuate after the IPO based on market conditions and the performance of the company. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Investing in an IPO is considered a high-risk investment, as the company's financial performance and stock price can be volatile in the short term.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 52

Consider the following statements with respect to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC):

  1. Goa is the only state in India which follows Uniform Civil code.

  2. During constituent assembly debates, B.R. Ambedkar was against the implementation of Uniform Civil Code.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 52
Option a is the correct answer.
  • A Uniform Civil Code aims to replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of various religious communities, with a common set of rules governing every citizen of the country.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Goa has been following the Portuguese Civil Code 1867, which is also called Uniform Civil Code. After its liberation from Portuguese rule, the UCC survives through Section 5(1) of the Goa, Daman and Diu Administration Act, 1962. The Uniform Civil Code in Goa applies to everyone irrespective of religion, sex, order of the birth etc. Goa is the only state in India which follows Uniform Civil code.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: B.R. Ambedkar was in favour of the Uniform Civil Code in the Constituent assembly debates. Ambedkar was of the view that the laws were grossly discriminatory in nature where women were given little to no rights. During Constituent Assembly debates, Ambedkar said that, “There was nothing new about the Uniform Civil Code. There already existed a common civil code in the country except for the areas of marriage, inheritance — which are the main targets for the Uniform Civil Code in the Draft Constitution.” However, Ambedkar also felt that the UCC should be optional. Crucially Ambedkar argued that the absence of a UCC would hinder the government’s attempts at social reforms.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 53

With reference to the tribal uprisings in Colonial India, consider the following statements regarding―Birsa Munda‖:

  1. He created a faith called Birsait‘ as a challenge to the religious conversion activities of the British Raj and their oppression of the tribal communities.

  2. He joined the Sardar movement for the land and rights of the tribals in 1894.

  3. The states of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand were created on his birth anniversary in 2000 in recognition of his contribution to the national freedom movement.

  4. He spearheaded the demonstration against the Britishers with his most famous tribal movement — the Munda Rebellion.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 53
  • Having gained awareness of the British colonial ruler and the efforts of the missionaries to convert tribals to Christianity, Birsa started the faith of Birsait‘. Soon members of the Munda and Oraon community started joining the Birsait sect and it turned into a challenge to British conversion activities. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Wanting to fight the Britishers, Birsa joined the Sardar movement for the land and rights of the tribals in 1894. So, Statement 2 is correct.

  • The new states of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, and Jharkhand were formed on the 1st, 9th, and 15th of November 2000, respectively. In recognition of his impact on the national movement, the state of Jharkhand was created on his birth anniversary in 2000. Chhattisgarh was formed from Madhya Pradesh for Socio-Political purposes. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

  • He spearheaded a tribal religious millenarian movement – Munda Rebellion‘ that arose in the Bengal Presidency (now Jharkhand) in the late 19th century, during the British Raj, thereby making him an important figure in the history of the Indian independence movement.So, Statement 4 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 54

The places such as ―Serampore and ―Tranquebar in 17th Century India are known for which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 54
The Danish East India Company was established in 1616, they founded a factory at Tranquebar near Tanjore, on the eastern coast of India. Their principal settlement was at Serampore near Calcutta. The Danish factories, which were not important at any time, were sold to the British government in 1845. The Danes are better known for their missionary activities than for commerce.Eg, Serampore Missionary. So, Option (b) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 55

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Interim Government was officiated immediately after the Shimla Plan in 1945.

  2. B.R. Ambedkar was the first law minister in the interim Government in 1945.

  3. The Interim Government functioned under the presidency of the British Viceroy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 55
  • The interim Government of India was formed on September 2, 1946, to oversee the transition of the country from a British colony to an independent republic.

  • The Shimla Conference in 1945 was convened in order to agree on the Wavell Plan for Indian self-government, which provided for separate representations on communal lines. Both the plan and the conference failed on account of the Muslim League and the Indian National Congress not agreeing. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

  • Jogendra Nath Mandal was the first law minister in the interim Government in 1945. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The executive branch of the interim government was served by the viceroy's executive council, headed by the Viceroy of India. President of the Executive Council (Viceroy and Governor-General of India): Viscount Wavell (till February 1947); Lord Mountbatten (from February 1947). So, Statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 56

With reference to the Indian States along the international boundary of India, consider the following statements:

  1. This state is bounded by two neighbouring countries.

  2. It is the only state in India to have a river border on both East and West with the two neighbouring countries bordering it.

  3. Within India, this state shares borders with 3 neighbouring states.

Which one of the following states is described by the statements given above?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 56
  • Jammu Kashmir is a union territory of India that is bounded to the east by the Indian union territory of Ladakh, to the south by the Indian states of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, and to the southwest by Pakistan. So, Option (a) is not correct.

  • Uttar Pradesh is bordered by the state of Uttarakhand and the country of Nepal to the north, the state of Bihar to the east, the states of Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh to the southeast, the state of Madhya Pradesh to the south, and the states of Rajasthan and Haryana and the national capital territory of Delhi to the west. Thus it is bounded by one neighbouring country and seven states. So, Option (b) is not correct.

  • Assam borders two neighbouring countries such as Bhutan and Bangladesh. But it borders seven neighbouring states such as Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, and West Bengal. So, Option (c) is not correct.

  • Mizoram borders two neighbouring countries such as Myanmar and Bangladesh and three bordering states such as Tripura, Assam, and Manipur. The Tiau river borders the state and Myanmar on the eastern side and the river Karnapuli borders the state and Bangladesh onthe western side. So, Option (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 57

If a foreign tourist wants to explore the mountain railway system, recognised by UNESCO, then the tourist must visit which of the following places?

  1. Darjeeling in West Bengal

  2. Nilgiri in Tamil Nadu

  3. Shimla in Himachal Pradesh

  4. Jammu in Jammu and Kashmir

  5. Matheran in Maharashtra

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 57
The Mountain Railways of India which was accorded the UNESCO World Heritage status are:
  • The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway, West Bengal (Northeast India) in 1999

  • The Nilgiri Mountain Railway, Tamil Nadu (South India) in 2005

  • The Kalka Shimla Railway, Himachal Pradesh (Northwest India) in 2008

  • Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus, Maharashtra in 2004

So, Option (a) is correct

  • The Central Railways has proposed the Matheran toy train in Maharashtra (Neral-Matheran Light Railway) for the 2021 edition of the UNESCO-Greece Melina Mercury International Prize.

  • The UNESCO-Greece Melina Mercury International Prize for Safeguarding and Management of Cultural Landscapes established in 1995 is an award to outstanding examples of actions to safeguard and enhance the world‘s cultural landscapes, a category of World Heritage. The Matheran Hill Railway and Kangra Valley Railwayare on the tentative list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 58

With reference to the Mahakali River, consider the following statements:

  1. The Mahakali River forms the international boundary between India and Nepal and flows into River Ghaghra.

  2. The entire catchment area of the Mahakali River lies in India.

  3. The Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project, developed in the Mahakali River, is jointly built by India and Russia for benefit of Nepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 58
  • The Mahakali river also called Sarda River/ Kali river originates at Kalapani and forms the border between India and the western border of Nepal for a considerable distance. It joins the Ghaghra River, a tributary of the Ganges. So, Statement 1 is correct.

  • The catchment area of Mahakali is around 15,260 sq km, a large part of which (9,943 sq km) lies in Uttarakhand and the rest lies in Nepal. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Pancheshwar Dam, a joint venture of India and Nepal for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation was proposed on the Mahakali river at Dharchula in Uttarakhand. Russia plays no role in the construction of this project. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 59

Consider the following worms:

  1. Green Worm

  2. African Nightcrawler

  3. Tiger Worm

Which of the above organisms are capable of producing ―Vermicompost‖?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 59
  • Generally, the earthworm is added with other essential materials for producing vermicompost.

  • The following worms are also good for vermicomposting:

    • Red Wiggler

    • European Nightcrawler

    • Indian or Malaysian Blue

    • African Nightcrawler

    • Tiger Worm

    • Green worms are not capable of vermicomposting.

So, Option (c) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 60

In India, which of the following crops are mostly grown in the soil that is formed after weathering of Basalt rocks?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 60
  • Basalt rocks are the rocks that are formed due to the rapid cooling of lava which has a high content of minerals like Magnesium and Iron. It contains less silica content.

  • Black soil is formed by the weathering or breaking of igneous (basaltic) rocks and also by the cooling or solidification of lava from the volcano eruption.

  • These soils are also known as the Regur Soil‘. The soil is deficient in nitrogen, phosphate, and organic matter but rich in potash, calcium, and magnesium. The colour of the soil ranges from deep black to grey.

  • In India, they cover the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh and extend in the southeast direction along the Godavari and the Krishna valleys. Black soil is ideal for growing cotton and is also known as black cotton soil. So, Option (a) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 61

Which one of the following is the most salt-tolerant crop?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 61
Sugar beet is considered to be a salt-tolerant crop. Sugar beet can improve its salt tolerance through the following regulation strategies: regulation of gene expression, accumulation of osmotic-adjustment substances, vacuolar salt sequestration, regulation of polyamine synthesis, and antioxidant regulation. So, Option (d) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 62

A symbiotic relationship between Fungus and Plants is found in

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 62
  • Lichens are commonly recognized as a symbiotic association of a fungus and chlorophyllcontaining partner, either green algae or cyanobacteria, or both. The fungus provides a suitable habitat for the partner by protecting and anchoring the body and the algae provide photosynthetically fixed carbon as an energy source for the fungi. So, Option (a) is not correct.

  • Mycorrhizae are symbiotic(mutualistic) relationships that form between fungi and plants. The fungi colonize the root system of a host plant, providing increased water and nutrient absorption capabilities by putting out mycelia while the plant provides the fungus with carbohydrates formed from photosynthesis which makes easy access to food for the fungus. So, Option (b) is correct.

  • Pneumatophores are specialized root structures that grow out from the water surface and facilitate the aeration necessary for root respiration in hydrophytic trees such as many mangrove species. So, Option (c) is not correct.

  • Bacteriophages are viruses that host bacteria but are harmless to humans. To reproduce, they get into a bacterium, where they multiply, and finally, they break the bacterial cell open to release the new viruses. Therefore, bacteriophages kill bacteria. So, Option (d) is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - Question 63

Which o