UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

100 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 below.
Solutions of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 questions in English are available as part of our course for UPSC & UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 solutions in Hindi for UPSC course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 1

With reference to the Indus Valley Civilisation, consider the following statements:

  1. Copper used in the Harappan artefacts was brought from Oman.

  2. In the Mesopotamian texts, Meluhaa was the term used for the Harappan region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 1
  • Recent archaeological finds suggest that copper was also probably brought from Oman, on the south-eastern tip of the Arabian Peninsula. Chemical analyses have shown that both the Omani copper and the Harappan artefacts have traces of nickel, suggesting a common origin. There are other traces of contact as well. A distinctive type of vessel, a large Harappan jar coated with a thick layer of black clay, has been found at the Omani sites. Such thick coatings prevent the percolation of liquids. We do not know what was carried in these vessels, but it is possible that the Harappans exchanged the contents of these vessels for Omani copper.

  • Mesopotamian texts, datable to the third millennium BCE, refer to copper coming from a region called Magan, perhaps a name for Oman, and interestingly enough, copper found at the Mesopotamian sites also contains traces of nickel. Other archaeological finds suggestive of long-distance contacts include Harappan seals, weights, dice and beads. In this context, it is worth noting that the Mesopotamian texts mention contact with the regions named Dilmun (probably the island of Bahrain), Magan and Meluhha, possibly the Harappan region.

  • They mention the products from Meluhha: carnelian, lapis lazuli, copper, gold and varieties of wood. A Mesopotamian myth says of Meluhha: “May your bird be the Haja-bird, may its call be heard in the royal palace.” Some archaeologists think that the Haja-bird was the peacock. It is likely that communication with Oman, Bahrain or Mesopotamia was by sea. The Mesopotamian texts refer to Meluhha as a land of sea-farers. Besides, depictions of ships and boats on seals have also been found.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 2

onsider the following statements with respect to the amendments to Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 1971.

  1. Abortion can now be performed until 28 weeks pregnancy.

  2. As per the amendment women are being allowed to seek safe abortion services on grounds of contraceptive failure.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 2
  • Abortion can now be performed until 24 weeks pregnancy. Statement 1 is not correct.

  • As per the amendment women are being allowed to seek safe abortion services on grounds of contraceptive failure. Statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

  1. Periplus was the Greek name of the Red Sea.

  2. Erythraean is a Greek word, meaning sailing around.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 3
“Periplus” is a Greek word, meaning sailing around and “Erythraean” was the Greek name for the Red Sea.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 4

With reference to the capital cities of the Mughal period, consider the following statements:

  1. Akbar commissioned the construction of a white marble tomb for Shaikh Salim Chishti at Fatehpur Sikri.

  2. In 1585, Akbar transferred the capital to Lahore.

  3. Shah Jahan commissioned the construction of the Fort of Agra with red sandstone.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 4
  • In the 1570s, Akbar decided to build a new capital, Fatehpur Sikri. One of the reasons prompting this may have been that Sikri was located on the direct road to Ajmer, where the Dargah of Shaikh Muinuddin Chishti had become an important pilgrimage centre. The Mughal emperors entered into a close relationship with the Sufis of the Chishti Silsila. Akbar commissioned the construction of a white marble tomb for Shaikh Salim Chishti, next to the majestic Friday Mosque at Sikri. The heart of the Mughal Empire was its capital city, where the court assembled.

  • The capital cities of the Mughals frequently shifted during the 16th and the17th centuries. Babur took over the Lodi capital of Agra, though during the 4 years of his reign, the court was frequently on the move. During the 1560s, Akbar had the Fort of Agra constructed with red sandstone, quarried from the adjoining regions. The enormous arched gateway (The Buland Darwaza) was meant to remind the visitors of the Mughal victory in Gujarat. In 1585, the capital was transferred to Lahore to bring the north-west under greater control and Akbar closely watched the frontier for 13 years.

  • Shah Jahan pursued sound fiscal policies and accumulated enough money to indulge his passion for building. Building activity in monarchical cultures, as we have seen in the case of the earlier rulers, was the most visible and tangible sign of the dynastic power, wealth and prestige. In the case of the Muslim rulers, it was also considered an act of piety. In 1648, the court, army and household moved from Agra to the newly completed imperial capital, Shahjahanabad. It was a new addition to the old residential city of Delhi, with the Red Fort, the Jama Masjid, a tree-lined esplanade with bazaars (Chandni Chowk) and spacious homes for the nobility. Shah Jahan’s new city was appropriate to a more formal vision of a grand monarchy.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 5

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Amara-Nayaka system of the Vijayanagara Empire?

  1. Many features of the Amara-Nayaka system were derived from the Iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate.

  2. The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders.

  3. The Amara-Nayakas personally appeared in the royal court with gifts to express their loyalty.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 5
  • The Amara-Nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire. It is likely that many features of this system were derived from the Iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate. The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Raya. They collected taxes and other dues from the peasants, crafts-persons and traders in the area.

  • They retained part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants. These contingents provided the Vijayanagara kings with an effective fighting force with which they brought the entire southern peninsula under their control. Some of the revenue was also used for the maintenance of temples and irrigation works.

  • The Amara-Nayakas sent tribute to the king annually and personally appeared in the royal court with gifts to express their loyalty. The kings occasionally asserted their control over them by transferring them from one place to another. However, during the course of the 17th century, many of these Nayakas established independent kingdoms. This hastened the collapse of the central imperial structure.

  • Note: Amara is believed to be derived from the Sanskrit word Samara, meaning battle or war. It also resembles the Persian term Amir, meaning a high noble.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 6

With reference to the Theosophical Movement, consider the following statements:

  1. Madame H.P. Blavatsky and Colonel M.S. Olcott founded the Theosophical Society in Adyar, Madras.

  2. The Movement accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and Karma.

  3. The Society sought to investigate the unexplained laws of the nature and the powers latent in man.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 6
  • A group of westerners, led by Madame H.P. Blavatsky (1831-1891) and Colonel M.S. Olcott, who were inspired by the Indian thought and culture, founded the Theosophical Society in New York City (United States), in 1875. In 1882, they shifted their headquarters to Adyar, on the outskirts of Madras (at that time) in India. The Society believed that a special relationship could be established between a person’s soul and the God by contemplation, prayer, revelation, etc.

  • It accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and Karma, and drew inspiration from the philosophy of the Upanishads and the Samkhya, Yoga and Vedanta schools of thought. It aimed to work for universal brotherhood of humanity, without distinction of race, creed, sex, caste or colour.

  • The Society also sought to investigate the unexplained laws of the nature and the powers latent in man. The Theosophical Movement came to be allied with the Hindu renaissance. It opposed child marriage and advocated the abolition of caste discrimination, uplift of outcastes and improvement in the condition of the widows.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 7

With reference to the arguments made by Dr. Ambedkar in front of the Simon Commission, consider the following statements:

  1. He argued for provincial autonomy in the provinces and dyarchy at the Centre.

  2. He demanded for representation for the depressed class, on the same basis as the Mohammedan minority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 7
  • Dr. Ambedkar was appointed by the Bombay Legislative Council to work with the Simon Commission. In October, 1928, he argued for ‘universal adult franchise’ for both male and female alike; for provincial autonomy in the provinces and dyarchy at the Centre.

  • On behalf of the Bahishkrita Hitakarini Sabha, he submitted a memorandum on the rights and safeguards he felt were required for the depressed classes. Ambedkar said that there was no link between the depressed classes and the Hindu community, and stated that the depressed classes should be regarded as a distinct and independent minority. He asserted that the depressed classes, as a minority, needed far greater political protection than any other minority in British India, because of its educational backwardness, its economically poor condition, its social enslavement, and for the reason that it suffered from certain grave political disabilities, from which no other community suffered.

  • In the circumstances, Dr. Ambedkar demanded for the political protection of the depressed classes, representation on the same basis as the Mohammedan minority. He wanted reserved seats for the depressed classes if universal adult franchise was granted. In case universal franchise was not granted, Ambedkar said he would campaign for a separate electorate for the depressed classes.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 8

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Kabir Bijak is preserved in Varanasi.

  2. Kabir Granthavali is associated with the Dadupanth in Rajasthan.

  3. Kabir used the terms drawn from the Vedantic traditions, Alakh and Nirakar.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 8
  • The verses ascribed to Kabir have been compiled in 3 distinct, but overlapping traditions. Kabir Bijak is preserved by the Kabirpanth (the path or sect of Kabir) in Varanasi and elsewhere in Uttar Pradesh; the Kabir Granthavali is associated with the Dadupanth in Rajasthan, and many of his compositions are found in the Adi Granth Sahib.

  • Kabir’s poems have survived in several languages and dialects; and some are composed in the special language of the Nirguna poets, the Sant Bhasha. Others, known as Ulatbansi (upside-down sayings), are written in a form in which everyday meanings are inverted. These hint at the difficulties of capturing the nature of the Ultimate Reality in words: expressions such as “the lotus which blooms without flower” or the “fire raging in the ocean” convey a sense of Kabir’s mystical experiences. Also striking is the range of traditions Kabir drew on to describe the Ultimate Reality.

  • These include Islam: He described the Ultimate Reality as Allah, Khuda, Hazrat and Pir. He also used terms drawn from the Vedantic traditions, Alakh (the unseen), Nirakar (formless), Brahman, Atman, etc. Other terms with mystical connotations, such as Shabda (sound) or Shunya (emptiness) were drawn from the Yogic traditions.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 9

With reference to the August Offer of 1940, consider the following statements:

  1. The demand of the Indians to frame their own Constitution was denied.

  2. It proposed Dominion Status as the objective for India.

  3. It provided veto assurance to the minorities for any future Constitution related work.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 9
  • As the war in Europe had undertaken a new turn, the dominant Congress leadership was again in a dilemma. Both Gandhi and Nehru strongly opposed the idea of taking advantage of Britain’s position. The Congress was ready to compromise, asking the British government to let it form an interim government during the war period, but the government was not interested. The government came up with its own offer to get the co-operation of India in the war effort. Linlithgow announced the August Offer (August, 1940), which proposed:

    • Dominion Status as the objective for India;

    • Expansion of the Viceroy’s Executive Council, which would have a majority of Indians (who would be drawn from major political parties);

    • Setting up of a Constituent Assembly after the war, where mainly Indians would decide the Constitution according to their social, economic and political conceptions, subject to fulfilment of the obligation of the government regarding defence, minority rights, treaties with the States, All India Services. For the first time, the inherent right of the Indians to frame their Constitution was recognised and the Congress demand for a Constituent Assembly was conceded.

    • And no future Constitution to be adopted without the consent of the minorities. The Muslim League welcomed the veto assurance given to the League and reiterated its position that partition was the only solution to the deadlock.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 10

Which among the following are the advantages of thermal electricity generation?

  1. Generation capability even in worst weather condition

  2. Generation is possible where hydropower generation is impossible

  3. The short gestation period of the thermal power station

  4. Eco-friendly operation

Choose the correct option from the codes given below :

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 10
The advantages of thermal electricity generation- Generation capability even in worst weather conditions. Generation is possible where hydropower generation is impossible. The short gestation period of the thermal power station. It is not eco friendly at all and also needs non-renewable resources like coal, natural gas, or diesel.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Seismic Waves’:

  1. P waves are transverse waves and can travel through solid, liquid, and gas.

  2. S Waves are longitudinal waves and can travel only through solid and liquid but not through the gas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 11
  • P Waves or the primary waves are also known as longitudinal or compressional waves. It can pass through solid, liquid and gas. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

    • P waves travel at the fastest speed through solid materials. Though these also pass through liquid and gaseous materials their speed is slowed down.

  • S Waves or secondary waves are also called transverse or distortional waves. S- Wave cannot pass through liquid materials. It can only pass through solids. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 12

Consider the following statements:

  1. The recruitment of children below the age of 15 as soldiers is considered a war crime under the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court.

  2. India is party to the Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 12
  • The Rome Statute says that “conscripting and enlisting children under the age of 15 years into armed forces or using them to participate actively in hostilities” is a war crime, although it excludes prosecution of a person who was under the age of 18 at the time of the alleged commission of a crime. This is the case in internal as well as international conflicts. The Statute does not deal with the recruitment of children between fifteen and eighteen years. Nonetheless, states may be prohibited from recruiting children between fifteen and eighteen years. These provisions are also stated under the UN Convention on Rights of Child, 1989, its Optional Protocol, Geneva Convention on Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War, 1949, and its Additional Protocols. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • UN Convention: The recruitment or use of children below the age of 15 as soldiers is prohibited by both the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC). Currently, 193 countries have ratified the CRC.

    • Optional Protocol to UN Convention on CRC: The Optional Protocol to the CRC on the involvement of children in armed conflict further prohibits kids under the age 18 from being compulsorily recruited into state or non-state armed forces or directly engaging in hostilities.

    • India is party to the Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC) and acceded to Optional Protocol in November 2005. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

    • The Constitution encompasses most rights included in the CRC as Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.

    • Article 39 (f) states that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment.

    • The Indian Penal Code criminalizes the recruitment or use in hostilities of persons under-18 years by state armed forces or non-state armed groups.

  • Additional information: The additional protocols to the Geneva Conventions also consider recruitment of child soldiers as a war crime.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 13

Under a 'Green Shoe' option, related to the initial public offer, the issuing company has the option to:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 13
  • One of the problems in an IPO has been the post-issue price decline as compared to the issue price. This often has left retail investors feeling high and dry. A solution to this problem is the introduction of the 'Green Shoe' Option in the issue. The first company to use this innovative structure was the 'Green Shoe Company' and hence, the unique name.

  • Under a 'Green shoe' option, the issuing company has the option to allocate additional equity shares up to a specified amount. A 'Green shoe' option allows the underwriter of a public offer to sell additional shares to the public if the demand is high. The option is a clause in the underwriting agreement, which allows the company to sell additional shares, usually 15 per cent of the issue size (in case of IPO), to the public if the demand exceeds expectations and the stock trades above its offer price.

Hence option (d) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 14

“A theory however elegant and economical, must be rejected if it is untrue; likewise, laws and institutions no matter how efficient and well-arranged, must be reformed or abolished if they are unjust.”

The above quote is related to which of the following political philosophers?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 14
To Rawls, “Justice is the first virtue of social institutions, as truth is of systems of thought. A theory however elegant and economical, must be rejected if it is untrue; likewise, laws and institutions no matter how efficient and well-arranged, must be reformed or abolished if they are unjust. Each person possesses an inviolability founded on justice that even the welfare of society as a whole cannot override.”
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 15

Which of the following statements regarding the Japanese Quail Farming are correct?

  1. A Government license is required to sell commercial Japanese quail considering the jungle variety of the bird, which is a protected species.

  2. Quail egg is roughly one-fifth the size of a chicken's egg and but they contain more cholesterol.

  3. The proportion of yolk (the yellow inside part) to albumen (the white part)is higher compared to chicken eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 15

Japanese Quail Farming:

  • The Quail called "bater" in Hindi, is a small type of bird that belongs to the Pheasant family. They were first domesticated in Japan in 1595. There are two species of quail in India; the black-breasted quail found in jungle (Coturnix Coromandelica) and the brown-coloured Japanese Quail (Coturnix Coturnix Japonica) which is bred for meat or the one used for commercial Quail production. They were introduced in India in 1974 from California. There are 45 species of quail. Although the Japanese quail is the largest species, it is much smaller than pigeon. While Indian quail weighs up to 100 gm and lays 100 eggs a year, the Japanese quail weighs up to 250 gm and lays 250 eggs a year.

  • Though the Government of India is encouraging entrepreneurs to start quail farm, a government license is required to sell commercial Japanese quail considering the jungle variety of the bird, which is a protected species. The Ministry of environment and forests delegated the power to grant such license to the Department of Animal Husbandry. So, far more than 500 license has been issued in Maharashtra State alone. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Quail egg is roughly one-fifth the size of a chicken's egg and weigh around 10gm. The eggshells are spotted, with colors ranging from white to brown. Nutritionally, the quality of these eggs is at par with that of chicken eggs; rather they contain less cholesterol. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

  • The proportion of yolk (the yellow inside part) to albumen (the white part), at 39:61, is higher compared to chicken eggs. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 16

What can be the impact of inappropriate use of pesticides in agriculture?

  1. Decrease in the general biodiversity in the soil.

  2. Elimination of food sources for the certain types of animals, causing them to relocate, change their diet, or starve.

  3. Diminishing the water’s oxygen.

  4. Contribution to almost 40 per cent of agricultural GHG emissions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 16
  • The use of pesticides decreases the general biodiversity in the soil. Soil quality is higher without chemicals and this allows for higher water retention, necessary for plants to grow. Nitrogen fixation, which is necessary for the growth of many large plants, is hindered by pesticides that can be found in soil. This can lead to a large decline in crop yields. Application of pesticides to crops that are in bloom can kill honeybees, which act as pollinators. This also decreases crop pollination and reproduction. Animals may be poisoned by pesticide residues that remain on food after spraying. An application of pesticides in an area can eliminate food sources that certain types of animals need, causing the animals to relocate, change their diet, or starve. Poisoning from pesticides can even make its way up the food chain; for example, birds can be harmed when they eat insects and worms that have consumed pesticides.

  • There is evidence that birds are being harmed by pesticide use. Rachel Carson’s book Silent Spring discusses the loss of several bird species due to accumulation of pesticides in their tissues. Types of fungicides used in farming are only slightly toxic to birds and mammals, but may kill off earthworms, which can in turn reduce populations of the birds and mammals that feed on them. Additionally, as some pesticides come in granular form, birds and other wildlife may eat the granules, mistaking them for grains of food. A few granules of a pesticide are enough to kill a small bird. Herbicides may also endanger bird populations by reducing their habitat.

  • Fish and other aquatic biota may be harmed by pesticide-contaminated water. Application of herbicides to bodies of water can cause plants to die, diminishing the water’s oxygen and suffocating the fish. Repeated exposure of some pesticides can cause physiological and behavioural changes in fish that reduce populations, such as abandonment of nests, decreased immunity to disease, and increased failure to avoid predators.

  • Fertilizers are associated with greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions to the atmosphere during their production, transport and use. The use of inorganic fertilizers, and manure storage and use, contribute almost 40 per cent of agricultural GHG emissions. Better nitrogen management is one of the most effective GHG reduction strategies that farmers can adopt. On the positive side, agricultural intensification has been associated with a reduction of loss of forests which serve as carbon sinks.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 17

In what ways, Remissions of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) is different from the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS)?

  1. Unlike MEIS, the RoDTEP Scheme has been framed in accordance with WTO guidelines.

  2. While MEIS incentive could be used for payment of only the Basic Customs Duty, RoDTEP credit can be used for payment of various components of Customs duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 17
  • RoDTEP(Remission of Duties or Taxes on Export Products Scheme) has been introduced with an objective to neutralize the taxes and duties suffered on exported goods that are otherwise not credited or remitted or refunded in any manner and remain embedded in the export goods. This scheme provides for a rebate of all hidden Central, State, and Local duties/ taxes/levies on the goods exported which have not been refunded under any other existing scheme. This does not only include the direct cost incurred by the exporter but also the prior stage cumulative indirect taxes on goods. It is a WTO compliant Scheme and follows the global principle that the taxes/duties should not be exported, whereas, The MEIS Scheme has been under the cloud from the standpoint of WTO norms compliance. Statement 1 is correct. They should be either exempted or remitted to exporters, to make the goods competitive in the global market. The e-scrips issued under the RoDTEP scheme would be utilized for payment of Basic Customs Duty. It cannot be utilized towards payment of any other taxes like IGST, Compensation Cess, etc. upon the import of goods. Statement 2 is not correct.

  • The objective of MEIS (Merchandise Exports from India Scheme) was to offset infrastructural inefficiencies and associated costs involved in the export of goods/products, which are produced/ manufactured in India, especially those having high export intensity, and employment potential and thereby enhancing India’s export competitiveness. Scrips under the MEIS scheme are issued at varied rates fixed for different countries ranging from 2 percent to 10 percent of the Free on Board (FOB) value of exports. The incentives issued as duty scrips can be used for payment of a number of duties/taxes including the customs/ excise duty/ service tax/Goods and Service Tax (GST).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding H10N3 virus:

  1. The first global case of human infection with avian influenza A(H10N3) virus has been reported in China.

  2. Avian influenza A (H10Nx) viruses have acquired the incredible ability of human-to-human transmission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 18
H10N3:
  • Last year, the National Health Commission of the People’s Republic of China notified WHO of one confirmed case of human infection with avian influenza A(H10N3) virus. This is the first case of human infection with avian influenza A(H10N3) virus reported globally. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • The National Influenza Center of the Chinese Center for Disease Control and Prevention, a WHO Collaborating Centre for Reference and Research on Influenza, completed genetic sequencing and analysis of the specimen and confirmed the detection of an influenza A(H10N3) virus of avian origin.

  • Currently available epidemiologic information suggests that avian influenza A(H10Nx) viruses have not acquired the ability of sustained human-to-human transmission, thus the likelihood of spread among humans is low. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 19

Commercialisation of agriculture was one the economic impacts of the British rule. What were the further implications of the Commercialization of agriculture?

  1. The workers on the plantations worked under a lot of hardships.

  2. Cultivation of Indigo left the land infertile for some years that made the farmers reluctant to grow it.

  3. Peasant revolts occurred due to the commercialization.

  4. It further decreased the speed of transfer of ownership of land.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 19

Commercialisation of agriculture under British rule:

  • Another major economic impact of the British policies in India was the introduction of a large number of commercial crops such as tea, coffee, indigo, opium, cotton, jute, sugarcane and oilseed. Different kinds of commercial crops were introduced with different intentions. Indian opium was used to balance the trade of Chinese tea with Britain in the latter’s favor. The market for opium was strictly controlled by British traders which did not leave much scope for Indian producers to reap profit. Indians were forced to produce indigo and sell it on the conditions dictated by the Britishers. Indigo was sent to England and used as a dyeing agent for cloth produced in British towns. Indigo was grown under a different system where all farmers were compelled to grow it on 3/20th part of their land. Unfortunately, cultivation of Indigo left the land infertile for some years. This made the farmers reluctant to grow it. In the tea plantations ownership changed hands quite often. The workers on these plantations worked under a lot of hardships.

  • Commercialisation of agriculture further enhanced the speed of transfer of ownership of land thereby increasing the number of landless laborers. It also brought in a large number of merchants, traders and middlemen who further exploited the situation. The peasant now depended on them to sell their produce during harvest time. Because the peasants now shifted to commercial crops, food grain production went down. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 20

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. Liquidity Adjustment Facility: Overnight cash at repo rate within the Statutory Liquidity Ratio limit.

  2. Marginal Standing Facility: Facility outside the Statutory Liquidity Ratio limit.

  3. Bank Rate: Marginal Standing Facility plus one.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 20
  • Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): The LAF consists of overnight as well as term repo auctions. Progressively, the Reserve Bank has increased the proportion of liquidity injected under fine-tuning variable rate repo auctions of range of tenors. The aim of term repo is to help develop the inter-bank term money market, which in turn can set market-based benchmarks for pricing of loans and deposits, and hence improve transmission of monetary policy. The Reserve Bank also conducts variable interest rate reverse repo auctions, as necessitated under the market conditions.

  • Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest. This provides a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity shocks to the banking system.

  • Corridor: The MSF rate and reverse repo rate determine the corridor for the daily movement in the weighted average call money rate. Bank Rate: It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers. The Bank Rate is published under Section 49 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This rate has been aligned to the MSF rate and, therefore, changes automatically as and when the MSF rate changes alongside policy repo rate changes. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 21

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PMABHIM) aims to address the deficiency in critical care and basic healthcare services in rural areas only.

  2. PMABHIM Scheme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 21
  • The Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) is one of the largest pan-India health schemes for strengthening healthcare infrastructure. PM-ABHIM aims to fill the critical gaps in public health infrastructure, especially in critical care facilities and primary care in urban and rural areas. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • The Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) is a Centrally sponsored Scheme. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 22

With respect to the “Money Bill”, consider the following statements:

  1. The decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, in this regard, cannot be questioned in any court of law.

  2. It can be introduced either by a Minister or by a private member, but can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.

  3. The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 22
  • Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of the Money Bills. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final. His decision in this regard cannot be questioned in any court of law or in either House of the Parliament or even the President.

  • The Constitution lays down a special procedure for the passing of the Money Bills in the Parliament. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and that too on the recommendation of the President. Every such Bill is considered to be a Government Bill and can be introduced only by a Minister. After a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its consideration. The Rajya Sabha has restricted powers with regard to a Money Bill. It cannot reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make the recommendations. It must return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, whether with or without recommendations.

  • The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. If the Lok Sabha accepts any recommendation, the Bill is then deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the modified form. If the Lok Sabha does not accept any recommendation, the Bill is then deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha without any change. If the Rajya Sabha does not return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha. Thus, the Lok Sabha has more powers than the Rajya Sabha with regard to a Money Bill. Finally, when a Money Bill is presented to the President, he may either give his assent to the Bill or withhold his assent to the Bill, but he cannot return the Bill for reconsideration of the Houses. Normally, the President gives his assent to a Money Bill, as it is introduced in the Parliament with his prior permission.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

  1. Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour.

  2. Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any hazardous activities or harmless work.

  3. The prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour right is available to both the citizens and the non-citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 23
  • Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. This right is available to both the citizens and the non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State, but also against private persons. Article 23 also provides for an exception to this provision. It permits the State to impose compulsory service for public purposes, as for example, military service or social service, for which it is not bound to pay. However, in imposing such service, the State is not permitted to make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class.

  • Prohibition of Employment of Children in Factories, etc.: Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other hazardous activities, like construction work or railway. But, it does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 24

A person, to be eligible for the election as the President, should fulfil which of the following qualifications?

  1. He should have completed 30 years of age.

  2. He should be qualified for the election as a member of the Lok Sabha.

  3. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 24

A person, to be eligible for the election as the President, should fulfil the following qualifications:

  • He should be a citizen of India.

  • He should have completed 35 years of age.

  • He should be qualified for the election as a member of the Lok Sabha.

  • He should not hold any office of profit under the Union Government or any State Government or any local authority or any other public authority. A sitting President or Vice-President of the Union, the Governor of any state and a Minister of the Union or any State is not deemed to hold any office of profit and hence, qualified as a Presidential candidate.

  • Further, the nomination of a candidate for the election to the office of the President must be subscribed by at least 50 electors as proposers and 50 electors as seconders.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 25

With respect to the “Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)”, consider the following statements:

  1. He holds the office for a period of 7 years or upto the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.

  2. He can also be removed by the President on the same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.

  3. He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 25
  • The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is appointed by the President of India by a warrant under his hand and seal. He holds the office for a period of 6 years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He can resign any time from his office, by addressing the resignation letter to the President. He can also be removed by the President on the same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.

  • The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independence of the CAG:

1. He is provided with the security of tenure. He can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the President, though he is appointed by him.

2. He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.

3. His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament. His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court.

4. Neither his salary nor his rights in respect of leave of absence, pension or age of retirement can be altered to his disadvantage after his appointment.

5. The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances and pensions of the persons serving in that office, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to the Vote of the Parliament. Further, no Minister can represent the CAG in the Parliament (both the Houses) and no Minister can be called upon to take any responsibility for any actions done by him.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 26

Generally, standards in ‘Organic Farming’ are designed to encourage the use of which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 26

Generally, standards in ‘Organic Farming’ are designed to encourage the use of natural substances. It prohibits the use of synthetic pesticides, antibiotics, synthetic fertilizers, genetically modified organisms and growth hormones.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 27

Consider the following statements about the Competition Commission of India (CCI):

  1. It regulates ‘mergers’ and ‘acquisitions’, or ‘takeovers’ taking place in the market.

  2. Its Chairperson and members are eligible for re-appointment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 27
The Competition Act, 2002, established the Competition Commission of India.
  • The Competition Act, 2002, was enacted by replacing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969, on the recommendations of Mr. S. V. S. Raghavan Committee.

Mandate:

  • To check anti-competitive agreements;

  • To prohibit abuse of dominance by strong companies over weak organisations; and

  • To regulate ‘mergers’ and ‘acquisitions’, or ‘takeovers’ taking place in the market.

Tenure:

The Chairperson and the members shall hold office as such for

  • a term of five years;

  • till he/she attains the age of 65 years; the Chairperson and the members shall be eligible for re-appointment.

The Chairperson and other members of the Commission shall be appointed by the Central Government from a panel of names recommended by a Selection Committee, consisting of –

  • the Chief Justice of India or his nominee – Chairperson;

  • the Secretary in the Ministry of Corporate Affairs – Member;

  • the Secretary in the Ministry of Law and Justice – Member;

  • two experts of repute who have special knowledge of, and professional experience in international trade, economics, business, commerce, law, finance, accountancy, management, industry, public affairs or competition matters, including competition law and policy – Members.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 28

Consider the following statements:

  1. Article 263 of the Constitution envisages the establishment of an institutional mechanism to facilitate the co-ordination of policies and their implementation between the Union and the State Governments.

  2. The Inter State Council was set up on the recommendation of the Venkatachaliah Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 28
  • Article 263 of the Constitution envisages the establishment of an institutional mechanism to facilitate the co-ordination of policies and their implementation between the Union and the State Governments.

  • The Inter State Council is a constitutional body set up on the basis of the provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India, by a Presidential Order in 1990, on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission. (Formed during the regime of PM V. P. Singh).

  • Note: The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC), also known as Justice Manepalli Narayana Rao Venkatachaliah Commission, was set up by a resolution of the NDA Government of India, led by Atal Bihari Vajpayee, in 2000, for suggesting possible amendments to the Constitution of India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, International Commercial Arbitration can be initiated in the Supreme Court.

  2. Under Article 143, it is compulsory for the Supreme Court to give its advice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 29
  • The Supreme Court, under Article 136, enjoys the power of granting special leave to appeal from any judgement, decree, order or sentence in any case or matter passed by any Court or Tribunal, except Court Martial.

  • Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, International Commercial Arbitration can also be initiated in the Supreme Court. Under Article 143, the President can refer to the Supreme Court either a question of law or a question of fact, provided that it is of public importance. However, it is not compulsory for the Court to give its advice.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 30

With reference to the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 consider the following statements:

  1. All transactions involving foreign exchange have been classified either as capital or current account transactions.

  2. A 'person resident in India' is defined as a person residing in India for more than 182 days during the preceding financial year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 30
Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999:

The legal framework for the administration of foreign exchange transactions in India is provided by the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.

Under the FEMA, which came into force with effect from 1st June 2000, all transactions involving foreign exchange have been classified either as capital or current account transactions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Resident Indians:

  • A 'person resident in India' is defined in Section 2(v) of FEMA, 1999 as: Barring few exceptions, a person residing in India for more than 182 days during the course of the preceding financial year. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Any person or body corporate registered or incorporated in India.

  • An office, branch or agency in India owned or controlled by a person resident outside India.

  • An office, branch or agency outside India owned or controlled by a person resident in India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 31

With reference to the Rotation and Revolution of Earth, consider the following statements:

  1. As viewed from the North Star or Pole Star the Earth turns clockwise.

  2. Earth’s rotation is slightly slowing with time, thus the day was shorter in the past.

  3. The revolution of the Earth in its orbit around the Sun is independent of the rotation around its axis.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 31

Earth’s rotation is the rotation of the solid Earth around its own axis. The Earth rotates from West to East.

  • Statement 1 is not correct: As viewed from the North Star or Pole Star the Earth turns anti- clockwise. The Earth’s axis of rotation meets its surface at the North Pole, in the northern hemisphere. The South Pole is the other point where the axis of rotation intersects its surface, in Antarctica. The Earth rotates once every twenty-four hours with respect to the Sun and once every 23 hours 56 minutes and 4 seconds with respect to the stars.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Earth’s rotation is slightly slowing with time. It is taking Earth longer and longer to complete one full turn—a day—or, technically, a solar day. The solar day is gradually getting longer because Earth's rotation is slowing down ever so slightly. This is due to the tidal effect of the moon has on the Earth’s rotation. Roughly every 100 years, the day gets about 1.4 milliseconds, or 1.4 thousandths of a second, longer. Two key positions along the orbit are Perihelion– the point of closest approach to the Sun. This occurs on ~3 January, when the Sun-Earth distance is ~146 million kilometres. Aphelion– the point at which Earth is farthest from the Sun. The dates of perihelion and aphelion change slowly with time because the whole orbit rotates slowly anti-clockwise in the ecliptic plane, and the shape of the orbit, as expressed by the eccentricity, changes over time.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The revolution of the Earth in its orbit around the Sun is independent of the rotation around its axis.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 32

With reference to Indian Press in colonial times, consider the following statements:

  1. It played the institutional role of opposition to the Government.

  2. Newspapers were mostly published for nationalistic or public service.

  3. Reach of newspapers was confined to cities and large towns only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 32
  • Statement 1 is correct: Nearly all the major political controversies of the day were conducted through the Press. It also played the institutional role of opposition to the Government. Almost every act and every policy of the Government was subjected to sharp criticism, in many cases with great care and vast learning backing it up. ‘Oppose, oppose, oppose’ was the motto of the Indian Press.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Newspapers were not in those days business enterprises, nor were the editors and journalists professionals. Newspapers were published as a national or public service. They were often financed as objects of philanthropy. To be a journalist was often to be a political worker and an agitator at considerable self-sacrifice.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: The influence of the Press extended far beyond its literate subscribers. Nor was it confined to cities and large towns. A newspaper would reach remote villages and would then be read by a reader to tens of others.

Hence option (a) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 33

Consider the following features:

  1. It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.

  2. For the first time political and administrative functions of the Company were recognised.

  3. Foundations of central administration in India were laid.

The above features were introduced by which act?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 33

Regulating Act of 1773 is of great constitutional importance as:

(a) It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India;

(b) It recognised, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company; and

(c) It laid the foundations of central administration in India.

Features of the Act:

  1. It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor-General was Lord Warren Hastings.

  2. It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor-general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.

  3. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief justice and three other judges.

  4. It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives’.

  5. It strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 34

With reference to Boao Forum For Asia (BFA), consider the following statements:

  1. It is an international not for profit organization modelled on the lines of the World Economic Forum.

  2. India is not a member to this organisation.

  3. Its adherence is to economic development, with a focus on areas including technology innovation, health, education, culture and media in response to the new economy.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 34
  • Statement 1 is correct: Asian countries needed a forum that is created truly from the perspective and for the benefit of Asia, and that can be dedicated to the discussion of Asian issues and aimed at enhancing cooperation and exchanges among Asian countries, and between Asian countries and other parts of the world. In 1998 former Filipino President, Australian Prime Minister, and Japanese Prime Minister proposed the establishment of an “Asian Forum”, one similar to the World Economic Forum. This was unanimously accepted by the related Asian countries. In 2000, the governments of 26 initial countries agreed on the establishment of the Asian Forum, and the Chinese government approved it to be set up in Hainan. Like World Economic Forum, which bases its annual meeting in Davos-Klosters, Switzerland, BFA holds its annual conference in Boao, Hainan on a regular basis. Its Charter state that it is a non-government and non-profit international organization with a permanent principal location and shall hold meetings on a regular basis.

  • Statement 2 is not correct: The representatives from 26 countries, Australia, Bangladesh, Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, China, India, Indonesia, Japan, Iran, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Laos, Malaysia, Mongolia, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, Philippines, Korea, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Tajikistan, Thailand, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Viet Nam held a meeting at Boao, Hainan Province, in China and declared the establishment of Boao Forum for Asia (BFA) on February 27, 2001. In 2006, Israel and New Zealand, and the Maldives in, 2016 joined the Forum, raising the number of countries to 29.

  • Statement 3 is correct: BFA, based in Asia and with a global outlook, adheres to one running theme of economic development, while expanding into five focal areas including technology innovation, health, education, culture and media in response to the new economy. BFA is committed to contributing to the peace, prosperity and sustainable development of Asia and the world. Hence option (c) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 35

With reference to Capital Account Convertibility, consider the following statements:

  1. India has a full convertible capital account policy.

  2. A fully convertible capital account effectively accelerates growth.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 35
  • Statement 1 is not correct: The balance of payments (BOP) of a country records all economic transactions of a country with the rest of the world during a defined period, usually one year. These transactions are broadly divided into two heads – current account and capital account. The current account covers exports and imports of goods and services, factor income, and unilateral transfers. The capital account records the net change in foreign assets and liabilities held by a country. Convertibility refers to the ability to convert domestic currency into foreign currencies and vice versa to make payments for the balance of payments transactions. Current account convertibility is the ability or freedom to convert domestic currency for current account transactions while capital account convertibility is the ability or freedom to convert domestic currency for capital account transactions. The Tarapore Committee (2006), for instance, defined capital account convertibility as the “freedom to convert local financial assets into foreign financial assets and vice versa.” India has a partially convertible capital account policy. This is because an individual or high net-worth investor wanting to invest outside India can invest within an overall limit of $250,000 per financial year under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme for any permitted current or capital account transaction or a combination of both. This means, they can make investments to the tune of up to $500,000 in a calendar year. The scheme, however, is not available to corporates, partnership firms, HUF, Trusts, etc.

  • Statement 2 is correct: A fully convertible capital account provides three key benefits. These are stock market returns, reduction in transaction cost due to free rupee convertibility, and improvement in savings and investments which effectively accelerates growth.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 36

With reference to Allaudin Khilji’s administartion, consider the following statements:

  1. He sought to fix the cost of all commodities in market.

  2. The state set up warehouses and stocked them with food grains

  3. All such administrative reforms done by him met decent success.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 36
  • Statement 1 is correct: Alauddin sought to fix the cost of all commodities from foodgrains, sugar and cooking oil to a needle, and from costly imported cloth to horses, cattle and slave boys and girls. For the purpose, he set up three markets at Delhi-one market for foodgrains, the second for costly cloth, and the third for horses, slaves and cattle.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The state itself set up warehouses and stocked them with food grains which were released whenever there was a famine or a threat of a shortfall in supply.

  • Statement 3 is not correct: Not all the measures taken by Allaudin Khilji were successful, but they mark important new departures. Some of the experiments failed on account of lack of experience, some because they were not well conceived, or on account of opposition of vested interests.

Hence option (a) is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 37

What causes wind to deflect towards right in the Northern Hemisphere?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 37
  • The rotation of the Earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force. It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force.

  • The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar. The higher the pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity of the wind and the larger is the deflection in the direction of wind. As a result of these two forces operating perpendicular to each other, in the low-pressure areas the wind blows around it. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified. That is the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 38

With reference to the Gavi Gangadhareshwara Temple, consider the following statements:

  1. The temple is situated in Bengaluru, Karnataka.

  2. It was built by Kempegowda I in its present form.

  3. The shrine is a protected structure under the Karnataka Ancient and Historical Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act 1961.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 38
  • Statement 1 is correct: The temple is also known as Gavipuram Cave Temple. The temple derives its name from this combination of topographical features and mythology: gavi, meaning cave, and a representation of Shiva as Gangadhareshwara (dhara meaning adorning and eshwara meaning divinity). Thus, Gavi Gangadhareswara means the Cave of the Lord who adorns the Ganga. The name of the locality, Gavipuram (puram meaning dwelling or settlement), too draws its name from the cave temple. It is dedicated to the Hindu deity, Lord Shiva.The temple is built inside a cave located in the Gavipuram area of Bengaluru. The temple is unique from all other temples of Karnataka due to the presence of two huge discs in the foreground of the shrine.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The history of the temple dates back to the 9th century. It is believed that the temple was cut out of a rock in the 9th century. It was used by the great sage Gowthama to perform penance. Later in the 16th century, Kempegowda I, the founder of Bangalore, revamped and extended the temple. Artistic depiction of the temple is found in the painting of the British artist James Hunter in 1792.

  • Statement 3 is correct: The shrine is a protected structure under the Karnataka Ancient and Historical Monuments, and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act 1961.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 39

The main reason that the Earth experiences highest temperatures in the subtropics in the northern hemisphere rather than at the equator is:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 39
  • The amount and the intensity of insolation vary during a day, in a season and in a year. The factors that cause these variations in insolation are: (i) the rotation of Earth on its axis; (ii) the angle of inclination of the Sun’s rays; (iii) the length of the day; (iv) the transparency of the atmosphere; (v) the configuration of land in terms of its aspect.

  • Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics due to more cloud cover. Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 40

With reference to E-20 fuel, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a blend of 20% ethanol with diesel.

  2. It can reduce the vehicle's performance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 40

E-20 Ethanol Fuel:

About:

  • The ethanol Blending programme has been a key focus area of the Government to achieve Atma Nirbharta in the field of energy.

  • E20 is a blend of 20% ethanol with petrol. The Government aims to achieve a complete 20% blending of ethanol by 2025, and HPCL and other oil marketing companies are setting up 2G-3G ethanol plants that will facilitate the progress. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Ethanol acts as an octane booster, which can lead to improved engine performance and reduced engine knock. This is because ethanol has a highoctane rating and when blended with gasoline, it raises the overall octane rating of the fuel, which can result in improved performance and efficiency, particularly.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 41

Consider the following statements:

  1. Puducherry is a Union Territory of India, formed out of 5 territories of the former French India.

  2. Article 239A enabled the Parliament to create by law, Legislature having a Council of Minister for Puducherry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 41
  • Puducherry is a Union Territory of India, formed out of 4 territories of the former French India, viz., Pondicherry (Puducherry), Karaikal, Mahé and Yanaon (Yanam).

  • Pondicherry and Karaikal are surrounded by Tamil Nadu, Mahe is surrounded by Kerala and Yanam is surrounded by Andhra Pradesh. They were erstwhile French colonies.

  • The 14th Constitution Amendment Act of 1962 added Article 239A, which enabled the Parliament to create by law, Legislature having a Council of Minister for Puducherry.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 42

Consider the following statements:

  1. Tea needs well-drained loamy soils and gentle slopes.

  2. Jute grows well on alluvial soil and requires high temperature, heavy rainfall and humid climate.

  3. Cotton requires high temperature, light rainfall, frost-free days and bright sunshine for its growth.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 42
  • Cotton requires high temperature, light rainfall, 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine for its growth. It grows best on black and alluvial soils.

  • Jute grows well on alluvial soil and requires high temperature, heavy rainfall and humid climate.

  • Tea is a beverage crop grown on plantations. This requires cool climate and well distributed high rainfall throughout the year for the growth of its tender leaves. It needs well-drained loamy soils and gentle slopes. Labour in large number is required to pick the leaves. Kenya, India, China and Sri Lanka produce the best quality tea in the world.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 43

Consider the following statements about the Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve:

  1. The Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve is an ecologically diverse landscape in Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

  2. Mostly moist deciduous forests constitute the area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 43
  • The Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve is the most dramatic and ecologically diverse landscape in Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh. The Reserve is located at the junction of the hill ranges, with topography ranging from high mountains, shallow valleys and plains.

  • Moist deciduous forests constitute 63% of the area. It is very rich in flora and fauna due to its tropical moist deciduous vegetation, which covers the majority of the area and tropical dry deciduous vegetation to its southern part, minimum disturbed landscapes, endemism and genetic variation.

  • The geology of the area is unique and varied from schists and gneisses with granite intrusions, to sand stones, shales, limestone, basaltic lava and bauxite.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 44

Consider the following statements about the characteristics of monsoonal rainfall:

  1. Rainfall received from the south-west monsoons occurs between June and September.

  2. Monsoonal rainfall is largely governed by relief or topography.

  3. The monsoon rains occur in wet spells of a few days’ duration at a time.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 44

Characteristics of Monsoonal Rainfall:

  • Rainfall received from the south-west monsoons is seasonal in character, which occurs between June and September.

  • Monsoonal rainfall is largely governed by relief or topography. For instance, the windward side of the Western Ghats register a rainfall of over 250 cm. Again, the heavy rainfall in the north-eastern states can be attributed to their hill ranges and the Eastern Himalayas.

  • The monsoon rainfall has a declining trend with increasing distance from the sea. Kolkata receives 119 cm during the south-west monsoon period, Patna 105 cm, Allahabad 76 cm and Delhi 56 cm.

  • The monsoon rains occur in wet spells of few days duration at a time. The wet spells are interspersed with rainless interval, known as ‘breaks’. These breaks in rainfall are related to the cyclonic depressions mainly formed at the head of the Bay of Bengal and their crossing into the mainland.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 45

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Himalayas in the Darjeeling and Sikkim regions lie in an east-west direction.

  2. In Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram, the Himalayas are in the north-south direction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 45
  • The Himalayas in the Darjeeling and Sikkim regions lie in an east-west direction, while in Arunachal Pradesh they are from south-west to the north-west direction. In Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram, they are in the north-south direction.

  • The approximate length of the Great Himalayan range, also known as the Central Axial range, is 2,500 km from east to west, and their width varies between 160-400 km from north to south.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 46

Consider the following statements:

  1. Crescent shaped dunes, called barchans, with the points or wings directed away from the wind direction.

  2. Seif is similar to barchan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 46
Crescent shaped dunes, called barchans, with the points or wings directed away from wind direction, i.e., downwind, form where the wind direction is constant and moderate, and where the original surface over which sand is moving is almost uniform. Parabolic dunes form when sandy surfaces are partially covered with vegetation. That means parabolic dunes are reversed barchans with wind direction being the same. Seif is similar to barchan with a small difference. Seif has only one wing or point. This happens when there is a shift in the wind conditions. The lone wings of seifs can grow very long and high.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 47

The ‘Asia Protected Areas Partnership (APAP)’ has been launched by which of the following organisations?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 47
  • India is the Co-chair of the IUCN-supported Asia Protected Areas Partnership (APAP) for 3 years and it would, in this capacity, assist other Asian countries in managing their Protected Areas (PAs). The APAP is a regional platform to help the governments and other stakeholders to collaborate for more effective management of the PAs in the region.

  • India brings to the APAP a rich protected area heritage and many decades of conservation experience. Since the establishment of its first formal national park in 1936, India has acquired expertise in many different facets of protected area management, including the mitigation of human-wildlife conflict, visitor management, law enforcement and threatened species recovery.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 48

With respect to the “International Methane Emissions Observatory”, consider the following statements:

  1. It was launched at the 12th BRICS Summit.

  2. It is a data-driven, action-focused initiative by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), with support from the European Commission.

  3. ‘An Eye on Methane (2021)’ is the report by the International Methane Emissions Observatory 2021.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 48
The International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO) was launched at the G20 Summit, on the eve of the COP26 UN Climate Conference in Glasgow. It is a data-driven, action-focused initiative by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), with support from the European Commission to catalyse dramatic reduction of methane emissions, for achieving the Paris Agreement goals. An Eye on Methane (2021) is the report by the IMEO 2021. It will provide the means to prioritize actions and monitor commitments made by the state actors in the Global Methane Pledge (Launched at Glasgow, COP26) – a US and EU-led effort by over 30 countries to slash methane emissions by 30% by 2030. India has not signed up for the pledge.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 49

With respect to the “Polluter Pays”, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the commonly accepted practice that those who produce pollution should bear the costs of managing it to prevent damage to the human health or to the environment.

  2. It is a part of the Rio Declaration of 1992.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 49
The ‘Polluter Pays’ principle is a commonly accepted practice that those who produce pollution should bear the costs of managing it to prevent damage to the human health or to the environment. For instance, a factory that produces a potentially poisonous substance as a by- product of its activities is usually held responsible for its safe disposal. The polluter pays principle is a part of a set of broader principles to guide sustainable development worldwide (formally known as the 1992 Rio Declaration).
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 50

Consider the following statements regarding Sarojini Naidu:

  1. She accompanied Gandhiji to London for the first session of the Round Table Conference for Indian–British cooperation.

  2. She was elected as the first Indian woman president of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1925.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 50
  • Sarojini Naidu, was an Indian independence activist, poet, and politician. She was born on February 13, 1879, in Hyderabad, India.

  • She joined the Indian national movement in the wake of partition of Bengal in 1905. She accompanied Gandhiji to London for the inconclusive second session of the Round Table Conference for Indian–British cooperation (1931). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • Naidu was elected as the first Indian woman president of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1925(Kanpur Session) and continued to hold this position till 1928. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 51

Consider the following statements:

  1. ‘Solar Radiation Modification’ refers to the intentional modification of Earth's longwave radiative budget with the aim of reducing warming.

  2. Ocean fertilisation is a deliberate increase of nutrient supply to near-surface Ocean to enhance biological production.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 51
  • Solar Radiation Modification: This refers to the intentional modification of Earth's shortwave radiative budget with the aim of reducing warming.

  • Ocean Fertilisation: Deliberate increase of nutrient supply to near-surface Ocean to enhance biological production through which additional carbon dioxide from the atmosphere is sequestered. This can be achieved by the addition of micro-nutrients or macro-nutrients. Ocean fertilisation is regulated by the London Protocol.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 52

The ‘Bhadbhut Project’ has been constructed on which of the following rivers?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 52
The Bhadbhut Project is planned to be a 1.7-km causeway-cum-weir barrage, across the Narmada River, 5 km from Bhadbhut village and 25 km from the mouth of the river, where it flows into the Gulf of Khambhat. The barrage will stop most of the excess water flowing out of the Sardar Sarovar Dam from reaching the sea and thus, create a “sweet water lake” of 600 mcm (million cubic metres) on the river.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 53

With respect to the “Regenerative Agriculture”, consider the following statements:

  1. It describes farming and grazing practices that reverse climate change by rebuilding soil organic matter and restoring degraded soil biodiversity.

  2. It is dynamic and holistic, incorporating permaculture and organic farming practices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 53
  • Regenerative agriculture describes farming and grazing practices that reverse climate change by rebuilding soil organic matter and restoring degraded soil biodiversity – resulting in both carbon drawdown and improving the water cycle.

  • The key to regenerative agriculture is that it not only “does no harm” to the land but improves it, using technologies that regenerate and revitalize the soil and the environment. Regenerative agriculture leads to healthy soil, capable of producing high quality, nutrient dense food, while simultaneously improving, rather than degrading land, and ultimately leading to productive farms and healthy communities and economies.

  • It is dynamic and holistic, incorporating permaculture (sustainable and self- sufficient agricultural ecosystems) and organic farming practices, including conservation tillage, cover crops, crop rotation, composting, mobile animal shelters and pasture cropping, to increase food production, farmers’ income and especially, topsoil. It has been promoted to counter the loss of the world’s fertile soil and biodiversity, along with the loss of indigenous seeds and knowledge.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 54

With respect to the “Puga valley”, consider the following statements:

  1. It is India's first Geothermal Energy Development Project.

  2. It is located in Ladakh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 54
ONGC (The Oil and Natural Gas Corporation) will implement India's first Geothermal Energy Development Project in Ladakh in the Puga valley. The development will be done in 3 phases. Puga and Chumathang in Eastern Ladakh are the most promising geothermal fields in India. The Puga valley is situated in the south-eastern part of Ladakh.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 55

Consider the following statements regarding ‘MicroLEDs’:

  1. These LEDs are self-illuminating diodes, which means they emit light when an electric current passes through them.

  2. MicroLED displays typically use inorganic materials, such as gallium nitride.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 55

Explanation

  • MicroLEDs are self-illuminating diodes, which means they emit light when an electric current passes through them, without requiring a separate backlight or illumination source. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • MicroLED displays typically use inorganic materials, such as gallium nitride (GaN), to create the tiny, self-emitting pixels that make up the display. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • These materials offer several advantages, including high brightness, efficiency and durability.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 56

Which of the following countries are not the members of the Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN).

  1. India

  2. Sri Lanka

  3. Laos

  4. Thailand

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 56
Option a is correct.

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding Fathers of ASEAN, namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. Brunei Darussalam then joined on 7 January 1984, Viet Nam on 28 July 1995, Lao PDR and Myanmar on 23 July 1997, and Cambodia on 30 April 1999, making up what is today the ten Member States of ASEAN. Every year on 8th of August is observed as ASEAN Day.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 15 - Question 57

Consider the following statements:

  1. All four rivers-Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri flows into the Bay of Bengal.

  2. The Narmada, Mahi, Sabarmati and the Tapti have a westward flow and run into the Arabian sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?